1. What Are Two Properties That Protons and Neutrons Have in Common?

Test Unit 2 Science 10 Mr Harvey

1. What are two properties that protons and neutrons have in common? A. Both are found in the nucleus, and they have almost exactly the same relative mass B. Both have the same electric charge (1–), and they have almost exactly the same relative mass C. Both are found in the area surrounding the nucleus, and they have almost exactly the same relative mass D. Both have the same electric charge (1+), and they have almost exactly the same relative mass

2. A glass of milk has both mass and volume. What accounts for most of the volume that the milk takes up in the glass? A. The space taken up by the tiny electrons that surround the nucleus of each atom B. The protons, which have the highest relative mass of any subatomic particle C. The neutrons, which have the highest relative mass of any subatomic particle D. The nucleus, which contains the protons and neutrons in each atom

3. What is the nuclear charge on an atom of nitrogen? A. 0 B. 7+ C. 7– D. 3–

4. Which element is described in the following sentence? “An atom of this element has 26 electrons and 30 neutrons.” A. Iron B. Beryllium C. Zinc D. Aluminum

5. Which element is in period three and group two? A. Scandium B. Magnesium C. Boron D. Sodium

6. What do fluorine, chlorine, bromine and iodine have in common? A. They all have seven protons in their nucleus B. They all belong to the noble gas family of elements C. They all belong to period 17 on the periodic table D. They all belong to the halogen family of elements

7. Which of the following is the most accurate description of a covalent molecule? A. One or more metal atoms and one or more non-metal atoms share a bonding pair of electrons in their valence electron shells B. At least one electron from a positive ion transfers to a negative ion to create a neutral compound C. Two or more non-metal atoms share a bonding pair of electrons in their valence electron shells D. Electrons transfer from one or more non-metal atoms to at least one other non-metal atom

8. How do Lewis diagrams differ from Bohr diagrams? A. Lewis diagrams cannot be used to illustrate covalent molecules, while Bohr diagrams can show covalent molecules B. Lewis diagrams show only the bonding (valence) electrons, while Bohr diagrams show all electrons in the atoms involved C. Lewis diagrams are not used to illustrate ionic compounds, while Bohr diagrams can illustrate ionic compounds D. Lewis diagrams show much more detail and information about the atoms involved than Bohr diagrams 9. Examine the following compound:

What is the most accurate description and name of this compound? A. A Bohr diagram of carbon dioxide B. A Lewis diagram of carbon dioxide C. A Bohr diagram of sodium sulphide D. A Bohr diagram of lithium oxide

10. An unknown sample of rock if found to contain very large, perfectly formed pink crystals in the shape of cubes. If the unknown crystals turned out to be a pure substance, which the following would most likely be true? A. The unknown substance would be an ionic compound, since the lighter colours are often associated with ionic compounds B. The unknown substance would be a covalent compound, since covalent compounds generally form at lower temperatures C. The unknown substance would be an ionic compound, since the ions will line up and form perfect crystals like this if possible D. The unknown substance would be a covalent compound, since the shared bonding electrons in the valence shells make the compound appear shiny

11. A compound forms between magnesium and bromine. Which of the following statements would be true? A. The compound that forms would be covalent, its name would be magnesium dibromide, and its chemical formula would be

B. The compound that forms would be ionic, its name would be magnesium bromide, and its chemical formula would be MgBr2 C. The compound that forms would be covalent, its name would be magnesium bromide, and its chemical formula would be MgBr D. The compound that forms would be ionic, its name would be magnesium bromide, and its chemical formula would be MgBr

12. Examine the following compound: Mn2O3. Which of the following statements is true? A. The name of this ionic compound is manganese oxide B. The name of this ionic compound is manganese (III) oxide C. The name of this covalent compound is manganese (III) oxide D. The name of this covalent compound is nitrogen trioxide

– 13. What is the name if the ClO2 polyatomic ion? A. Chlorite B. Chloride C. Chromate D. Chlorate

14. What is the name of the following covalent compound: Se3O7? A. Triselenium oxide B. Selenium heptoxide C. Triselenium heptoxide D. Selenium oxide

15. CuSO4 is an ionic compound that is used for a variety of tasks. It can be sprayed on fruits to control fungus growth, it can be mixed in solutions to test for proteins and sugars, and it burns a bright blue-green.

