Jeff S Massive Behavioral Review- Exam 1

Jeff’s Massive Behavioral Review- Exam 1 Lecture 1- Concepts of Behavioral Science

1. Which statement is true regarding the prevalence of mental illness?

A. More than half of mentally ill patients are treated by their primary care physicians B. The cost of treating mental illness exceeds $50 billion annually, and is the 4th most expensive condition in the United States C. Anxiety is the most prevalent mental disorder in the US, by class D. The lifetime prevalence of all mental disorders is 45% E. All of the above are true

2. Which of the following statements are true regarding mental illness and comorbidites?

A. It is extremely rare that a patient would suffer from multiple psychiatric disorders B. Those with psychiatric disorders often suffer physical and mental comorbidities; an example is the link between heart disease and depression. C. All obese patients suffer at least one psychiatric disorder D. Depression has an anti-aging effect E. All of the above are true

3. What is the best description of the biopsychosocial model?

A. A compound word that combines three seemingly different disciplines of science B. A rock, paper, scissors-like game for nerds, for example, bio beats psych but loses to social C. A model that considers psychological, social, and biological factors in the predisposition, onset, course, and treatment of a disease. D. The three ways that terrorists may attack us

4. Choose the correct statement regarding psychosocial factors affecting illness:

A. There is a no correlation between self-reported poverty and illness B. A person’s social class is directly correlated with morbidity and mortality associated with both physical and mental illness. C. A person’s locus of control has no affect on adherence to treatment D. The affect of life events and social support on onset and outcome of illness is not supported in any literature

5. Which of the following statements are true regarding illness behavior?

A. Examples of how people act when they are sick include: staying in bed, self-treating, and calling their doctor B. Illness behavior is defined as “the steps that individuals may take to ensure that they remain healthy and disease free” C. The stages of illness behavior, in order, are: experiencing a symptom, calling a doctor, the sick role, the dependent patient role, and recovery D. Beliefs and attitudes do not account in the patient’s decision of whether or not to seek care. E. All of the above are true.

6. Decision making in response to behavioral or emotional problems may be affected by:

A. Disruption of normal activities and social roles B. Cultural norms for behavior C. Embarrassment caused by the display of symptoms D. Stigma attached to mental illness E. All of the above

7. What are the effects of mental illness on service utilization?

A. Patients with mental disorders generally have no idea when they are in a hospital anyway B. There is no known effect of mental illness on service utilization. C. Patients with mental disorders are 2x as likely to use medical services as those without mental illness D. Patients with mental disorders are ½ as likely to use medical services as those without mental illness

Lecture 2- Biology and Behavior

8. Which of the following are not considered “core fears”?

A. Abandoment or isolation B. Rejection or embarrassment C. Death or injury D. Loss of control E. Confinement F. Gingers

9. What is the take-home message of the ‘monkeys fearing snakes’ experiment?

A. The tendency of monkeys to fear snakes is largely a learned response B. The tendency of monkeys to fear snakes is largely an inherited response C. Lab monkeys will never be afraid of snakes D. Wild monkeys to not fear snakes; rather, they pity them

10. Which of the following statements regarding the personality trait of fearfulness are true?

A. Twin studies prove that fearfulness is completely inherited B. Twin studies prove that fearfulness is completely environmental C. Fearful, cautious children are more likely to suffer from anxiety disorders and specific phobias as adults D. Males are more likely to fear public speaking than women, unless their fear has been blunted by alcohol

11. Which of the following statements regarding anxiety are true?

A. Anxiety is associated with increased norepinephrine, and decreased GABA and serotonin B. Anxiety is experienced subjectively, without reference to a specific object or situation C. Some autonomic responses in anxiety include increased HR and RR, sweating, and cold extremities D. The brain regions involved in anxiety include the hypothalamus, limbic system, amygdala, hippocampus, and cerebral cortex. E. All of the above are true.

12. What is the relationship between genetics and environment in psychiatric illness? Choose the most appropriate answer.

