Waterborne Diseases CEU Course

Registration form

WATERBORNE DISEASES $300.00 48 HOUR RUSH ORDER PROCESSING FEE ADDITIONAL $50.00

Start and Finish Dates: ______You will have 90 days from this date in order to complete this course

List number of hours worked on assignment must match State Requirement. ______

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Class/Grade______Your certificate will be mailed to you in about two weeks.

Please circle/check which certification you are applying the course CEU’s. Water Treatment ___ Water Distribution ___ Other ______

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We will stop mailing the certificate of completion so we need either your fax number or e-mail address. We will e-mail the certificate to you, if no e-mail address; we will fax it to you.

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 2 www.abctlc.com DISCLAIMER NOTICE I understand that it is my responsibility to ensure that this CEU course is either approved or accepted in my State for CEU credit. I understand State laws and rules change on a frequent basis and I believe this course is currently accepted in my State for CEU or contact hour credit, if it is not, I will not hold Technical Learning College responsible. I fully understand that this type of study program deals with dangerous, changing conditions and various laws and that I will not hold Technical Learning College, Technical Learning Consultants, Inc. (TLC) liable in any fashion for any errors, omissions, advice, suggestions or neglect contained in this CEU education training course or for any violation or injury, death, neglect, damage or loss of your license or certification caused in any fashion by this CEU education training or course material suggestion or error or my lack of submitting paperwork. It is my responsibility to call or contact TLC if I need help or assistance and double-check to ensure my registration page and assignment has been received and graded. It is my responsibility to ensure all information is correct and to abide with all rules and regulations.

State Approval Listing Link, check to see if your State accepts or has pre-approved this course. Not all States are listed. Not all courses are listed. If the course is not accepted for CEU credit, we will give you the course free if you ask your State to accept it for credit.

Professional Engineers; Most states will accept our courses for credit but we do not officially list the States or Agencies. Please check your State for approval.

State Approval Listing URL… http://www.tlch2o.com/PDF/CEU%20State%20Approvals.pdf

You can obtain a printed version of the course manual from TLC for an additional $79.95 plus shipping charges.

AFFIDAVIT OF EXAM COMPLETION I affirm that I personally completed the entire text of the course. I also affirm that I completed the exam without assistance from any outside source. I understand that it is my responsibility to file or maintain my certificate of completion as required by the state or by the designation organization.

Grading Information In order to maintain the integrity of our courses we do not distribute test scores, percentages or questions missed. Our exams are based upon pass/fail criteria with the benchmark for successful completion set at 70%. Once you pass the exam, your record will reflect a successful completion and a certificate will be issued to you.

For security purposes, please fax or e-mail a copy of your driver’s license and always call us to confirm we’ve received your assignment and to confirm your identity.

Thank you…

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 3 www.abctlc.com For Texas TCEQ Wastewater Licensed Operators Important Information

Wastewater/Collections Rule Changes (Texas Only)

Rule Changes and Updates for Domestic Wastewater Systems On Nov. 4, 2014, TCEQ commissioners adopted revisions to 30 Texas Administrative Code (TAC), Chapter 217, Design Criteria for Domestic Wastewater Systems, and “re-adopted” previously repealed rules in 30 TAC, Chapter 317, Design Criteria Prior to 2008.

Some of the changes to Chapter 217 include:  Adding new definitions and clarifying existing definitions;  Adding design criteria and approval requirements for rehabilitation of existing infrastructure;  Adding design criteria for new technologies, including cloth filters and air lift pumps;  Making changes to reflect modern practices, standards and trends;  Modifying rule language to improve readability and enforceability; and  Modifying the design organic loadings and flows for a new wastewater treatment facility.

SUBCHAPTER A: ADMINISTRATIVE REQUIREMENTS §§217.1 - 217.18 Effective December 4, 2015 §217.1. Applicability. (a) Applicability. (1) This chapter applies to the design, operation, and maintenance of: (A) domestic wastewater treatment facilities that are constructed with plans and specifications received and approved by the executive director after the effective date of the amendments to this chapter; (B) treatment units that are altered, constructed, or re-rated with plans and specifications received and approved by the executive director after the effective date of the amendments to this chapter; (C) collection systems that are constructed with plans and specifications received and approved by the executive director after the effective date of the amendments to this chapter; (D) collection system units that are altered, constructed, or re-rated with plans and specifications received and approved by the executive director after the effective date of the amendments to this chapter; (E) existing domestic wastewater treatment facilities that do not have a current Texas Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit or a Texas Land Application Permit and are required to have an active wastewater permit; (F) existing wastewater treatment facilities and collection systems that never received approval for plans and specifications from the executive director; and (G) collection system rehabilitation projects covered in §217.56(c) and §217.69 of this title (relating to Trenchless Pipe Installation; and Maintenance, Inspection, and Rehabilitation of the Collection System). (2) Domestic wastewater treatment facilities, treatment units, collection systems, and collection system units with plans and specifications approved by the executive director that were received on or after August 28, 2008 and before the effective date of this chapter must comply with the rules in this chapter, as they existed immediately before the effective date of the amendments to this chapter.

The rules in Texas Commission on Environmental Quality Page 2 Chapter 217 - Design Criteria for Domestic Wastewater Systems effect immediately before the effective date of the amendments to this chapter are continued in effect for that purpose. (3) This chapter does not apply to: (A) the design, installation, operation, or maintenance of domestic wastewater treatment facilities, treatment units, collection systems, or collection system units with plans and specifications that were approved by the executive director on or before August 27, 2008, which are governed by Chapter 317 of this title (relating to Design Criteria Prior to 2008) or design Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 4 www.abctlc.com criteria that preceded Chapter 317 of this title; and (B) systems regulated by Chapter 285 of this title (relating to On-Site Sewage Facilities); or collection systems or wastewater treatment facilities that collect, transport, treat, or dispose of wastewater that does not have the characteristics of domestic wastewater, although the wastewater may contain domestic wastewater. (b) The executive director may grant variances from new requirements added by the amendments of this chapter to a person who proposes to construct, alter, or re-rate a collection system or wastewater treatment facility if the plans and specifications for the project are submitted within 180 days after the date the amendments to this chapter are effective, provided the plans and specifications comply with the rules in effect immediately prior to the amendment. Adopted November 4, 2015 Effective December 4, 2015

The link to the rules is available on the TCEQ website at https://www.tceq.texas.gov/rules/indxpdf.html

For Texas Students Only….

Please sign and date this notice

Printed Name

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Signature Date

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Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 5 www.abctlc.com Texas Students Only Acknowledgement of Notice of Potential Ineligibility for License You are required to sign and return to TLC or your credit will not be reported.

Name:______

Date of Birth:______

Email Address: ______

By signing this form, I acknowledge that Technical Learning College notified me of the following:  the potential ineligibility of an individual who has been convicted of an offense to be issued an occupational license by the Texas Commission on Environmental Quality (TCEQ) upon completion of the educational program;  the current TCEQ Criminal Conviction Guidelines for Occupational Licensing, which describes the process by which the TCEQ’s Executive Director determines whether a criminal conviction:  renders a prospective applicant an unsuitable candidate for an occupational license;  warrants the denial of a renewal application for an existing license; or  warrants revocation or suspension of a license previously granted.  the right to request a criminal history evaluation from the TCEQ under Texas Occupations Code Section 53.102; and  that the TCEQ may consider an individual to have been convicted of an offense for the purpose of denying, suspending or revoking a license under circumstances described in Title 30 Texas Administrative Code Section 30.33.

Enrollee Signature: ______Date: ______

Name of Training Provider/Organization: Technical Learning College

Contact Person: Melissa Durbin Role/Title: Dean

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 6 www.abctlc.com Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 7 www.abctlc.com Waterborne Diseases Answer Key

Name______Phone ______

Did you check with your State agency to ensure this course is accepted for credit?

Method of Course acceptance confirmation. Please fill this section

Website ___ Telephone Call___ Email____ Spoke to______

Did you receive the approval number, if applicable? ______

What is the course approval number, if applicable? ______

Florida Students are required to pay an addition fee of $65 for TREEO credit.

You can use Adobe Acrobat DC Program to complete the assignment.

Please Circle, Bold, Underline or X, one answer per question.

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Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 8 www.abctlc.com 61. A B C D E F 99. A B C D E F 137. A B C D E F 62. A B C D E F 100. A B C D E F 138. A B C D E F 63. A B C D E F 101. A B C D E F 139. A B C D E F 64. A B C D E F 102. A B C D E F 140. A B C D E F 65. A B C D E F 103. A B C D E F 141. A B C D E F 66. A B C D E F 104. A B C D E F 142. A B C D E F 67. A B C D E F 105. A B C D E F 143. A B C D E F 68. A B C D E F 106. A B C D E F 144. A B C D E F 69. A B C D E F 107. A B C D E F 145. A B C D E F 70. A B C D E F 108. A B C D E F 146. A B C D E F 71. A B C D E F 109. A B C D E F 147. A B C D E F 72. A B C D E F 110. A B C D E F 148. A B C D E F 73. A B C D E F 111. A B C D E F 149. A B C D E F 74. A B C D E F 112. A B C D E F 150. A B C D E F 75. A B C D E F 113. A B C D E F 151. A B C D E F 76. A B C D E F 114. A B C D E F 152. A B C D E F 77. A B C D E F 115. A B C D E F 153. A B C D E F 78. A B C D E F 116. A B C D E F 154. A B C D E F 79. A B C D E F 117. A B C D E F 155. A B C D E F 80. A B C D E F 118. A B C D E F 156. A B C D E F 81. A B C D E F 119. A B C D E F 157. A B C D E F 82. A B C D E F 120. A B C D E F 158. A B C D E F 83. A B C D E F 121. A B C D E F 159. A B C D E F 84. A B C D E F 122. A B C D E F 160. A B C D E F 85. A B C D E F 123. A B C D E F 161. A B C D E F 86. A B C D E F 124. A B C D E F 162. A B C D E F 87. A B C D E F 125. A B C D E F 163. A B C D E F 88. A B C D E F 126. A B C D E F 164. A B C D E F 89. A B C D E F 127. A B C D E F 165. A B C D E F 90. A B C D E F 128. A B C D E F 166. A B C D E F 91. A B C D E F 129. A B C D E F 167. A B C D E F 92. A B C D E F 130. A B C D E F 168. A B C D E F 93. A B C D E F 131. A B C D E F 169. A B C D E F 94. A B C D E F 132. A B C D E F 170. A B C D E F 95. A B C D E F 133. A B C D E F 171. A B C D E F 96. A B C D E F 134. A B C D E F 172. A B C D E F 97. A B C D E F 135. A B C D E F 173. A B C D E F 98. A B C D E F 136. A B C D E F 174. A B C D E F

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 11 www.abctlc.com 403. A B C D E F 436. A B C D E F 469. A B C D E F 404. A B C D E F 437. A B C D E F 470. A B C D E F 405. A B C D E F 438. A B C D E F 471. A B C D E F 406. A B C D E F 439. A B C D E F 472. A B C D E F 407. A B C D E F 440. A B C D E F 473. A B C D E F 408. A B C D E F 441. A B C D E F 474. A B C D E F 409. A B C D E F 442. A B C D E F 475. A B C D E F 410. A B C D E F 443. A B C D E F 476. A B C D E F 411. A B C D E F 444. A B C D E F 477. A B C D E F 412. A B C D E F 445. A B C D E F 478. A B C D E F 413. A B C D E F 446. A B C D E F 479. A B C D E F 414. A B C D E F 447. A B C D E F 480. A B C D E F 415. A B C D E F 448. A B C D E F 481. A B C D E F 416. A B C D E F 449. A B C D E F 482. A B C D E F 417. A B C D E F 450. A B C D E F 483. A B C D E F 418. A B C D E F 451. A B C D E F 484. A B C D E F 419. A B C D E F 452. A B C D E F 485. A B C D E F 420. A B C D E F 453. A B C D E F 486. A B C D E F 421. A B C D E F 454. A B C D E F 487. A B C D E F 422. A B C D E F 455. A B C D E F 488. A B C D E F 423. A B C D E F 456. A B C D E F 489. A B C D E F 424. A B C D E F 457. A B C D E F 490. A B C D E F 425. A B C D E F 458. A B C D E F 491. A B C D E F 426. A B C D E F 459. A B C D E F 492. A B C D E F 427. A B C D E F 460. A B C D E F 493. A B C D E F 428. A B C D E F 461. A B C D E F 494. A B C D E F 429. A B C D E F 462. A B C D E F 495. A B C D E F 430. A B C D E F 463. A B C D E F 496. A B C D E F 431. A B C D E F 464. A B C D E F 497. A B C D E F 432. A B C D E F 465. A B C D E F 498. A B C D E F 433. A B C D E F 466. A B C D E F 499. A B C D E F 434. A B C D E F 467. A B C D E F 500. A B C D E F 435. A B C D E F 468. A B C D E F

This course contains general EPA’s SDWA federal rule requirements. Please be aware that each state implements water / sampling procedures/safety/ environmental / building regulations that may be more stringent than EPA’s regulations. Check with your state environmental/health agency for more information. These rules change frequently and are often difficult to interpret and follow. Be careful to not be in non- compliance and do not follow this course for proper compliance. Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 12 www.abctlc.com Please fax the answer key to TLC Western Campus Fax (928) 272-0747

Backup Fax (928) 468-0675 Always call us after faxing the paperwork to ensure that we’ve received it.

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 13 www.abctlc.com Please e-mail or fax this survey along with your final exam

WATERBORNE DISEASES CEU COURSE CUSTOMER SERVICE RESPONSE CARD

NAME: ______

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PLEASE COMPLETE THIS FORM BY CIRCLING THE NUMBER OF THE APPROPRIATE ANSWER IN THE AREA BELOW.

