Biology Grade 12 Chapter 1-5 Review Questions

Biology Grade 12 Chapter 1-5 Review Questions Please Ignore the Numbering and Just do the Questions

Contributor: Julie, Samiya, Kennis, James, Ibrahim, Meskatun, Tigist, Quang Chapter 1 True/False

Place a T or F in the correct space:

___ 1. Isotopes that decay spontaneously are said to be radioactive. They are called radioisotopes. ___ 2. Half-life is half the time it takes for half the nuclei to decay. ___ 3. For the third energy level (n=3), the maximum number of electrons is 18.

___ 4. The symbol for magnesium is . The Lewis Dot Diagram for magnesium is ___ 5. Symmetrical molecules whose bonds are all polar are polar. ___ 6. Hydrophilic molecules have an aversion to water, which is the tendency of non-polar ___ molecules. ___ 7. If the pH of a solution is 6.5, it is more acidic than basic. 8. VSEPR theory is a method for predicting molecule shape based on the mutual repulsion of

___ electron pairs in a molecule. ___ 9. There is a London force between all molecules. ___ 10. Bases are substances that decrease the concentration of OH ions in a solution. ___ 11. Proteins make up more than 50% of the dry mass of most cells. ___ 12. Primary structure is the unique sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain. ___ 13. Catabolic reactions are reactions that break macromolecules into constituent individual ___ subunits. ___ 14. Residue is an amino acid subunit of a polypeptide. ___ 15. cAMP is a messenger in hormone regulation. 16. A common exothermic reaction in living organisms is combustion.

___ 17. The first law of thermodynamics is: The entropy of the universe increases with any ___ change that occurs. Mathematically ΔS universe > 0 ___ 18. Potential energy is energy possessed by moving objects ___ 19. Kinetic energy is the ability to do work ___ 20. The reactions of metabolism are enzyme catalyzed and are all reversible. 21. Metabolism is the sum of all anabolic and catabolic procedures in a cell or organism ___ 22. Activation energy is the difference between the potential energy level of the transition state and the potential energy of reacting molecules ___ 23. Bond energy is the minimum energy required to break one mole of bonds between two species of atoms; a measure of the stabilities of chemical bonds. 24. The second law of thermodynamics is that: the total amount of energy in the universe is ___ constant. Energy cannot be created or destroyed but only converted from one form into ___ another. If an object or process gains an amount of energy, it does so at the expense of a ___ loss in energy somewhere else in the universe. ___ 25. A chemical reaction where the energy of the products is more than the energy of the ___ reactants is endergonic. ___ 26. Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide is an enzyme. ___ 27. Enzyme needs specific optimal P to work properly. ___ 28. The substrate that provides electron is called oxidizing agent. ___ 29. Enzymes increase or decrease the free energy of reaction. ___ 30. Enzyme can convert the exergonic reaction to endergonic or endergonic reaction to ___ exergonic. ___ 31. Glycogen is same as amylopectin but found only in plants. 32. The backbone of DNA molecule is held together by ester linkage. ___ 33. Secondary structure coils and folds in a polypeptide caused by covalent bond. ___ 34. Conjugated protein is maid up of a polypeptide plus a non-polypeptide group. ___ 35. There are three fatty acids in a phospholipid molecule. ___ 36. Coenzymes are non protein components, such as dissolved ions, that are needed for some enzymes to function. 37. Competitive inhibitors are similar to the enzyme’s substrate that is able to enter the enzyme’s active site. 38. A non-competitive inhibitor binds to the active site and changes the shape of the enzyme. 39. The digestive enzyme pepsin work best in acidic environment of the stomach. 40. Enzymes are used in many commercial and industrial processes.

Contributor: Samiya, Julie, Kennis, Meskatun, Tigist, James Chapter 3 True & False

Place a T or F in the space provided

___ 1. Chloroplasts use light energy to make ATP and reduces NADP+ to NADPH. ___ 2. Electromagnetic [EM] radiation is energy that travels at 3 x 108 in the form of wave packets called quantum membranes. ___ 3. A cluster of photosynthetic pigments embedded in the thylakoid membrane is called photosystem. ___ 4. Joseph Priestly used a candle, bell jar and a plant for his experiment to show that gases have an effect on the process of photosynthesis. ___ 5. T.W. Engelmann used the alga Spirogyra to determine the colours of the Spirogyra’s chloroplasts. ___ 6. Chlorophyll a and b absorb photons with energies in the blue-violet and red regions of the spectrum and reflect wavelengths between 500nm and ___ 600nm.

7. C.B. Van Niel worked wit purple sulfur bacteria to show the presence of ___ oxygen by splitting carbon dioxide.

8. Chlorella contained a “heavy” carbon dioxide C¹8O2 instead of a normal carbon dioxide C¹6O2, oxygen was given off by organisms did not contain ___ O¹8. This confirmed that the oxygen formed in photosynthesis came from water, not from carbon dioxide.

___ 9. At low light intensities, the rate of photosynthesis could be increased by increasing the temperature, not light intensity.