A. The concordance for bipolar disorder is lower than that of unipolar, but the prevalence of bipolar illness is higher than that of unipolar. B. The risk of developing schizophrenia is highest in a monozygotic twin of an affected person, and lowest in the sibling of an affected person. C. Shared environmental effects are insignificant in determining the risk of developing schizophrenia in two individuals D. Studies regarding alcoholism have shown no affect of genetic/inherited factors on the risk of developing alcoholism

13. Which of the following statements best describes the “sibling barricade?”

A. The theory that best supports what I have always complained to my parents about regarding my younger siblings B. The enhancement of psychopathology on the younger siblings of adolescents who are treated harshly by their parents C. The protective effects of harsh parental behavior towards one child on the sibling of the adolescent who was treated harshly D. The rivalry between siblings for parental affection that can cause an increase in fear, anxiety, and depression later in life

Lecture 3- Theories of Human Behavior

14. Which of the following statements regarding Freud’s theory on the structure of personality is NOT true?

A. The id, also known as the “pleasure principle,” is comprised of mankind’s most basic urges B. The superego is in place to negotiate a compromise between the ego and the id C. The superego is the conscience, and represents an unattainable moral standard D. The ego is the only one of the three that is completely bound by reality E. All of the above are true

15. Which of the following definitions/examples of defense mechanisms is NOT correct?

A. Altruism: A mature defense; an example would be a former abuse victim working at a shelter for battered women B. Sublimation: A neurotic defense; Returning to an earlier stage of development and exhibiting childish behavior C. Intellectualization: A neurotic defense; an example would be a recently diagnosed cancer patient rattling off statistics and medication dosage when asked “how are you doing?” D. Humor: A mature defense; an example would be a short redhead making jokes at the expense of other short redheads.

16. Patient VP enters your clinic complaining of priapism when driving by Wendy’s, Burger King, or any other fast food establishment. Upon taking a deeper history, you learn that he has had numerous sexual encounters with obese women. In nearly all of these encounters, they met at fast food restaurants. Which is the best way to use classical conditioning to describe VP’s problem?

A. Terribly obese hoes are UCS, Erection is the UCR; Fast food establishments are the CS; Erection is the CR B. Terribly obese horrendous girls are the CR; Erection is CS; Fast food establishments are the UCS C. VP is the sole problem D. Negative reinforcement would solve this issue E. A and C

17. How are operant behaviors different from responses involved in classical conditioning?

A. The behaviors are voluntarily emitted in operant conditioning B. Behaviors involved in classical conditioning are elicited by stimuli which come after the behavior C. Behaviors involved in operant conditioning are elicited by what comes before the behavior D. A and C E. All of the above

18. Which of the following relationships describing punishment and reinforcement are NOT correct?

A. Positive reinforcement = Reward; Negative reinforcement = Relief B. Positive punishment = Pain/discomfort; Negative punishment = Loss C. Punished behavior is less likely to occur again than reinforced behavior D. Punished behavior is more likely to occur again than reinforced behavior

19. Social Learning Theory is driven by:

A. Reciprocal determinism- the interaction of the individual and their environment B. The idea that behavior is not just the result of past reinforcement, but due to anticipated future reinforcement C. The thought that gambling is addictive and therefore must be fun D. A and B E. All of the above

Lecture 4- Theories of Development- By far and away the worst lecture we’ve had

Questions 20-24: Match Freud’s psychosexual stage with the description provided

A. (1-3 years): Fixation produces stinginess, obsessive behavior, or cruelty B. (3-6 years): Fixation can involve sexual exploitation of others C. (Birth-1 year): Fixation results in dependence, passivity, gullibility, and orally focused habits D. (12+ years): Successful outcome when sexual desire is blended with affection to produce mature sexual relationships E. (6-12 years): Goal is to develop social skills

20. Phallic Stage 21. Anal stage 22. Latency stage 23. Oral stage 24. Genital stage

Questions 25-32: Match Erickson’s Developmental tasks with their description.

A. (18 months -3 years): Need for outer control, firmness of caretaker prior to development of autonomy B. (5-13 years): Newfound skills lead to productivity and pride in accomplishments; most important influences in this period are school and neighborhood C. (Birth to 18 months): Depends on consistency and sameness experience provided by caretaker D. (Age 65+): Conflict between sense of satisfaction reflecting on life and despair E. (Age 21-40): Tasks are to love and work; development of close intimate relationships and life-long attachments F. (3-5 years): Desire to mimic adult world; involvement in oedipal struggle leads to resolution via social role resolution G. (13-21 years): Struggle to develop ego identity; danger of role confusion H. (Ages 40-65): Concerns a person having or raising children; vital interest outside the home

25. Intimacy vs. Isolation 26. Autonomy vs. Shame/Doubt 27. Initiative vs. Guilt 28. Identity vs. Role confusion 29. Basic trust vs. Mistrust 30. Ego integrity vs. Despair 31. Generativity vs. Stagnation 32. Industry vs. Inferiority 33. In which stage of Piaget’s Stages of Cognitive development can a child do more complicated mental operations, yet still cannot think abstractly?

