Spring Final Exam Review

1. When comparing the momentum of 2 moving objects, which of the following is correct? a. the object with the higher velocity will have less momentum if the masses are equal b. the more massive object will have less momentum if its velocity is greater c. the less massive object will have less momentum if the velocities are the same d. the more massive object will have less momentum if the velocities are the same 2. The change in an object’s momentum is equal to a. the product of the mass of the object and the time interval b. the product of the force applied to the object and the time interval c. the time interval divided by the net external force d. the net external force divided by the time interval 3. A force is applied to stop a moving shopping cart. Increasing the time interval over which the force is applied a. requires a greater force c. requires a smaller force b. has no effect on the force needed d. requires the same force 4. A softball with a mass of 0.11 kg moves at a speed of 12 m/s. Then the ball is hit by a bat and rebounds in the opposite direction at a speed of 15 m/s. What is the change in momentum of the ball? a. -1.3 kg*m/s c. -0.33 kg*m/s b. -1.6 kg*m/s d. -3.0 kg*m/s 5. A ball with a mass of 0.15 kg and a velocity of 5.0 m/s strikes a wall and bounces straight back with a velocity of 3.0 m/s. What is the change in momentum of the ball? a. -0.3 kg*m/s c. -0.15 kg*m/s b. -1.2 kg*m/s d. -7.50 kg*m/s 6. A large moving ball collides with a small stationary ball. The momentum a. of the large ball decreases & the momentum of the small ball increases b. of the small ball decreases & the momentum of the large ball increases c. of the large ball increases & the momentum of the small ball decreases d. does not change for either ball 7. To increase momentum on a baseball with a bat, one should a. swing harder c. both a & b b. follow through with his/her swing d. neither a nor b 8. Two skaters faced each other. One skater’s mass is 60 kg and the other’s mass is 72 kilograms. If the skaters push away from each other without spinning, a. the 60 kg skater travels at a lower momentum b. their momentum are equal but opposite c. their total momentum doubles d. their total momentum decreases 9. In a two-body collision, a. momentum of the total system is conserved b. momentum of the total system is increased c. momentum of the total system is decreased d. momentum fluctuates 10. The law of conservation of momentum states that a. the total momentum of all objects interacting with on another usually equals the total final momentum b. the total initial momentum of all objects interacting with one another does not equal the total final momentum c. the total momentum of all objects interacting with one another is zero d. the total momentum of all objects interacting with one another remains constant regardless of the nature of the forces between objects 11. A pool ball collides with a stationary identical pool ball in an elastic head-on collision. After the collision, which is true of the first ball? a. it maintains its initial velocity c. it comes to rest b. it has one-half its initial velocity d. it moves in the opposite direction 12. Momentum is a. inertia at rest c. inertia in motion b. the first Law of Motion d. change in velocity of an object

13. The change in momentum of an object is called a. force c. acceleration b. impulse d. velocity 14. Work is done when a. the displacement is not zero b. the displacement is zero c. the force is zero d. the force and displacement are perpendicular 15. The more powerful the motor is, a. the longer the time interval for doing the work is. b. the greater the ability to do the work is. c. the shorter the time interval for doing the work is. d. the shorter the workload is. 16. A child moving at a constant velocity carried a 2 N ice cream cone 1 m across a level surface. What is the net work done on the ice cream cone? a. 0 J c. 2 J b. 0.5 J d. 20 J 17. A construction worker pushes a wheelbarrow 5.0 m with a horizontal force of 50.0 N. How much work is done by the worker on the wheelbarrow? a. 10 J c. 250 J b. 1250 J d. 55J 18. A horizontal force of 200 N is applied to move a 55 kg television set across a 10 m level surface. What is the work done by the 200 N force on the television set? a. 4000 J c. 2000 J b. 5000 J d. 6000 J 19. Which of the following energy forms is involved in winding a pocket watch? a. electrical energy c. gravitational potential energy b. non-mechanical energy d. elastic potential energy 20. Which of the following energy forms is NOT involved in hitting a tennis ball? a. kinetic energy c. gravitational potential energy b. chemical potential energy d. elastic potential energy 21. Which of the following energy forms is involved in a pencil falling from a desk? a. kinetic energy b. non-mechanical potential energy c. gravitational potential energy d. elastic potential energy and kinetic energy 22. A 3.00 kg toy falls from a height of 10.0 m. Just before hitting the ground, what will be its kinetic energy? a. 98.0 J c. 29.4 J b. 0.98 J d. 294 J 23. What is the kinetic energy of a 0.135 kg baseball thrown at 40.0 m/s? a. 54.0 J c. 108 J b. 87.0 J d. 216 J 24. Which of the following energy forms is associated with an object in motion? a. potential energy c. non-mechanical energy b. elastic potential energy d. kinetic energy 25. Which of the following energy forms is associated with an object due to its position? a. potential c. total b. positional d. kinetic 26. The main difference between kinetic energy and potential energy is that a. kinetic energy involves position and potential energy involves motion b. kinetic energy involves motion and potential energy involves position c. although both energies involve motion, only kinetic involves position d. although both energies involve position, only potential involves motion 27. Which of the following energy forms is associated with an object due to its position relative to the Earth? a. potential energy c. gravitational potential energy b. elastic potential energy d. kinetic energy