1. Please rate the difficulty of your course. Very Easy 0 1 2 3 4 5 Very Difficult

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4. How did you hear about this Course? ______

5. What would you do to improve the Course?

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Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 14 www.abctlc.com Please fax or e-mail the answer key to TLC Western Campus Fax (928) 272-0747.

Rush Grading Service If you need this assignment graded and the results mailed to you within a 48- hour period, prepare to pay an additional rush service handling fee of $50.00. This fee may not cover postage costs. If you need this service, simply write RUSH on the top of your Registration Form. We will place you in the front of the grading and processing line.

For security purposes, please fax or e-mail a copy of your driver’s license and always call us to confirm we’ve received your assignment and to confirm your identity.

Grading Information In order to maintain the integrity of our courses we do not distribute test scores, percentages or questions missed. Our exams are based upon pass/fail criteria with the benchmark for successful completion set at 70%. Once you pass the exam, your record will reflect a successful completion and a certificate will be issued to you.

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 15 www.abctlc.com Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 16 www.abctlc.com WATERBORNE DISEASES CEU Training Course Assignment

The Waterborne Diseases CEU course assignment is available in Word on the Internet for your convenience, please visit www.ABCTLC.com and download the assignment and e-mail it back to TLC.

You will have 90 days from receipt of this manual to complete it in order to receive your Professional Development Hours (PDHs) or Continuing Education Unit (CEU). A score of 70 % or better is necessary to pass this course. If you should need any assistance, please email or fax all concerns and the completed ANSWER KEY to [email protected].

Select one answer per question. Please utilize the answer key.

(s) on the answer will indicate either plural and singular tenses. The answer will come from the text.

Waterborne Disease CEU Course Introduction

1. Bacteria, viruses and protozoan that cause disease are known as pathogens. A. True B. False

2. Most pathogens are generally associated with diseases that ______and affect people in a relatively short amount of time, generally a few days to two weeks. A. Limits the treatment process D. Will cause fatalities B. Are mild in nature E. Limit the travel of pathogens C. Cause intestinal illness F. None of the Above

How Diseases Are Transmitted. 3. Waterborne pathogens are primarily spread by the______. A. Fecal-oral, or feces-to-mouth, route D. Influenza route B. Dermal to fecal route E. Waterborne mishaps C. Oral to fecal route F. None of the Above

4. When infected humans or animals pass the bacteria, viruses, and ______in their stool, pathogens may get into water and spread disease. A. Fecal Coliform and E coli D. Cryptosporidiosis B. Protozoa E. Bioslime C. Macroorganisms F. None of the Above

5. For another person to become infected, he or she must take that pathogen in through the mouth. A. True B. False

6. This term means when in nature it is different from other types of pathogens such as the viruses that cause influenza (the flu) or the bacteria that cause tuberculosis. A. Fecal Coliform and E coli D. Waterborne Pathogen(s) B. Giardia lamblia E. Coliform bacteria C. Microorganism(s) F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 17 www.abctlc.com 7. According to the text, ______are spread by secretions that are coughed or sneezed into the air by an infected person. A. Fecal Coliform and E coli D. Influenza virus and tuberculosis bacteria B. Giardia lamblia E. Coliform bacteria C. Microorganisms F. None of the Above

Chain of Transmission 8. Water must have feces and must contain this term to cause a waterborne disease. A. Campylobacteriosis D. Fecal-oral material B. Pathogens E. Contaminated water C. Waterborne illness(es) F. None of the Above

9. The pathogens must survive in the water, that will depend on the temperature of the water and the length of time the ______are in the water. A. Stomach bugs D. Germs B. Turbidity E. Pathogens C. Microscopic particles F. None of the Above

10. Which pathogen may survive for months such as Giardia or? A. Illness D. Campylobacteriosis B. Cryptosporidium E. Tampylobacteriosis C. Bacteria F. None of the Above

11. This chain lists the events that must occur for the transmission of disease via drinking water. By breaking the chain at any point, the Transmission of disease will be prevented. A. True B. False

Bacterial Diseases 12. Which of the following terms is the most common diarrhea illness caused by bacteria? Symptoms include abdominal pain, malaise, fever, nausea and vomiting, and they usually begin three to five days after exposure. A. Pathogen D. Campylobacteriosis B. Yersiniosis E. Incubation period C. Hepatitis A F. None of the Above

13. Which of the following terms is been the cause of outbreaks have most often been associated with food, especially chicken and unpasteurized milk, as well as un-chlorinated water. A. Pathogen D. Campylobacteriosis B. Yersiniosis E. Beaver fever C. Hepatitis A F. None of the Above

Types of Bacteria 14. Which of the following terms is an important cause of travelers’ diarrhea? Medical treatment generally is not prescribed because recovery is usually rapid. A. Illness D. Campylobacteriosis B. Cryptosporidium E. Transmission of disease C. Bacteria F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 18 www.abctlc.com 15. Cholera, Legionellosis, salmonellosis, ______, and yersiniosis are other bacterial diseases that can be transmitted through water. A. Shigellosis D. Campylobacteriosis B. Yersiniosis E. Incubation period C. Hepatitis A F. None of the Above

16. Which of the following terms lives in water, readily killed or inactivated with chlorine or other disinfectants? A. Illness D. Campylobacteriosis B. Cryptosporidium E. Giardia C. Bacteria F. None of the Above

Viral-Caused Diseases 17. Which of the following terms is an example of a common viral disease that may be transmitted through water? The onset is usually abrupt with fever, malaise, loss of appetite, nausea and abdominal discomfort, followed within a few days by jaundice. A. Pathogen D. Campylobacteriosis B. Yersiniosis E. Incubation period C. Hepatitis A F. None of the Above

18. Most ______in drinking water can be inactivated by chlorine or other disinfectants. A. Illnesses D. Pathogen(s) B. Giardiasis E. Infections C. Viruses F. None of the Above

Circumstances under which Koch’s postulates do not easily apply 19. According to the text, which of the following terms may develop only when an opportunistic pathogen invades a susceptible host? A. Disease(s) D. Divide B. Mutation(s) E. Reproduction C. Carriers F. None of the Above

20. Which of the following terms are caused by dietary deficiencies (scurvy, rickets). A. Disease(s) D. Pathogen(s) B. Mutation(s) E. Microorganisms C. Carriers F. None of the Above

21. According to the text, which of the following terms are very difficult to grow under in- vitro (in the laboratory) conditions? A. Disease(s) D. Pathogen(s) B. Mutation(s) E. Microbes C. Carriers F. None of the Above

22. Fastidious organisms can now be grown in cultures of human or animal cells or in small animals. A. True B. False

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 19 www.abctlc.com 23. Not all laboratory animals are susceptible to all? A. Pathogens D. Disease B. Secondary invaders E. Chemical reactions C. Microorganisms F. None of the Above

24. Some of the diseases are inherited or are caused by abnormality in chromosomes are influenced by? A. Environmental factors D. Disease B. Secondary invaders E. Chemical reactions C. Microorganisms F. None of the Above

Metabolism 25. Which of the following is a term that describes all the chemical reactions by which food is transformed for use by the cells? A. Fastidious D. Germ theory of disease B. Metabolism E. Osmosis C. Chemical reactions F. None of the Above

26. A cell can grow through its metabolism, reproduce and it can respond to changes in its environment. A. True B. False

Bacteria 27. “Bacteria” is a plural word. The singular for this word is “bacterium” (bacter = rod, staff). Bacteria are prokaryotes (Kingdom Monera), which means that they have No true nucleus. They do have one chromosome of double-stranded DNA in a ring. A. True B. False

28. There are some bacteria relatives that can do photosynthesis--they don’t have chloroplasts, but their ______and other needed chemicals are built into their cell membranes. A. Chlorophyll D. Double-stranded DNA B. An organelle E. Bacilli C. Cellulose F. None of the Above

29. Bacteria consist of only______? A. Chloroplasts D. Double-stranded DNA B. An organelle E. A single cell C. Cellulose F. None of the Above

30. Pathogens have been found that can live in temperatures above the boiling point and in cold that would freeze your blood. They "eat" everything from sugar and starch to sunlight, sulfur and iron. A. True B. False

Prokaryotes 31. The only prokaryotes are Bacteria and archaea all other life forms are ______creatures whose cells have nuclei. A. Bacteria D. Eukaryotes B. Peptidoglycan E. Microorganism C. Bacilli F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 20 www.abctlc.com Early Origins 32. Bacteria, are basically one of three different shapes, some are rod - or stick-shaped and called Bacilli. Others are shaped like little balls and called cocci (cox-eye). A. True B. False

33. According to the text, bacterial cells exist as individuals while others cluster together to form? A. AN organism D. Pairs, chains, squares or other groupings B. An organelle E. Helical or spiral in shape C. Cellulose F. None of the Above

34. The mitochondria that make energy for your body cells is one example of? A. Chloroplasts D. Bacilli B. An organelle E. Eukaryote(s) C. Cellulose F. None of the Above

35. A single teaspoon of topsoil contains more than a billion (1,000,000,000) bacteria. A. True B. False

Peptidoglycan 36. The amount and location of the ______are different in the two possible types of cell walls, depending on the species of bacterium. A. Capsule D. Membrane/cytoplasmic membrane B. Peptidoglycan E. True nucleus C. Cytoplasmic granules F. None of the Above

37. Penicillin, inhibit the formation of the chemical cross linkages needed to make? A. Disease(s) D. Peptidoglycan B. Mutation(s) E. Bacteria C. Carriers F. None of the Above

38. If a person stops an antibiotic, any living bacteria could start making ______, grow, and reproduce. A. Bacteria D. Germ theory of disease B. Peptidoglycan E. Microorganism C. Eukaryotes F. None of the Above

Gram Stain 39. One of the two possible types of ______has more peptidoglycan than the other. A. Bacteria D. Bacterial cell walls B. Peptidoglycan E. Gram stain C. Gram+ or Gram - F. None of the Above

40. In the Gram process, the amount of peptidoglycan in the cell walls of the bacteria under study will determine how those bacteria absorb the dyes with which they are stained; thus, bacterial cells can be Gram+ or Gram -. A. True B. False

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 21 www.abctlc.com 41. Which type of bacteria have simpler cell walls with lots of peptidoglycan, and stain a dark purple color? A. Aerobic D. Gram+ B. Positive E. Gram - C. Gram+ or Gram - F. None of the Above

42. Which type of bacteria have more complex cell walls with less peptidoglycan, thus absorb less of the purple dye used and stain a pinkish color? A. Positive D. Gram+ B. Fastidious E. Gram - C. Gram+ or Gram - F. None of the Above

43. Which type of bacteria often incorporate toxic chemicals into their cell walls, and thus tend to cause worse reactions in our bodies? A. Positive D. Gram+ B. Fastidious E. Gram - C. Gram+ or Gram - F. None of the Above

44. Which of the bacteria have less peptidoglycan, antibiotics like penicillin are less effective against them? A. Positive D. Gram+ B. Fastidious E. Gram - C. Gram+ or Gram - F. None of the Above

45. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a strictly aerobic, oxidase positive, non-fermentative bacterium are? A. Positive D. Gram+ B. Fastidious E. Gram negative C. Gram+ or Gram - F. None of the Above

46. The Gram-stain appearance is not particularly characteristic although rods are somewhat thinner than those seen for the? A. Coliform bacteria D. HPC B. Enteric-like bacteria E. CFU C. Standard plate count F. None of the Above

Two types of cells- Procaryotes and Eucaryotes 47. Which of the following terms exhibits all the characteristics of life but it lacks the complex system of membranes and organelles? A. Coliform bacteria D. HPC B. Enteric-like bacteria E. CFU C. Standard plate count F. None of the Above

48. Which cell has a complex structure, containing a true nucleus and many membrane bound organelles? A. Eukaryote(s) D. Protozoan B. Vesicles E. Paramecium C. Prokaryote(s) F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 22 www.abctlc.com Structure of a Eukaryotic Cell 49. Cell Membrane: The cell is enclosed and held intact by the cell membrane/plasma membrane/cytoplasmic membrane and is composed of large molecules of proteins and? A. Capsule D. Phospholipids B. Cell wall E. True nucleus C. Cytoplasmic granules F. None of the Above

50. Which of the following terms is selectively permeable. A. Cytoplasmic granules D. A single circular DNA molecule B. Cellular membrane E. DNA and proteins C. Cell wall F. None of the Above

Nucleus 51. Which of the following terms is enclosed in the nuclear membrane and contains chromosomes? A. Chromosomes D. Macromolecular polymer-peptidoglycan B. Nucleus E. Cytoplasmic organelles C. Cell membrane F. None of the Above

52. A single circular DNA molecule consists of many genes. A gene is a coiled unit made up of Cytoplasmic granules and proteins that code for or determine a particular characteristic of an individual organism. A. True B. False

Cytoplasm 53. Cytoplasm is composed of a semifluid gelatinous nutrient matrix and cytoplasmic organelles including endoplasmic reticulum, ribosomes, Golgi complex, mitochondria, ______, microtubules, lysosomes and vacoules. A. Chromosomes D. Centrioles B. Procaryotes E. Cytoplasmic organelles C. Cell membrane F. None of the Above

Cell Wall 54. Which of the following is found as an external structure of plant cells, algae, and fungi? A. Cytoplasmic granules D. A single circular DNA molecule B. Cilia E. DNA and proteins C. A cell wall F. None of the Above

