4Th Battalion, 2Nd Aviation Regiment

UNCLASSIFIED 4th Battalion, 2nd Aviation Regiment

GUNNERY STUDY GUIDE

CW2 William Warren BN MG Aug 2012

Note: Answers are denoted in underlined italics References after the question are by publication and page number. ATM with Change 1 Gunnery Manual with Change 1-10-2 UNCLASSIFIED 1. What are the three levels of safing? (ATM, pg. 4-170)

2. What is the minimum engagement range for a LOAL Dir for a K model missile with 7.5 degrees offset? Your altitude is 300 feet above the target. ) (FM 3-04.140, pp. 5-28/32)

3. The gun duty cycle is as follows: _, __round bursts w/_____ between bursts followed by a cooling ____period. For burst limiter settings of other than 50 – no more than __ rounds within __seconds before allowing gun to cool for __minutes, after which the cycle can be repeated. (-10-2, pg. 4-90)

4. Default range for the pilot is ___; default range for the CPG is ____. (-10-2, pg. 4-17)

5. The RF missile is capable of servicing LOAL targets via the TADS handover and through RFHOs to a maximum range of ______. (ATM, pg. 4-188)

6. A flashing asterisk (*) in the Range and Range Source Status section of your HAD indicates ______. (-10-2, pg 4-34)

7. What is the minimum range for a AGM-114K-2A missile? ______(AWR 2007D-A05)

8. The M789 HEDP round is capable of penetrating more than_ inches of RHA at a range of _____ meters. (FM 3-04.140, pg. 5-6)

9. The four “T’s” associated with aircraft control (firing techniques) during rocket engagements are? ______. (ATM, pg. 4-171; FM 3-04.140, pg. 7-6)

10. With LOAL HI selected, a SAL Hellfire will clear a ______feet/meter mask ____ feet/meters away. (circle feet or meter) (FM3-04.140 pg 5-29, 5-30)

11. When performing firing techniques, which crewmember will operate the SAFE/ARM button? ______- (ATM, pg. 4-170)

12. T/F (circle) Scan to scan correlation is available in the Air Targeting Mode (ATM).

13. The WARNING regarding 30mm stoppage states: If ___or more rounds have been fired in the preceding ___minutes and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for ______. Aircraft crewmembers should remain in the aircraft and continue positive gun control. (- 10-2, pg. 4-92)

14. T / F In the air surveillance mode, NTS target symbols are displayed. (-10-2, pg. 4-57)

15. With the current configuration of our flight line aircraft (pods on pylons 1 and 4), what rocket zones and quantities are available? ______, and ____ (-10-2, pg. 4-94)

16. The Mk66 motor fuse/warhead combination currently supported by our software includes ______. (-10-2, pg. 4-93)

17. The maximum effective range of the 30mm is ______to ______. (ATM, pg. 4-202)

18. Up to __ RFI symbols can be displayed on the ASE page. (-10-2, pg 4-65) 19. M439/M261 (MPSM)/M66 engagements at ranges less than ______and/or speeds greater than __knots are not authorized. (-10-2, pg. 4-94)

20. What is the max airspeed you can fly when engaging with a AGM-114F-A?______( AWR 2008D-A72

21. T / F (circle) The BACKSCATTER inhibit message can be overridden by the weapon trigger 2nd detent. (Safety inhibit) (-10-2, pg. 4-38)

22. While performing a cued search, the RFI #1 emitter is not merged. What will happen if the cued search button is pressed a second time? (-10-2, pg. 4-66)

23. Internal errors can develop in-flight due to temperature changes within the internal components of the TADS (thermal drift). When confidence in the boresight is suspect, an internal boresight should be accomplished. This procedure is recommended ___ times every ______. (-10-2, pg. 4-80)

24. When do FCR target symbols become stale? Moving? ______. Stationary? ______. (-10-2, pg. 4- 52)

25. What altitude should the gunner ensure that the IR Illum(M278) rocket detonate above the ground? ______AIN 002-11

26. If the FCR is operating in GTM and you do a cued search, but the detected emitter is airborne what will the FCR do? (-10-2, pg 4-66)