A. Concrete Operational B. Formal Operational C. Preoperational D. Sensorimotor

Questions 34-39: Match Mahler’s phases of development with their description

A. (2-5 months): Dim awareness of caretaker, infant still functions as if he and caretaker are in state of fusion B. (18-24 months): Characteristic event- rapprochement crisis: Child wants to be soothed by mother yet may not be able to accept her help C. (Birth-2 months): State of half-sleep, half-awake D. (5-10 months): Hatching from autistic shell E. (24 months – 5 years): Child better able to cop with mother’s absence and engage substitutes; child knows mother will return F. (10-18 months): Marked by upright locomotion and mood of elation

34. Practicing (2nd subphase) F 35. Normal autistic phase C 36. Object constancy (4th subphase) E 37. Normal symbiotic phase A 38. Rapprochement (3rd subphase) B 39. Differentiation (1st subphase) D

40. According to Piaget, at which stage does a person gain the ability to view morality as “rules are arbitrary and alterable when people who are governed by them agree to change them?”

A. Stage 1: Premoral stage B. Stage 2: Heteronomous morality stage C. Stage 3: Autonomous morality stage D. None of the above E. All of the above

41. Place the stages of Kohlber’s moral stages in the correct order

A. Good-boy/good girl à Law and order à Obedience and punishment à Instrumental hedonism à Morality of universal ethical principles à Contractual/legalistic B. Obedience and punishment à Instrumental hedonism à Good boy/girl à Law and order à Contractual/legalistic à Morality of universal ethical principles C. Are you serious? D. I hate this lecture E. B and D

Lecture 5- Stress and Illness

42. Which of the following pairs of stress researchers and their findings is NOT correct?

A. Bernard- “Milieu Interior” B. Cannon- “Fight or Flight” C. Seyles- “General Adaptation Syndrome” D. Sterling and Eyer- “Allostatic load” E. All of the above are correct.

43. Which of the following statements regarding the physiological stress response is NOT correct?

A. Effects of adrenal cortical axis stimulation include increased arterial blood pressure and decreased blood flow to kidneys B. Stimulation of the adrenal cortex causes increased serum levels of cortisol and corticosterone C. Biological responses can be grouped as autonomic, endocrine, and immune in nature D. Neural pathways include feedback to the cortex and limbic system, including the locus ceruleus (NE), the raphe nuclei (SN) and the ventral tegmental nucleus (DA) E. All of the above are correct.

44. Which of the following statements regarding stress-stressor measurement is NOT correct?

A. The Holmes and Rahe-Social Readjustment rating scale is a quantitative index of stress following a situation requiring adjustment. B. According to the Holmes and Rahe scale, the most stressful life event is the death of a spouse C. Folkman and Lazarus developed a scale in which patients assess their level of “hassles and uplifts” D. Folkman/Lazarus has been shown to be less helpful than the Holmes/Rahe method of assessing stressors. E. None of the above are true

45. Which of the following statements regarding models of stress and illness is NOT correct?

A. The Seyles-GAS model measures the amount of farting in response to stressors. Get it, because it’s gas? Tough crowd… B. The Seyles- GAS model describes three stages, Alarm, Resistance, and Exhaustion, with the Alarm stage characterized by increase in hormones and a heightened susceptibility to illness C. McEwen’s Allostatic Load model represents the cumulative, multi-system view of physiological toll that may be exacted on the body through attempts at adaptation. D. All of the above are correct E. You are stupid if you get this wrong

46. Identify the true statement amongst the following:

A. The allostatic load model is tested by administering novel events that cause repeated elevations of stress mediators over long periods of time B. Failure to habituate or adapt will not lead to an allostatic imbalance and increase in hormone levels C. PTSD is a condition when learned alarms supersede true alarms D. Avoidance or numbing of emotional response is highly unlikely in PTSD

Lecture 6- Health and Behavior

47. Which statement regarding health behavior is true?

A. Health related behavior cannot be differentiated from illness or sick role behavior B. Sick role behavior encompasses any activity undertaken for the purpose of getting well by those who considers themselves ill C. Illness behavior is any activity undertaken by a person believing himself to be healthy for the purpose of preventing disease or detecting it in an a-symptomatic stage. D. Health related behavior is any activity undertaken by a person who feels ill to define the state of health and find a suitable remedy

