Chemistry Study Guide

Chemistry (CP) Study Guide First Trimester Exam December 4

The first trimester exam will ask 100 questions from chapters 1 thru 5. Questions will be based on this study guide attached.

Matching

Match each item with the correct statement below. a. organic chemistry d. analytical chemistry b. inorganic chemistry e. physical chemistry c. biochemistry ____ 1. the study of the processes that take place in organisms ____ 2. concerned with the mechanism, rate, and energy transfer that occurs when matter undergoes a change ____ 3. the study of all chemicals containing carbon ____ 4. the study of the composition of matter

Match each item with the correct statement below. a. mixture d. reactant b. product e. heterogeneous mixture c. phase f. vapor ____ 5. gaseous state of substance that is a liquid or solid at room temperature ____ 6. a physical blend of two or more components ____ 7. part of a sample having uniform composition and properties ____ 8. not uniform in composition ____ 9. a substance formed in a chemical reaction ____ 10. starting substance in a chemical reaction

Match each item with the correct statement below. a. distillation d. compound b. mass e. element c. chemical reaction f. homogeneous ____ 11. amount of matter an object contains ____ 12. describes mixture with a uniform composition ____ 13. a process in which a liquid is boiled to produce a vapor that is condensed again into a liquid ____ 14. substance that cannot be changed into simpler substances by chemical means ____ 15. composed of two or more substances chemically combined in a fixed proportion ____ 16. process in which substances are changed into different substances

Match each item with the correct statement below. a. absolute zero e. mass b. Kelvin temperature scale f. significant figure c. Celsius temperature scale g. precision d. weight h. accuracy ____ 17. closeness to true value ____ 18. known or estimated in a measurement ____ 19. the quantity of matter an object contains ____ 20. the lowest point on the Kelvin scale ____ 21. the SI scale for temperature ____ 22. the force of gravity on an object ____ 23. the non-SI scale for temperature

Match each item with the correct statement below. a. proton d. electron b. nucleus e. neutron c. atom ____ 24. the smallest particle of an element that retains the properties of that element ____ 25. a positively charged subatomic particle ____ 26. a negatively charged subatomic particle ____ 27. a subatomic particle with no charge ____ 28. the central part of an atom, containing protons and neutrons

Match each item with the correct statement below. a. mass number d. atomic mass b. atomic mass unit e. isotope c. atomic number ____ 29. atoms with the same number of protons, but different numbers of neutrons in the nucleus of an atom ____ 30. the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom ____ 31. the number of protons in the nucleus of an element ____ 32. the weighted average of the masses of the isotopes of an element ____ 33. one-twelfth the mass of a carbon atom having six protons and six neutrons

Match each item with the correct statement below. a. atomic orbital d. ground state b. aufbau principle e. Pauli exclusion principle c. electron configuration f. Heisenberg uncertainty principle ____ 34. region of high probability of finding an electron ____ 35. states the impossibility of knowing both velocity and position of a moving particle at the same time ____ 36. lowest energy level ____ 37. tendency of electrons to enter orbitals of lowest energy first ____ 38. arrangement of electrons around atomic nucleus ____ 39. each orbital has at most two electrons

Match each item with the correct statement below. a. atomic emission spectrum d. photon b. frequency e. quantum c. wavelength f. spectrum ____ 40. discrete bundle of electromagnetic energy ____ 41. energy needed to move an electron from one energy level to another ____ 42. number of wave cycles passing a point per unit of time ____ 43. distance between wave crests ____ 44. separation of light into different wavelengths ____ 45. frequencies of light emitted by an element

Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 46. Which field of science studies the composition and structure of matter? a. physics c. chemistry b. biology d. geology ____ 47. The study of chemicals that, in general, do not contain carbon is traditionally called what type of chemistry? a. bio c. physical b. inorganic d. analytical ____ 48. Which of the following would a chemist be most likely to study? a. a leaf floating on water c. a leaf being blown by the wind b. a leaf changing color in autumn d. a leaf being eaten by insects ____ 49. Which of the following best describes an example of pure chemistry? a. testing the effects of lower concentrations of a drug on humans b. studying chemicals containing carbon c. developing a cure for osteoporosis d. finding an antidote for a new strain of virus ____ 50. Which of the following statements is false? a. Knowledge of chemistry allows the public to make informed decisions. b. Studying chemistry ensures that officials make correct choices in funding technology. c. Knowledge of chemistry helps prepare people for careers in soil science. d. Chemistry explains many aspects of nature. ____ 51. Which of the following is NOT an example of chemistry research in the main area of energy? a. producing hook-and-loop tape b. determining the usefulness of oil from soybean plants c. developing rechargeable batteries d. studying the effects of insulation ____ 52. Which of the following is an example of a current research focus in chemistry? a. development of smoke detectors for common use b. using hook-and-loop tape in the clothing industry c. applying gene therapy to treat certain diseases d. studying coal combustion as an energy source ____ 53. Which of the following can be observed only in a microscopic view? a. foam insulation c. shape of a soybean plant b. X-ray of a knee joint d. structure of a muscle cell ____ 54. Which of the following was a major contribution to chemistry by Antoine Lavoisier? a. He showed that oxygen is required for material to burn. b. He demonstrated the presence of phlogiston in air. c. He encouraged scientists to form explanations based on philosophical arguments. d. He developed the science of alchemy. ____ 55. One characteristic of a scientific theory is that ____. a. it can never be proved c. it cannot be modified b. it can be proved d. it summarizes a set of observations ____ 56. A theory is a ____. a. proposed explanation for an observation b. well-tested explanation for a broad set of observations c. summary of the results of many observations d. procedure used to test a proposed explanation