What is the chemical name for CuSO4? A. Copper sulphate B. Copper (I) sulphate C. Copper sulphur oxide D. Copper (II) sulphate 16. You are told that a compound is formed between cobalt and another element. Which of the following statements is true? A. Cobalt forms only ionic compounds, and cobalt forms a Co2+ ion B. Cobalt forms both covalent and ionic compounds with all other C. Cobalt forms only ionic compounds, and cobalt is a multivalent metal with both Co2+ and Co3+ ions D. Cobalt forms both covalent and ionic compounds with non-metal elements

17. What is the name of the compound (NH4)3PO3? Why is special about this compound? A. Ammonium phosphite; this covalent compound is made up of two polyatomic ions, ammonium and phosphite B. Ammonium phosphate; this ionic compound is made up of two polyatomic ions, ammonium and phosphate C. Ammonium phosphate; this covalent compound is made up of two polyatomic ions, ammonium and phosphate D. Ammonium phosphite; this ionic compound is made up of two polyatomic ions, ammonium and phosphite

18. CH4 = methane

NH3 = ammonia C6H12O6 = glucose H2O = water

Why are the binary covalent compounds CH4, NH3, C6H12O6 and H2O special? A. Their naming is different from the usual method of naming binary covalent compounds, as they were discovered before a naming system was developed B. Each compound contains a polyatomic ion that behaves like a non-metal, as it shares electrons instead of transferring them C. All four compounds can be classified as either ionic or covalent, depending on the temperature D. None of these covalent compounds can be created in a chemistry lab. Each is formed naturally

19. Scandium and nitrogen form an ionic compound. Which of the following statements is true? A. The compound they form is ScN. Ionic compounds are written with the smallest whole number ratio

B. The compound they form is ScN3. Ionic compounds are written so that the negative and positive charges balance

C. The compound they form is Sc3N3. Ionic compounds are written so that the negative and positive charges balance

D. The compound they form is Sc3N. Ionic compounds are written so that the negative and positive charges balance

20. Most portable barbeques use propane tanks, attached to the outside of the appliance, to provide the combustible propane to cook food.

Which of the following is the correct balanced reaction?

A. C3H8 + 5O2 → 3CO2 + 4H2O

B. C3H8 + O2 → CO2 + H2O

C. C3H8 + O2 → 3CO2 + 2H2O

D. 2 C3H8 + 10O2 → 6CO2 + 8H2O

21. The following depicts the formation of methanol. What would be the skeleton equation for this reaction?

A. C + Cl2 + O2 → CH3ClH

B. C + H2 + O2 → CH3OH

C. C2 + H2 + O2 → CH3OH

D. C + H + O → CH3OH

22. The following depicts the formation of methanol.

If the formula for methanol is CH3OH, what would be the balanced chemical equation for this reaction?