___ 10. Plants stop making chlorophyll in cooler autumn temperatures which turns the leaves yellow, red and brown.

___ 11. Photosystem 1 is a photosystem embedded in the thylakoid membrane containing chlorophyll P680.

___ 12. In reduction reactions, each of the six molecules of PGA is phosphorylated by an ATP to form six molecules of G3P. ___ 13. G3P is the final product of the Calvin cycle.

___ 14. Without NADPH, the reactions of carbon fixation cannot occur because electrons in the hydrogen atoms of NADPH are needed to reduce carbon dioxide. ___ 15. Noncyclic electron flow (cyclic electron flow) is the flow of photon- energized electrons from photosystem 1, through an electron transport ___ chain that produces ATP by chemiosmosis, but no NADPH.

___ 16. Both photosystem absorb different light.

___ 17. Plastoquinone is an electron carrier.

___ 18. Ribulose 1, 5-bisphosphate is the first product of the carbon fixation reaction. ___ 19. Light reaction is the sources of NADPH. ___ 20. When electron goes from ground state to higher potential energy level, it ___ loses energy.

___ 21. When k+ ions diffuse out of the cells water moves out by osmosis and stoma open. ___ 22. The surface of the leaf is coated with a water resist waxy lamellae.

___ 23. Transcription is the loss of water vapour from plant tissues.

___ 24. Chloroplasts have no membrane.

___ 25. Electrons in the prophyrin ring of chlorophyll absorb light energy & begin the process of photosynthesis. ___ 26. The structure of stomata in leaf regulates gas exchange. ___ 27. Cuticle is water resistant waxy layer of a plant leaf. ___ 28. Photon is the wavelength range for the visible light spectrum. ___ 29. Photosystem II is involved in cyclic electron flow. ___ 30. Photosynthesis occurs mainly in mesophyll cell. ___ 31. Photorespiration requires light

32. The light compensation point is always lower than zero

33. When there is more CO2 compared to less CO2 the rate of photosynthesis is the highest

34. The photosynthetic efficiency or Quantum Yield describes the optimal temperature conditions in which enzyme’s activity is maximize. Biology Review Questions: True or False – Chapter 2 and 4 Full Contributor: John, Jackson, Michelle, Nancy, Nirujah, Basera

T F 1. The inner mitochondrial membrane is completely impermeable to H ions.

T F 2. Metabolic rate is the amount of energy consumed by an organism in a given time. T F 3. Nomograms are the minimum amount of heat on which an organism can die. T F 4. A graphical method of determining the value of a known quantity when the values of other quantities that it is mathematically related to are known as basal T F metabolic rate (BMR).

T F 5. The importance of cells as the basic unit of life was realized in the 1600s.

6. Schleiden, Mendel and Schwann each made a proposal that contributed to the T F development of the cell theory.

T F 7. Schleiden was the first to observe that all plant tissue was composed of cells.

T F 8. The cell theory is the foundation used by biologists to try to understand life on earth. T F 9. A cell needs a constant supply of energy and a method to rid itself of waste T F products.

T F 10. Minimizing the distance within the cell also minimizes the time taken for cell processes. T F 11. Chemoautotrophs produce energy from the sun and chemicals in their extreme T F environments

T F 12. Glucose is the source of CO2 (g) that human exhale

13. Combustion in a testube happens in many steps while only one efficient step in T F the body.

T F 14. In cellular respiration equation of combustion of glucose, the change in enthalpy is positive T F 15. Water catalyzes cellular respiration which lowers the activation energy for maxmium efficiency

T F 16. Pyruvate Oxidation takes place in the cell's cytoplasm. T F 17. The final product of Pyruvate Oxidation is CoA.

18. The chemical equation for the Krebs cycle is the follow: T F Oxaloacetate + acetyl-CoA + ADP + Pi + 3 NAP+ + FAD → + CoA + ATP + 3 NADH + 3H + FADH2 + T F 2CO2 + Oxaloacetate

T F 19. Both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells contain mitochondria.

T F 20. After whole series of reactions, pyruvate gets converted to 3CO2 waste product & energy in ATP only. T F 21. Glycolysis is the universal pathway that converts glucose into 2 molecules of T F pyruvate.

T F 22. The 1st 10 reactions of cellular respiration are collectively called glycolysis

23. Only eukaryotic cells contain mitochondria. T F 24. Prokaryotic cells carry out all the stages of cellular respiration within the T F cytoplasm

T F 25. Mitochondria have their own DNA, RNA, and ribosomes.

26. Oxidation is when component gains two electron from another component T F 27. The free energy released when electrons move from molecule to molecule is T F used to move protons from the mitochondrail matrix.

T F 28. The electron transport process is highly endergonic.

29. NADH AND FADH transport electrons in the same way in the ETC. T F 30. Protons accumulated in the intermembrane space of the mitochondrion during T F electron transport create an electrochemical gradient.

T F 31. Roseland Franklin’s work is the key to discovering the structure of DNA

T F 32. There are total of 5 nitrogenous bases

T F 33. The Nobel committee could not award Roseland Franklin the Nobel Prize because she was a woman. T F 34. Wilkins worked with Roseland in good relationship providing her with DNA T F that he isolated

T F 35. The bond between a sugar and another organic molecule is called an organic sugar bond T F 36. The closed circular DNA of prokaryotes has multiple origins of replication. T F 37. The replication of DNA starts from the 3` to 5`. T F 38. DNA has a double stranded structure. T F 39. RNA has a single stranded structure. T F 40. DNA replication is semi conservative.