27. Can you have a rocket pod on an inboard pylon in combat? (AWR 2002D-A13)

28. To prevent IAT break lock during missile launch, you should offset the aircraft centerline _to_ degrees to the side the SAL missile being launched. (FM 3-04.140, pg. 5-37)

29. Describe the following two FCR icons: (-10-2, pg. 4-52)

30. TYPE: ___ TYPE: ___ STATIONARY / MOVING (circle one) STATIONARY / MOVING (circle one)

31. The gun turret is capable of azimuth movement of 86 degrees left or right of the helicopter centerline, ______elevation, (_____ elevation within ______of aircraft centerline), and ______depression. (-10-2, pg. 4-89)

32. T / F (circle) the recognition method (Kentucky Windage) burst on target technique may be used for adjusting 30mm gun, PD and MPSM rocket engagements. (Review the Wall in Space concept, FM 3- 04.140, pg. 4-10)

33. For RF missile engagements <1 Km, the maximum allowable offset angle is _ degrees. (-10-2, pg 4- 30)

34. T / F (circle) Under NVS; the AWS will continue to follow IHADSS LOS when operating in NVS FIXED mode. (-10-2, pg. 4-89)

35. The minimum safe employment range for the IZLID is ______. (AWR 2007D-A34) 36. How do you make the alternate NTS the NTS on the FCR page? (-10-2, pg 4-49)

37. The minimum range to target when firing Flechette rockets is ______. The effective range with MK66 rocket motors is __ to _ _ . (-10-2, pg 4-94)

38. There is no indication in the cockpit when the SQUAT ORIDE switch is in the AIR position. What is the hazard associated with the SQUAT ORIDE switch being in the AIR position with the aircraft on the ground? (-10-2, pg. 4-85)

39. T / F (circle) The AGM-114K missile features dual warheads for defeating reactive armor. (FM 3- 04.140, 5-63)

40. While performing diving fire, the Low Altitude Warning audio sounds. What actions are required by the crew? (ATM, pg. 4-167.0)

41. What is the maximum range of the FCR in the Terrain Profile Mode? (-10-2, pg. 4-61)

42. ______knocks a target out of action temporarily. It is the standard for rocket engagements. ______of a target occurs when it suffers at least __ percent or more casualties or damage. (FM 3-04.140, pg. B-7)

43. ______is caused by the motion of the helicopter as the projectile leaves the weapon. (FM 3- 04.140, pg. 4-5)

44. The four types of ballistics are ______, ______, ______, and ______(FM 3-04.140, pg. 4- 1)

45. Although rotor downwash influences the accuracy of all weapon systems, it most affects the rockets. Maximum error is induced by rotor downwash when the weapon system is fired from an aircraft hovering IGE/OGE. (FM 3-04.140, pg. 4-4)

46. Angular Rate Error is an example of what type of ballistic? (FM 3-04.140, pg. 4-3)

47. In the event of a GUN EL MISTRACK fault, the gun will be ______. Gun azimuth may not provide proper wire strike protection due to wire cutter angle. (-10-2, pg 4-90)

48. Maximum effective range is defined ______. (FM 3-04.140, pg. 7-2)

49. The two types of fires are ______and ______. (FM 3-04.140, pg. 7-1)

50. The three modes of fires are______, ______, and ______. (FM 3-04.140, pg. 7-1)

51. Moving fire is an engagement from a moving helicopter ______. Running fire is an engagement from a moving helicopter ______. (FM 3-04.140, pg. 7-1/2)

52. Because the rocket is accelerating as it leaves the launcher, the force acting upon the fins causes the nose of the rocket to turn into the wind. This is known as the ______. (FM 3-04.140, pg. 4-32)

53. In zoom mode the FCR will conduct ______scans per scanburst. (-10-2, pg 4-47)

54. T/F If the pilot actions rockets, his steering cursor will be visible to both pilots. (-10-2, pg 4-29)

55. How many priority fire zone can be active at one time? (-10-2, pg4-54) 56. The arcs and tics on the FCR GTM and RMAP depict ______each? (-10-2, pg 4-55)