48. The health belief model _____

A. Attempts to explain health behavior and/or adherence to treatment regimens B. Claims that individual perceptions, modifying factors such as demographic and sociopsychological variables and cues to action such as media campaigns and personal advice can all affect the perceived threat of a disease C. States that the perceived threat of disease affects the likelihood of taking preventative action D. All of the above

For 49-53, match the stages of the transtheoretical model with their definition

A. Not intending to change in the near future B. Intending to change within 6 months C. Actively planning change, and experimenting with limited action D. Actually making overt changes; less than 6 months of success E. Sustaining change over time and taking steps to resist relapse

49. Contemplation 50. Maintenance 51. Precontemplation 52. Action 53. Preparation

54. Adherence:

A. Has never represented a significant problem in health care B. Is affected by attitudes and perception of illness, environmental factors, therapeutic regimen, and physician patient interaction C. Is not possibly affected by education D. A and C E. All of the above

55. Risk factors for CHD include:

A. Elevated serum cholesterol B. Diabetes mellitus C. Family History D. Type A personality E. All of the above

56. The Western Collaborative Group Study found:

A. Type A men were nearly 2x as likely to develop CHD B. Type A men were 2x as likely to adhere to a workout regimen C. Type A men are overcompensating as a defense mechanism for their raging id D. Type B men were too lazy to show up for the study and therefore were not included

57. Smoking:

A. Has been implicated, but never proven, to be a cause in a myriad of health issues B. Has been rising in prevalence steadily since the 1960s C. Is being combated with an “ask, assess, advise, assist, arrange” strategy set forth by the AHRQ D. Is not affected by differing intensity of treatment programs E. Is the best way to convince girls that you are a rebel, and increases the likelihood that they will be attracted to you.

58. What element of effective risk-reduction counseling has not been helpful in HIV situations?

A. Providing behaviorally specific risk education B. Enhancing threat sensitization C. Skills training for condom use, assertiveness, negotiation, and self-management D. Reinforcement E. All of the above are effective

Lecture 7- Early Childhood

59. The visual cliff example shows which sign of attachment, and why?

A. Separation anxiety, because the child looks to the caregiver to determine how to respond in new or ambiguous situations B. Separation anxiety, because the child is showing stress when separated from their caregiver C. Social referencing, because the child is looking to the caregiver to determine how to respond in new or ambiguous situations D. Stranger anxiety, with the cliff being the “stranger” in this situation. The infant is fearful and anxious in the presence of the stranger

60. A mother brings her 17-month old daughter to your child psychiatry clinic, worrying because the child never seems upset when the mother leaves, and avoids or ignores her upon return. Based on your knowledge of patterns of attachment, what pattern is this child exhibiting?

A. Secure attachment B. Insecure/avoidant attachment C. Insecure/ambivalent attachment D. Disorganized/disoriented attachment

61. Which list of temperament qualities contains an error?

A. Activity level, rhythmicity, language appropriate for specific age B. Approach or withdrawal to novel stimuli, intensity of reaction, distractibility C. Attention span and persistence, distractibility, activity level, quality of mood D. Threshold of responsiveness, adaptability to environmental change, intensity of reaction

62. A mother brings her 2-year old to your clinic, worried because the child has bad moods, no regular sleeping pattern, resists change and has intense emotional reactions. Based on observing the child for several minutes, you confirm several of the qualities that the mother has described. What type of temperament would you classify this child has having?

A. The easy child B. The difficult child C. The slow-to-warm-up child D. The child is in fact Damien, the oft-prophesized child of Satan and harbinger of mankind’s doom

63. A parent bring their 5-year old child who has been frequently irritable and aggressive in for counseling. By observing their interaction, you notice that the parent displays a low level of warmth and high control over their children, often using coercive techniques to gain the child’s compliance. Based on both the child and parent’s behavior, how would you classify the parent’s parenting style?

A. Authoritarian B. Authoritative C. Permissive D. Rejecting-neglecting

64. Which statement regarding Vygotsky’s Sociocultural Theory is NOT correct?

A. Language is the foundation of higher cognitive processes B. The “zone of proximal development” is a repertoire of tasks that the child may achieve by his/herself C. Private speech is language used for self-guidance, and is important in the child’s development D. A and C E. All of the above are correct

65. In observing a child, you notice that in a social environment he pays in the area of other children, but has little or no interaction with the others. What type of play is this child engaged in?

