1. to Increase the Readability of Training Materials, One Should

1. To increase the readability of training materials, one should A. combine two or more sentences into one long sentence B. combine two or more paragraphs into one long paragraph. C. replace concrete words with abstract words. D. add checklists and illustrations to clarify the text.

2. Three of the following are reasons that employers use application forms. Which is not a reason for which employers use application forms? A. The forms allow the employer to keep up-to-date records of job applicants. B. The forms are a low-cost way to gather basic data from many applicants. C. The forms aren't subject to legal validation requirements. D. The forms ensure that the organization controls the content of the information received and the manner in which it's presented.

3. Three of the following would enhance recruiter effectiveness. Which would not enhance recruiter effectiveness? A. Using realistic job previews as part of the recruitment process B. Ensuring that recruiters provide applicants with timely feedback C. Ensuring that recruiters are knowledgeable about company policies and procedures D. Recruiting in teams rather than individually

4. Predictive validation is better than concurrent validation because A. the research administers tests to people who currently hold the job. B. it's more time-consuming and difficult. C. job applicants' performance on the tests is influenced by their firsthand experience with the job. D. the group is more likely to include people who perform poorly on the test.

5. According to the Training 2007 Industry Report, which training task was outsourced the most? A. Custom content End of exam B. Instruction C. Learner support D. Need analysis

6. Which of the following statements about benchmarks is false? A. While managers enjoy completing the instrument and find the results interesting, research is inconclusive regarding the skills measured and their relationship to on-the-job performance. B. The instrument measures 16 skills and perspectives, such as how well managers deal with subordinates, acquire resources, and create a productive work climate. C. The managers' supervisors, their peers, and the managers themselves must complete the instrument to ensure its effectiveness. D. The items measured by benchmarks are based on research into the lessons that executives have learned as a result of critical events within their careers.

7. Which of the following is a false statement about using peers as a source of performance information? A. Peer ratings, according to research, are highly influenced by friendships. B. Peer ratings are particularly useful when supervisors don't have the opportunity to observe employees. C. Peers have expert knowledge of job requirements and bring a unique perspective to the evaluation, often resulting in extremely valid assessments of performance. D. Peers are more willing participants in reviews used for employees

8. What is the employee's responsibility in the self-assessment stage of career management? A. Identify opportunities and areas of needed improvement B. Identify steps and a timetable to reach goals C. Provide assessment information to identify strengths, weaknesses, interests, and values D. Communicate performance evaluations

9. Which of the following is not an advantage of a balanced scorecard? A. A balanced scorecard links external pay rates with internal job structures, allowing organizations to gain both internal and external pay equity. B. A balanced scorecard balances the disadvantages of one type of incentive pay with the advantages of another type. C. Communicating a balanced scorecard helps employees understand the organization's goals and how they might contribute to these goals. D. A balanced scorecard allows for a combination of performance measures that are directed toward both the company's longand short-term objectives

10. An organization is adjusting pay to better match a local labor market in which the cost of living is rising sharply. These adjustments are called A. rank-and-file adjustments. B. bonuses. C. pay differentials. D. green-circle rates

11. From which source do most retirees receive the largest percentage of their retirement income? A. Disability insurance B. Earnings from personal assets C. Social Security D. Private pensions

12. Organizations being squeezed between labor and product markets need to A. move from job-based pay structures to skill-based pay systems, where employees are empowered and jobs are more enriched. B. change their strategic mission and direction, moving to more attractive industries. C. couple pay policies with creative HR, production, and marketing management to make workers' contributions more valuable and products more profitable. D. move their operations overseas.

13. Why are growing numbers of employers opting for defined-contribution plans? A. They guarantee a specified level of retirement income. B. Defined-contribution plans are required by ERISA. C. Employers are free from the risk of poor performance of the plans. D. PGBC makes annual contribution of $33 per participant

14. Three of the following are vesting rights. Which is not a vesting right? A. The right to a pension at retirement B. A guarantee that the employer won't switch the pension plan from defined-benefit to defined-contribution plan C. The right to a pension regardless of whether or not the employee remains with the employer until retirement D. In most cases, a waiting period of no more than five years or a three- to seven-year period, with 20 percent in the third and each year thereafter

15. Since the 1990s, the trend in larger public companies is to grant stock options to A. all exempt employees. B. only top management. C. all top and middle managers. D. all employees

16. Which of the following is not appropriate using e-HRM? A. Online recruitment B. Online testing C. Online grievance redressal D. Online surveys

17. Which of the following is a false statement about the goals of management? A. Management's goals continue to emphasize restraining costs and improving output. B. Management prefers to increase wages and benefits and allow flexibility of work rules and schedules. C. Management goals are to increase the organization's profits. D. Management's concern is that a union will create higher costs in wages and benefits, as well as raise the risk of work stoppages.