____ 57. Which step in the scientific method requires you to use your senses to obtain information? a. revising a hypothesis c. making an observation b. designing an experiment d. stating a theory ____ 58. The variable that is observed during an experiment is called what type of variable? a. independent c. controlling b. manipulated d. responding ____ 59. Collaboration and communication are important in science because ____. a. most research problems are not very complex b. most scientists have the knowledge to solve any scientific problem c. they increase the likelihood of a successful outcome d. they keep scientists from having to repeat experiments ____ 60. Which of these steps should always be followed for effective problem solving? a. buying a larger quantity of material than estimated b. performing metric conversions c. developing a plan and then implementing the plan d. using a trial-and-error approach and then evaluating ____ 61. The step that usually comes last in solving numeric problems is ____. a. calculate c. evaluate b. measure d. analyze ____ 62. Which of the following is NOT an example of matter? a. air c. smoke b. heat d. water vapor ____ 63. A golf ball has more mass than a tennis ball because it ____. a. takes up more space c. contains different kinds of matter b. contains more matter d. has a definite composition ____ 64. An example of an extensive property of matter is ____.

a. temperature c. mass b. pressure d. hardness ____ 65. All of the following are physical properties of matter EXCEPT ____. a. mass c. melting point b. color d. ability to rust ____ 66. Which of the following is NOT a physical property of water? a. It has a boiling point of 100 C. b. It is a colorless liquid. c. It is composed of hydrogen and oxygen. d. Sugar dissolves in it. ____ 67. Which of the following are considered physical properties of a substance? a. color and odor c. malleability and hardness b. melting and boiling points d. all of the above ____ 68. A vapor is which state of matter? a. solid c. gas b. liquid d. all of the above ____ 69. A substance that forms a vapor is generally in what physical state at room temperature? a. solid c. gas b. liquid d. liquid or solid

____ 70. Which state of matter has a definite volume and takes the shape of its container? a. solid c. gas b. liquid d. both b and c ____ 71. Which state of matter takes both the shape and volume of its container? a. solid c. gas b. liquid d. both b and c ____ 72. Which state of matter is characterized by having an indefinite shape, but a definite volume? a. gas c. solid b. liquid d. none of the above ____ 73. Which state of matter expands when heated and is easy to compress? a. gas c. solid b. liquid d. all of the above ____ 74. All of the following are physical properties of a substance in the liquid state EXCEPT ____. a. indefinite volume c. not easily compressed b. definite mass d. indefinite shape ____ 75. Which of the following is a physical change? a. corrosion c. evaporation b. explosion d. rotting of food ____ 76. Which of the following CANNOT be classified as a substance? a. table salt c. nitrogen b. air d. gold ____ 77. Which of the following is a heterogeneous mixture? a. air c. steel b. salt water d. soil ____ 78. Which of the following CANNOT be considered a single phase? a. a pure solid c. a homogeneous mixture b. a pure liquid d. a heterogeneous mixture ____ 79. Which of the following is true about homogeneous mixtures? a. They are known as solutions. b. They consist of two or more phases. c. They have compositions that never vary. d. They are always liquids. ____ 80. Which of the following is a heterogeneous mixture? a. vinegar in water c. oil and vinegar b. milk d. air ____ 81. Which of the following is a homogeneous mixture? a. salt water c. sand and water b. beef stew d. soil ____ 82. Separating a solid from a liquid by evaporating the liquid is called ____. a. filtration c. solution b. condensation d. distillation ____ 83. An example of a homogeneous mixture is ____. a. water c. noodle soup b. stainless steel d. oxygen ____ 84. Which of the following items is NOT a compound? a. baking soda c. sucrose b. salad dressing d. table salt