41. An acid is any substance that will increase the pH.

42. An element is a pure substance that is composed of one kind of atom.

43. Organisms worldwide are suffering due to the effects of acid rain.

44. Water is not a polar molecule.

45. Hydrogen bonds are strong.

46. A polymer is a large molecule formed by identical or similar monomers.

Contributor: Julie, Samiya, Kennis, James, Ibrahim, Meskatun, Tigist, Quang Chapter 1 Multiple Choice

Circle the correct answer:

1. The letter A in the symbol represents a) the atom of an element b) the mass number of an element c) the mass number which equals to the number of protons plus neutrons d) the atomic number of an element e) none of the above

2. The letter Z in the symbol represents a) the number of electrons b) the atomic number of an element c) the number of protons d) all of the above e) none of the above

3. What is the radioisotope Iodine-131 used for in nuclear medicine? a) It is used as a cough syrup. b) To evaluate the filtration rate of the kidneys c) To view and treat thyroid, liver and kidney diseases d) To study the brain and colon e) To image tumours and localized infections

4. The periodic table is arranged a) with elements in order of increasing atomic number b) vertical columns on the table called groups or families c) in horizontal rows called periods d) elements in the same group containing same number of valence electrons e) all of the above

5. If ΔEn = 2.38, is this a) non-polar covalent b) increasing polar covalent c) ionic d) increasing ionic character e) ionic and covalent bond

6. Which of the following is a unique property of water? a) High specific heat of vaporization. b) Low specific heat capacity. c) Highest density of 95° C. d) Cohesion and adhesion e) Can be (a) and (d)

7. For the chemical equation CH3COOH (aq) + H2O (l) ↔ CH3COO¯(aq) + H3O+(aq) a) The conjugate base for H2O (l) is CH3COO¯(aq) b) CH3COOH (aq) and CH3COO¯(aq) are both acids c) The base for the conjugate acid H3O+(aq) is H2O (l) d) There are no conjugate bas pairs; only conjugate acid pairs. e) The conjugate base of CH3COOH (aq) is H3O+(aq).

8. The chemical compound CH3COOH (aq) is a) a weak base b) a strong acid c) a weak acid d) a strong base e) at equilibrium

9. When ∆En is covalent, it is : a) greater than zero b) greater than zero, less than 1.7 c) 14 d) less than 1.7, greater than 1.7 e) less than zero, greater than 1.7

10. At Equilibrium a) acids dissolve in a base b) the rate of forward reaction is equal to the backward reaction c) weak acids become weak bases d) neutralization reaction occurs e) all of the above

11. What is the simplest amino acid? a) Glycine b) Proline c) Alanine d) Methionine e) None of them

12. What is the name of the process when glycerol reacts with fatty acids? a) Condensation reaction b) Dehydration c) Esterification d) Hydrolysis reaction e) Fermentation

13. What is the linkage in maltose? a)  1-6 glycosidic linkage b)  1-4 glycosidic linkage c)  1-2 glycosidic linkage d)  1-4 glycosidic linkage b)  1-6 glycosidic linkage

14. What is the main function of fats? a) To act as biological catalysts b) Energy storing c) To store hereditary information d) To build materials e) Oxygen transport

15. What is the difference between DNA and RNA? a) DNA has nucleotides containing the base A, G, C and U, while RNA contains A, G, c and T b) DNA is enzyme, while RNA is vitamin c) The function of DNA is the translation of genetic information, while RNA is the major energy carrier. d) DNA has nucleotides containing the base A, G, C and T, while RNA contains A, G, C and U e) DNA contains ribose, whereas RNA contains deoxyribose

16. Living organisms must continually capture, store and use: )a energy )b lipids )c carbohydrates )d Mr. Nakashima )e A and B

17. In chemical reactions, entropy increases when: a) solid reactants become liquid or gaseous products b) liquid reactants become gaseous products c) complex molecules react to form simpler molecules d) gaseous reactants become liquid products e) a, b, and c

18. The most common form of energy absorbed are released by chemical reactions in living things is )a thermal energy as water )b thermal energy as heat )c c)thermal energy as glucose )d none of the above

19. C6H1206 + 6O2 - > 6CO2 + 6H2O: ΔH Combustion = KJ/Mol C6H12O6 is 2870 KJ/Mol )a An endothermic reaction )b An exothermic reaction )c Thermodynamic reaction )d a and b )e none of the above

20. What forms from C6H12O6 + 6O2? a) 6CO2 + 6H2O b) 6CO2 + H2O c) Water d) a and c e) none of the above

21. Which molecule is oxidized in this reaction? CH4 + 2O2  CO2 + Energy + 2H2O a) CH4 and CO2 b) 2O2 and energy c) products d) a and c e) all of the above

22. An exothermic reaction favours a) an increase in entropy b) a decrease in entropy c) energy d) enzyme e) none of the above

23. Hydrolysis of the terminal phosphate of ATP is an exergonic process resulting in a) a less stable product b) a more stable product c) activation energy d) exergonic increase in entropy e) all of the above

24. To oxidize is to: a) gain electrons b) lose electrons c) oxidize a membrane d) gain oxygen e) none of the above

25. The Free Energy definition was created by: a) Darwin b) Lamarck c) Newton d) Watson e) Gibbs

26. What does catalyst do to the activation energy of reactions? )a Increases )b decreases )c sometime increase and sometimes decreases )d helps to get equilibrium state )e none of the above.