57. ______must be aligned before reliable FCR target information is available. (-10-2, pg 4-84)

58. The MPSM submunition (M73) will land _ degrees off center __percent of the time and __ degrees off center __ percent of the time. (FM 3-04.140, pg. 5-11)

59. An MPSM submunition that lands _ degrees off center has a __ percent probability of producing casualties within a _____ radius and a submunition landing __ degrees off center has a __ percent probability producing casualties within a ______radius. (FM 3-04.140, pg. 5-11)

60. Each M73 submunition has a shaped charge that can penetrate more than ______of armor. (FM 3-04.140, pg. 5-11)

61. Fragmentation effects can be expected from the M789 HEDP 30mm round within a ______radius. (FM 3-04.140, pg. 5-6)

62. What is the approximate muzzle velocity of the 30mm round? (FM 3-04.140, pg. 5-6)

63. What are the visual markings of the M789 30mm HEDP round? (FM 3-04.140, pg. 5-7)

64. What are the visual markings of the M788 30mm TP round? (FM 3-04.140, pg. 5-7)

65. Arming of the hellfire missile is based on a __G acceleration and occurs between ______after launch. (FM 3-04.140, pg. 5-22)

66. Maximum velocity of the Hellfire missile is ______. (FM 3-04.140, pg. 5-22)

67. The M261 MPSM has 9 submunitions and provides range settings from _____ meters to about _____ meters. (FM 3-04.140, pg. 5-10)

68. Fire delivered on a target, which cannot be seen by the firing unit, is know as ______. (FM 3- 04.140, pg. 7-1)

69. The bursting radius of the M151 HE “10 Pounder” is ______; however, high-velocity fragments can produce a lethality radius of more than ______. (FM 3-04.140, pg. 5-10)

70. The M789 HEDP can penetrate in excess of ______of RHA at 2500 meters. (FM 3-04.140, pg. 5-6)

71. You fire a burst of 30mm at a target, which misses to the left about 10 meters. You then adjust your line of sight to the right of the target and fire again hitting the target. What technique did you use? (FM 3-04.140, pg. 7-8)

72. You fire a pair of rockets at a target, which misses long. You then laze the approximate center of the rocket’s impact point and manually add/subtract the range error to fire your next pair. What technique did you use? (FM 3-04.140, pg. 7-7)

73. The ______button is used to select the next target in the priority list as the NTS target. (-10- 2, pg 4-49)

74. RFI emitters will stay full intensity until ______after they cease transmission. (-10-2, pg 4-65) 75. AWS (30mm) harmonization procedures should be accomplished between ___ to ______from the target. (-10-2, pg 4-92, ATM, pg. 4-206)

76. When conducting AWS Harmonization, the CPG positions the dashed reticle (GUN DH reticle) over the Mean Point of Impact (MPI) of the rounds then presses the ______(-10-2, pg. 4-92)

77. The AWS ammo handling system has a maximum capacity of _____. (-10-2. pg. 4-89)

78. Draw what a L model missile with home on jam will look like on the weapons page. (-10-2, pg 4- 100)

79. The gun duty cycle is as follows: ______(-10-2, pg. 4-90)

80. What is the “WARNING” associated with the 30mm? (-10-2, pg. 4 - 90)

81. The WP will provide fire control solution for the 30mm up to a range of ______. (ATM, pg. 4- 202; -10-2, pg. 4-89)

82. In the event of a power loss the gun is spring driven to ______in elevation to prevent dig-in during landing (-10-2 pg. 4-89)

83. The warning regarding 30mm stoppage states: If ___ or more rounds have been fired in the preceding __minutes, and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for __ minutes. Aircraft crewmembers should ______. (-10-2, pg. 4-92)

84. The AWS will / will not (circle one) continue to follow IHADSS LOS when operating in the NVS FIXED mode. (-10-2, pg. 4-89)

85. When the AWS is in the fixed gun position, the WP will command the turret to ___ degrees in elevation, and aligns the gun forward in azimuth to the aircraft centerline. (-10-2, pg. 4-89)