28. What of the following is the rate at which energy is transferred? a. potential energy c. mechanical energy b. kinetic energy d. power 29. What is the average power supplied by a 60.0 kg secretary running up a flight of stairs rising vertically 4.0 m in 4.2 s? a. 380 watts c. 610 watts b. 560 watts d. 670 watts 30. The ratio of useful work output to total work input is called the a. Fulcrum c. efficiency b. pivot point d. mechanical advantage 31. A substance’s temperature increases as a direct result of a. energy being removed from the particles of the substance b. kinetic energy being added to the particles of the substance c. a change in the number of atoms and molecules in the substance d. a decrease in the volume of the substance 32. Which of the following is proportional to the kinetic energy of atoms and molecules? a. elastic energy c. potential energy b. temperature d. thermal equilibrium 33. If two small beakers of water, one at 70 degrees C and one at 80 degrees C, are emptied into a large beaker, what is the final temperature of the water? a. less then 70 c. between 70 and 80 b. greater than 80 d. the water temp will fluctuate 34. All of the following are widely used temperature scales except a. Kelvin c. Celsius b. Fahrenheit d. Joule 35. If 546 K equals 273 degrees C, then 500 K equals a. 227 degrees C c. 773 degrees C b. 250 degrees C d. 1000 degrees C 36. A substance registers a temperature change from 20 degrees C to 40 degrees C. This corresponds to an incremental change of a. 20 K c. 36 K b. 40 K d. 313 K 37. Energy transferred as heat always moves from an object a. at high temperature to an object at low temperature b. at low temperature to an object at high temperature c. at low kinetic energy to an object at high kinetic energy d. of higher mass to an object of lower mass 38. Which of the following terms describes a transfer of energy? a. heat c. temperature b. internal energy d. kinetic energy 39. How much energy is absorbed or lost when 10 kg of water increases its temperature from 56 to 67 degrees C? (Specific Heat of water is 4.184) a. 460.24 J c. 5400 J b. 800 J d. 123 J

40. The figure above shows how the temperature of 10.0 g of ice changes as energy is added. Which of the following statements is correct? a. The water absorbed energy continuously, but the temperature increased only when all of the water was in one phase. b. The water absorbed energy sporadically, and the temperature increased only when all of the water was in one phase. c. The water absorbed energy continuously, and the temperature increased continuously. d. The water did not absorb energy.

41. At what point on the figure above does the substance undergo a phase change? a. A c. C b. B d. D 42. The use of fiberglass insulation in the outer walls of a building is intended to minimize heat transfer through what process? a. Conduction c. convection b. Radiation d. vaporization 43. On a sunny day at the beach, the reason the sand gets hot and the water stays relatively cool is attributed to the difference in which property between water and sand? a. mass density c. temperature b. specific heat d. thermal conductivity 44. The transfer of energy as heat caused by the collision of molecules is called a. Convection c. contact b. Conduction d. radiation 45. The transfer of energy by the movement of fluids or gases with different temperatures is called a. convection c. contact b. conduction d. radiation 46. Energy from the sun reaches Earth by a. conduction and radiation c. conduction and convection b. radiation only d. conduction only 47. Convection currents rise in air because a. hot air rises and cold air remains stagnant b. cool air descends and hot air rises c. the molecules in hot air move faster d. hot air has less friction 48. Which method of energy transfer does not involve the movement of matter? a. convection c. radiation b. conduction d. none of the above 49. According to the first law of thermodynamics, a. there is no such thing as a perpetual motion machine b. the energy of a system is constant c. the total energy used in any process is conserved d. in any process there is a decrease in potential energy 50. Which of the following statements is true? a. energy as heat flows from a lower temperature to a higher temperature b. energy as heat flows from a higher temperature to a lower temperature c. the amount of heat in a closed system is a constant d. energy as heat flowing into an object is determined by the amount of work done on the object 51. What is the voltage across a resistor of 5.0 ohms that carries a current of 5.0 A? a. 100 V c. 4 V b. 25 V d. 1 V 52. A flashlight bulb with a voltage of 4.5 V across it has a resistance of 8 ohms. How much current is in the bulb filament? a. 3.7 amps c. 9.4 amps b. 1.8 amps d. 0.56 amps 53. The power rating on light bulbs are measure of the a. rate that they give off heat and light b. voltage they require c. density of the charge carriers d. amount of negative charge passing through them 54. If a 75 W light bulb operates at a voltage of 120 volts, what is the current in the bulb? a. 0.63 amps c. 9000 amps b. 1.6 amps d. .00011 amps 55. If a 325 Watt heater has a current of 6.0 amps, what is the resistance of the heating element? a. 88 ohms c. 9 ohms b. 54 ohms d. 11 ohms