27. Which enzyme is used to get α-glucose? )a Maltose )b amylase )c pepsin )d pepsinogen )e trypsin

28. Active site is a) Pocket or groove in the two dimensional structure of the protein. b) The weakest site or bond in the enzyme. c) The location where substrate binds to the enzyme. d) The strongest site or bonds in the enzyme. e) None of the above.

29. What is the optimal temperature for enzyme in human? a) 40 C b) 30 C c) 50 C d) 37 C e) 35 C 30. Non competitive inhibitors a) Attack at active site of enzyme and block the normal substrate from binding. b) Attach at any side and denature the enzyme. c) Increase the activation energy. d) Denature the normal substrate. e) All of the above.

31. –COH this functional group represent a) Hydroxyl b) Carbonyl ketones c) Carbonyl aldehydes d) Carboxyl e) b and c

32. There are about ______different amino acids found in most proteins a) 20 b) 40 c) 13 d) 35 e) none of the above

33. The bond between the carboxyl group of one amino acid and the amino group of a second amino acid of a protein a) Ionic bond b) Hydrogen bond c) Peptide bond d) Covalent bond e) All

34. Fats are composed of a) Fatty acid b) Nucleic acid c) Amino acid d) Glycerol e) a and d

35. Lactose is a) disaccharide b) polysaccharide c) monosaccharide d) produced by the hydrolysis of β galactose and α glucose e) a and d

36. In an enzyme-catalyzed reaction, the substrate binds to a very small portion of the enzyme. The location where the substrate binds to the enzyme is called a) enzyme – substrate complex b) induced – fit model c) active site d) allosteric site e) none of the above

37. Feedback inhibition is a method used by the cell a) to control metabolic pathway involving a series of sequential reactions b) to be in the active form more often the production of the inhibitor product increases c) to produce ATP d) all of the above e) none of the above 38. Some enzymes posses receptor sites called a) active site b) activator c) alloster site d) allosteric inhibitor e) none of the above

39. Enzyme are used in some commercial and industrial processes such as a) brewing b) paper – making c) cheese making d) cleaning e) all of the above

40. Substances that bind to the allosteric site may a) denature the enzyme b) change the enzyme shape c) stimulate an enzyme activity d) all of the above e) none of the above

Biology Review Questions: Multiple Choices – Chapter 2 and 4

Full Contributor: John, Jackson, Michelle, Nancy, Nirujah, Basera

1. What category does plants fall into? a) photoautotrophs b) heterotrophs c) chemoautotrophs d) herbivores e) none of the above

2. How is the following equation balanced? Equation: C6H12O6 (aq) + O2 (g)  CO2 (g) + H2O (l) a) 0:6 : 6:6 b) 0:6 : 12:6 c) 6:6 : 12:6 d) 1:6 : 12:6 e) 1:6 : 6:6

3. In respiration of animals, which gases are used and which are produced? a) O2 (g) : H2O (g) b) CO2 (g) : O2 (g) c) H2O (g) : O2 (g) d) O2 (g) : CO2 (g) e) H2O (g) : CO2 (g)

4. Which process do animals use for energy? a) Anaerobic cellular respiration b) Aerobic cellular respiration c) Heterotrophic cellular respiration d) Carnivorous cellular respiration e) Both a) and b)

5. Which type of organism cannot live in presence of oxygen? a) Obligate aerobes b) Obligate anaerobes c) Facultative anaerobes d) Facultative aerobes e) Anti-oxygenic organisms

6. Which one is not part of the modern cell theory? a) All living things are composed of cells b) Cells are the basic units of living organisms c) All cells come from pre-existing cells d) All cells contain smaller parts e) All cells are created by God

7. Which scientist did not contribute to the cell theory in the 1800’s? a) Schleiden b) Schwann c) Virchow d) Mendel e) John Wu

8. Cells obtain energy and get rid of waste through their ______. a) cell wall b) cell membrane c) cell surface area d) organelles e) nucleus

9. The size of most plant and animal cells ranges from ______. a) 0.1 and 10 um b) 0.01 and 0.10 um c) 10 and 100 um d) 1 and 10 um e) 1 and 100 um

10. During cell division in eukaryotic cells, the replicated genetic material in the nucleus is divided equally between 2 daughter nuclei in a process known as a) Mitosis b) Meiosis c) Photosynthesis d) Both a and b e) None of the above

11. Mitosis is usually followed by a) cytokinesis b) splitting of 3 cells c) splitting of 2 new cells d) both a and c e) none of the above

12. The daughter cells has an exact copy of parent cell’ a) DNA b) RNA c) MRNA d) TRNA e) None of the above

13. Each single DNA strand could act as a template to build complementary strand, resulting on a) 2 identical DNA molecules b) 3 identical DNA molecules c) 4 identical DNA molecules d) 2 identical RNA molecules e) none of the above