____ 85. Which of the following is true about compounds? a. They can be physically separated into their component elements. b. They have compositions that vary. c. They are substances. d. They have properties similar to those of their component elements. ____ 86. A substance that can be separated into two or more substances only by a chemical change is a(n) ____. a. solution c. mixture b. element d. compound ____ 87. Which of the following materials is a substance? a. air c. stainless steel b. gasoline d. silver ____ 88. What is one difference between a mixture and a compound? a. A compound consists of more than one phase. b. A compound can only be separated into its components by chemical means. c. A mixture can only be separated into its components by chemical means. d. A mixture must be uniform in composition. ____ 89. What distinguishes a substance from a mixture? a. Substances are compounds, and mixtures are not. b. Mixtures are groupings of elements, and compounds are not. c. Samples of the same substance can have different intensive properties. d. Mixtures can be separated physically, while compounds cannot. ____ 90. The first figure in a properly written chemical symbol always is ____. a. boldfaced c. italicized b. capitalized d. underlined ____ 91. The chemical symbol for iron is ____. a. fe c. Fe b. FE d. Ir ____ 92. Which of the following represents a compound?

a. H c. H2O b. H-3 d. O-16 ____ 93. The chemical formula of a compound does NOT indicate the ____. a. identity of the elements in the compound b. how elements are joined in the compound c. the composition of the compound d. relative proportions of the elements in the compound ____ 94. What do chemical symbols and formulas represent, respectively? a. elements and compounds b. atoms and mixtures c. compounds and mixtures d. elements and ions ____ 95. Which substance has a chemical symbol that is derived from a Latin name? a. calcium c. oxygen b. hydrogen d. potassium ____ 96. Which of the following is a chemical property? a. color c. freezing point b. hardness d. ability to react with oxygen ____ 97. In the chemical reaction in which sucrose is heated and decomposes to form carbon dioxide and water, which of the following is a reactant? a. sucrose c. water b. carbon dioxide d. heat ____ 98. What must occur for a change to be a chemical reaction? a. There must be a change in chemical properties. b. There must be a change in physical properties. c. The change must involve a change in mass. d. The change must involve a change in volume. ____ 99. Which of the following is NOT a physical change? a. grating cheese c. fermenting of cheese b. melting cheese d. mixing two cheeses in a bowl ____ 100. All of the following changes to a metal are physical changes EXCEPT ____. a. bending c. rusting b. melting d. polishing ____ 101. Which of the following does NOT involve a physical change? a. mixing c. grinding b. melting d. decomposing ____ 102. Which of the following processes does NOT involve a change in chemical properties? a. rusting c. boiling b. fermenting d. burning ____ 103. A chemical change occurs when a piece of wood ____. a. is split c. decays b. is painted d. is cut ____ 104. Which of the following is a chemical property of water at 4 C? a. its color b. its state c. its temperature d. its ability to decompose into hydrogen and oxygen ____ 105. What must be done to be certain that a chemical change has taken place? a. Check for the production of bubbles before and after the change. b. Demonstrate that a release of energy occurred after the change. c. Check the composition of the sample before and after the change. d. Demonstrate that energy was absorbed by the reactants after the change. ____ 106. When paper turns yellow-brown upon exposure to sunlight, what type of change is likely taking place? a. a physical change b. a chemical change c. neither a physical change nor a chemical change d. both a physical change and a chemical change ____ 107. Which of the following does NOT indicate that a chemical change may have taken place? a. fracture formation c. precipitate formation b. gas production d. energy transfer ____ 108. Which action changes the identity of the substance referenced? a. melting gold b. running an electric current through copper c. corroding iron d. breaking an ice cube ____ 109. What happens to matter during a chemical reaction? a. Matter is neither destroyed or created. b. Some matter is destroyed. c. Some matter is created. d. Some matter is destroyed and some is created. ____ 110. Which of the following is true for all chemical reactions? a. The total mass of the reactants increases. b. The total mass of the products is greater than the total mass of the reactants. c. The total mass of the products is less than the total mass of the reactants. d. The total mass of the reactants equals the total mass of the products. ____ 111. When an iron nail is ground into powder, its mass ____. a. stays the same c. increases b. decreases d. cannot be determined ____ 112. The diameter of a carbon atom is 0.000 000 000 154 m. What is this number expressed in scientific notation? a. 1.54 10 m c. 1.54 10 m b. 1.54 10 m d. 1.54 10 m ____ 113. The expression of 5008 km in scientific notation is ____. a. 5.008 10 km c. 5.008 10 km b. 50.08 10 km d. 5.008 10 km ____ 114. What is the result of multiplying 2.5 10 by 3.5 10 ? a. 8.75 10 c. 8.75 10 b. 8.75 10 d. 8.75 10 ____ 115. What is the result of adding 2.5 10 and 3.5 10 ? a. 2.9 10 c. 2.9 10 b. 6.0 10 d. 6.0 10 ____ 116. The closeness of a measurement to its true value is a measure of its ____. a. precision c. reproducibility b. accuracy d. usefulness ____ 117. When a test instrument is calibrated, does its accuracy, precision, or reliability improve? a. precision c. reliability b. accuracy d. all of the above ____ 118. Which of the following measurements (of different masses) is the most accurate? a. 3.1000 g c. 3.122 22 g b. 3.100 00 g d. 3.000 000 g ____ 119. Which group of measurements is the most precise? (Each group of measurements is for a different object.) a. 2 g, 3 g, 4 g c. 2 g, 2.5 g, 3 g b. 2.0 g, 3.0 g, 4.0 g d. 1 g, 3 g, 5 g ____ 120. Three different people weigh a standard mass of 2.00 g on the same balance. Each person obtains a reading of 7.32 g for the mass of the standard. These results imply that the balance that was used is ____. a. accurate c. accurate and precise b. precise d. neither accurate nor precise ____ 121. Which of the following measurements is expressed to three significant figures? a. 0.007 m c. 7.30 10 km b. 7077 mg d. 0.070 mm ____ 122. In the measurement 0.503 L, which digit is the estimated digit? a. 5 b. the 0 immediately to the left of the 3 c. 3 d. the 0 to the left of the decimal point ____ 123. How many significant figures are in the measurement 0.003 4 kg? a. two c. five b. four d. This cannot be determined. ____ 124. How many significant figures are in the measurement 40,500 mg? a. two c. four b. three d. five ____ 125. How many significant figures are in the measurement 811.40 grams? a. two c. four b. three d. five ____ 126. Express the sum of 7.68 m and 5.0 m using the correct number of significant digits. a. 12.68 m c. 13 m b. 12.7 m d. 10 m ____ 127. Express the product of 2.2 mm and 5.00 mm using the correct number of significant digits. a. 10 mm c. 11.0 mm b. 11 mm d. 11.00 mm ____ 128. What is the measurement 111.009 mm rounded off to four significant digits? a. 111 mm c. 111.01 mm b. 111.0 mm d. 110 mm ____ 129. What is the measurement 1042 L rounded off to two significant digits? a. 1.0 10 L c. 1050 L b. 1040 L d. 1.1 10 L ____ 130. Express the product of 4.0 10 m and 8.1 10 m using the correct number of significant digits. a. 3 10 c. 3.2 10 b. 3.0 10 d. 3.24 10 ____ 131. When multiplying and dividing measured quantities, the number of significant figures in the result should be equal to the number of significant figures in ____. a. all of the measurements b. the least and most precise measurements c. the most precise measurement d. the least precise measurement ____ 132. What is the volume of a salt crystal measuring 2.44 10 m by 1.4 10 m by 8.4 10 m? a. 2.9 10 m c. 2.9 10 m b. 2.9 10 m d. 2.9 10 m ____ 133. What quantity is represented by the metric system prefix deci-? a. 1000 c. 0.1 b. 100 d. 0.01