A. C + 2H2 + 2O → CH3OH

B. 2C + 2H2 + O2 → 2CH3OH

C. 2C + 4H2 + O2 → 2CH3OH

D. C3 + 2H2 + O2 → 2CH3OH

23. Balance the following skeleton equation:

Fe + Cl2 → FeCl3

A. Fe + Cl2 → FeCl3

B. Fe + 3Cl2 → 2FeCl3

C. 2Fe + 2Cl2 → 2FeCl3

D. 2Fe + 3Cl2 → 2FeCl3

24. Balance the following skeleton equation:

Pb(NO3)2 + AlCl3 → PbCl2 + Al(NO3)3

A. Pb(NO3)2 + 2AlCl3 → PbCl2 + 2Al(NO3)3

B. 2Pb(NO3)2 + AlCl3 → PbCl2 + Al(NO3)3

C. Pb(NO3)2 + 3AlCl3 → 2PbCl2 + 3Al(NO3)3

D. 3Pb(NO3)2 + 2AlCl3 → 3PbCl2 + 2Al(NO3)3

25. Write and balance the chemical equations for the following reaction:

glucose + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water

A. C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O

B. C6H12O6 + O2 → CO2 + H2O

C. C6H12O6 + 3.5O2 → 2CO2 + 3H2O

D. 2C6H12O6 + 4O2 → 4CO2 + 6H2O

26. Write and balance the chemical equation for the following reaction:

ammonium carbonate → ammonia + carbon dioxide + water (NH4)2CO3 → NH3 + CO2 + H2O

A. (NH4)2CO3 → 2NH3 + 2CO2 + 2H2O B. 2(NH4)2CO3 → 2NH3 + CO2 + H2O

C. (NH4)2CO3 → NH3 + CO2 + H2O

D. (NH4)2CO3 → 2NH3 + CO2 + H2O

27. Which of the following common kitchen items is classified as being an acid? A. Baking soda B. Dish soap C. Eggs D. Lemon juice 28. In a test of pH levels, a glass of milk was found to have a pH of 6.0. A glass of grape juice had a pH of 3.0. What is the relationship between the pH levels of the milk and grape juice? A. The grape juice is 1000 times more acidic than the milk B. The grape juice is 3 times more acidic than the milk C. The milk is 1000 times more acidic than the grape juice D. The milk is 3 times more acidic than the grape juice

29. In describing acids and bases, acids are described as being “sour”, while bases are “bitter”. If this is the case, why should chemicals never be tested by taste or smell? A. Human taste is not accurate enough to distinguish between “sour” and “bitter” B. pH cannot be measured by smell C. Some acids and bases are very corrosive, and can burn your throat, stomach, nose, and skin on contact D. Some bases are sour, and some acids are bitter

30. Which of the following items would turn blue litmus paper red? A. Ammonia B. Eggs C. Pure water D. Tomatoes

31. What colour would phenolphthalein indicator be in a solution with a pH of 10? A. Blue B. Colourless C. Pink D. Yellow

32. Tomato juice normally has a pH of about 4, which can cause indigestion in some people. By adding water, however, the juice becomes less acidic. Which indicator would best reveal when the pH would rise to 6? A. Bromothymol blue B. Litmus C. Methyl orange D. Methyl red

33. An unknown material must be identified in a chemistry lab. Several properties of the material were noted once it has been dissolved in water:

I. The material conducted electricity. II. The material made a phenolphthalein solution appear colourless. III. The material would irritate human skin. IV. The material had no effect on various metals tested.

Which of the following is the most accurate conclusion based on the results listed? A. The results are inconclusive B. The unknown material is a strong acid C. The unknown material is a weak acid D. The unknown material is a weak base

34. What is the name of the compound H2CrO4 when it is present in an aqueous solution? A. Chromeatic acid B. Chromic acid C. Hydrochromic acid D. Hydrogen chromate acid

35. What is the chemical name of the compound H2S when it is present in an aqueous solution? A. Hydrogen sulphur acid B. Hydrosulphuric acid C. Sulphuric acid D. Sulphurous acid 36. Which of the following statements would be true of a solution with a pH of 3.1? A. The solution would conduct electricity, would not react with metals, and would contain H+ ions B. The solution would conduct electricity, would react with metals, and would contain H+ ions C. The solution would conduct electricity, would react with metals, and would contain OH– ions D. The solution would not conduct electricity, would react with metals, and would contain H+ ions