14. Mitotic cell division is essential for the a) Growth of tissues during embryonic development and childhood b) Tissue regeneration. c) Hair growth d) Both a and b e) Both a and c

15. What is spontaneous generation? a) A current theory that states living organisms can be generated from non-living matter b) An outdated theory that states living organisms can be generated from non-living matter c) A current theory that suggests all matter is made up of spontaneous particles d) An outdated theory that suggests all matter is made up of spontaneous particles e) The Big Bang 16. It is better for a cell to have maximum membrane ______as possible. a) cell capacity b) volume c) surface area d) depth e) concentration

17. The number that go through the ATPase complex to produce what? a) Heat b) NADH c) Light d) ATP. e) Energy

18. What is the total theoretical ATP yield? a) 25 b) 30 c) 36 d) 37 e) 32

19. The minimum amount of energy required to keep an organism alive is called the a) Metabolic rate b) Nomograms c) ATP d) The Aerobic Respiration Energy e) Basal metabolic rate (BMR)

20. What is the BMR of a healthy adult male? a) 167KJ/m/h b) 195KJ/m/h c) 150KJ/m/h d) 220KJ/m/h e) 187KJ/m/h

21. The BMR is measured when a person is a) Sleeping b) Sitting c) Lying at rest d) Exercising e) Bicycling (20km/h)

22. In Pyruvate Oxidation, which of the following changes occur to pyruvate? a) Removal of Carbon Dioxide b) Reduction of NAD+ by two H atoms c) Attachment of Coenzyme A d) All of the above e) Only A and C 23. How many different biological steps are involved in the Krebs cycle? a) 5 b) 7 c) 8 d) 9 e) Unknown

24. Between which of the two Krebs cycle products is FADH2 created? a) Isocitrate & Alpha-ketoglutarate b) Alpha-ketoglutarate & Succinyl-CoA c) Succinate & Fumarate d) Malate & Oxaloacetate e) Only A, B, and D

25. Between which of the two Krebs cycle products is water added? a) Isocitrate & Alpha-ketoglutarate b) Fumarate & Malate c) Succinate & Fumarate d) Only A and B e) None of the Above

26. Which statement below is FALSE in regard to Control Mechanism? a) ATP inhibits and ADP activates phsphofructokinase. b) A decrease in citrate concentration will increase ADP concentration. c) NADH from the Krebs cycle activates pyruvate decarboxylase. d) Both A and B are true (If you choose this one, then A and B is false) e) Vitamin C is necessary for a healthy lifestyle and to prevent scurvy.

27. The overall equation of the sequence of energy changes that occurs in aerobic respiration. a) C + O ------> CO b) C6H12O6 + 6O2-----> 6 CO2 + 6 H2O c) C12H6O12 + 6O2----> CO + H2O d) C6H6O6 + 6H2O----> 6CO2 + 6H2O e) NONE OF THE ABOVE

28. The energy transfer mechanism that captures free energy in the form of ATP are a) Substrate-level phosphorylation & oxidation phosphorylation b) Subtration & oxidation c) Light & dark reactions d) Subway phosphorylation & oxygen phosphorylation. e) None of the above.

28. The end product of glycolysis are: a) FADH & FAD+ b) ATP & NADH c) ATP & ADP d) H2O & NADH e) H2O & CO2

30. Glycolysis occurs in ______of all cells. a) Mitochondria b) Nucleus c) Cell membrane d) Cytoplasm e) Space

31. Aerobic cellular respiration occurs in: a) Matrix b) Mitochondria c) Intermembrane space d) Nucleus e) Space

32. NADH produced by glycolyis in the cytoplasm may diffuse through a) the outer mitochondrion membrane into the intermembrane space b) the inner membrane into the matrix c) the outer mitochondrail membrane into the matrix d) the inner membrane into the intermembrane space e) intermembrane space to the matrix

33. Where is the location of the transport chain a) intermembrane space b) matrix c) inner mitochondrial membrane d) all the above e) only a and c

34. What is the final production of ETC? a) ATP and water b) Just ATP c) Just water d) ATP and water,FADH2 e) ATP and FADH2

35. The components in ETC as follows: a) NADH dehydrogenase, ubiquinone, cytochrome c, cytochrome b-c 1 complex, and cytochrome oxidase b) NADH dehydrogenase, cytochrome b-c1 complex, cytochrome c, ubiquinone, and cytochrome oxidase complex c) NADH dehydrogenase, ubiquinone, cytochrome b-c1 complex, cytochrome c and cytochrome oxidase complex d) Cytochrome c, cytochrome oxidase complex, NADH dehydrogenase, ubiquinone e) Cytochrome c, cytochrome oxidase complex, ubiquinione, cytochrome b-c1 complex

36. The process in ETC begins when: a) FADH gains two electrons from first protein complex b) FADH loses two electrons to the first protein complex c) NADH gains two electrons from the first protein complex d) NADH loses two electrons to the first protein complex e) None of the above

37. Which is a nitrogenous base? a) NH4 b) Cosine c) Alkaline d) All of the above e) None of the above

38. Which group makes up the back bones of DNA? a) Sulfate group b) Nitrate group c) Hydroxyl group d) Ammonium group e) Phosphate group