Cilia and Flagella 55. Which of the following terms express cells that possess relatively long and thin structures called Flagella? A. Eukaryotic D. Protozoan B. Vesicles E. Paramecium C. Prokaryotic F. None of the Above

56. Which of the following terms are also organs of locomotion but are shorter and more numerous? A. Cytoplasmic granules D. Flagella B. Cilia E. Hair C. A cell wall F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 23 www.abctlc.com Structure of a Procaryotic Cell 57. All bacteria are procaryotes and are simple cells and they divide by binary fission. A. True B. False

Chromosome 58. The chromosome of a prokaryotic cell usually consists of a single circular ______and serves as the control center of the bacterial cell. A. Cytoplasmic granules D. A single circular DNA molecule B. DNA molecule E. DNA and proteins C. A cell wall F. None of the Above

59. A typical bacterial chromosome contains approximately 10,000 genes. A. True B. False

Cytoplasm 60. Which of the following terms is a semi-liquid that surrounds the chromosome and is contained within the plasma membrane? A. Chromosomes D. Macromolecular polymer-peptidoglycan B. Cytoplasm E. Cytoplasmic organelles C. Cell membrane F. None of the Above

Cell Membrane 61. The Cell Membrane is similar to that of the? A. Chromosomes D. Macromolecular polymer-peptidoglycan B. Procaryotes E. Cytoplasmic organelles C. Eukaryotic cell membrane F. None of the Above

62. Which of the following is selectively permeable and controls the substances entering or leaving the cell? A. Chromosomes D. Macromolecular polymer-peptidoglycan B. Procaryotes E. Cytoplasmic organelles C. Eukaryotic cell membrane F. None of the Above

Capsules 63. Some bacteria have a layer of material outside the? A. Capsule D. Membrane/cytoplasmic membrane B. Cell wall E. True nucleus C. Cytoplasmic granules F. None of the Above

64. Which of the following terms, is highly organized and firmly attached, this layer is called a capsule or if it is not highly organized and not firmly attached, a slime layer? A. Capsule D. DNA and proteins B. Cell wall E. True nucleus C. Cytoplasmic granules F. None of the Above

65. Which of the following terms consist of complex sugars or polysaccharides combined with lipids and proteins? A. Cytoplasmic granules D. Capsules B. Cilia E. DNA and proteins C. A cell wall F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 24 www.abctlc.com Flagella 66. Flagella are ______that enable the bacteria to move. A. Cytoplasmic granules D. False feet B. Cilia E. Hair C. Thread-like proteins F. None of the Above

67. The following term is said to be motile while non-flagellated bacteria are generally non-motile. A. Bacteria D. Flagellated bacteria B. Peptidoglycan E. Microorganism C. Gram+ or Gram - F. None of the Above

68. Peritrichous bacteria-possess? A. One flagellum at each end D. Genetic material from one bacteria B. Tuft of flagella E. Flagella over the entire surface C. The entire surface F. None of the Above

69. Lophotrichous bacteria-possess at one or both ends? A. Forming spores D. Tuft of flagella B. Spore formation E. Cilia C. A single polar flagellum F. None of the Above

70. Amphitrichous bacteria-bacteria with ______. A. One flagellum at each end D. Transfer genetic material from one bacteria B. A single polar flagellum E. One or both ends C. The entire surface F. None of the Above

71. Monotrichous bacteria-bacteria with______. A. One flagellum at each end D. Transfer genetic material from one bacteria cell to another B. A single polar flagellum E. One or both ends C. The entire surface F. None of the Above

Pili or Fimbriae 72. Pili or Fimbriae enable the bacteria to attach to other bacteria or to membrane surfaces such as intestinal linings or? A. Chromosomes D. Macromolecular polymer-peptidoglycan B. RBC E. Cytoplasmic organelles C. Cell membrane F. None of the Above

73. Which of the following terms is used to transfer genetic material from one bacteria cell to another? A. Chromosomes D. Macromolecular polymer-peptidoglycan B. Pili or Fimbriae E. Cytoplasmic organelles C. Cell membrane F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 25 www.abctlc.com Spores 74. Which of the following terms is enclosed in several protein coats that are resistant to heat, drying and most chemicals? A. Spores D. Spore formation B. Genetic material E. Macromolecular polymer-peptidoglycan C. Cytoplasmic granules F. None of the Above

75. Which of the following terms lands on a nutrient rich surface, can form a new vegetative cell? A. Spores D. Spore formation B. Genetic material E. Dried spore C. Several protein coats F. None of the Above

76. Spore formation is related to the survival of bacterial cells, not reproduction. A. True B. False

Bacterial Nutrition 77. Which of the following terms may in significant quantities, but some seem to only need it in trace amounts? A. Water D. Oxygen B. Nitrogen E. Calcium C. Iron, Zinc, Cobalt F. None of the Above

78. Which of the following terms all life requires in order to grow and reproduce? A. Water D. Oxygen B. Copper E. Calcium C. Iron, Zinc, Cobalt F. None of the Above

79. Which of the following terms are required by some enzymes to function? A. Water D. Oxygen B. Copper E. Calcium C. Iron, Zinc, Cobalt F. None of the Above

80. All life has the same basic nutritional requirements which include: Energy. This may be light or inorganic substances like sulfur, carbon monoxide or ammonia, or preformed organic matter like sugar, protein, fats etc. A. True B. False

81. Which of the following terms may be nitrogen gas, ammonia, nitrate/nitrite, or a nitrogenous organic compound like protein or Nucleic acid? A. Water D. Oxygen B. Nitrogen E. Calcium C. Iron, Zinc, Cobalt F. None of the Above

82. Which of the following terms may be carbon dioxide, methane, carbon monoxide, or a complex organic material. A. Water D. Oxygen B. Carbon E. Calcium C. Iron, Zinc, Cobalt F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 26 www.abctlc.com 83. Which of the following terms may require gaseous air? A. Water D. Oxygen B. DNA molecule E. Calcium C. Iron, Zinc, Cobalt F. None of the Above

Fastidious 84. Which of the following terms may synthesize every complex molecule they need from the basic minerals? A. Eukaryote(s) D. Centrioles B. Bacteria E. Viruses C. Prokaryote(s) F. None of the Above

85. Which of the following terms are said to be fastidious, require preformed organic molecules like vitamins, amino acids, nucleic acids, carbohydrates? A. Eukaryote(s) D. Centrioles B. Bacteria E. Viruses C. Prokaryote(s) F. None of the Above

What in the World is an Eukaryote? 86. Which of the following terms represents animals, plants, and fungi, which are mostly multicellular, as well as various other groups called protists, many of which are unicellular? A. Eukaryote(s) D. Centrioles B. Bacteria E. Viruses C. Prokaryote(s) F. None of the Above

87. Which of the following terms represents organisms such as bacteria lack nuclei and other complex cell structures? A. Eukaryote(s) D. Centrioles B. Bacteria E. Viruses C. Prokaryote(s) F. None of the Above

88. The eukaryotes share a common origin, and are often treated formally as a super kingdom, empire, or domain. A. True B. False

Eukaryotic Cells 89. According to the text, Eukaryotic cells are generally much larger than ______, typically with a thousand times their volumes. A. Eukaryote(s) D. Centrioles B. Bacteria E. Viruses C. Prokaryote(s) F. None of the Above

90. Many cells ingest food and other materials through a process of osmosis, where the outer membrane invaginates and then pinches off to form a Flagella. A. True B. False

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 27 www.abctlc.com 91. Which of the following terms is surrounded by a double membrane, with pores that allow material to move in and out? A. The nucleus D. Cilia B. Flagella E. Cell wall C. DNA molecule F. None of the Above

92. Which of the following terms represents a variety of Internal membranes and structures, called organelles, and a cytoskeleton composed of microtubules and microfilaments? A. Eukaryote(s) D. Centrioles B. Bacteria E. Viruses C. Prokaryote(s) F. None of the Above

93. Which of the following terms represent this DNA which is divided into several bundles called chromosomes, which are separated by a microtubular spindle during nuclear division? A. Eukaryote(s) D. Centrioles B. Bacteria E. Viruses C. Prokaryote(s) F. None of the Above

94. Which of the following terms represent cells that include a variety of membrane-bound structures, collectively referred to as the endomembrane system? A. Eukaryote(s) D. Centrioles B. Golgi bodies or dictyosomes E. Eukaryotic C. Prokaryote(s) F. None of the Above

Protozoan Reservoirs of Disease 95. Which of the following bugs/disease/causes terms represents the causative organism of Legionnaires' disease? A. Centrioles D. Amoebae B. Viruses E. Bacterium Legionella pneumophila C. Autotropic F. None of the Above

96. Which of the following bugs/disease/causes terms live and reproduce in the cytoplasm of some free-living amoebae? A. Centrioles D. Amoebae B. Viruses E. Bacterium Legionella pneumophila C. Autotropic F. None of the Above

97. The presence of bacteria in the cytoplasm of protozoa is well known, whereas that of viruses is less frequently reported. Most of these reports simply record the presence of bacteria or viruses and assume some sort of symbiotic relationship between them and the Protozoa. A. True B. False

98. Which of the following terms were shown to not only survive but also to multiply in the cytoplasm of free-living, nonpathogenic protozoa? A. Human pathogens D. Soil-dwelling protozoa B. Foraminifera E. Marine protozoa C. Freshwater protozoan F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 28 www.abctlc.com 99. Protozoa are the natural habitat for certain pathogenic bacteria. A. True B. False

Symbionts 100. Which of the following terms inhabit the rumen and reticulum of ruminates and the cecum and colon of equids? A. Protozoa D. Soil-dwelling protozoa B. Foraminifera E. Ciliates C. Freshwater protozoan F. None of the Above

Data on Protozoa 101. Most ecologists who include ______in their studies of aquatic habitats do not identify them, even if they do count and measure them for biomass estimates. A. Protozoa D. Fossil foraminifera B. Foraminifera E. Marine protozoa C. Freshwater protozoan F. None of the Above

102. Which of the following terms represents an organism of humans, domestic animals, and wildlife are better known although no attempt has been made to compile this information into a single source? A. Protozoa D. Parasitic protozoa B. Foraminifera E. Marine protozoa C. Freshwater protozoan F. None of the Above

Ecological Role of Protozoa 103. Which of the following terms represents an organism which is frequently overlooked, these play an important role in many communities where they occupy a range of trophic levels? A. Protozoa D. Fossil foraminifera B. Foraminifera E. Marine protozoa C. Freshwater protozoan F. None of the Above

104. According to the text, these are predators of unicellular or filamentous algae, ______, and microfungi, protozoa play a role both as herbivores and as consumers in the decomposer link of the food chain. A. Bacteria D. Pathogenic bacteria B. Many ecological conditions E. Bacterium C. Amazingly diverse organisms F. None of the Above

105. The ecological role of Foraminifera in the transfer of bacterial and algal production to successive trophic levels is important. A. True B. False

Factors Affecting Growth and Distribution 106. Which of the following terms reproduce by cell division? A. Most free-living protozoa D. Fossil foraminifera B. Foraminifera E. Marine protozoa C. Freshwater protozoan F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 29 www.abctlc.com Protozoa 107. When protozoa are in the form of ______, they actively feed and grow. A. Cysts D. Hermaphroditic B. Trophozoites E. Apicomplexans C. Pathogens F. None of the Above

108. Which bug/creature/organism/species play a role both as herbivores and as consumers in the decomposer link of the food chain? A. Protozoa D. Algal production B. Malaria parasites E. Trophozoites and cysts C. Microinvertebrates F. None of the Above

109. Which bug/creature/organism/species are an important food source for microinvertebrates? A. Meiofauna D. Algal production B. Malaria parasites E. Protozoa C. Microinvertebrates F. None of the Above

110. The ecological role of protozoa in the transfer of bacterial and ______to successive trophic levels is important. A. Protozoa D. Algal production B. Malaria parasites E. Trophozoites and cysts C. Microinvertebrates F. None of the Above

111. According to the text, the process by which the protozoa takes its cyst form is called encystation, while the process of transforming back into ______is called excystation. A. Cysts D. Hermaphroditic B. Trophozoite E. Apicomplexans C. Pathogens F. None of the Above

112. Protozoa occupy a range of trophic levels, as predators, they prey upon unicellular or filamentous algae, bacteria, and? A. Microfungi D. Algal production B. Malaria parasites E. Trophozoites and cysts C. Microinvertebrates F. None of the Above

113. Most protozoa exist in 5 stages of life which are in the form of ______. A. Protozoa D. Algal production B. Malaria parasites E. Trophozoites and cysts C. Microinvertebrates F. None of the Above

114. Which bug/creature/organism/species can survive harsh conditions, such as exposure to extreme temperatures and harmful chemicals, or long periods without access to nutrients, water, or oxygen for a period of time. A. Protozoa D. Algal production B. Malaria parasites E. Trophozoites and cysts C. Microinvertebrates F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 30 www.abctlc.com 115. An individual protozoan is? A. Cysts D. Hermaphroditic B. Trophozoite E. Apicomplexans C. Pathogens F. None of the Above

116. Which bug/creature/organism/species are around 10–50 micrometer, but can grow up to 1 mm and can easily be seen under a microscope. A. Protozoa D. Algal production B. Malaria parasites E. Trophozoites and cysts C. Microinvertebrates F. None of the Above

117. Which bug/creature/organism/species exist throughout aqueous environments and soil. A. Protozoa D. Algal production B. Malaria parasites E. Trophozoites and cysts C. Microinvertebrates F. None of the Above