86. In the event of IHADSS failure with gun selected and the HMD as the selected sight, the gun will remain at its last commanded position. Gun firing is _____. When the gun is de-actioned, it will ______. (–10-2, pg. 4-22)

87. The rate of fire for the 30 mm is ______. (-10-2 pg. 4-89)

88. ______is the single largest contributor to perceived dispersion associated with the AH-64 30 mm cannon. (FM 3.04-140, pg. 4-18)

89. When are the pylons automatically commanded to the flight mode ON position (FLT STOW)? ______What angle are they fixed? (–10-2, pg. 4-93)

90. Due to the possibility of surging the engines, do not fire rockets from inboard stations. Fire no more than ___ with two ____ launchers every _____ seconds or fire with only ___outboard launcher installed without restrictions. (-10-2, pg. 4-94)

91. The target area coverage achieved by one M261 MPSM warhead ______as range increases. (FM 3- 04.140, pg. 5-11)

92. There are ____ submunitions in each M261 MPSM warhead. (FM 3-04.140, pg. 5-10) 93. In each M267 MPSM training warhead there are __inert submunitions and ______smoke producing submunitions. (FM 3-04.140, pg. 5-12)

94. What is a RAD and what does it do as it relates to the MPSM rocket? (FM 3-04.140, pg. 5-10)

95. Do not fire rockets with the M433 RC fuse in situations where they might fly closer than ___from other airborne helicopters. (-10-2, pg.4-94)

96. The Aerial Rocket Subsystem can be employed independently by either crewmember or in the cooperative mode when the active sight is ______. (-10-2, pg.4-95)

97. How can the crew check/verify the rocket type within each of the rocket zones and the amount of gun ammo loaded on preflight? Can these setting be change on the MPD load page? (-10-2, pg. 4-96)

98. The pylons articulate independently and are controlled by the weapons processor through a range of ______. (-10-2, pg. 4-93)

99. Live-fire testing shows that most rockets achieve best effectiveness between ______and ______meters. (FM 3-04.140, pg.. 7-3)

100. Firing rockets at longer ranges will decrease ______dispersion but will increase ______dispersion. (FM 3-04.140, pg. 4-12)

101. What is the definition of Ripple fire? (TC 1-251, task 1458 pg. 4-263)

102. What symbol is displayed on the RF missile icon to indicate that the missile is ready to receive the target? (-10-2, pg. 4-100)

103. When the RF missile-training mode is enabled, what symbol will be displayed on all tactical RF missile icons? (-10-2, pg. 4-108)

104. How long is the allowable training mode missile elapsed ON time? (–10-2, pg. 4-108)

105. If the allowable elapsed ON time for a training mode missile is exceeded, what symbol will appear on the affected missile icon? OT What does this symbol mean? (-10-2, pg. 4-100)

106. What is “transfer alignment”? (–10-2, pg. 4-100)

107. What are the three acquisition sources that may provide targeting information for an RF missile target handover? _____,___,or ___ (–10-2, pg. 4-100. FM 3-04.140, pg. 5-45)

108. When will a centered “T” be displayed in the missile constraints box? (-10-2, pg. 4-108)

109. Why would the RF missile LOBL INHIBIT option be used? (ATM, Task 1458, pg. 4-188)

110. Which page has the command to “arm” the hellfire launchers without pressing the master “arm/safe” button? (-10-2, pg. 4-88)

111. At what time and for how long is the message “LASE NN TRGT” displayed in the High Action Display during LOAL SAL missile launches? (–10-2, pg. 4-32)

112. What does the message “TARGET DATA?” mean in the HAD? (-10-2, pg. 4-33) 113. The missile counter-counter measures (MSL CCM) button enables the counter-counter measure routine within the laser missile. This selection ______the pulse repetition frequency (PRF number of pulses per second) tracking capability of the missile to the precise PRF of the selected laser code. (SHWS, pg. D-65)

114. For the AGM-114L, to prevent the missile from hitting the ground during launch, the minimum launch altitude is __ meters. (FM 3-04.140, pg. 5-48)

115. During a remote designation, the designator should neither be within __ degrees of the gun target line nor more than __ degrees from the target centerline (FM 3-04.140, pg. 5-31)