____ 134. What is the metric system prefix for the quantity 0.000 001? a. centi- c. kilo- b. deci- d. micro- ____ 135. The chief advantage of the metric system over other systems of measurement is that it ____. a. has more units c. is in French b. is in multiples of 10 d. is derived from nature itself ____ 136. Which of the following units is NOT an official SI unit? a. kilogram c. mole b. ampere d. liter ____ 137. Which of the following volumes is the smallest? a. one microliter c. one milliliter b. one liter d. one deciliter ____ 138. What is the SI unit of mass? a. liter c. candela b. joule d. kilogram ____ 139. What is the temperature of absolute zero measured in C? a. –373 C c. –173 C b. –273 C d. –73 C ____ 140. Which temperature scale has no negative temperatures? a. Celsius c. Joule b. Fahrenheit d. Kelvin ____ 141. What is the boiling point of water in kelvins? a. 0 K c. 273 K b. 100 K d. 373 K ____ 142. Which of the following mass units is the largest? a. 1 cg c. 1 mg b. 1 dg d. 1 ng ____ 143. The weight of an object ____. a. is the same as its mass c. is not affected by gravity b. depends on its location d. is always the same ____ 144. What is the temperature –34 C expressed in kelvins? a. 139 K c. 239 K b. 207 K d. 339 K ____ 145. If the temperature changes by 100 K, by how much does it change in C? a. 0 C c. 100 C b. 37 C d. 273 C ____ 146. Chlorine boils at 239 K. What is the boiling point of chlorine expressed in degrees Celsius? a. 93 C c. –61 C b. 34 C d. –34 C Commonly Used Metric Prefixes Prefix Meaning Factor mega (M) 1 million times larger than the unit it precedes 10 kilo (k) 1000 times larger than the unit it precedes 10 deci (d) 10 times smaller than the unit it precedes 10 centi (c) 100 times smaller than the unit it precedes 10 milli (m) 1000 times smaller than the unit it precedes 10 micro ( ) 1 million times smaller than the unit it precedes 10 nano (n) 1000 million times smaller than the unit it precedes 10 pico (p) 1 trillion times smaller than the unit it precedes 10