A. Parallel play B. Associative play C. Cooperative play D. Sociodramatic play

Lecture 8- Early Childhood/Language disorders

66. Which of the following statements regarding language is NOT correct?

A. Language can be subdivided into receptive (heard and understood) and expressive (spoken) B. Components of language include phonology, syntax, and pragmatics C. Infants are born with an innate sense of syntax and pragmatics D. Morphology is defined as pairing sounds and meaning

67. Toddlers:

A. Experience significant changes in all of the components of language (phonology, syntax, etc) B. Can begin combining words to make simple sentences, such as “daddy sit” and “behavioral stupid” C. Experience significant gains in receptive quality, learning a large amount of nouns D. A and C E. All of the above

68. Children gain the ability to understand and express abstract meanings, such as idioms and metaphors, in which developmental stage?

A. Late adolescence (~17-20 years) B. Late elementary school (~11 years) C. Many never develop this, as it is a sign of supreme intelligence D. Early elementary school (~6-7 years)

69. Language delays/ disorders:

A. Include phonological disorders, present in 4% of kindergarteners, characterized by oral-motor difficulties and/or difficulty coordinating tongue movements B. Generally do not include language learning problems, in which other sensory and cognitive abilities are present C. Are often misdiagnosed as autism, where there are language, social, and restricted interest issues D. Never are secondary to other issues, such as hearing loss or mental retardation

70. A child with fragile X syndrome will:

A. Have language ability near or slightly above mental age B. Have language ability closer to chronological age C. Have language ability below mental age as a result of tongue to oral cavity size proportion D. Not enough data to assess this question

71. Speech-language pathologists & audiologists:

A. Are not recommended as referral options for physicians B. Are available in hospitals, schools, and clinics, and should be contacted if physician or parent has concerns regarding language development C. Specialize in a nebulous and ill-defined field full of lies D. None of the above

Lecture 9- Middle Childhood

72. Which of the following statements regarding physical development during middle childhood IS correct?

A. Growth is sporadic, with children often growing as much as 9 inches in one year B. Small muscle control improves during this period, with children able to whistle and tie shoes C. Most children are still ambidextrous during this stage D. Kids masturbate a lot? (I don’t care what the notes say, this is not true. Do not choose this answer)

73. Which of the following statements about children in middle childhood would Piaget agree with?

A. Children in this age range are in the formal operational stage B. Children acquire the skill of classification, but still have trouble with the concept of conservation C. Children acquire skills of classification, conservation, seriation, and spatial reasoning during this stage D. Children grow at such differing intervals that it is hard to classify in such a stringent manner

74. Erikson states that kids in middle childhood are in the “industry vs. inferiority” stage. What does this mean?

A. Children have a positive but realistic self concept; they take pride in accomplishment, but have pessimism associated with little confidence in their ability to do things well B. Children in other cultures work in industrial factories, but feel good about it C. Children accomplish a lot, but do not appreciate it because they believe they will live forever D. Inferiority is a sense that they are really short, and will never be captains of industry

75. Which of the following statements regarding emotional development during middle childhood is NOT correct?

A. A child’s pride and guilt become governed by a sense of personal responsibility B. Children are able to express internal states like sad or happy C. Children at this stage are incapable of feeling empathy D. Children can regulate their emotions, for example appraising a situation as changeable, identifying difficulty and rendering a decision

76. Which of the following statements about middle childhood is NOT true?

A. Parents generally give more independence to girls B. Reading, spelling, art, and music are more likely to be “girl activities” C. Family influences include parent-child relationships and siblings D. Only children are high in self-esteem, academic achievement and have good relationships with parents, but their peers don’t like them

Lecture 10- Adolescence

77. Choose the correct statement regarding puberty

A. Puberty begins at age 11 for boys (average) and age 13 for girls (average) B. Advancing pubertal status is characterized by elevated moods for boys C. Advancing pubertal status is characterized by increased feelings of attractiveness for girls D. Age of menarche has been advancing steadily over the past few decades

78. Choose the incorrect statement regarding adolescent identity crisis

A. Identity achievement occurs when an individual experiences an identity crisis and comes out with a reasonably firm commitment to a political, social, occupational, or value system. B. Identity diffusion is when neither a crisis or a commitment occurs- considered the most mature outcome possible C. Moratorium is a crisis currently being experienced with no commitment yet D. Identity foreclosure occurs when a commitment has been made without crisis or exploration