39. Which group do not match? a) AU b) UT c) AT d) GC e) CG

40. Who won the Nobel Prize for deducing the structure of DNA? a) James Franklin b) James Watson c) Francis Crick d) a and b e) b and c

41. What was the key that reveals the helical structure of DNA? a) Micro X-ray pattern b) Crystal X-ray pattern c) Crystal diffraction pattern d) Micro diffraction pattern e) X-ray diffraction pattern

42. Mitotic cell division is essential for the a) Growth of tissues during embryonic development and childhood b) Tissue regeneration. c) Hair growth d) Both a and b e) Both a and c

43. Which of the following bonds are in adjacent amino acids? a) polypeptide b) hydrogen bonds c) metabolism d) peptide bonds

44. Which of the following levels of protein structure have the simply order of the amino acid in the polypeptide? a) tertiary structures b) quaternary c) primary structures d) secondary structures

45. When the iron of complex is slightly different in the blood of some marine worms, the results in their blood will be change to a) blue b) red and green c) red d) green

46. Hemoglobin carries oxygen in – blood cells? a) white blood b) red blood c) mixture of white and red d) mixture of red and white

47. What 6 types of atoms make up about 99% of all living organisms? a) carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen, phosphorous and sulfur b) carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen, potassium and sulfur c) calcium, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen, potassium and sulfur d) calcium, helium, nitrogen, oxygen, potassium and sulfur

48. Atoms bond to one another to form… a) elements b) compounds c) molecules d) electrons

49. What involves the sharing of electrons? a) ionic bond b) covalent bond c) hydrogen bond d) electronegativity

50. Ionic bonds occur when one atom______one or more electrons. a) shares b) receives c) donates d) loses

51. The reactions that break down compounds into simpler forms are ______. a) metabolism b) anabolism c) catabolism d) monomers

52. Which of the following are both acidic? a) HCL, lemon juice b) bleach, ammonia c) water, tomatoes d) baking soda, oven cleaner

Contributor: Julie, Samiya, Kennis, Meskatun, Tigist, Betelhem Chapter 3 Multiple Choice

Circle the correct letter:

1. Which of the following is NOT a stage of photosynthesis: a) Capturing light energy b) Using captured light energy to make ATP c) Using captured light energy to make reduced NADP+ d) Using free energy from ATP to synthesize organic compounds e) None of the above

2. What is a product of the light reactions of photosynthesis: a) ATP b) ADP and Pi c) NADP+ d) CH20 e) Both a) and c)

3. What percentage of energy from the sun is transferred to carbohydrates by a photosynthesizing leaf: a) 10% b) 11% c) 100% d) 5% e) 4%

4. Which of the following statements is correct: a) Microwaves and radiowaves fall within the visible light spectrum b) UV rays are shorter than X-rays c) Radiowaves are 10-5 nm long d) All light waves are invisible to the naked eye e) A light wave which is high in energy and has a high frequency is a short wavelength

5. Which scientist was the first to realize sunlight is essential in the process of photosynthesis: a) Joseph Priestley b) J.B. Van Helmont c) Jan Ingenhousz d) C.B. Van Niel e) Samiya Syeda

6. Xanthophylls are: a) pigments in chloroplast membranes that give leaves in autumn a yellow colour b) pigments in vacuoles that give leaves in autumn a red colour c) pigments in chloroplasts that give leaves a green colour d) found in carotenoids e) all of the above

7. PAR: a) stands for Photosynthesis Absorption of Relative wavelengths b) stands for Photosynthetically Active Relations c) is between the range of 400-700 nm d) is between the range of 680-700 nm e) both b) and d)

8. Which equation summarizes the overall process of photosynthesis: a) C6H12O6 + 6H2O + 6O2  6CO2 + 12H2O + light energy b) Light energy + 12H20 +6CO2  C6H12O6 +6H20 +6O2 c) ATP + sugar + carbon dioxide  water + carbon dioxide d) ATP + 12H2O  6O2 + 6H2O e) Light reaction + dark reaction  carbon fixation

9. Beta Carotene: a) has a double bonded carbon chain backbone b) has a six carbon hexagon on either end of the molecule c) is made entirely of hydrogen and carbon d) all of the above e) none of the above

10. Red cabbage may be used as an acid/base indicator because: a) it contains xanthophylls b) it contains anthocyanins c) it contains beta carotene d) it is extremely basic in nature e) it has a neutral pH

11. _____ absorbs a photon and transfers the energy from pigment to pigment until it reaches a chlorophyll a molecule in an area called the reaction centre. a) Anthocyanins b) -carotene c) Antenna pigment d) Xanthophylls e) Chlorophyll b

12. What is required for the formation of ATP by chemiosmosis in photosynthesis? a) Water b) Mineral c) Energy d) Vitamin e) Light

13. What is photoexcitation? a) The movement of protons through ATPase complexes to drive the phosphorylation of ADP to ATP. b) An absorption of a photon by an electron of chlorophyll. c) The release of energy as light as an atom’s electron returns to its ground state. d) Synthesizing ATP and NADPH. e) The process of incorporating CO2 into carbohydrate molecules.