____ 147. What is the quantity 0.0075 meters expressed in centimeters? Use the table above to help you. a. 0.075 cm c. 7.5 cm b. 0.75 cm d. 70.5 cm ____ 148. What is the quantity 7896 millimeters expressed in meters? Use the table above to help you. a. 7.896 m c. 789.6 m b. 78.96 m d. 789,600 m ____ 149. What is the quantity 987 milligrams expressed in grams? Use the table above to help you. a. 0.000 987 g c. 9.87 g b. 0.987 g d. 98,700 g ____ 150. Which of the following equalities is NOT correct? Use the table above to help you. a. 100 cg = 1 g c. 1 cm = 1 mL b. 1000 mm = 1 m d. 10 kg = 1 g ____ 151. A cubic meter is about the same as the volume occupied by a ____. a. kilogram of water c. washing machine b. cup of milk d. basketball arena ____ 152. The quantity 44 liters expressed in cubic meters is ____. a. 0.000 044 m c. 0.44 m b. 440 000 m d. 0.044 m ____ 153. Density is found by dividing ____. a. mass by volume c. mass by area b. volume by mass d. area by mass ____ 154. What is the density of an object having a mass of 8.0 g and a volume of 25 cm ? a. 0.32 g/cm c. 3.1 g/cm b. 2.0 g/cm d. 200 g/cm ____ 155. What is the volume of 80.0 g of ether if the density of ether is 0.70 g/mL? a. 5.6 10 c. 8.8 10 b. 1.1 10 d. 8.0 10 ____ 156. What is the volume of 45.6 g of silver if the density of silver is 10.5 g/mL? a. 0.23 mL c. 479 mL b. 4.34 mL d. none of the above

____ 157. If a liter of water is heated from 20 C to 50 C, what happens to its volume? a. The volume decreases. b. The volume increases. c. The volume first increases, then decreases. d. The volume first decreases, then increases. ____ 158. If the temperature of a piece of steel decreases, what happens to its density? a. The density decreases. b. The density increases. c. The density does not change. d. The density first increases, then decreases. ____ 159. As the density of a substance increases, the volume of a given mass of that substance ____. a. increases c. decreases b. is not affected d. fluctuates

____ 160. Who was the man who lived from 460B.C.–370B.C. and was among the first to suggest the idea of atoms? a. Atomos c. Democritus b. Dalton d. Thomson ____ 161. Which of the following was NOT among Democritus’s ideas? a. Matter consists of tiny particles called atoms. b. Atoms are indivisible. c. Atoms retain their identity in a chemical reaction. d. Atoms are indestructible. ____ 162. The smallest particle of an element that retains the properties of that element is a(n) ____. a. atom c. proton b. electron d. neutron ____ 163. Dalton's atomic theory included which idea? a. All atoms of all elements are the same size. b. Atoms of different elements always combine in one-to-one ratios. c. Atoms of the same element are always identical. d. Individual atoms can be seen with a microscope. ____ 164. Which of the following was originally a tenet of Dalton's atomic theory, but had to be revised about a century ago? a. Atoms are tiny indivisible particles. b. Atoms of the same element are identical. c. Compounds are made by combining atoms. d. Atoms of different elements can combine with one another in simple whole number ratios. ____ 165. The comparison of the number of atoms in a copper coin the size of a penny with the number of people on Earth is made to illustrate which of the following? a. that atoms are indivisible b. that atoms are very small c. that atoms are very large d. that in a copper penny, there is one atom for every person on Earth ____ 166. Dalton hypothesized that atoms are indivisible and that all atoms of an element are identical. It is now known that ____. a. all of Dalton's hypotheses are correct b. atoms of an element can have different numbers of protons c. atoms are divisible d. all atoms of an element are not identical but they must all have the same mass