56. If the voltage across a bulb in a camping lantern is 9.0 V, what is the voltage across the battery used to power it? a. 1.0 volts c. 9.0 volts b. 3.0 volts d. 18 volts 57. If the voltage across a pair of batteries used to power a flashlight is 6.0 V, what is the voltage across the flashlight bulb? a. 3.0 volts c. 9 volts b. 6.0 volts d. 12 volts 58. Three resistors with values of 4.0 ohms, 6.0 ohms, and 8.0 ohms are connected in series. What is their equivalent resistance? a. 18 ohms c. 6 ohms b. 8 ohms d. 1.8 ohms 59. Three resistors with values of 3.0 ohms, 6.0 ohms and 12 ohms are connected in series. What is the equivalent resistance of the combination? a. 0.58 ohms c. 7.0 ohms b. 1.7 ohms d. 21 ohms 60. Three resistors with values of 4 ohms, 6 ohms and 10 ohms are connected in parallel. What is their equivalent resistance? a. 20.0 ohms c. 6.0 ohms b. 7.3 ohms d. 1.9 ohms 61. Three resistors with values of 3 ohms, 6 ohms and 12 ohms are connected in parallel. What is the equivalent resistance of this combination? a. 0.26 ohms c. 9.0 ohms b. 1.7 ohms d. 33 ohms 62. Two resistors with values of 6 ohms and 12 ohms are connected in parallel. This combination in connected in series with a 4.0 ohm resistor. What is the overall resistance of the combination? a. 0.50 ohms c. 8.0 ohms b. 2.0 ohms d. 22 ohms

63. What is the equivalent resistance for the resistance in the figure above? a. 2.3 ohms c. 13 ohms b. 5.2 ohms d. 22 ohms 64. Which of the following is the time it takes to complete a cycle of motion? a. amplitude c. frequency b. period d. revolution 65. Which of the following is the number of cycles or vibrations per unit of time? a. amplitude c. frequency b. period d. revolution 66. How are frequency and period related in wave motion? a. they are directly related d. they are inversely related b. they both measure the time per cycle c. they both measure the number of cycles per unit of time 67. An amusement park ride has a frequency of 0.05 Hz. What is the ride’s period? a. 5 seconds c. 20 seconds b. 10 seconds d. 40 seconds 68. Which of the following is a single non-periodic disturbance? a. pulse wave c. sine wave b. periodic wave d. transverse wave 69. Which of the following is a wave whose source is some form of repeating motion? a. pulse wave c. sine wave b. periodic wave d. transverse wave

70. In the waveform of the longitudinal wave shown above, the compressed regions correspond to a. the wavelength c. troughs b. crests d. the mass

71. In the waveform of the longitudinal wave shown above, the stretched regions correspond to a. the wavelength c. troughs b. crests d. the mass 72. A periodic wave has a wavelength of 0.50 m and a speed of 20 m/s. What is the wave’s frequency? a. 0.02 Hz c. 40 Hz b. 20 Hz d. 10 Hz 73. A musical tone sounded on a piano has a frequency of 410 Hz and a wavelength of 0.80 meters. What is the speed of the sound wave? a. 170 m/s c. 330 m/s b. 240 m/s d. 590 m/s 74. Which of the following is the interference that results when individual displacements on the same side of the equilibrium position are added together to form the resultant wave? a. constructive c. cancelled out b. destructive d. backwards 75. Which of the following is the interference that results when individual displacements on opposite sides of the equilibrium position are added together to form the resultant wave? a. constructive c. cancelled out b. destructive d. backwards

76. Which of the following types of interference will occur in the figure above? a. constructive c. cancelled out b. destructive d. backwards

77. Which of the following types of interference will occur in the figure above? a. constructive c. cancelled out b. destructive d. backwards

78. How many nodes and antinodes are shown in the standing wave above? a. two nodes and three antinodes b. one node and two antinodes

79. How many nodes and antinodes are shown in the standing wave above? a. four nodes and four antinodes c. four nodes and five antinodes b. four nodes and three antinodes d. five nodes and four antinodes

80. Sound waves a. are a part of the electromagnetic spectrum b. do not require a medium for transmission c. are longitudinal waves d. are transverse waves 81. Which of the following is the number of cycles per unit of time? a. infrasonic wave c. ultrasonic wave b. frequency d. pitch 82. Which has the higher speed of sound? a. water c. methyl alcohol b. oxygen d. copper 83. Which statement about sound waves is correct? a. They generally travel faster through solids than though gases b. They generally travel faster through gases than through solids c. They generally travel faster through gases than liquids d. They generally travel faster than light 84. Compared to the speed of light, sound travels a. Faster c. at about the same speed b. slower 85. The trough of the transverse wave curve corresponds to what on the longitudinal wave? a. the point where molecules vibrate at a right angle to the direction of wave travel b. a region of low elasticity c. condensation d. rarefaction 86. A sound wave is a a. longitudinal wave c. transverse wave b. shock wave d. standing wave 87. What is the common formula for work? a. w=Fd(sin theta) c. w=Fd2 b. w=Fd d. w=F2d 88. Heat flow occurs between two bodies in thermal contact when they differ in which of the following properties? a. Mass c. density b. specific heat d. temperature 89. High temperature is related to a. low kinetic energy c. no difference in kinetic energy b. high kinetic energy d. zero net energy 90. Anything that we have just discussed on light and color is a possibility on the final.