Classification 118. Protozoa were commonly grouped in the kingdom of Protista together with the plant- like algae and fungus-like water molds and slime molds. In the 21st-century systematics, protozoans, along with ciliates, mastigophorans, and apicomplexans, are arranged as animal-like protists. However, protozoans are neither Animalia nor Metazoa (with the possible exception of the enigmatic, moldy Myxozoa). A. True B. False

119. Trophozoite usually have non-specific routes by which they are transmitted, and these routes may depend on the type of cells and tissue that a particular agent targets. A. True B. False

120. Once in the air, the viruses can infect another person who is unlucky enough to inhale air containing the Virus particles. A. True B. False

121. Agents vary greatly in their stability in the environment. Some viruses may survive for only a few minutes outside of a host, while some Apicomplexans are extremely durable and may survive in a dormant state for a week or more. A. True B. False

Protozoa Section 122. The diverse assemblage of organisms that carry out all of their life functions within the confines of a single, complex ______are called protozoa. A. Eukaryotic cell D. Marine ciliates B. Protozoa(ns) E. Cytoplasma C. Amoeba(s) F. None of the Above

123. Which bug/creature/organism/species, and Paramecium, and Amoeba are well- known examples of these major groups of protozoans? A. Eukaryotes D. Euglena B. Enterovirulent E. coli E. Cytoplasma C. Marine ciliates F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 31 www.abctlc.com 124. Which bug/creature/organism/species are more closely related to animals, others to plants, and still others are relatively unique? A. Eukaryotic cell D. Marine ciliates B. Protozoa(ns) E. Cytoplasma C. Amoeba(s) F. None of the Above

125. Which bug/creature/organism/species are sometimes also called algae and are addressed elsewhere? A. Eukaryotes D. Marine ciliates B. Enterovirulent E. coli E. Unicellular photosynthetic protozoa C. Amoeba(s) F. None of the Above

Free-living Protozoa 126. Because of their small size, production of resistant cysts, and ease of distribution from one place to another, many species appear to be cosmopolitan and may be collected in similar? A. Eukaryotic cell D. Marine ciliates B. Protozoa(ns) E. Cytoplasma C. Amoeba(s) F. None of the Above

127. Which bug/creature/organism/species inhabit interstices of sediment and beach sands, surfaces, deep sea and cold Antarctic environments, planktonic habitats, and the algal mats and detritus of estuaries and wetlands? A. Eukaryotes D. Marine ciliates B. Protozoa(ns) E. Cytoplasma C. Amoeba(s) F. None of the Above

128. Which bug/creature/organism/species are found in all moist habitats within the United States, but we know little about their specific geographic distribution? A. Eukaryotes D. Marine ciliates B. Protozoa(ns) E. Cytoplasma C. Amoeba(s) F. None of the Above

Amoebas How does an amoeba locomote? 129. Which bug/creature/organism/species locomote by way of cytoplasmic movement. (cytoplasm is the cell content around the nucleus of the cell)? A. Eukaryotes D. Marine ciliates B. Protozoa(ns) E. E. coli C. Amoeba(s) F. None of the Above

130. Which bug/creature/organism/species forms pseudopods (false feet) with which they 'flow' over a surface? A. Eukaryotes D. Marine ciliates B. Protozoa(ns) E. E. coli C. Amoeba(s) F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 32 www.abctlc.com 131. These pseudopods are also used to capture prey; they simply engulf the food. They can detect the kind of prey and use different? A. Eukaryotic cell D. 'Engulfing tactics' B. Protozoa(ns) E. Cytoplasma C. Amoeba(s) F. None of the Above

Protozoa Information 132. Which bug/creature/organism/species have been documented from almost every type of soil and in every kind of environment, from the peat-rich soil of bogs to the dry sands of deserts? A. Foraminifera D. Soil-loving Amoeba B. Protozoan fauna E. Microsporidia C. Soil-dwelling protozoa F. None of the Above

133. In freshwater habitats, the foraminifera and radiolaria common in marine environments are absent or low in numbers while ______exist in greater numbers. A. Foraminifera D. Soil biomass B. Testate amoebae E. Microsporidia C. Cytoplasm of protozoa F. None of the Above

Environmental Quality Indicators 134. Polluted waters often have a rich and characteristic? A. Foraminifera D. Soil biomass B. Protozoan fauna E. Microsporidia C. Cytoplasm of protozoa F. None of the Above

Symbiotic Protozoa Parasites 135. Which term means or comprises a unique group of obligate, intracellular parasitic protozoa? A. Foraminifera D. Soil biomass B. Protozoan fauna E. Microsporidia C. Cytoplasm of protozoa F. None of the Above

136. Which term means or comprises amazingly diverse organisms with more than 700 species and 80 genera that are capable of infecting a variety of plant, animal, and even other protist hosts? A. Foraminifera D. Soil biomass B. Protozoan fauna E. Microsporidia C. Cytoplasm of protozoa F. None of the Above

137. There are four different genera of microsporidia (Encephalitozoon, Nosema, Pleistophora, and______). A. Foraminifera D. Enterocytozoon B. Protozoan fauna E. Microsporidia C. Cytoplasm of protozoa F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 33 www.abctlc.com Protozoan Reservoirs of Disease 138. The presence of bacteria in this is well known, whereas that of viruses is less frequently reported. A. Foraminifera D. Soil biomass B. Protozoan fauna E. Microsporidia C. Cytoplasm of protozoa F. None of the Above

139. Most of these reports simply record the presence of bacteria or viruses and assume some sort of symbiotic relationship between them and the? A. Flagella D. Free-living amoebae B. Bacteria or viruses E. Cell's cytoplasm C. Protozoa F. None of the Above

140. Some human pathogens were shown to not only survive but also to multiply in the cytoplasm of free-living? A. Amoeba D. Nonpathogenic protozoa B. Organisms E. Various protozoa C. Beneficial symbionts F. None of the Above

141. To date, the main focus of attention has been on the______, the causative organism of Legionnaires' disease; these bacteria live and reproduce in the cytoplasm of some free-living amoebae. A. Amoeba D. Free-living amoebae B. Bacteria or viruses E. Bacterium Legionella pneumophila C. Protozoa F. None of the Above

Symbionts 142. According to the text, some of these creatures are harmless or even beneficial symbionts. A. Amoeba D. Free-living amoebae B. Viruses E. Bacterium Legionella pneumophila C. Protozoa F. None of the Above

Contractile Vacuoles 143. Many protozoa have______, which collect and expel excess water, and extrusomes, which expel material used to deflect predators or capture prey. A. Flagella D. Free-living amoebae B. Contractile vacuoles E. Cell's cytoplasm C. Vacuole or tonoplast F. None of the Above

144. In higher plants, most of a cell's volume is taken up by a central vacuole or tonoplast, which maintains its? A. Kinetosome or centriole D. Nonpathogenic protozoa B. Vacuole or tonoplast E. Various microtubular roots C. Osmotic pressure F. None of the Above

145. Which bug/creature/organism have slender motile projections, usually called flagella when long and cilia when short? A. Eukaryotes D. Free-living amoebae B. Bacteria or viruses E. Centrioles C. Protozoa F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 34 www.abctlc.com 146. Which bug/creature/organism are variously involved in movement, feeding, and sensation? A. Eukaryotes D. Free-living amoebae B. Bacteria or viruses E. Centrioles C. Protozoa F. None of the Above

147. Which bug/creature/organism are entirely distinct from prokaryotic flagella? A. Eukaryotes D. Free-living amoebae B. Bacteria or viruses E. Centrioles C. Protozoa F. None of the Above

148. Flagella also may have hairs or mastigonemes, scales, connecting membranes, and internal rods, their interior is continuous with the? A. Flagella D. Free-living amoebae B. Bacteria or viruses E. Cell's cytoplasm C. Haptonema F. None of the Above

Centrioles 149. Centrioles are often present even in cells and groups that do not have flagella. They generally occur in groups of one or two, called ______that give rise to various microtubular roots. A. Kinetosome or centriole D. Nonpathogenic protozoa B. Kinetids E. Various microtubular roots C. Beneficial symbionts F. None of the Above

150. These form a primary component of the______, and are often assembled over the course of several cell divisions, with one flagellum retained from the parent and the other derived from it. A. Vacuole or tonoplast D. Cytoskeletal structure B. Haptonema E. Cytoplasm C. Cyst F. None of the Above

151. Which of the following terms may also be associated in the formation of a spindle during nuclear division? A. Contractile vacuoles D. Microtubule-supported organelles B. Centrioles E. Vacuole or tonoplast C. Paramecium F. None of the Above

152. Which bug/creature/organism produces axopodia which is used in flotation or to capture prey, and the haptophytes, which have a peculiar flagellum-like organelle called the haptonema? A. Paramecium D. Protozoan pathogens B. Haptonema E. Radiolaria and heliozoa C. Paramecium F. None of the Above

Paramecium 153. Which bug/creature/organism are single-celled, freshwater organisms in the kingdom Protista? A. Kinetosome or centriole D. Eukaryotes B. E-coli E. Bacterium Legionella pneumophila C. Paramecium F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 35 www.abctlc.com 154. Paramecium exist in an environment in which the osmotic concentration in their external environment is much lower than that in their? A. Contractile vacuoles D. Protozoan pathogens B. Haptonema E. Cytoplasm C. Cyst F. None of the Above

155. Paramecium are subjected to a continuous influx of water, as water diffuses inward to a region of higher ______concentration. A. Contractile vacuoles D. Osmotic B. Cytoplasm E. Hypotonic to their cytoplasm C. Homeostasis F. None of the Above

156. If Paramecium is to maintain______, water must be continually pumped out of the cell at the same rate at which it moves in. A. Life D. Osmotic B. Happiness E. Cytoplasm C. Homeostasis F. None of the Above

157. Osmoregulation, is carried out by two organelles in Paramecium known as? A. Contractile vacuoles D. Microtubule-supported organelles B. Cytoplasm E. Osmosis C. Homeostasis F. None of the Above

Wastewater Treatment Biology 158. In the Activated Sludge process, the ______are also called waste activated sludge. A. Organisms D. Secondary treatment B. Settled bugs E. Sludge Volume Index C. Mixed liquor F. None of the Above

159. The waste sludge is treated separately. The remaining wastewater is now much cleaner. In fact, after primary and ______, about 85% or more of all pollutants in the wastewater has been removed and it goes on to Disinfection. A. Oxygen D. Secondary treatment B. Settled bugs E. Settleable Solids C. Activated sludge F. None of the Above

160. The first group is the bacteria which eat the dissolved organic compounds is generally four (4) groups of bugs that do most of the “eating” in the ______process. A. Mixed liquor D. Secondary treatment B. Settled bugs E. Total Dissolved Solids C. Activated sludge F. None of the Above

161. The second and third groups of bugs are microorganisms known as the free- swimming and ______. These larger bugs eat the bacteria and are heavy enough to settle by gravity. A. Mixed liquor D. Bacteria B. Suctoria E. Volatile Solids C. Stalked ciliates E. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 36 www.abctlc.com 162. This bug which feeds on the larger bugs and assist with settling is in the fourth group, known as? A. Water bear D. Rotifer B. Suctoria E. Vorticella C. Activated sludge bugs F. None of the Above

163. The Bacteria have several interesting properties--their “fat reserve” is stored on the outside of their body and this strange feature? A. Fur D. No Mouth B. Feet E. No Cilia C. Eyes F. None of the Above

164. Once the bacteria have “contacted” their food, they start the digestion process. A chemical Enzyme is sent out through the cell wall to break up the ______. A. Mixed liquor D. Bacteria B. Organic compounds E. Total Dissolved Solids C. Activated sludge F. None of the Above

165. In wastewater treatment, the process of using bacteria-eating-bugs in the presence of oxygen to reduce the organics in water is called? A. Mixed liquor D. Reduction B. Oxidation E. Settleable Solids C. Activated sludge F. None of the Above

166. Activated Sludge: The first step in the process, the contact of the bacteria with the organic compounds, takes about ______. The second step includes the breaking up, ingestion and digestion processes, which take 4 to 24 hours. A. 24 hours D. 30 Minutes B. 2 Hours E. 72 Hours C. 1 Hour F. None of the Above

167. An asset in settling the bug is its fat storage property and as the bugs “bump” into each other, the fat on each of them sticks together and causes flocculation of the ______. A. Mixed liquor D. WAS B. Floc E. Settleable Solids C. Non-organic solids and biomass F. None of the Above

168. What does facultative mean as far as bugs? What environments are they adaptable to survive and multiply in? A. Either anaerobic or aerobic conditions D. Aerobic only B. Anaerobic only E. Volatile C. Facultative F. None of the Above

169. The next step as in the text, this substance, which is the activated sludge, is used again by returning it to the influent of the aeration tank for mixing with the primary effluent and ample amounts of air? A. Carry over D. Super WAS B. RAS E. Sludge Volume Index C. Solids biomass F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 37 www.abctlc.com 170. We need to be able to properly identify the bugs and this common bugs are a medium size to large swimming Ciliate, commonly observed in activated sludge, sometimes in abundant numbers. A. Vorticella D. Euchlanis B. Euglypha E. Rotifer C. Paramecium F. None of the Above

171. The cell is highly engineered and because of this hydrolytic enzyme, it breaks the organic molecules into small units which are able to pass through the cell wall of the ______. A. Mixed bugs D. Bacteria B. Compound E. Protozoan C. Organism F. None of the Above

Giardiasis Giardia lamblia Chapter 2 172. According to the text, Giardia lamblia (intestinalis) is a single celled animal, i.e., a protozoa, that moves with the aid of five flagella. In Europe, it is sometimes referred to as? A. Chronic cases D. Typically, the disease B. The organism E. Morphologically distinct organism C. Lamblia intestinalis F. None of the Above