____ 167. Why did J. J. Thomson reason that electrons must be a part of the atoms of all elements? a. Cathode rays are negatively-charged particles. b. Cathode rays can be deflected by magnets. c. An electron is 2000 times lighter than a hydrogen atom. d. Charge-to-mass ratio of electrons was the same, regardless of the gas used. ____ 168. Which of the following is true about subatomic particles? a. Electrons are negatively charged and are the heaviest subatomic particle. b. Protons are positively charged and the lightest subatomic particle. c. Neutrons have no charge and are the lightest subatomic particle. d. The mass of a neutron nearly equals the mass of a proton. ____ 169. Who conducted experiments to determine the quantity of charge carried by an electron? a. Rutherford c. Dalton b. Millikan d. Thomson ____ 170. What is the relative mass of an electron? a. 1/1840 the mass of a hydrogen atom c. 1/1840 the mass of a C-12 atom b. 1/1840 the mass of a neutron + proton d. 1/1840 the mass of an alpha particle ____ 171. Which hypothesis led to the discovery of the proton? a. When a neutral hydrogen atom loses an electron, a positively-charged particle should remain. b. A proton should be 1840 times heavier than an electron. c. Cathode rays should be attracted to a positively-charged plate. d. The nucleus of an atom should contain neutrons. ____ 172. Which of the following is correct concerning subatomic particles? a. The electron was discovered by Goldstein in 1886. b. The neutron was discovered by Chadwick in 1932. c. The proton was discovered by Thomson in 1880. d. Cathode rays were found to be made of protons. ____ 173. All atoms are ____. a. positively charged, with the number of protons exceeding the number of electrons b. negatively charged, with the number of electrons exceeding the number of protons c. neutral, with the number of protons equaling the number of electrons d. neutral, with the number of protons equaling the number of electrons, which is equal to the number of neutrons ____ 174. The particles that are found in the nucleus of an atom are ____. a. neutrons and electrons c. protons and neutrons b. electrons only d. protons and electrons ____ 175. As a consequence of the discovery of the nucleus by Rutherford, which model of the atom is thought to be true? a. Protons, electrons, and neutrons are evenly distributed throughout the volume of the atom. b. The nucleus is made of protons, electrons, and neutrons. c. Electrons are distributed around the nucleus and occupy almost all the volume of the atom. d. The nucleus is made of electrons and protons. ____ 176. The nucleus of an atom is ____. a. the central core and is composed of protons and neutrons b. positively charged and has more protons than neutrons c. negatively charged and has a high density d. negatively charged and has a low density

____ 177. The atomic number of an element is the total number of which particles in the nucleus? a. neutrons c. electrons b. protons d. protons and electrons ____ 178. An element has an atomic number of 76. The number of protons and electrons in a neutral atom of the element are ____. a. 152 protons and 76 electrons c. 38 protons and 38 electrons b. 76 protons and 0 electrons d. 76 protons and 76 electrons ____ 179. The sum of the protons and neutrons in an atom equals the ____. a. atomic number c. atomic mass b. nucleus number d. mass number ____ 180. What does the number 84 in the name krypton-84 represent? a. the atomic number c. the sum of the protons and electrons b. the mass number d. twice the number of protons ____ 181. Isotopes of the same element have different ____. a. numbers of neutrons c. numbers of electrons b. numbers of protons d. atomic numbers ____ 182. Isotopes of the same element have different ____. a. positions on the periodic table c. atomic numbers b. chemical behavior d. mass numbers ____ 183. In which of the following sets is the symbol of the element, the number of protons, and the number of electrons given correctly? a. In, 49 protons, 49 electrons c. Cs, 55 protons, 132.9 electrons b. Zn, 30 protons, 60 electrons d. F, 19 protons, 19 electrons ____ 184. The mass number of an element is equal to ____. a. the total number of electrons in the nucleus b. the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus c. less than twice the atomic number d. a constant number for the lighter elements ____ 185. Using the periodic table, determine the number of neutrons in O. a. 4 c. 16 b. 8 d. 24 ____ 186. How many protons, electrons, and neutrons does an atom with atomic number 50 and mass number 125 contain? a. 50 protons, 50 electrons, 75 neutrons c. 120 neutrons, 50 protons, 75 electrons b. 75 electrons, 50 protons, 50 neutrons d. 70 neutrons, 75 protons, 50 electrons ____ 187. Which of the following statements is NOT true? a. Atoms of the same element can have different masses. b. Atoms of isotopes of an element have different numbers of protons. c. The nucleus of an atom has a positive charge. d. Atoms are mostly empty space. ____ 188. If E is the symbol for an element, which two of the following symbols represent isotopes of the same element? 1. E 2. E 3. E 4. E a. 1 and 2 c. 1 and 4 b. 3 and 4 d. 2 and 3