116. Minimum SAL LOAL engagement ranges should be increased by ___ meters if the target is 50 to 400 feet below the aircraft. (FM 3-04.140, pg. 5-32)

117. Minimum SAL LOAL engagement ranges should be increased by ____ meters if the target is 401 to 800 feet below the aircraft. (FM 3-04.140, pg. 5-32)

118. Backscatter applies to ______. (FM 3-04.140, pg. 5-35)

119. List the seven laser related missile performance distracters. (FM 3-04.140, pp 5-39/40)

120. The 2nd target inhibit button is used to prevent secondary target information from being handed over from the FCR to the ______RF missile during a ______target engagement. (-10-2, pg. 4-104)

121. A RF missile uses a curved trajectory to induce relative motion between a stationary target and its background by flying an off-axis path to the target. This is called ______. (FM 3-04.140, pg. 5- 54)

122. The AUTO button will enable automatic missile power management. In the AUTO mode, RF missiles will be powered up at __ minute intervals. This does / does not (circle one) occur when missiles are WASed. (SHWS, pg. D-86)

123. The RF missile will attempt to launch LOBL on a stationary target between the ranges of ___KM to ____KM. (ATM, pg. 4-188)

124. At a 20 degree offset launch angle an RF missile azimuth flight profile will use a maximum cross range of ____ meters at 8 km. (SHWS, pg. B-91)

125. The LOAL LO/HI mode constraints box is driven by what is displayed in the FCR/TSD page ACQ source window. True / False (ATM, pg. 4-183) (It is from the acquired WP, TGT, threat, hazard, or CM in the B5 position)

126. What is the minimum engagement ranges for a LOAL DIR SAL “K” missile at zero degree offset? At 7.5 degree offset? (FM 3-04.140, pg. 5-28)

127. What is the minimum engagement range of a LOBL SAL “K” missile with a 0 degree offset angle from the aircraft datum line? With a 20 degree offset? (FM 3-04.140, pg. 5-27)

128. The LOBL missile constraint box is +/ -______degrees. (-10-2, pg. 4-30)

129. The LOAL missile constraint box is +/ -____ degrees. (-10-2, pg. 4-30) 130. If the RF missile is tracking and the target range is greater than or equal to _____, the allowable constraints angle is ______. (-10-2, pg. 4-30)

131. If the RF missile is tracking and the target range is less than _____, the allowable constraints angle is ______. (-10-2, pg. 4-30)

132. When a SAL missile is displayed in WHITE and flashes between a bold and normal line, that missile is selected as ______in the firing sequence. (-10-2, pg. 4-99)

133. Define the following SAL missile status messages: (-10-2, pg. 4-99)

B ______M ______M ______T F A ______

134. Define the following RF missile status messages: (-10-2, pg. 4-99)

______S ______R ______T F

135. What is the minimum engagement range of a LOAL-LO SAL “K” missile with a 0 degree offset angle from the aircraft datum line? ______m With a 7.5 degree offset? ___ (FM 3-04.140, pg. 5-29)

136. What is the minimum engagement range of a LOAL-HI “K” missile with a 0 degree offset angle from the aircraft datum line? ______m With a 7.5 degree offset? ______m. (FM 3-04.140, pg. 5-30)

137. Where is the hazard area for a radiating RF missile located? (FM 3-04.140, pg. 5-42)

138. The Training Missile Emulator (TME) can simulate the functioning of __RF missiles on each launcher. (-10-2, pg. 4-108)

139. What is the weight of an AGM-114L Longbow HELLFIRE missile? (-10-2, pg. 6-14)

140. In what three modes does the RF missile operate? ______,______,______(FM 3-04.140, pg. 5- 41)

141. If the sight selected is FCR, what type of missile page will be displayed when the missile system is actioned or the missile button is selected? (-10 pg. 4-85)

142. With LOAL LO selected, a SAL Hellfire will clear a _____ feet/meter mask ____ feet/meters away.

143. In the NORM and MAN mode, regardless of actual inventory, how many missiles will the WP reserve for the priority channel? (ATM, pg. 4-176)