37. Which of the following is the best definition of a salt? A. Sodium chloride B. Any chemical compound that has been iodized in food products to help prevent goiter C. A mineral found in seawater, Canadian mines and rock deposits D. An ionic compound that is formed during the reaction of an acid and a base

38. What is the name of the reaction type that occurs when acids and bases react to form a salt and water? A. Acidification B. Neutralization C. Basifying D. Combustion

39. Metal oxides, such as MgO, can dissolve in water. What is true about the solution these metal oxides form? A. The solution is acidic B. The solution is salty C. The solution is basic D. The solution is neutral

40. Non-metal oxides, such as N2O5, can dissolve in water. What is true about the solution these non-metal oxides form? A. The solution is acidic B. The solution is basic C. The solution is neutral D. The solution is salty

41. Acid precipitation appears to effect lakes in eastern Canada far more than those in western Canada. Which of the following statements helps to explain why? A. Lakes in eastern Canada do not have natural calcium carbonate deposits to neutralize the acid precipitation like western Canadian lakes do B. There are no sources of acid precipitation in western Canada, so the problem only exists in eastern Canada C. Calcium carbonate deposits decrease the pH of lakes found in eastern Canada, but not in western Canada D. Governments in western Canada have been liming their lakes for many years, while eastern Canadian provinces have only been liming for the past 10 years

42. What are the products of the following acid-base reaction between hydrofluoric acid and ammonium hydroxide?

HF + NH4OH →

A. NHF2 + H2O

B. NF4F + H2O

C. NH3 + HF + H2O

D. NH4F + H2O

43. In the following acid-base neutralization reaction, what term best describes the sodium acetate produced?

CH3COOH + NaOH → NaCH3COO + H2O A. Salt B. Base C. Acid D. Neutralization agent 44. An unknown chemical is burned in the presence of oxygen. The powder produced after burning is then dissolved in water, and the pH of the solution measures 10.2. What could the unknown chemical be? A. Calcium, Ca

B. Glucose, C6H12O6

C. Methanol, CH3OH

D. Silicon dichloride, SiCl2

45. Burning phosphorous in the presence of oxygen creates a brilliant white flame, and white flecks are deposited on the inside of the burning container. If water is added to the white flecks, what colour would the indicator methyl red be when added to the solution? A. Blue B. Colourless C. Red D. Yellow

46. Which of the following elements is rarely found in organic molecules? A. Oxygen B. Hydrogen C. Zinc D. Carbon

47. Which of the following compounds would most likely be classified as being inorganic?

A. C2H8

B. K2HC6H5O7

C. C8H10N4O2 D. KCl

48. Which of the following compounds is a hydrocarbon?

A. C6H14

B. C6H12O6

C. C8H10N4O2

D. CH3CH2OH

49. Which of the following compounds is an alcohol?

A. C4H9OH

B. C6H12O6

C. C8H10N4O2

D. C6H14

50. By adding one oxygen molecule, and removing one hydrogen, the compound butane can become the compound C4H9OH. What would be a likely name for this new compound? A. Butanic acid B. Tetracarbon decahydrogen oxide C. Butanol D. Pentanol

51. Which description would best describe the compound shown below?

C8H10N4O2 A. Inorganic atom B. Organic atom C. Inorganic molecule D. Organic molecule

53. In a chemical reaction, a hydrocarbon compound reacts with the diatomic element oxygen. What type of reaction is this? A. Single replacement B. Formation C. Double replacement D. Combustion

54. Which of the following chemical reactions could be classified as either a double replacement reaction or as an acid-base neutralization?