____ 189. Select the correct symbol for an atom of tritium. a. n c. H b. H d. H ____ 190. Which of the following sets of symbols represents isotopes of the same element? a. J J J c. M M M b. L L L d. Q Q Q ____ 191. How is the number of neutrons in the nucleus of an atom calculated? a. Add the number of electrons and protons together. b. Subtract the number of electrons from the number of protons. c. Subtract the number of protons from the mass number. d. Add the mass number to the number of electrons. ____ 192. In which of the following is the number of neutrons correctly represented? a. F has 0 neutrons. c. Mg has 24 neutrons. b. As has 108 neutrons. d. U has 146 neutrons. ____ 193. How do the isotopes hydrogen-1 and hydrogen-2 differ? a. Hydrogen-2 has one more electron than hydrogen-1. b. Hydrogen-2 has one neutron; hydrogen-1 has none. c. Hydrogen-2 has two protons; hydrogen-1 has one. d. Hydrogen-2 has one proton; hydrogen-1 has none. ____ 194. Which of the following isotopes has the same number of neutrons as phosphorus-31? a. P c. Si b. S d. Si ____ 195. What unit is used to measure weighted average atomic mass? a. amu c. angstrom b. gram d. nanogram ____ 196. Which of the following equals one atomic mass unit? a. the mass of one electron b. the mass of one helium-4 atom c. the mass of one carbon-12 atom d. one-twelfth the mass of one carbon-12 atom ____ 197. Which of the following statements is NOT true? a. Protons have a positive charge. b. Electrons are negatively charged and have a mass of 1 amu. c. The nucleus of an atom is positively charged. d. Neutrons are located in the nucleus of an atom. ____ 198. Why do chemists use relative masses of atoms compared to a reference isotope rather than the actual masses of the atoms? a. The actual mass of an electron is very large compared to the actual mass of a proton. b. The actual masses of atoms are very small and difficult to work with. c. The number of subatomic particles in atoms of different elements varies. d. The actual masses of protons, electrons, and neutrons are not known. ____ 199. The atomic mass of an element is the ____. a. total number of subatomic particles in its nucleus b. weighted average of the masses of the isotopes of the element c. total mass of the isotopes of the element d. average of the mass number and the atomic number for the element ____ 200. The atomic mass of an element depends upon the ____. a. mass of each electron in that element b. mass of each isotope of that element c. relative abundance of protons in that element d. mass and relative abundance of each isotope of that element ____ 201. Which of the following is necessary to calculate the atomic mass of an element? a. the atomic mass of carbon-12 b. the atomic number of the element c. the relative masses of the element’s protons and neutrons d. the masses of each isotope of the element ____ 202. In Bohr's model of the atom, where are the electrons and protons located? a. The electrons move around the protons, which are at the center of the atom. b. The electrons and protons move throughout the atom. c. The electrons occupy fixed positions around the protons, which are at the center of the atom. d. The electrons and protons are located throughout the atom, but they are not free to move. ____ 203. In the Bohr model of the atom, an electron in an orbit has a fixed ____. a. position c. energy b. color d. size ____ 204. How does the energy of an electron change when the electron moves closer to the nucleus? a. It decreases. c. It stays the same. b. It increases. d. It doubles. ____ 205. The principal quantum number indicates what property of an electron? a. position c. energy level b. speed d. electron cloud shape ____ 206. What is the shape of the 3p atomic orbital? a. sphere c. bar b. dumbbell d. two perpendicular dumbbells ____ 207. How many energy sublevels are in the second principal energy level? a. 1 c. 3 b. 2 d. 4 ____ 208. What is the maximum number of f orbitals in any single energy level in an atom? a. 1 c. 5 b. 3 d. 7 ____ 209. What is the maximum number of d orbitals in a principal energy level? a. 1 c. 3 b. 2 d. 5 ____ 210. What is the maximum number of orbitals in the p sublevel? a. 2 c. 4 b. 3 d. 5 ____ 211. What is the maximum number of electrons in the second principal energy level? a. 2 c. 18 b. 8 d. 32 ____ 212. When an electron moves from a lower to a higher energy level, the electron ____. a. always doubles its energy b. absorbs a continuously variable amount of energy c. absorbs a quantum of energy d. moves closer to the nucleus ____ 213. The shape (not the size) of an electron cloud is determined by the electron's ____. a. energy sublevel c. speed b. position d. principal quantum number ____ 214. The letter "p" in the symbol 4p indicates the ____. a. spin of an electron c. principle energy level b. orbital shape d. speed of an electron ____ 215. If the spin of one electron in an orbital is clockwise, what is the spin of the other electron in that orbital? a. zero c. counterclockwise b. clockwise d. both clockwise and counterclockwise ____ 216. What types of atomic orbitals are in the third principal energy level? a. s and p only c. s, p, and d only b. p and d only d. s, p, d, and f ____ 217. What is the next atomic orbital in the series 1s, 2s, 2p, 3s, 3p? a. 2d c. 3f b. 3d d. 4s ____ 218. According to the aufbau principle, ____. a. an orbital may be occupied by only two electrons b. electrons in the same orbital must have opposite spins c. electrons enter orbitals of highest energy first d. electrons enter orbitals of lowest energy first ____ 219. What is the number of electrons in the outermost energy level of an oxygen atom? a. 2 c. 6 b. 4 d. 8 ____ 220. What is the electron configuration of potassium? a. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s c. 1s 2s 3s 3p 3d b. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p d. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s ____ 221. If three electrons are available to fill three empty 2p atomic orbitals, how will the electrons be distributed in the three orbitals? a. one electron in each orbital b. two electrons in one orbital, one in another, none in the third c. three in one orbital, none in the other two d. Three electrons cannot fill three empty 2p atomic orbitals. ____ 222. How many unpaired electrons are in a sulfur atom (atomic number 16)? a. 0 c. 2 b. 1 d. 3 ____ 223. How many half-filled orbitals are in a bromine atom? a. 1 c. 3 b. 2 d. 4