173. Giardiasis is the most frequent cause of non-bacterial diarrhea in North America. Giardia duodenalis, cause of giardiasis, is a one-celled, Microscopic parasite that can live in the intestines of animals and people. It is found in every region throughout the world and has become recognized as one of the most common causes of waterborne (and occasionally foodborne) illness often referred to as "Beaver Fever." A. True B. False

174. Approximately one week after ingestion of the______, prolonged, greasy diarrhea, gas, stomach cramps, fatigue, and weight loss begin. A. Intestinal flora D. Various degrees of symptoms B. Giardia cysts E. The microaerophilic Giardia C. Human giardiasis F. None of the Above

175. Giardiasis disease runs its course in a week or two, although in some cases, the disease may linger for months, causing severe illness and weight loss. Nonetheless, the basic biology of this ______--including how it ravages the digestive tract--is poorly understood. A. Chronic case D. Disease B. Organism E. Morphologically distinct organism C. Parasite F. None of the Above

176. Which of the following terms uses these mitosomes in the maturation of iron-sulfur proteins rather than in ATP synthesis as is the case in mitochondria-possessing eukaryotes? A. Intestinal flora D. Various degrees of symptoms B. The disease mechanism E. Microaerophilic Giardia C. Human giardiasis F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 38 www.abctlc.com Nature of Disease 177. Which of the following terms that appear identical to those that cause human illness have been isolated from domestic animals and wild animals. A. Chronic cases D. Typically, the disease B. The organism E. Organisms C. Lamblia intestinalis F. None of the Above

178. Which of the following terms may involve diarrhea within 1 week of ingestion of the cyst, which is the environmental survival form and infective stage of the organism? A. Intestinal flora D. Various degrees of symptoms B. The disease mechanism E. The microaerophilic Giardia C. Human giardiasis F. None of the Above

179. Chronic cases, both those with defined ______and those without, are difficult to treat. A. Immune deficiencies D. Typically, the disease B. The organism E. Morphologically distinct organism C. Lamblia intestinalis F. None of the Above

180. Which of the following terms is unknown, with some investigators reporting that the organism produces a toxin while others are unable to confirm its existence? A. Intestinal flora D. Various degrees of symptoms B. The disease mechanism E. The microaerophilic Giardia C. Human giardiasis F. None of the Above

181. Which of the following terms has been demonstrated inside host cells in the duodenum, but most investigators think this is such an infrequent occurrence that it is not responsible for disease symptoms? A. Intestinal flora D. Typically, the disease B. The organism E. Morphologically distinct organism C. Lamblia intestinalis F. None of the Above

182. Which of the following terms of the absorptive surface of the intestine has been proposed as a possible pathogenic mechanism, as has a synergistic relationship with some of the intestinal flora? A. Intestinal flora D. Various degrees of symptoms B. The disease mechanism E. Mechanical obstruction C. Human giardiasis F. None of the Above

183. Which of the following terms can be excysted, cultured and encysted in vitro; new isolates have bacterial, fungal, and viral symbionts? A. Intestinal flora D. Typically, the disease B. The organism E. Giardia C. Lamblia intestinalis F. None of the Above

184. Which of the following terms have been isolated and described through analysis of their proteins and DNA; type of strain, however, is not consistently associated with disease severity? A. Several strains of G. lamblia D. Various degrees of symptoms B. The disease mechanism E. The microaerophilic Giardia C. Human giardiasis F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 39 www.abctlc.com 185. Different individuals show various degrees of symptoms when infected with the same strain, and the symptoms of an individual may vary during the ______. A. Intestinal flora D. Various degrees of symptoms B. Disease mechanism E. Course of the disease C. Human giardiasis F. None of the Above

Diagnosis of Human Illness 186. Giardia lamblia is frequently diagnosed by visualizing the organism, either the trophozoite (active reproducing form) or the cyst (the resting stage that is resistant to adverse environmental conditions) in stained preparations or unstained wet mounts with the aid of a microscope. A. True B. False

187. Which of the following terms may be concentrated by sedimentation or flotation; however, these procedures reduce the number of recognizable organisms in the sample? A. Organisms D. Giardiasis B. Infective cysts E. Recognizable organisms in the sample C. Acute outbreaks F. None of the Above

188. Which of the following terms that detects excretory secretory products of the organism is also available? A. Bac-T D. Infective cysts B. An enzyme E. An enzyme linked immunosorbant assay (ELISA) C. Lab array F. None of the Above

Relative Frequency of Disease 189. Which of the following terms is more prevalent in children than in adults, possibly because many individuals seem to have a lasting immunity after infection? A. Cryptosporidium D. Infective cysts B. An enzyme E. Trophozoite C. Giardiasis F. None of the Above

190. Which of the following terms is implicated in 25% of the cases of gastrointestinal disease and may be present asymptomatically, the overall incidence of infection is estimated at 2% of the population. A. Cryptosporidium D. Infective cysts B. An enzyme E. Trophozoite C. Giardiasis F. None of the Above

191. Which of the following terms appear to be common with infants and is not usually associated with water but is related to child care and diaper changing hygiene procedures. A. Flagyl D. Giardiasis B. Infective cysts E. Intestinal flora C. Acute outbreaks F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 40 www.abctlc.com 192. According to the text, this is an example of infectious diarrhea due to ______infection of the small intestine. A. This organism D. Infective cysts B. Giardia lamblia E. The small pear-shaped trophozoites C. Giardiasis F. None of the Above

193. Which of the following terms in immunodeficient and normal individuals are frequently refractile to drug treatment? A. This organism D. Infective cysts B. An enzyme E. Chronic cases of giardiasis C. Giardiasis F. None of the Above

194. Which of the following terms is normally quite effective in terminating infections? A. Flagyl D. Giardiasis B. Infective cysts E. Recognizable organisms in the sample C. Acute outbreaks F. None of the Above

Target Populations 195. Which of the following terms occurs throughout the population, although the prevalence is higher in children than adults? A. This organism D. Infective cysts B. An enzyme E. The small pear-shaped trophozoites C. Giardiasis F. None of the Above

196. Chronic symptomatic giardiasis is more common in adults than children. A. True B. False

Cryptosporidiosis Chapter 3 Review 197. Transmission is also common from ingestion of food or water contaminated with stool, including water in the recreational water park and swimming pool settings. A. True B. False

198. Symptoms of cryptosporidiosis include, most commonly, watery diarrhea and cramps, sometimes severe. Weight loss, nausea, vomiting, and fever are also possible. A. True B. False

199. The severity of symptoms varies with the degree of underlying immunosuppression, with immunocompetent patients commonly experiencing watery diarrhea for a few days to 4 or more weeks and occasionally having a recurrence of diarrhea after a brief period of recovery. A. True B. False

200. Cryptosporidiosis is most particularly a danger for the immunocompromised, especially HIV-positive persons and persons with AIDS. Individuals with CD4 cell counts below 200 are more likely to experience severe complications, including prolonged diarrhea, dehydration, and possible death. A. True B. False

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 41 www.abctlc.com 201. Persons at increased risk for contracting cryptosporidiosis include child care workers; diaper-aged children who attend child care centers; persons exposed to human feces by sexual contact; and caregivers who might come in direct contact with feces while caring for a person infected with cryptosporidiosis. A. True B. False

Cholera Chapter 4 202. Cholera, which is derived from a Greek term meaning “Running to the bathroom,” is caused by Vibrio cholerae and is the most feared epidemic diarrheal disease because of its severity. Dehydration and death can occur within a matter of minutes of infection. A. True B. False

202. In 1883, Louis Pasteur discovered V cholerae during a cholera outbreak in Egypt. A. True B. False

204. Cholera has been very common in industrialized nations for the last 100 years. A. True B. False

205. Cholera is always life-threatening, it is easily prevented and treated with chloromines. A. True B. False

206. In the United States, because of advanced water and sanitation systems, cholera is not a major threat; however, everyone, especially travelers, should be aware of how the disease is transmitted and what can be done to prevent it. A. True B. False

207. The V cholerae organism is a comma-shaped, gram-negative aerobic bacillus whose size varies from 1-3 mm in length by 0.5-0.8 mm in diameter. Its antigenic structure consists of a flagellar H antigen and a somatic O antigen. A. True B. False

208. The differentiation of the latter allows for separation into pathogenic and nonpathogenic strains. V cholerae O1 or O139 are associated with epidemic cholera. V cholerae O1 has 2 major biotypes: classic and El Tor. A. True B. False

209. Currently, El Leche is the predominant cholera pathogen. A. True B. False

210. A person may get cholera by drinking water or eating food contaminated with the cholera bacterium. In an epidemic, the source of the contamination is usually the feces of an infected person. The disease can spread rapidly in areas with inadequate treatment of sewage and drinking water. A. True B. False

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 42 www.abctlc.com Legionnaires' Disease Legionella Chapter 5 211. What is the causative agent, what would come to be known as? A. Legionella D. Legionnaire’s disease B. Pontiac fever E. Legionella pneumophila C. Aerosolized water F. None of the Above

The disease has two distinct forms: 212. Fill in the two missing answers. The more severe form of infection ______which includes pneumonia, and ______, a milder illness. A. Legionella, Pontiac fever D. Legionnaire’s disease B. Pontiac fever, Pontiac fever E. Pontiac fever, pneumophila C. Legionnaires' disease, Pontiac fever F. None of the Above

What have been the water sources for Legionnaires' disease? 213. Legionnaire’s disease is caused most commonly by the inhalation of small droplets of water or fine aerosol containing______. A. Legionella D. Legionnaire’s disease B. Pontiac fever E. Legionella pneumophila C. Legionella bacteria F. None of the Above

214. What are naturally found in environmental water sources such as rivers, lakes and ponds and may colonize man-made water systems that include air conditioning systems, humidifiers, cooling tower waters, hot water systems, spas and pools? A. Legionella bacteria D. Legionnaire’s disease B. Pontiac fever E. Legionella pneumophila C. Aerosolized water F. None of the Above

How do people contract Legionella? 215. Routine biocide treatments will not eradicate ______in the environment, only in laboratory studies. A. Legionella D. Legionnaire’s disease B. Monoclonal antibodies E. Legionella pneumophila C. Legionella bacteria F. None of the Above

216. Which of the following bugs that within one month, this bacterium can multiply, in warm water-containing systems, from less than 10 per milliliter to over 1,000 per milliliter of water? A. Legionella D. Legionnaire’s disease B. Pontiac fever E. Legionella pneumophila C. Monoclonal antibodies F. None of the Above

217. If high numbers of ______have been found, a relatively simple procedure for disinfecting water systems with chlorine and detergent is available. A. Legionella D. Legionnaire’s disease B. Pontiac fever E. Legionella pneumophila C. Monoclonal antibodies F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 43 www.abctlc.com 218. Which is the most common way that Legionella bacteria enter into the lungs to cause pneumonia? A. Choking D. Breathing B. Pontiac fever E. Coffee drinking C. Aspiration F. None of the Above

219. Culture methods are good during Laboratory studies for bio-typing; but culture methods lack sensitivity for routine, quantitative monitoring. A. True B. False

220. Many factors will inhibit growth or identification of Legionella on BCYE with or without antimicrobial agents, heat or acid treatment. A. True B. False

221. Culture methods will not identify this bug which can still cause outbreaks (non- culturable, viable legionella have been reported in several peer-reviewed journals). A. Legionella D. Legionnaire’s disease B. Bugs E. Non-culturable legionella C. Microbial mats F. None of the Above

222. Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) tests using a battery of ______provide more useful routine monitoring information than culture methods. A. Legionella D. Legionnaire’s disease B. Laboratory studies E. Monoclonal antibodies C. Microbial mats F. None of the Above

223. Legionella species of bacteria, these bugs are strictly aerobic rods and are considered? A. Legionella D. Legionnaire’s disease B. Microbial mats E. Legionella pneumophila C. Gram negative F. None of the Above

Escherichia Coli Chapter 6 Fecal Coliform Bacteria 224. Fecal coliform bacteria are ______that live in the intestines of warm- blooded animals. A. Enrichment culture D. Fecal coliform bacteria B. Microscopic organisms E. Conditions are favorable for growth C. Fecal matter F. None of the Above

225. They also live in the waste material, or feces, excreted from the intestinal tract. When fecal coliform bacteria are present in high numbers in a water sample, it means that the water has received ______from one source or another. A. Bacteria levels D. Bacterial concentrations B. Fecal coliform bacteria E. Fecal matter C. Salmonellae F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 44 www.abctlc.com 226. Although not necessarily agents of disease, ______may indicate the presence of disease-carrying organisms, which live in the same environment as the fecal coliform bacteria. A. Enrichment culture D. Fecal coliform bacteria B. Microscopic organisms E. Conditions are favorable for growth C. Fecal matter F. None of the Above

Reasons for Natural Variation 227. Unlike the other conventional water quality parameters, ______are living organisms. A. Bacteria levels D. Bacterial concentrations B. Fecal coliform bacteria E. Fecal matter C. Salmonellae F. None of the Above

228. Which term is dependent on specific conditions for growth, and these conditions change quickly, fecal coliform bacteria counts are not easy to predict? A. Bacteria levels D. Bacterial concentrations B. Fecal coliform bacteria E. Fecal matter C. Salmonellae F. None of the Above

229. Winter rains may wash more ______from urban areas into a stream, cool water temperatures may cause a major die-off. A. Enrichment culture D. Fecal coliform bacteria B. Microscopic organisms E. Favorable for growth C. Fecal matter F. None of the Above