A. AgNO3 + Na2CrO4 → Ag2CrO4 + NaNO3

B. NaOH + FeCl3 → NaCl + Fe(OH)3

C. NaCl + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + HCl D. NaOH + HCl → NaCl + HOH

52. Which description would best describe the compound shown below?

A. Inorganic atom B. Organic molecule C. Inorganic molecule D. Organic atom

55. What type of reaction is shown below, and what is the balanced formula equation for this reaction?

magnesium + water → magnesium hydroxide + hydrogen gas

A. Single replacement; Mg + H2O → Mg(OH) 2 + H2

B. Double replacement; Mg2 + 3H2O → 2Mg(OH) 2 + H2

C. Double replacement; Mg2 + 2H2O → Mg(OH) 2 + H

D. Single replacement; Mg + 2H2O → Mg(OH)2 + H2

56. Is the following reaction a synthesis, decomposition, single replacement, double replacement, neutralization (acid-base), or combustion reaction?

C10H8 + 12O2 → 10CO2 + 4H2O

A. Single replacement B. Synthesis C. Combustion D. Decomposition 57. Is the following reaction a synthesis, decomposition, single replacement, double replacement, neutralization (acid-base), or combustion reaction?

Na2CO3 → Na2O + CO2

A. Synthesis B. Combustion C. Decomposition D. Single replacement

58. What type of reaction is shown below, and what is the balanced formula equation for this reaction?

copper metal + silver nitrate → silver metal + copper II nitrate

A. Synthesis; Cu + AgNO3 → Ag + Cu(NO3)2

B. Single replacement; Cu + 2AgNO3 → Ag2 + Cu(NO3)2

C. Double replacement; Cu2 + 2AgNO3 → 2Ag2 + Cu(NO3)2

D. Single replacement; Cu + 2AgNO3 → 2Ag + Cu(NO3)2 59. Is the following reaction a synthesis, decomposition, single replacement, double replacement, neutralization (acid-base), or combustion reaction?

NaOH + H2CO3 → Na2CO3 + H2O

A. Single replacement B. Neutralization C. Synthesis D. Decomposition

60. Is the following reaction a synthesis, decomposition, single replacement, double replacement, neutralization (acid-base), or combustion reaction?

Li2O + H2O → LiOH

A. Single replacement B. Combustion C. Synthesis D. Decomposition

61. Why does increasing the temperature of the reactants increase the rate of a chemical reaction? A. Heat energy increases the size of the molecules of reactants, and therefore the molecules react more frequently B. Heat energy causes some of the reactants to evaporate, increasing the concentration of the reactants C. Heat energy causes the particles of the reactants to move faster, and therefore react with each other more frequently D. Heat energy helps to lower the amount of overall energy that is required for the reaction to occur

62. Why are many types of food stored in refrigerators? A. Bacteria do not grow well in dark places B. Refrigerators often contain enzymes that slow the rate of food spoiling reactions C. The lower temperatures cause the chemical reactions that spoil food to occur more slowly than usual D. The volume inside the refrigerator decreases the concentration of the food particles, allowing them to decompose more slowly

63. Which of the following methods for increasing the rate of chemical reaction increases the effectiveness of the interactions between reactants, instead of just causing the reactant molecules to bump into each other more frequently? A. Increasing the temperature of the reactants B. Adding a catalyst to the reactants C. Increasing the surface area of the reactants D. Increasing the concentration of the reactants

64. A chemical reaction between two substances is occurring in an aqueous solution. What can be done to increase the rate of reaction? A. Pour the reactants into a large, flat container to increase the surface area B. Increase the concentration of the reactants by adding more to the solution C. Rapidly cool the container that the reactants are in D. Add a catalytic converter

66. Radiation refers to energetic waves and particles emitted by a radioactive source. Which of the following electromagnetic waves has the lowest energy and longest wavelength? A. Gamma waves B. Infrared waves C. Ultraviolet waves D. Radio waves 67. Which pioneer of early radioactivity actually came up with the term “radioactivity” to describe the invisible rays emitted from various materials? This person subsequently won two Nobel prizes in physics and chemistry for their work in radioactivity. A. Regina Radioactive B. Henri Becquerel C. Marie Curie D. Wilhelm Roentgen