79. Adolescents:

A. Are generally moodier than older or younger age groups, due to heightened stress reactivity due to changes in neurotransmitter reactivity B. Report that 50% are sexually active in high school C. Can define themselves in abstract terms (ie honest, compassionate vs. tall, good at math) D. B and C E. All of the above

80. Adolescent morality:

A. Is non-conformist in nature B. Decreases during adolescence C. Matures from rigid acceptance of rules in childhood to more flexibility and understanding that rules relate to what is best for society at large D. A and B E. None of the above

81. Which of the statements regarding cognitive skills of adolescents is NOT correct?

A. Adolescents are in the formal operational stage B. Adolescents become capable of metacognition C. Adolescents rationalize and downplay long-term consequences of what they do D. Adolescents are less prone to peer pressure and more likely to follow parental guidelines

82. Adolescents:

A. Are at risk for developing eating disorders B. Suffer from depression- thought to be caused by a low point of self-esteem C. Commit suicide at alarmingly high rates, compared to other age groups D. Consume illegal drugs at ever increasing rates E. All of the above

Lecture 11- Adulthood/Late life

83. Which of Erikson’s stages would a 47-year old be in?

A. Basic trust vs. mistrust B. Intimacy vs. isolation C. Ego integrity vs. despair D. Generativity vs. stagnation

84. Young adults:

A. Establish an adult work identity B. Develop adult forms of play C. Experiment in intimate relationships D. Often have children E. All of the above

85. Which statement regarding aging is NOT correct?

A. Mental processing peaks and starts declining at age 25 B. By age 50, perception slows and information recall is more difficult C. By age 70, the ability to focus and maintain attention wanes D. Learning continues and vocabularies can improve with age

86. Which statement do I wish were NOT true of older couples?

A. The percentage of elderly citizens living below the poverty line has decreased dramatically B. Elderly people still have voracious sex drives C. Retirement offers advantages of new activities and the disadvantage of a decreased income D. Those on the “integrity” side of Erikson’s stage have a sense of satisfaction with one’s life and the significant people in it E. Those on the “despair” side hate the world and the people in it

Lecture 12- Culture, behavior, and psychiatry

87. Which of the following matches between the funny cultural diseases and their descriptions is NOT correct?

A. Koro- an episode of intense anxiety that one’s penis, vulva, or nipples will recede into the body and possibly cause death B. Amok- episode characterized by a period of brooding followed by an outburst of violent/homicidal behavior C. Rootwork- illness ascribed to hexing, witchcraft, sorcery, or evilness of another person D. Susto – aka “arctic hysteria,” symptoms include anxiety, crying spells, running into snow or water, depression, imitation of animal screaming, followed by amnesia of the event

88. Which statement is NOT true?

A. Cultural competence requires knowledge but not necessarily “respect” for other cultures B. Prejudice, ethnocentrism, and discrimination are examples of misperceptions of groups C. Ancestry is more important than race in determining health risks of genetic disease D. Ethnicity is a shared pattern of behavior which provides a filter or lens through which we see the world

89. African Americans:

A. Smoke less than Hispanics B. Are 2.5 x more likely to have CHD C. Have a higher life expectancy than other ethnic groups D. Have higher rates of depression than European Americans

90. Perceived discrimination:

A. Has been shown to affect Hispanics more than African Americans B. Can actually cause health defects, such as elevated BP and ADHD and conduct disorder in children C. Is horseshit, because kids who act up can just say its because they were discriminated against (TEA PARTY NATION! WOOO!) D. Has no chronic effect caused by long term mitigation of stress

91. Relocation stress can be exacerbated by:

A. Language barriers B. Forced exit of country (refugee) C. Making the transition alone D. All of the above

Answers 1. E 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. E 7. C 8. F 9. A 10. C 11. E 12. B 13. B 14. B 15. B 16. E 17. A 18. D 19. D 20. B 21. A 22. E 23. C 24. D 25. E 26. A 27. F 28. G 29. C 30. D 31. H 32. B 33. A 34. F 35. C 36. E 37. A 38. B 39. D 40. C 41. E 42. D 43. E 44. D 45. A 46. A 47. B 48. D 49. B 50. E 51. A 52. D 53. C 54. B 55. E 56. A 57. C 58. E 59. C 60. B 61. A 62. B 63. A 64. B 65. A 66. C 67. E 68. B 69. A 70. A 71. B 72. B 73. C 74. A 75. C 76. A 77. B 78. B 79. E 80. C 81. D 82. E 83. D 84. E 85. A 86. B 87. D 88. A 89. B 90. B 91. D