Expected Impact of Pollution 230. The primary sources of ______to fresh water are wastewater treatment plant discharges, failing septic systems, and animal waste. A. Enrichment culture D. Fecal coliform bacteria B. Microscopic organisms E. Conditions are favorable for growth C. Fecal matter F. None of the Above

231. Bacteria levels do not necessarily decrease as a watershed develops from rural to urban. Instead, urbanization usually generates? A. Bacteria levels D. Bacterial concentrations B. Fecal coliform bacteria E. Fecal matter C. New sources of bacteria F. None of the Above

232. Farm animal manure and septic systems are replaced by domestic pets and leaking sanitary sewers. In fact, stormwater runoff in urbanized areas has been found to be surprisingly high in? A. Enrichment culture D. Fecal coliform bacteria concentrations B. Microscopic organisms E. Conditions are favorable for growth C. Fecal matter F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 45 www.abctlc.com Indicator Connection Varies 233. General coliforms, E. Coli, and Enterococcus bacteria are the "______" organisms generally measured to assess microbiological quality of water. A. Pathogens D. Enterococcus bacteria B. General coliforms E. Indicator C. Fecal coliforms F. None of the Above

Water Sampling Terms and Definitions Microbes 234. Coliform bacteria are common in the environment and are considered harmful. A. True B. False

235. The presence of these bacteria in drinking water indicates that the water may be contaminated with germs that can cause disease. A. True B. False

236. Microbes that are in human wastes can cause short-term effects, such as diarrhea, cramps, nausea, headaches, or other symptoms and are caused by ______. A. Fecal Coliform and E coli D. Cryptosporidiosis B. Giardia lamblia E. Coliform bacteria C. Microorganisms F. None of the Above

237. What is the bacteria whose presence indicates that the water may be contaminated with human or animal wastes? A. Fecal Coliform and E coli D. Bac-T B. Protozoa E. Coliforinia bacteria C. Thermophilic F. None of the Above

238. What is the parasite that enters lakes and rivers through sewage and animal waste? It causes cryptosporidiosis, a mild gastrointestinal disease? A. Fecal Coliform and E coli D. Cryptosporidiosis B. Giardia lamblia E. Cryptosporidium C. Microorganisms F. None of the Above

239. What does Giardia lamblia causes? A. Fecal Coliform and E coli D. Cryptosporidiosis B. Gastrointestinal illness E. Coliform bacteria C. Microorganisms F. None of the Above

Radionuclides 240. Some people who drink water containing this compound/element in excess of the EPA standard over many years could experience skin damage or problems with their circulatory system, and may have an increased risk of getting cancer. A. Lead D. Aluminum B. Fluoride E. Arsenic C. Copper F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 46 www.abctlc.com 241. Some people who drink water containing this compound/element in excess of the EPA standard over many years may have an increased risk of getting cancer. A. Radon gas D. Alpha emitters B. Beta/photon emitters E. Combined Radium 226/228 C. Radioactive mineral F. None of the Above

242. Which compound/element can dissolve and accumulate in underground water sources, such as wells, and in the air in your home? A. Radon gas D. Alpha emitters B. Beta/photon emitters E. Combined Radium 226/228 C. Radioactive material F. None of the Above

243. Which compound/element do communities add to their drinking water to promote dental health? A. Fluorine D. Chlorine B. Fluoride E. Arsenic C. Floc F. None of the Above

244. The EPA has set an enforceable drinking water standard for this compound/element of 4 mg/L, because some people who drink water containing an excess of this level over many years could get bone disease, including pain and tenderness of the bones). A. Lead D. Waterborne outbreaks B. Fluoride E. Arsenic C. Intestinal illness F. None of the Above

Escherichia coli E. coli O157:H7 245. Symptoms of E. coli O157:H7 (bacterium) vary with type caused ____. A. Shigella dysenteriae D. E. coli B. Bacterium E. Gastroenteritis C. Enterococcus bacteria F. None of the Above

246. Which bug/creature/organism/species is an emerging cause of foodborne illness? A. Preventive measures D. Gastroenteritis B. Escherichia coli O157:H7 E. Person-to-person contact C. Enterovirulent E. coli F. None of the Above

247. Which bug/creature/organism/species have been associated with eating undercooked, contaminated ground beef? A. Shigella dysenteriae D. E. coli B. Bacterium E. E. coli O157:H7 C. Most illnesses F. None of the Above

248. Which term is used to express that in families and child care centers are an important mode of transmission and that infection can also occur after drinking raw milk and after swimming in or drinking sewage-contaminated water? A. Preventive measures D. A cause of illness B. E. coli O157:H7 E. Person-to-person contact C. Enterovirulent E. coli F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 47 www.abctlc.com 249. Consumers can prevent ______infection by thoroughly cooking ground beef, avoiding unpasteurized milk, and washing hands carefully. A. Shigella dysenteriae D. E. coli B. Bacterium E. E. coli O157:H7 C. Most illnesses F. None of the Above

What is Escherichia coli O157:H7? 250. Systems serving 25 to 1,000 people typically take one sample per month. Some states reduce this frequency to quarterly for ground water systems if a recent sanitary survey shows that the system is free of Sanitary defects. A. True B. False

251. Larger types of systems can qualify for five samples a month. A. True B. False

252. Systems using surface water, rather than ground water, are required to take extra steps to protect against bacterial contamination because surface water sources are more vulnerable to such contamination. A. True B. False

253. At a minimum, all systems using surface waters must properly treat the water, this will kill E. coli O157:H7. A. True B. False

254. Which bug/creature/organism/species is a normal inhabitant of the intestines of all animals, including humans? A. Shigella dysenteriae D. E. coli B. Bacterium E. E. coli O157:H7 C. Most illnesses F. None of the Above

255. Under the Safe Drinking Water Act, the EPA requires public water systems to monitor for ? A. Indicators D. E. coli contamination B. Five samples a month E. Coliform bacteria C. Bacterial contamination F. None of the Above

256. Systems analyze first for total coliform, any time that a sample is positive for total coliform, the same sample must be analyzed for either ______. A. Total coliform D. EPA regulations B. Sanitary survey E. Coliform bacteria C. Fecal coliform or E. coli F. None of the Above

257. Smaller systems must take at least five samples a month unless the state has conducted a sanitary survey – a survey in which a state inspector examines system components and ensures they will protect public health – at the system within the last five years. A. True B. False

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 48 www.abctlc.com 258. E. coli O157:H7 is one of hundreds of strains of the Enterococcus bacteria. A. True B. False

259. E. coli O157:H7 was first recognized as a cause of illness in 1982 during an outbreak of severe bloody diarrhea; the outbreak was traced to contaminated hamburgers. Since then, most infections have come from eating undercooked ground beef. A. True B. False

260. The combination of letters and numbers in the name of the bacterium refers to the specific markers found on its surface and distinguishes it from other types of E. coli. A. True B. False

261. Currently, there are four recognized classes of ______(collectively referred to as the EEC group) that cause gastroenteritis in humans. A. Preventive measures D. A cause of illness B. E. coli O157:H7 E. Person-to-person contact C. Enterovirulent E. coli F. None of the Above

How is E. coli O157:H7 spread? 262. The ______can be found on a small number of cattle farms and can live in the intestines of healthy cattle. Meat can become contaminated during slaughter, and organisms can be thoroughly mixed into beef when it is ground. A. Organism(s) D. Infected persons B. Bacteria E. Hemorrhagic colitis C. E. coli O157:H7 F. None of the Above

263. Which bug/creature/organism/species is present on a cow's udders or on equipment may get into raw milk? A. Organism(s) D. Infected persons B. Bacteria E. Hemorrhagic colitis C. E. coli O157:H7 F. None of the Above

Related Diseases and Associated Illnesses Chapter 7 Amebic Meningoencephalitis PAM Section Naegleria fowleri 264. Primary Amebic Meningoencephalitis (PAM) is a common and usually deadly disease caused by infection with the ameba (a multi-celled organism that maintains the original shape). A. True B. False

265. Following an incubation period of 2-15 days, there is a relatively sudden start of severe meningitis-like symptoms, which begin with fever and headache. These are rapidly followed by sensitivity to light, nausea, projectile vomiting, stiff neck, and, in many cases, disturbances to taste and smell. Changes in behavior and seizures may also be present. As conditions worsen the patient falls into a coma. Death usually occurs 3-7 days after the onset of symptoms. A. True B. False

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 49 www.abctlc.com 266. The ameba that causes the infection lives in soil and in freshwater ponds, lakes, rivers, poorly or non-chlorinated pools, discharge or holding basins, and hot springs throughout the world. Naegleria thrives in warm, stagnant bodies of fresh water when temperatures are high, usually above 80 degrees. A. True B. False

267. Although the ameba is commonly found in the environment, PAM is very rare. In the last 30 years, only a few hundred cases have been reported worldwide. A. True B. False

268. The ameba is believed to enter the body through the mouth and travel to the stomach. The disease is easily spread from person to person. A. True B. False

269. The disease is initially suspected based on patient history. The diagnosis is made through the examination of the fluid in the digestive tract or frequently before death through the examination of digestive lining. A. True B. False

270. PAM is a mild illness that responds to routine treatments. Aggressive use of some antifungal medications have always been successful. Intensive supportive care is rarely necessary along with the medication. A. True B. False

Noroviruses Section 271. Noroviruses (genus Norovirus, family Caliciviridae) are a group of related, single- stranded RNA, nonenveloped viruses that cause acute gastroenteritis in humans. Norovirus was recently approved as the official genus name for the group of viruses provisionally described as “Norwalk-like viruses” (NLV). A. True B. False

272. The symptoms of norovirus illness usually include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and some stomach cramping. Sometimes people additionally have a low-grade fever, chills, headache, muscle aches, and a general sense of tiredness. The illness often begins suddenly, and the infected person may feel very sick. The illness is usually brief, with symptoms lasting only about 1 or 2 days. In general, children experience more vomiting than adults. Most people with norovirus illness have both of these symptoms. A. True B. False

273. Persons who are infected with norovirus should not prepare food while they have symptoms and for 3 weeks after they recover from their illness. Food that may have been contaminated by an ill person can be eaten. A. True B. False

274. Illness caused by norovirus infection has several names, including stomach flu – this “stomach flu” is not related to the flu (or influenza), which is a respiratory illness caused by influenza virus. A. True B. False

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 50 www.abctlc.com 275. Noroviruses are found in the stool or vomit of infected people. People can become infected with the virus in several ways, including eating food or drinking liquids that are contaminated with norovirus; touching surfaces or objects contaminated with norovirus, and then placing their hand in their mouth; having direct contact with another person who is infected and showing symptoms (for example, when caring for someone with illness, or sharing foods or eating utensils with someone who is ill). A. True B. False

276. Persons working in day-care centers or nursing homes should pay special attention to children or residents who have norovirus illness. This virus is very contagious and can spread rapidly throughout such environments. A. True B. False

Method 1623 Cryptosporidium and Giardia Analysis 277. Special sterilization procedures are needed for equipment used in the collection of samples for? A. Total Coliform (TC) D. Cryptosporidium B. Indicator organisms E. Cryptosporidium and Giardia C. Cholera, polio, typhoid, hepatitis F. None of the Above

278. Washing the equipment free of residual sodium hypochlorite solution with three rinses of filter-sterilized water; do not de-chlorinate the equipment using? A. Dibromochloromethane D. Sodium hypochlorite solution B. Bromoform E. Sodium thiosulfate C. Cl2 and HOCl F. None of the Above

279. According to the text, composite the sample in a 10-L cubitainer that is pre-sterilized by the manufacturer. The cubitainer is sent in a cardboard box to laboratory for ______analysis. A. Total Coliform (TC) D. Cryptosporidium B. Indicator organisms E. Giardia C. Cholera, polio, typhoid, hepatitis F. None of the Above

Cryptosporidium and Giardia Analysis 280. For Cryptosporidium and Giardia analysis by Method 1623 (U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, 1999c), collect 10 L of streamwater for each protozoan pathogen using standard sampling techniques described in Myers and Sylvester (1997). Special sterilization procedures are needed for equipment used in the collection of samples for Cholera, polio, typhoid, hepatitis. Autoclaving is not effective in neutralizing the epitopes on the surfaces of the oocysts and cysts that will react with the antibodies used for detection. A. True B. False

281. Submerge the equipment in a vessel containing 12 percent hypochlorite solution for 30 minutes. Wash the equipment free of residual sodium thiosulfate solution with three rinses of filter-sterilized water; do not de-chlorinate the equipment using Dibromochloromethane. A. True B. False

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 51 www.abctlc.com 282. Composite the sample in a 10-L cubitainer that is pre-sterilized by the manufacturer. The cubitainer is sent in a cardboard box to laboratory for Cholera, polio, typhoid, hepatitis analysis. The sample does not have to be kept on ice during transport. A. True B. False

Virions 283. Which of the following terms is a complete functional virus that has the capacity to infect living tissue? A. Podoviruses D. Phage lambda of E. coli B. Phage's host range E. A virion C. Myovirus bacteriophages F. None of the Above

284. If the cell was burst artificially, then these virus particles cannot be called virion because they will lack certain proteins that will make them infectious even though the ______is present. A. Podoviruses D. Genetic material B. Phage's host range E. Viral genome C. Myovirus bacteriophages F. None of the Above

285. According to the text, biomolecules found in virions: genetic material, ______, single or double stranded, nucleoprotein capsid. A. Either DNA or RNA D. Phage lambda of E. coli B. Phage's host range E. Viral genome C. Myovirus bacteriophages F. None of the Above