68. What is the mass number of potassium-41? A. 39.1 B. 41 C. 19 D. 22

69. Which of the following statements is true about the isotope nickel-64?

A. It has 36 protons, 28 neutrons and 36 electrons B. It has 28 protons, 36 neutrons and 28 electrons C. It has 28 protons, 36 neutrons and 36 electrons D. It has 28 protons, 31 neutrons and 28 electrons

70. What is the name of an isotope with 19 electrons and 22 neutrons? A. Potassium-41 B. Potassium-39 C. Titanium-19 D. Niobium-41

71. Which of the following statements is false? A. Gamma radiation, are the most dangerous type of electromagnetic radiation B. Alpha particles are very similar to the nucleus of a helium atom C. Alpha waves have the most mss of any radioactive wave D. Beta particles' mass is given as zero, but they can be blocked by just a thin sheet of aluminum foil

72. Examine the following radioactive decay.

What type of decay is this, and what is the missing atom in each case? A. Beta decay; xenon-137 B. Gamma decay; xenon-137 C. Gamma decay; barium-137 D. Beta decay; barium-137

73. Examine the following radioactive decay. What type of decay is this? A. Gamma B. Alpha C. Beta D. Ultraviolet

74. Which type of radiation would best be described as “looking like a simple redistribution of energy in the nucleus of an atom, but which releases high-energy radiation that can only be blocked by thick barriers of very dense material”? A. Beta radiation B. Gamma radiation C. Alpha radiation D. Electromagnetic radiation

75. Examine the following Bohr model.

What atom does this model represent? A. Nitrogen-11 B. Boron-11 C. Sodium-11 D. Carbon-11

76. A 200 g sample of lawrencium is left in a container from 8:00 AM one morning until 2:00 PM the next afternoon. If the mass of the sample of lawrencium was 25 g, what is the half-life of lawrencium?? A. 10 hours B. 30 hours C. 5 hours D. 1 day

77. The following decay curve shows the isotope carbon-14. If it was determined that a fossil contained a little over 3% of the original amount of carbon-14 it once was composed of, what would be an approximate age for the fossil? A. 29 000 years old B. 17 000 years old C. 22 000 years old D. 35 000 years old 78. The following decay curve shows the isotope iodine-131, which is used in the treatment of thyroid cancer. It is important that the radioactive iodine does not remain in the body at high levels.

If less than 2 g of iodine-131 should remain in the body after 24 days, what is the largest mass of iodine-131 that should be used for treatment? A. 16 g B. 8 g C. 24 g D. 32 g

79. The following decay curve shows the isotope mercury-203.

If the initial amount of mercury-203 was 120 g on January 1, approximately how much would be left on June 30, six months later? A. 60 g B. 15 g C. 7.5 g D. 30 g 80. The following decay curve shows the isotope californium-252.

What is the half life of californium-252? A. 2.6 years B. 2.5 days C. 5 years D. 133 days

81. Potassium-40, a radioactive isotope with a half life of 1.3 billion years, has the daughter isotope argon-40. When potassium-40 is found in volcanic rock, geologists know that they can use the ratio of potassium-40: argon-40 in order to determine the age of the rock. Heat from the molten rock causes all gases, including argon-40, to evaporate as the rock forms.

Assuming that all gases produced during radioactive decay are trapped in the rock, how old is a rock that is found to contain 0.45 g of potassium-40 and 1.35 g of argon-40? A. 3.9 billion years old B. 0.65 billion years old C. 1.3 billion years old D. 2.6 billion years old

82. All isotopes decay in the same pattern. What is the main difference in the graphs showing the rate of decay for different radioactive isotopes? A. The percentages of the parent isotope that remain after each half life B. The atomic mass of each parent isotope C. The atomic mass of each daughter isotope D. The time it takes for a half life to occur 83. The following decay curve shows the isotope mercury-203.