14. Where in the chloroplast dose the Calvin Cycle occur? a) Stomata b) Thylakoid membrane c) Stroma d) Mitochondria e) None of them

15. What is the protein that associated with photosystem 2 that splits water into hydrogen ions, oxygen atoms, and electrons? a) Z protein b) Q protein c) PQ protein d) F protein e) Fd protein

16. Photosynthesis occurs in a) mitochondria b) cytoplasm c) thylakoid membrane of chloroplast d) nucleus e) endoplasmic reticulum

17. What is the source of electron in the electron transfer chain? a) light b) water c) fluorescence d) ATP e) plastoquinone

18. How the electrons go out of the thylakoid membrane? a) through ATP synthase b) diffusion c) Na ,K pump d) all of the above e) none of the above

19. What is the function of Z- protein? a) accepting electron b) ionize water c) c) keep the P level in the thylakoid luman d) helps in ATP ase e) all of the above

20. What is the name of the enzyme which works in carbon fixation reaction? a) 3 – phosphor glycerate b) ribulose 1,5- bisphosphate c) pyrubic acid d) adenine tri phosphate e) none of the above

21.Which part of a leaf allow exchange of gases between air space in the interior and the atmosphere a) stomata b) thylakoid membrane c) guard cells d) cuticle e) none

22. Epidermise layer a) allows light to pass through the mesophyll cells b) create microscopic openings called stomata c) protect the leaf from excessive absorption of light d) a and c e) none

23. The light-absorbing portion of the chlorophyll molecule a) chloroplast b) cuticle c) prophyline d) mesophyll layers e) none

24. Thylakoid membrane a) the fluid filled space inside a thylakoid b) unstuck thylakoid between grana c) a stack of thylakoids d) protein rich semi liquid material in the interior of a chloroplast e) none

25. When is the stoma open? a) when k+ ions diffuses into guard cells b) when k+ ions diffuses out of guard cells c) when guard cells are swollen d) a and c e) none

26. The over all reaction of photosynthesis is a) 6CO2 +12H2O+ light energy  C6H12O6 + 6H2O +6O2 b) C6H12O6 + 6H2O + 6O2  6CO2 + 12H2O +light energy c) C6H12O6  6CO +12H2O d) A&B e) All of the above

27. What is the function of the antennae complex in the photosystem? a) It transfer energy to the reaction center b) It carry electron from thylakoid lumen c) It absorb light d) It transfer electron to the primary accepter e) None of the above

28. Which cell is control the size of a stoma a) vascular bundles b) guard cell c) cuticle d) thylakoid lumen e) A&C

29. The concept of transpiration as it relates to plant tissues is? a) The loss of water vapor from plant tissues, primarily through stomata b) The process of how stomata regulate the opening and closing of guard cell c) The exchange of gases between air spaces in the leaf interior and the atmosphere d) B&C e) All of the above

30. The porphyrin portion of chlorophyll contains ______atom a) sodium b) chlorine c) magnesium d) phosphate e) none the above

31. After which degree mark do enzymes perform optimally in plants? a) 40C b) 50C c) 30C d) 22C

32. Irradiance = a) M2/cd b) Mmol/M2/S c) CO2/Light d) Cd/M2

33. Increasing irradiance results in a) burning the leaf epidermis b) increased production of NADPH and ATP c) decreased, et et et tetc,, d) all of the above e) none of the above

34. When light intensity increases in a C3 plant, a) Light emits CO2 uptake b) CO2 limits CO2 uptake c) leaf’s surface area limits uptake d) all of the above e) none of the above

35. Light compensation points are a) positive output b) the point at which the rate of photosynthetic CO2 uptake equals the rate of respiratory CO2 evolution c) negative uptake d) all of the above e) none of the above

Contributor: Jackson, Samiya, Betelhem, Julie, Tigist Chapter 5 True & False

T F 1. Ribosome subunit binds to the 4` cap of the mRNA transcript.

T F 2. The process of elongation continues until a stop codon is read.

T F 3. Ribosome moves along the mRNA from 5` to 3`

T F 4. tRNA carries proteins

T F 5. one reading frame consists of 3 groups

T F 6. Poly-A polymerase is a substrate that catalyzes the degradation of bases in the mRNA.

T F 7. The coding strand is the strand that is used for transcription of DNA to form mRNA. T F 8. The promoter is the sequence of DNA that binds RNA polymerase upstream of a gene.

T F 9. Spliceosomes are particles made of RNA and protein. They are responsible for the cutting of introns from mRNA and joining of exons together.

T F 10. Exons are non-coding regions of mRNA that code for a specific protein.

T F 11. Translation involves ribosomes using the messenger RNA as a blue print to synthesize a protein.

T F 12. MRNA is very short, only 70-90 base pairs long.

T F 13. A complementary RNA strand is synthesized in the direction of 3’ to5’.

T F 14. When lack of tryptophan inactive the repressor and transcription proceed.

T F 15. The role of ribosomal RNA is deliver amino acid to the ribosome to undergo protein synthesis.

T F 16. This is an example of a missense mutation : AAG CCC GGC AAA AAC CCG GCA AA

T F 17. Posttranslational control affects the rate at which a protein becomes active and the time that it remains functional, including the addition of various chemical groups.