18. Which of the following is a false statement about unfair-labor-practice charges? A. Charges are filed with the NLRB. B. Charges must be filed within 12 months of the alleged unfair labor practice. C. Complaints may be deferred to an agreed-upon employer-union grievance procedure. D. If the charges are investigated and found to have merit, a formal complaint is issued.

19. Which of the following is a false statement about the performance management process across national boundaries? A. The extent to which managers measure performance varies from one country to another, with some organizations having to update their performance plans more often than once a year. B. Although employees around the world appreciate feedback, U.S. employees are generally much more used to direct feedback than are employees in other countries. C. The general principles of performance management apply in most countries, but the specific methods that work in one country may fail in another. D. While the measures used may vary from country to country, the legal requirements remain the same as those in the United States.

20. Recruitment and selection activities within a high-performance organization include three of the following. Which is not a recruitment and selection activity within a high- performance organization? A. Finding employees who innovate, share ideas, and take initiative B. Selection methods that include group interviews, open-ended questions, and psychological tests C. Selection methods that concentrate on identifying technical skills only D. Finding employees who are enthusiastic about and able to contribute to teamwork, empowerment, and knowledge sharing

21. Three typical questions asked for assessing candidates for overseas assignments about family considerations are among the following. Which is not a typical question about family considerations for an overseas assignment candidate? A. How is each member of the family reacting to this possible move? B. Can the candidate work without supervision? C. How many moves has the family made in the past among different cities or parts of the United States? D. What is the spouse's goal in this move?

22. Which of the following is a false statement about grievance procedures? A. Grievance procedures generally have several steps prior to arbitration. B. Under the duty of fair representation, the union must give equal representation to all members of the bargaining unit, whether or not they actually belong to the union. C. The merits of an arbitrator's ruling can't be appealed to the courts. D. The majority of grievances are settled during the earlier steps of the process.

23. Which of the following statements about expert systems is false? A. Expert systems can increase efficiency by enabling fewer or less-skilled employees to do work that otherwise would require many highly skilled employees. B. Expert systems help avoid the errors that can result from fatigue and decision-making biases. C. Expert systems deliver high-quality decisions at a high cost. D. Expert systems provide consistency in decision making.

24. Which of the following is a correct statement about inpatriates? A. Inpatriates are foreign employees who come to the United States to work for the U.S.- based parent company. B. Inpatriates are employees transferred from a company's site in one state to another state within the United States. C. Inpatriates are employees from countries other than the parent country placed in facilities of other countries. D. Inpatriates are employees from one division of the company being moved to another division.

25. Union membership in the United States peaked in the A. 1990s. B. 1960s. C. 1980s. D. 1950s.

26. Which of the following is not an HRM application? A. Decision support systems B. Customer relationship support systems C. Transaction processing D. Expert systems

27. Which of the following is an advantage of a relational database? A. It helps people arrive at decisions that reflect expert knowledge. B. Databases are stored in a central location. C. Information is stored in one large file. D. Users can file or retrieve information according to any field across different bases.

28. The purpose of the National Labor Relations Board is to A. conduct and certify representation elections, determine the employees who are eligible to participate in organizing activities and bargaining units, and prevent unfair labor practices. B. conduct periodic onsite inspections of union and company records regarding the negotiation and enforcement of all contract provisions and related labor-relation activities. C. regulate unfair labor practices and levy punitive charges on the violators. D. draft, hold a hearing on, and promulgate rules and regulations regarding union- management relations.

29. The most notable disadvantage for virtual expatriates is the A. isolation that comes with never returning to their home countries. B. loss in income they'll experience as a result of accepting their overseas assignment. C. amount of time they must spend away from friends and family while on assignment. D. difficulty they'll experience in building relationships with host-country personnel.

30 ______promotes respect for past tradition and for fulfilling social obligations in the present. A. Large power distance B. Femininity C. Short-term orientation D. Uncertainty avoidance

31. When negotiating their first labor contract, over ______of parties are unable to reach an agreement. A. one-fourth B. one-half C. one-third D. three-fourths

32. Which of the following is a false statement about fact-finding as an impasse resolution procedure? A. A fact-finder is often used for negotiations with governmental bodies. B. A fact-finder reports on the reasons for the dispute. C. A fact-finder's findings are binding on the parties. End of exam D. A fact-finder's findings are made public.

33. Which of the following is a false statement about feedback across national boundaries? A. Employees around the world appreciate positive feedback. B. In Thailand, managers avoid giving negative feedback to employees because they fear this would cause them to have bad karma. C. In Mexico, managers are expected to provide positive feedback before focusing the discussion on behaviors the employee needs to improve. D. The content of the feedback is more important than the manner of giving it.