144. The FCR has been selected as the active sight. The RFHO data (position error data taken from both aircraft and/or FCR range deviation error data) has exceeded optimum parameters to a magnitude that safety inhibits are implemented. What HAD Sight Status Field message will be displayed? (-10-2, pg. 4-33) 145. The GTM/RMAP scan sectors are: WFOV __ degrees, MFOV __ degrees, NFOV __ degrees and ZFOV __ degrees. (-10-2, pg. 4-55)

146. Which FCR priority scheme emphasizes stationary ground targets? . (-10-2, pg. 4-64)

147. A single scan burst in GTM narrow FOV will give __ scans. (-10-2, pg. 4-47)

148. When an RF missile detects a moving target with a range between ___ and ___, it will radiate and attempt _____. (ATM, pg. 4-188)

149. ______improves STI detection and classification and Moving Target Indicator (MTI) classification. (-10-2, pg. 4-48)

150. When FCR is the selected sight and the weapon system is actioned, the ___ target is ______and the NTS symbol will become ______. (-10-2, pg. 4-53)

151. Once the NTS target is frozen, and a target is detected that out-prioritizes the NTS target, the ______will be automatically displayed on that target symbol and______. (-10-2, pg. 4-53)

152. The ______switch is used to rapidly orient the FCR antenna to the highest priority RFI emitter. (-10-2, pg. 4-8)

153. A cued search may be performed on a Fine Detect or Course Detect as long as the target is within + / - ____ degrees of the ______. (-10-2, pg. 4-66)

154. Up to __ RFI emitters can be displayed. (-10-2, pg. 4-52)

155. The RFI number one emitter will be displayed with a ______around the threat Symbol and target type. (-10-2, pg. 4-65)

156. After RFI emitters have ceased radiating for ______, the symbols will change to______. After ______of no transmission receipt, the symbols will ______. (-10-2, pg. 4-65)

157. Powering the RLWR ON enables up to ______detected RLWR threats to be displayed on the ______of the ASE footprint. (-10-2, pg. 4-116)

158. Powering the RFI ON enables up to ten detected RFI threats to be displayed on the ______of the ASE footprint. (-10-2, pg. 4-116)

159. The RFI system detects and processes _____,______,______,______radar signals. (-10-2, pg. 4-113)

160. What does the message “RFI DATA?” mean? (-10-2, pg. 4-33)

161. What is the caution associated with use of the FCR TEMP ORIDE button? . (-10-2, pg. 4-63)

162. Which Priority scheme would you use if you expected to engage moving ground targets? (-10-2, pg. 4-64)

163. What will happen if you press the display ZOOM switch on the RH ORT Grip (-10-2, pg. 4-50)

164. Regarding TPM obstacle symbols, a maximum of ___ symbols may be displayed on the FCR page TPM format or IHADSS C-Scope formats at any one time. (-10, pg. 4-53) 165. CAUTION: ______selection in extreme cold weather (-10 deg C or colder) could result in damage to the FCR. (-10-2, pg. 4-63)

166. A shot-at symbol will be displayed ______target symbols during/after a scan burst and prior to a hellfire missile launch. The symbol is displayed on top of a target symbol following a HF missile launch at that target. (-10-2, pg. 4-53)

167. Terrain Profile Mode wide format displays a 180-degree scan sector when ground speed decreases below__ knots and until increasing above __ knots. Narrow format displays a 90-degree scan sector when the ground speed increases above __ knots and until decreasing below __ knots. (-10-2, pg. 4- 62)

168. Selecting an RFI detected emitter using the display cursor will command ______to the line of bearing of the selected emitter. (-10-2, pg. 4-53)

169. Continuing to press and release the cued switch will ______. (-10-2 pg. 4-66)

170. Friendly RFI emitters are displayed in ____ and enemy/gray emitters are displayed in ______. (-10-2 pg. 4-65)

171. Selection of other than #1 emitter with the CAQ enabled places ______over that emitter. (-10-2 pg. 4-66)

172. When operating in the TESS/weapons TNG mode, what is displayed in the weapons inhibit section of the HAD when the weapon system is “armed?” (-10-2, pg. 4-110)