The daughter isotope produced by the decay of mercury-203 is thalium-203. Approximately what percentage of the total possible amount of thalium-203 has been produced after 135 days? A. 50% B. 88% C. 25% D. 13%

84. Use the following chart to answer this question.

Which isotope would be best to examine if an archeologist claimed to have found an artifact from the early bronze age in Egypt, around the year 3000 BC? A. Carbon-14 B. All three isotopes would be equally effective for dating the artifact C. Potassium-40 D. Uranium-235

85. Protactinium-231 is a radioactive isotope with a half life of 32 760 years. Protactinium-231 decays into the daughter isotope actinium-227.

What type of decay does protactinium-231 undergo? A. Beta decay B. There is not enough information to determine the type of decay C. Alpha decay D. Gamma decay

86. Which of the following is the best description of nuclear fission? A. Fission, used for all nuclear power generation in the world, involves joining two light nuclei to form a larger nucleus and to release massive amounts of energy B. Fission, used for all nuclear power generation in the world, involves splitting one large nucleus into two smaller nuclei + subatomic particles + energy C. Fission, used in all nuclear weapons and nuclear power generators in the world, involves splitting one large nucleus into two smaller nuclei + subatomic particles + energy D. Fission, used in all nuclear weapons and nuclear power generators in the world, involves joining two light nuclei to form a larger nucleus and to release massive amounts of energy

87. Examine the following equation.

Which of the following statements best describes the equation shown above? A. This is the nuclear equation for fusion. This reaction occurs in the sun, provides most of the explosive force in nuclear weapons, and produces dangerous radioactive products that require careful disposal and storage B. This is the nuclear equation for fission. This reaction occurs in nuclear power reactors, provides most of the explosive force in nuclear weapons, and produces dangerous radioactive products that require careful disposal and storage C. This is the nuclear equation for fission. This reaction occurs in nuclear power reactors, provides most of the explosive force in nuclear weapons, and produces safe products that are not radioactive D. This is the nuclear equation for fusion. This reaction occurs in the sun, provides most of the explosive force in nuclear weapons, and produces safe products that are not radioactive

88. In order, from left to right, what are these three subatomic particles involved in nuclear reactions?

A. A neutron, a beta particle, and an alpha particle B. A neutron, a gamma particle, and a beta particle C. An electron, an alpha particle, and a beta particle D. A neutron, an alpha particle, and a beta particle

89. Which of the following is not a characteristic of fusion? A. Often do not produce products that are radioactive B. Lightweight nuclei join together C. Not used commercially in reactors D. Heavy unstable nuclei split apart

90. Consider these particles taken together: What is the most likely missing particle in this reaction? A. Neptunium-238 B. Uranium-235 C. Americium-241 D. Plutonium-240

91. Consider these particles taken together:

What is the most likely missing particle in this reaction? A. Americium-241 B. Neptunium-238 C. Uranium-235 D. Plutonium-240

92. What is the missing daughter nucleus in this equation?

A. Tin-119 B. Indium-120 C. Antimony-119 D. Hydrogen-1

93. When discussing nuclear power plants, the problem of nuclear waste always arises as a potential problem. The waste must be handled very carefully, and currently the only method for dealing with the waste is to bury it is deep, underground, stable rock formations.

What is nuclear waste? A. Daughter nuclei remaining from the nuclear fusion reactions B. Rods which contain spent uranium pellets, radioactive daughter particles, and neutron-absorbing materials C. Leftover uranium, in addition to excess neutrons D. Water used to create steam that drives the turbines in the power plants

94. Why have scientists been working for more than 50 years to try to create nuclear fusion power plant? A. There is excess hydrogen in our atmosphere that fusion reactions would use up B. Nuclear fusion produces huge amounts of energy with little or no hazardous wastes C. Nuclear fusion reactions are much easier to create in a chemistry lab than nuclear fission reactions D. If the sun ever burns out, scientists would have the same form of energy here on Earth to keep life on the planet alive