____ 224. Stable electron configurations are likely to contain ____. a. filled energy sublevels b. fewer electrons than unstable configurations c. unfilled s orbitals d. electrons with a clockwise spin ____ 225. What is the basis for exceptions to the aufbau diagram? a. Filled and half-filled energy sublevels are more stable than partially-filled energy sublevels. b. Electron configurations are only probable. c. Electron spins are more important than energy levels in determining electron configuration. d. Some elements have unusual atomic orbitals. ____ 226. Which electron configuration of the 4f energy sublevel is the most stable? a. 4f c. 4f b. 4f d. 4f ____ 227. Which of the following electron configurations of outer sublevels is the most stable? a. 4d 5s c. 4d 5s b. 4d 5s d. 4d 5s ____ 228. How does the speed of visible light compare with the speed of gamma rays, when both speeds are measured in a vacuum? a. The speed of visible light is greater. b. The speed of gamma rays is greater. c. The speeds are the same. d. No answer can be determined from the information given. ____ 229. Which color of visible light has the shortest wavelength? a. yellow c. blue b. green d. violet ____ 230. Which of the following electromagnetic waves have the highest frequencies? a. ultraviolet light waves c. microwaves b. X-rays d. gamma rays ____ 231. How are the frequency and wavelength of light related? a. They are inversely proportional to each other. b. Frequency equals wavelength divided by the speed of light. c. Wavelength is determined by dividing frequency by the speed of light. d. They are directly proportional to each other. ____ 232. What is the wavelength of an electromagnetic wave that travels at 3 10 m/s and has a frequency of 60 MHz? (1 MHz = 1,000,000 Hz) a.

b. 60 MHz 300,000,000 m/s c.

d. No answer can be determined from the information given. ____ 233. The light given off by an electric discharge through sodium vapor is ____. a. a continuous spectrum c. of a single wavelength b. an emission spectrum d. white light

____ 234. Emission of light from an atom occurs when an electron ____. a. drops from a higher to a lower energy level b. jumps from a lower to a higher energy level c. moves within its atomic orbital d. falls into the nucleus ____ 235. As changes in energy levels of electrons increase, the frequencies of atomic line spectra they emit ____. a. increase c. remain the same b. decrease d. cannot be determined ____ 236. The atomic emission spectra of a sodium atom on Earth and of a sodium atom in the sun would be ____. a. the same b. different from each other c. the same as those of several other elements d. the same as each other only in the ultraviolet range ____ 237. What is the approximate energy of a photon having a frequency of 4 10 Hz? (h = 6.6 10 J s) a. 3 10 J c. 2 10 J b. 3 10 J d. 3 10 J ____ 238. What is the approximate frequency of a photon having an energy 5 10 J? (h = 6.6 10 J s) a. 8 10 Hz c. 3 10 Hz b. 3 10 Hz d. 1 10 Hz ____ 239. Which of the following quantum leaps would be associated with the greatest energy of emitted light? a. n = 5 to n = 1 c. n = 2 to n = 5 b. n = 4 to n = 5 d. n = 5 to n = 4 ____ 240. Which variable is directly proportional to frequency? a. wavelength c. position b. velocity d. energy ____ 241. How do the energy differences between the higher energy levels of an atom compare with the energy differences between the lower energy levels of the atom? a. They are greater in magnitude than those between lower energy levels. b. They are smaller in magnitude than those between lower energy levels. c. There is no significant difference in the magnitudes of these differences. d. No answer can be determined from the information given. ____ 242. What are quanta of light called? a. charms c. muons b. excitons d. photons ____ 243. Which scientist developed the quantum mechanical model of the atom? a. Albert Einstein c. Niels Bohr b. Erwin Schrodinger d. Ernest Rutherford ____ 244. Bohr's model could only explain the spectra of which type of atoms? a. single atoms with one electron b. bonded atoms with one electron c. single atoms with more than one electron d. bonded atoms with more than one electron ____ 245. The quantum mechanical model of the atom ____. a. defines the exact path of an electron around the nucleus b. was proposed by Niels Bohr c. involves the probability of finding an electron in a certain position d. has many analogies in the visible world ____ 246. Who predicted that all matter can behave as waves as well as particles? a. Albert Einstein c. Max Planck b. Erwin Schrodinger d. Louis de Broglie ____ 247. According to the Heisenberg uncertainty principle, if the position of a moving particle is known, what other quantity CANNOT be known? a. mass c. spin b. charge d. velocity ____ 248. How can the position of a particle be determined? a. by analyzing its interactions with another particle b. by measuring its velocity c. by measuring its mass d. by determining its charge ____ 249. The wavelike properties of electrons are useful in ____. a. defining photons b. writing electron configurations c. magnifying objects d. determining the velocity and position of a particle ____ 250. In an s orbital, the probability of finding an electron a particular distance from the nucleus does NOT depend on ____. a. a quantum mechanical model c. the Schrodinger equation b. direction with respect to the nucleus d. the electron energy sublevel