Laboratory Analysis Sample Procedures 286.Samples need to be kept on ice and shipped to a central laboratory for analysis of coliphage, C. perfringens, Cryptosporidium, Giardia, and enteric viruses by the current analytical methods. The single-agar layer (SAL), direct plating method with induction of streptomycin and ampicillin is recommended for detection of somatic and F-specific coliphage in streamwater samples. A. True B. False

287. In this method, 100-mL sample volumes are mixed with an agar medium, E. coli host culture, chemicals that induce the streptomycin and ampicillin enzymes, and appropriate antibiotics. The mixtures are poured into four 150 x 15-mm plates and incubated at 35°C. A. True B. False

288. Upon infection by coliphage in the water sample, the E. coli host cells are lysed and stable indolyl product that is dark blue is visible within each plaque. A. True B. False

289. Viral plaques are easily identified and enumerated by the distinct blue circle. Because of contamination by naturally occurring bacteria in streamwater samples, antibiotic- resistant host-culture strains, E. coli CN-13 (resistant to nalidixic acid) and E. Coli F-amp (resistant to streptomycin and ampicillin) are used as hosts for somatic and F- specific coliphage, respectively. A. True B. False

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 52 www.abctlc.com 290. Large sample volumes, such as 1-L volumes or greater, are recommended for detection of coliphage in ground water. A. True B. False

291. Samples for enumeration of ______are analyzed by use of the mCP agar method (U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, 1996c). A. Enteric virus(es) D. C. perfringens B. Oocyst(s) E. E. coli host culture C. Viral plaquesF. None of the Above

292. Standard MF techniques are used, and ______are incubated anaerobically for 24 hours at 44.5°C. A. Oocyst(s) D. Large sample volumes B. C. perfringens E. Coliphage C. The plates F. None of the Above

293. After incubation, the plates are exposed to ammonium hydroxide, and all straw- colored colonies that turn dark pink to magenta are counted as ______. A. Enteric virus(es) D. C. perfringens B. Oocyst(s) E. E. coli host culture C. Viral plaques F. None of the Above

294. This type of analyses is done with 100-, 30-, and 10-mL volumes of streamwater. In the case of a high-flow or high-turbidity streamwater sample, lower sample volumes may be plated. A. Oocyst(s) D. Large sample volumes B. C. perfringens E. Coliphage C. The plates F. None of the Above

295. Method 1623 (U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, 1999c) is recommended for detection of Cryptosporidium oocysts and Giardia cysts in water. The oocysts are concentrated on a capsule filter from a 10-L water sample, eluted from the capsule filter with buffer, and concentrated by centrifugation. Immunomagnetic separation (IMS) is used to separate the oocysts from other particulates in the sample. A. True B. False

296. In IMS, the ______are magnetized by attachment of magnetic beads conjugated to an antibody and then are separated from sediment and debris by means of a magnet. A. Oocyst(s) D. Large sample volumes B. C. perfringens E. Cryptosporidium oocysts and Giardia cysts C. The plates F. None of the Above

297. This term means that fluorescently labeled antibodies and vital dye were used to make the final microscopic identification of______. A. Enteric virus(es) D. Oocysts and cysts B. Oocyst(s) E. E. coli host culture C. Viral plaques F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 53 www.abctlc.com 298. To prepare samples for RT-PCR and cell culture, ______are eluted from a 1MDS filter with beef extract (pH 9.5), concentrated using celite (pH 4.0), and eluted with sodium phosphate (pH 9.5). A. Oocyst(s) D. Attached viruses B. C. perfringens E. Coliphage C. The plates F. None of the Above

QA/QC Activities and Measures 299. QA/QC activities and measures to take to reduce contamination. Use a sterilization indicator, such as autoclave tape, in preparing Viral plaques and other equipment for collection of microbiological samples to determine whether adequate temperatures and pressures have been attained during autoclaving. A. True B. False

300. Prepare a separate set of E. coli host cultures for microbiological sampling at each site. A. True B. False

Field personnel should do the following: 301. Prepare ______, a 50- to 100-mL aliquot of sterile buffered water plated before the sample—for every sample by field personnel for total coliform, E. coli, and enterococci analyses to determine the sterility of equipment and supplies. A. Reagent water quality D. Protozoan Giardia and virus(es) B. An environmental sample E. Microbiological sampling C. An MF equipment blank F. None of the Above

302. Prepare a ______, a 50- to 100-mL aliquot of sterile buffered water plated after the sample— for every fourth sample to measure the effectiveness of the analyst’s rinsing technique or presence of incidental contamination of the buffered water. A. Equipment blank(s) D. Appropriate laboratory equipment B. MF procedure blank(s) E. Prepare a MF procedure blank C. Sterile working surface F. None of the Above

303. If contamination from a MF equipment or ______is found, results are suspect and are qualified or not reported. A. Reagent water quality D. Protozoan Giardia and virus(es) B. An environmental sample E. Procedure blank C. An MF equipment blank F. None of the Above

304. ______for this type of analyses are different from the MF equipment blanks for bacterial analysis. A. Equipment blank(s) D. Appropriate laboratory equipment B. MF procedure blank(s) E. Prepare a MF procedure blank C. sterile working surface F. None of the Above

305. Which are the same as equipment blanks except that they are generated under actual field conditions? A. Reagent water quality D. Field blanks B. An environmental sample E. Microbiological sampling C. An MF equipment blank F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 54 www.abctlc.com Quality Assurance and Quality Control in the Laboratory 306. Production analytical laboratory criteria may be used to evaluate each of the following: (1) appropriate, approved, and published methods, (2) documented standard operating procedures, (3) approved quality-assurance plan, (4) types and amount of quality-control data fully documented and technical defensible, (5) participation in the standard reference sample project (6) scientific capability of personnel, and (7______. A. Equipment blank(s) D. Appropriate laboratory equipment B. MF procedure blank(s) E. Prepare a MF procedure blank C. sterile working surface F. None of the Above

307. According to the text, microbiology laboratories must follow good laboratory practices —cleanliness, safety practices, procedures for______, specifications for reagent water quality—as set forth by American Public Health Association. A. Reagent water quality D. Media preparation B. An environmental sample E. Microbiological sampling C. An MF equipment blank F. None of the Above

Water Sampling and Laboratory Procedures Chapter 8

New EPA Rules Arsenic 308. Long-term exposure of this compound/element/substance in drinking water to a variety of cancers in humans. A. Arsenic D. THHMMS B. Trihalomethanes E. Disinfection byproducts (DBPs) C. Disinfection F. None of the Above

309. The EPA set a standard limit or the amount of compound/element/substance in drinking water to 10 ppb. A. Arsenic D. Copper B. Trihalomethanes E. Disinfection byproducts (DBPs) C. Disinfection F. None of the Above

310. This compound/element/substance is a chemical that occurs naturally in the earth's crust. When rocks, minerals, and soil erode, they release this compound/element/substance into water supplies. A. Arsenic D. Lead B. Trihalomethanes E. Radon C. Disinfection byproducts F. None of the Above

ICR 311. The EPA has collected data required by the Information Collection Rule (ICR) to support future regulation of Microbial contaminants, disinfectants, and disinfection byproducts. A. True B. False

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 55 www.abctlc.com 312. The rule is intended to provide EPA with information on chemical byproducts that form when disinfectants used for microbial control react with chemicals already present in source water (disinfection byproducts (DBPs)); Disease-causing microorganisms (pathogens), including Cryptosporidium; and engineering data to control these contaminants. A. True B. False

Disinfection Byproduct Regulations 313. Which compound/element/substance are a group of chemicals that are formed along with other disinfection byproducts when chlorine or other disinfectants are used? A. Disinfectant residual D. Giardia and viruses B. Chlorite E. Disinfection By-Products (DBPs) C. Haloacetic Acids (HAA5) F. None of the Above

314. Which compound/element/substance is a chemical that is formed when ozone, used to disinfect drinking water, reacts with naturally occurring bromide found in source water? A. Bromate D. From the results of coliform testing B. Counter pathogens E. Bacteria, Virus and Intestinal parasites C. Monobromoacetic acid F. None of the Above

315. Trihalomethanes are regulated at a maximum allowable annual average level of 100 ppb for water systems serving more than 10,000 people under which of the following rules? A. Cryptosporidium D. Total Trihalomethane B. Trihalomethanes E. Stage 1 Disinfectant/Disinfection Byproduct C. Disinfection byproduct F. None of the Above

316. Which rule standard became effective for trihalomethanes and other disinfection byproducts in December 2001 for large surface water public water systems? A. Cryptosporidium D. Total Trihalomethane B. Trihalomethanes E. Stage 1 Disinfectant/Disinfection Byproduct C. Disinfection byproduct F. None of the Above

317. Which compound/element/substance are formed when disinfectants used in water treatment plants react with bromide and/or natural organic matter (i.e., decaying vegetation) present in the source water? A. Cryptosporidium D. Total Trihalomethane B. Trihalomethanes E. Disinfection byproducts (DBPs) C. Chlorine byproduct F. None of the Above

318. According to the text, different disinfectants produce different types or amounts of? A. Cryptosporidium D. Total Trihalomethane B. Trihalomethanes E. Disinfection byproducts (DBPs) C. Chlorine byproduct F. None of the Above

319. Which rule standards have been established have been identified in drinking water, including trihalomethanes, haloacetic acids, bromate, and chlorite? A. Cryptosporidium Rule D. Total Trihalomethane Rule B. Trihalomethanes Rule E. Disinfection byproducts (DBPs) C. Acceptable standard F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 56 www.abctlc.com 320. Which compound/element/substance are chloroform, bromodichloromethane, dibromochloromethane, and bromoform? A. Cryptosporidium D. Total HAAA5s B. Trihalomethanes E. Maximum Contaminant Levels MCLs C. HAAs F. None of the Above

Stage 2 DBP Rule Federal Register Notices 321. Which Rule is one part of the Microbial and Disinfection Byproducts Rules (MDBPs), which are a set of interrelated regulations that address risks from microbial pathogens and disinfectants/disinfection byproducts? A. Groundwater Rule (GWR) D. Long Term 2 Enhanced Surface Water Treatment B. Compliance E. Interim Enhanced Surface Water Treatment C. The Stage 2 DBP F. None of the Above

322. Which Rule focuses on public health protection by limiting exposure to DBPs, specifically total trihalomethanes (TTHM) and five haloacetic acids (HAA5), which can form in water through disinfectants used to control microbial pathogens? A. Stage 2 DBPR D. Long Term 2 Enhanced Surface Water Treatment B. DBP exposure E. Traditional disinfection practices C. The Stage 2 DBP F. None of the Above

323. This rule will apply to all community water systems and nontransient non-community water systems that add a primary or residual disinfectant other than ______or deliver water that has been disinfected by a primary or residual disinfectant other than UV. A. Ultraviolet (UV) light D. UV source B. The open-channel system E. UV radiation C. UV rather than ozone F. None of the Above

324. In the past 30 years, the ______has been highly effective in protecting public health and has also evolved to respond to new and emerging threats to safe drinking water. A. Stage 2 DBPR D. Long Term 2 Enhanced Surface Water Treatment Rule B. DBP exposure E. Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA) C. The Stage 2 DBP rule F. None of the Above

325. There are specific microbial pathogens, such as______, which can cause illness, and are highly resistant to traditional disinfection practices. A. Enteric virus(es) D. C. perfringens B. Oocyst(s) E. E. coli host culture C. Cryptosporidium F. None of the Above

326. Amendments to the SDWA in 1996 require EPA to develop rules to balance the risks between microbial pathogens and disinfection byproducts (DBPs). The Stage 1 Disinfectants and Disinfection Byproducts Rule and______, promulgated in December 1998, were the first phase in a rulemaking strategy required by Congress as part of the 1996 Amendments to the Safe Drinking Water Act. A. Major public health advances D. Amendments to the SDWA in 1996 B. The Stage 2 DBPR E. Interim Enhanced Surface Water Treatment Rule C. This final rule F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 57 www.abctlc.com 327. The Stage 2 Disinfectants and Disinfection Byproducts Rule (Stage 2 DBPR) builds upon the ______to address higher risk public water systems for protection measures beyond those required for existing regulations. A. Stage 2 DBPR D. Long Term 2 Enhanced Surface Water Treatment Rule B. DBP exposure E. Traditional disinfection practices C. Stage 1 DBPR F. None of the Above

328. Which Rule and the Long Term 2 Enhanced Surface Water Treatment Rule are the second phase of rules required by Congress? A. Major public health advances D. Amendments to the SDWA in 1996 B. The Stage 2 DBPR E. Primary or residual disinfectant C. This final rule F. None of the Above

329. Which Rule will reduce potential cancer and reproductive and developmental health risks from disinfection byproducts (DBPs) in drinking water, which form when disinfectants are used to control microbial pathogens? A. Stage 1 DBPR D. Long Term 2 Enhanced Surface Water B. DBP exposure E. Traditional disinfection practices C. Stage 2 Disinfection Byproducts F. None of the Above

330. Which Rule strengthens public health protection for customers by tightening compliance monitoring requirements for two groups of DBPs, trihalomethanes (TTHM) and haloacetic acids (HAA5)? A. Major public health advances D. Amendments to the SDWA in 1996 B. The Stage 3 DBPR E. Primary or residual disinfectant C. This final rule F. None of the Above

331. Which Rule targets systems with the greatest risk and builds incrementally on existing rules. This regulation will reduce DBP exposure and related potential health risks and provide more equitable public health protection? A. Stage 3 DBPR D. Long Term 2 Enhanced Surface Water Treatment Rule B. Stage 2 DBPR E. Stage 4 DBPR C. The Stage 1 DBP rule F. None of the Above