173. What is entered on the keyboard unit (KU) to select auto range? (–10-2, pg. 4-17)

174. The minimum altitude for auto ranging is approximately __ ft. AGL with a _____degree look down angle. (SHWS, pg. D-16)

175. Can the flight crew override the “NAV DATA INVALID” message in the sight status field of the High Action Display? (Safety inhibit) (-10-2, pg. 4-39)

176. Can the flight crew override the “ACCEL LIMIT” message in the weapon inhibit status field of the High Action Display? (Safety inhibit) (-10-2, pg. 4-38)

177. The Shot-At icon associated with SAL autonomous missile engagements is derived using ______regardless of which crewmember conducts the engagement. (-10-2, pg. 3-91)

178. When the CAQ button is used to select an FCR target symbol, the coordinate data is stored in __. (- 10-2, pg. 3-88)

179. On the COORD page, pressing any VAB L1 – L6 makes a waypoint, control measure or target threat an ______. (-10-2, pg. 3-115)

180. The ______to action a weapon (WAS) has control of that weapon. Exception: If the CPG has rockets actioned via the ______and the pilot actions rockets,______is in effect. (-10-2, pg. 4-6) 181. The Radar Jammer icon is displayed as a ______in the center of the ______Icon whenever the radar jammer is transmitting. (-10-2, pg. 4-118)

182. Where will an uncorrelated RWR detect icon be displayed? (-10-2, pg. 4-118)

183. The LINK function is used in the CPG station to set the ______when the selected sight is TADS or to set the ______when the selected sight is FCR. In the pilot station, it is used only to set the ______. (-10-2, pg. 4-13)

184. Navigation range is entered automatically when a coordinate point (TXX, WXX, or CXX) is selected as ______source and the ______is pressed. (-10-2, pg. 4-17)

185. The CPG is required to ______the selected sight to the acquisition LOS via the RHG. If the CPG selects (changes) an acquisition source, the slave function is automatically ______. (-10-2, pg. 4-62)

186. If the gun system is actioned and the WP has detected a NO GO status, a ______weapon status field message will be displayed and the ______anytime the trigger is pulled. (ATM, pg. 4-203)

187. Hover fire rocket engagements with 6PD (10 pounders) can be achieved at a range of approximately ______meters without changing aircraft pitch angle. (ATM, pg. 4-196)

188. The 30mm is limited to +/-_____ in azimuth when the rockets are actioned simultaneously.

189. The 30mm is limited to ______in azimuth on the side of the next missile to be fired if it is on the inboard pylon.

190. Pilot and CPG shall perform their ______prior to entering the Forward Area Refuel Point (FARP). (-10-2, pg. 8-14)

191. When the Hellfire missile system is actioned in the manual mode, the MSL ADV switch on the collective mission grip is ______. When the SAL missile mode is NORM or RIPL the switch is ______. (-10-2, pg. 4-8)

192. When ______, or are predicted, and Hellfire operations are expected, the launcher ARM/SAFE switch located on each Hellfire launcher must be manually placed in the ARM position prior to lift off. It is possible for this switch to be rendered inoperative due to ______. (-10-2, pg. 8-3)

193. When operating at ______, ensure anti-ice is in the manual mode. Failure of the anti-ice/detector during ______could result in severe Np/Nr droop. (-10-2, pg. 8-12)

194. FLIR image quality in both MTADS and MPNVS can degrade over time. The FLIR SANUC process is performed to optimize FLIR image quality. What does SANUC stand for? (-10-2, pg. 4-71)

195. ______should take place before initiating SANUC due to the removal of TADS or PNVS video. The SANUC should not be performed if ______cannot be maintained. (-10-2, pg. 4-71)

196. What is the time of flight for a 3Km 30mm shot?

197.The RF missile can engage stationary targets between ____ and ____. Gunnery Manual pg 5-64

198. When an RF missile uses DBS, and the target is on the left side of the missile centerline, the missile will DBS to the _____ side of the target. 199.When the 30mm is fired in the FIXED mode the bullet impact will be at ______.

200.The flechette rocket detonates about _____ before the predetermined range.