T F 18. Beta galactosidase is the enzyme responsible for the degradation of lactose.

T F 19. Centromeres are found in the chromatid.

T F 20. The acceptor site of amino acid tyrosine is the 3’ end.

T F 21. The sugar found in DNA is ribose sugar.

T F 22. rRNA is a structural component of a ribosome.

T F 23. P (peptide) site is a site in the ribosome where tRNA brings in an amino acid.

T F 24. Proteins determine the phenotypical characteristics of organisms.

T F 25. Translation is the process in which DNA is used as a template for the production of complementary messenger RNA molecules.

Contributor: Jackson, Samiya, Betelhem, Julie, Tigist Chapter 5 Multiple Choice

1. An intact ribosome consists of the following subunits: a) Two large subunits b) Two small subunits c) Large + small subunit d) One small subunit e) One large subunit

2. Which molecule is attached to the A site during translation? a) DNA b) tDNA c) mDNA d) tRNA e) mRNA

3. Which end is the accepter site consists of? a) 1` b) 2` c) 3` d) 4` e) 5`

4. Which is the sequence on the P site? a) Codex b) Anticodex c) Codon d) Anticodon e) Codonex

5. Which set of codons are NOT the stop codons? a) AGU b) UAG c) UGA d) UAA e) None of the above

6. Which of these best describes the process of “initiation” in transcription a) The RNA polymerase starts to replicate the DNA strand in the 5’ to 3’ direction. b) RNA polymerase binds to the DNA molecule upstream at the promoter region. c) RNA polymerase ceases transcription and releases the DNA. d) The DNA strand is unwound and the double helix is disrupted exposing the template strand. e) Only b and d

7. Which of these best describes the process of “elongation” in transcription a) mRNA transcript is formed due to posttranscriptional modifications b) RNA polymerase moves along the DNA strand synthesizing mRNA c) When mRNA is synthesized uracil complements adenine d) Spliceosomes cut out the introns and join the mRNA molecule e) Only b and c

8. Which of these best describes the process of “termination” in transcription a) RNA synthesis ceases and both mRNA and RNA polymerase are released b) The DNA molecule is synthesized by the RNA polymerase c) Thymine is replaced by uracil in the stand d) All of the above e) None of the above

9. In posttranscriptional modification a) The template strand is replicated by the RNA polymerase b) A 5’ cap is added to the primary transcript c) A poly-A tail is added to the 3’ end d) Only b and c e) All of the above

10. In eukaryotic cells a) Translation occurs before transcription b) Elongation stops the transcription of RNA c) Posttranscriptional modifications occurs after termination d) All of the above e) None of the above

11. It involves copying of in formation in DNA in to messenger RNA? a) Translation b) b) Transcription c) c) Protein synthesis d) d) B&C e) None of the above

12. Which one is the universal start codon? a) AUG b) UAA c) UGC d) GGU e) UAG

13. What are introns? a) Coding region of gene b) non coding of region c) Part of a specific portion d) A&C e) None of the above

14. The lac operon is an example of ______? a) Enzyme repression b) Enzyme induction c) Elongation d) Termination e) A & C

15. What is mutation? a) Changes in the DNA sequence that are inherited b) The placement of an extra nucleotide in a DNA sequence c) The elimination of base d) The transfer of fragment of DNA e) None of the above

16. LINEs are: a) repeated DNA sequences of 5000 to 7000 base pairs in length that alternate with lengths of DNA sequences found in the genomes of higher organisms b) repeated DNA sequences of 300 base pairs in length that alternate with lengths of DNA sequences found in the genomes of higher organisms c) DNA sequences that are homologous with knows genes but are never transcribed d) complex of DNA and histone proteins located in the nucleus of eukaryotes e) all of the above

17. A small subunit of ribosomes is: a) 60S b) 80S c) 40U d) 4S e) none of the above

18. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of ribonucleic acid: a) contains ribose b) single stranded c) adenine pairs with thymine d) resides both in the cytoplasm e) none of the above

19. The difference between ribose and deoxyribose sugar is: a) deoxyribose has one less oxygen on the second carbon b) deoxyribose has one less oxygen on the third carbon c) ribose resides in the cytoplasm, deoxyribose does not d) both a and c e) all of the above 20. In the hemoglobin beta chain of a person with sickle cell anemia, glutamic acid is replaced with: a) histidine b) valine c) praline d) leucine e) vasaline

21. Genes are a) A sequence of nucleotides in DNA b) The direct the production of proteins c) The direct the production of physiological essential proteins d) All e) None

22. Proteins are synthesized a) Out side the nucleus b) Inside the nucleus c) In the cytoplasm d) On ribosome e) All except b

23. In transcription RNA polymerize bins to the DNA during a) Initiation b) Elongation c) Termination d) b and c e) All

24. The process by which a ribosome assembles amino acids in a specific sequence to synthesize a specific polypeptide coded by mRNA. a) Termination b) Transcription c) Translation d) Initiation e) Elongation

25. The DNA code is read in group of three nucleotides is called a) Anticodon b) Codon c) Introns d) None e) Tridon

Due to time restriction, only answer to Chapter 1 AND 3 is provided.