332. Which Rule is being promulgated simultaneously with the Long Term 2 Enhanced Surface Water Treatment Rule to address concerns about risk tradeoffs between pathogens and DBPs? A. Major public health advances D. Amendments to the SDWA in 1996 B. The Stage 2 DBPR E. Primary or residual disinfectant C. This final rule F. None of the Above

What does the rule require? 333. Under which Rule, systems will conduct an evaluation of their distribution systems, known as an Initial Distribution System Evaluation (IDSE), to identify the locations with high disinfection byproduct concentrations? A. Stage 2 DBPR D. Long Term 2 Enhanced Surface Water Treatment Rule B. DBP exposure E. Traditional disinfection practices C. The Stage 1 DBP rule F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 58 www.abctlc.com 334. Compliance with the maximum contaminant levels for two groups of disinfection byproducts (TTHM and HAA5), referred to as the______, differs from current requirements, which determine compliance by calculating the running annual average of samples from all monitoring locations across the system. A. TTHM and HAA5 D. Disinfection byproducts (DBPs) B. DBP MCLs E. Trihalomethanes and haloacetic acids C. Locational running annual average (LRAA)) F. None of the Above

335. Which Rule also requires each system to determine if they have exceeded an operational evaluation level, which is identified using their compliance monitoring results. A. Stage 2 DBPR D. Long Term 2 Enhanced Surface Water Treatment Rule B. DBP exposure E. Traditional disinfection practices C. The Stage 1 DBP rule F. None of the Above

336. A system that exceeds an operational evaluation level is required to review their operational practices and submit a report to their state that identifies actions that may be taken to mitigate future high______, particularly those that may jeopardize their compliance with the DBP MCLs. A. TTHM and HAA5 D. Disinfection byproducts (DBPs) B. DBP MCLs E. Trihalomethanes and haloacetic acids C. DBP levels F. None of the Above

Who must comply with the rule? 337. Entities potentially regulated by the ______are community and nontransient noncommunity water systems that produce and/or deliver water that is treated with a primary or residual disinfectant other than ultraviolet light. A. DBPs from chlorination D. Classes of DBPs B. Chlorine and chloramine E. TTHM and HAA5 C. Stage 2 DBPR F. None of the Above

338. Which system is a public water system that serves year-round residents of a community, subdivision, or mobile home park that has at least 15 service connections or an average of at least 25 residents. A. A nontransient non-community water system (NTNCWS) D. Trailer park B. A non-community water system E. A nontransient water system C. A community water system (CWS) F. None of the Above

339. Which system is a water system that serves at least 25 of the same people more than six months of the year, but not as primary residence, such as schools, businesses, and day care facilities? A. Trailer park D. A nontransient non-community water system (NTNCWS) B. A non-community water system E. A nontransient water system C. A community water system (CWS) F. None of the Above

What are Disinfection Byproducts (DBPs)? 340. Which term forms when disinfectants used to treat drinking water react with naturally occurring materials in the water (e.g., decomposing plant material)? A. TTHM and HAA5 D. Disinfection byproducts (DBPs) B. DBP MCLs E. Trihalomethanes and haloacetic acids C. DBPs from chlorination F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 59 www.abctlc.com 341. Total trihalomethanes (TTHM - chloroform, bromoform, bromodichloromethane, and dibromochloromethane) and haloacetic acids (HAA5 - monochloro-, dichloro-, trichloro-, monobromo-, dibromo-) are widely occurring ______formed during disinfection with chlorine and chloramine. A. DBPs from chlorination D. Classes of DBPs B. Chlorine and chloramine E. Trihalomethanes and haloacetic acids C. Stage 2 DBPR F. None of the Above

342. Which term in drinking water can change from day to day, depending on the season, water temperature, amount of disinfectant added, the amount of plant material in the water, and a variety of other factors? A. DBPs from chlorination D. Classes of DBPs B. Chlorine and chloramine E. Trihalomethanes and haloacetic acids C. Stage 2 DBPR F. None of the Above

Are THMs and HAAs the only disinfection byproducts? 343. The presence of this term is representative of the occurrence of many other chlorination DBPs; thus, a reduction in the these generally indicates a reduction of DBPs from chlorination. A. DBPs from chlorination D. Classes of DBPs B. Chlorine and chloramine E. TTHM and HAA5 C. Stage 2 DBPR F. None of the Above

Stage 2 DBP Rule Federal Register Notices 344. Chlorine and its ______are neutrally charged and therefore easily penetrate the negatively charged surface of pathogens. A. Halogen D. Hydrolysis product hypochlorous acid B. Water chlorination E. Hypochlorous acid C. Chlorine as a disinfectant F. None of the Above

345. There are specific microbial pathogens, such as ______, which can cause illness and is resistant to traditional disinfection practices. A. Cryptosporidium D. Emerging threats to safe drinking water B. Sodium hypochlorite E. Hypochlorous acid (HOCl), and hydrochloric acid (HCl) C. Bromoform F. None of the Above

Microbial Regulations 346. One of the key regulations developed and implemented by the United States Environmental Protection Agency (USEPA) to counter pathogens in drinking water is the Surface Water Treatment Rule requires that a public water system, using surface water (or ground water under the direct influence of surface water) as its source, have sufficient treatment to reduce the source water concentration of Giardia and viruses by at least 99.9% and 99.99%, respectively. A. True B. False

347. Which rule specifies treatment criteria to assure that these performance requirements are met; they include turbidity limits, disinfectant residual, and disinfectant contact time conditions? A. Long Term 1 Rule D. Surface Water Treatment Rule B. Maximum Contaminant Level Goal (MCLG) E. Interim Enhanced Surface Water C. Stage 1 Byproducts Rule F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 60 www.abctlc.com 348. Which rule was established to maintain control of pathogens while systems lower disinfection byproduct levels to comply with the Stage 1 Disinfectants/Disinfection Byproducts Rule and to control Cryptosporidium? A. Long Term 1 Enhanced Surface Water Treatment Rule B. Maximum Contaminant Level Goal (MCLG) C. Stage 1 Disinfectants/Disinfection Byproducts Rule D. Surface Water Treatment Rule E. Interim Enhanced Surface Water Treatment Rule F. None of the Above

349. The EPA established a MCL of 0.0010 for all public water systems and a 99% removal requirement for Cryptosporidium in filtered public water systems that serve at least 100,000 people. The new rule will tighten turbidity standards by December 2001. A. True B. False

350. Color is an indicator of the physical removal of particulates, including pathogens. A. True B. False

351. Which rule improves physical removal of Cryptosporidium, and to maintain control of pathogens? A. Long Term 1 Enhanced Surface Water Treatment Rule B. Maximum Contaminant Level Goal (MCLG) C. Stage 1 Disinfectants/Disinfection Byproducts Rule D. Surface Water Treatment Rule E. Interim Enhanced Surface Water Treatment Rule F. None of the Above

Drinking Water Rules and Disease Chapter 8 Review 352. Which of the following rules contained 60 contaminants/contaminant groups, included 10 pathogens, and was published in the Federal Register on March 2, 1998. A decision concerning whether to regulate >5 contaminants from CCL was required by August 2001? A. Total Coliform Rule (TCR) B. 1996 SDWA amendments C. Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA) of 1974 D. Contaminant Candidate List (CCL) E. Surface Water Treatment Rule (SWTR) F. None of the Above

353. Which of the following rules, the EPA is authorized to set national standards to protect drinking water and its sources against naturally occurring or man-made contaminants? A. Total Coliform Rule (TCR) B. 1996 SDWA amendments C. Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA) of 1974 D. Contaminant Candidate List (CCL) E. Surface Water Treatment Rule (SWTR) F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 61 www.abctlc.com 354. Which of the following rules require the EPA to publish a list every 5 years of contaminants that are known or anticipated to occur in public water systems and that might need to be regulated? A. Total Coliform Rule (TCR) B. 1996 SDWA amendments C. Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA) of 1974 D. Contaminant Candidate List (CCL) E. Surface Water Treatment Rule (SWTR)

355. Microbial contamination is regulated under the Total Coliform Rule (TCR) of 1989 and the ______of 1989. A. Total Coliform Rule (TCR) B. 1996 SDWA amendments C. Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA) of 1974 D. Contaminant Candidate List (CCL) E. Surface Water Treatment Rule (SWTR) F. None of the Above

356. Which of the following rules covers all water systems that use surface water or groundwater under the direct influence of surface water? A. Total Coliform Rule (TCR) B. 1996 SDWA amendments C. Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA) of 1974 D. Contaminant Candidate List (CCL) E. Surface Water Treatment Rule (SWTR) F. None of the Above

357. Which of the following rules is intended to protect against exposure to Giardia intestinalis, viruses, and Legionella, as well as selected other pathogens? A. Total Coliform Rule (TCR) B. 1996 SDWA amendments C. Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA) of 1974 D. Contaminant Candidate List (CCL) E. Surface Water Treatment Rule (SWTR) F. None of the Above

358. Which of the following rules which provides additional protection against Cryptosporidium and other waterborne pathogens for systems that serve >10,000 persons? A. Total Coliform Rule (TCR) B. 1996 SDWA amendments C. Interim Enhanced Surface Water Treatment Rule (IESWTR) D. Long Term 1 Enhanced SWTR (LT1ESWTR) E. Surface Water Treatment Rule (SWTR) F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 62 www.abctlc.com 359. Which of the following rules for public water systems that use surface water or groundwater under the direct influence of surface water and serve <10,000 persons? A. Total Coliform Rule (TCR) B. 1996 SDWA amendments C. Interim Enhanced Surface Water Treatment Rule (IESWTR) D. Long Term 1 Enhanced SWTR (LT1ESWTR) E. Surface Water Treatment Rule (SWTR) F. None of the Above

360. Which of the following rules was proposed in combination with the Filter Backwash Recycling Rule (FBRR), which was finalized in 2002? A. Total Coliform Rule (TCR) B. Filter Backwash Recycling Rule (FBRR) C. Interim Enhanced Surface Water Treatment Rule (IESWTR) D. Long Term 1 Enhanced SWTR (LT1ESWTR) E. Surface Water Treatment Rule (SWTR) F. None of the Above

361. Which of the following rules require the EPA to develop regulations that require disinfection of groundwater systems as necessary to protect the public health; EPA has proposed the Ground Water Rule (GWR) to meet this mandate? A. Total Coliform Rule (TCR) B. 1996 SDWA amendments C. Interim Enhanced Surface Water Treatment Rule (IESWTR) D. Long Term 1 Enhanced SWTR (LT1ESWTR) E. Surface Water Treatment Rule (SWTR) F. None of the Above

Water Sampling and Laboratory Procedures Chapter 9 Bacteriological Monitoring Section 362. Which of the following are usually harmless, occur in high densities in their natural environment and are easily cultured in relatively simple bacteriological media? A. Indicator bacteria D. Microbiological analysis B. Bacteria tests E. Presence of an indicator C. Contaminate F. None of the Above

363. Indicators in common use today for routine monitoring of drinking water include total coliforms, fecal coliforms, and ______. A. Sample container D. Escherichia coli (E. coli) B. Bacteria tests E. Iron bacteria C. Coliform bacteria F. None of the Above

364. According to the text, the routine microbiological analysis of your water is for? A. Indicator bacteria D. Coliform bacteria B. Bacteria tests E. Presence of an indicator C. Contamination F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 63 www.abctlc.com 365. Which of the following terms is used as an indicator organism to determine the biological quality of your water? A. Microbiological analysis D. Escherichia coli (E. coli) B. Bac-T E. Presence of an indicator C. Coliform bacteria F. None of the Above

366. The presence of an indicator or ______in your drinking water is an important health concern. A. Indicator bacteria D. Microbiological analysis B. Pathogenic bacteria E. Presence of an indicator C. Contaminate F. None of the Above

367. Which of the following terms is used to signal possible fecal contamination, and therefore, the potential presence of pathogens? A. Indicator bacteria D. Microbiological analysis B. Pathogenic bacteria E. Presence of an indicator C. Contaminate F. None of the Above

Bacteria Sampling 368. Water samples for this process must always be collected in a sterile container. A. Indicator bacteria D. Microbiological analysis B. Bacteria tests E. Presence of an indicator C. Contamination F. None of the Above

369. Refrigerate the sample and transport it to the testing laboratory within eight hours (in an ice chest). Many labs will accept bacteria samples on Friday. Mailing Indicator bacteria is not recommended because laboratory analysis results are not as reliable. A. True B. False

370. Which bug forms an obvious slime on the inside of pipes and fixtures. A water test is not needed for identification. Check for a reddish-brown slime inside a toilet tank or where water stands for several days. A. Colonies D. Escherichia coli (E. coli) B. Algae E. Iron bacteria C. Coliform bacteria F. None of the Above

371. Which of the following are common in the environment and are generally not harmful, but the presence of these bacteria in drinking water is usually a result of a problem with the treatment system or the pipes which distribute water, and indicates that the water may be contaminated with germs that can cause disease. A. Diseases D. Escherichia coli (E. coli) B. Germs E. Iron bacteria C. Coliform bacteria F. None of the Above

Laboratory Procedures 372. The laboratory may perform the ______in one of four methods approved by the U.S. EPA and your local environmental or health division. A. Colilert D. Total coliform analysis B. Coliform E. Pathogen test C. Sample time F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 64 www.abctlc.com Methods 373. The MMO-MUG test, a product marketed as ______, is the most common. The sample results will be reported by the laboratories as simply coliforms present or absent. A. Colilert D. Total coliform analysis B. Coliform E. Pathogen media C. Sample stuff F. None of the Above

374. If coliforms are present, the laboratory will analyze the sample further to determine if these are ______and ______and report their presence or absence. A. Colilert, E. coli D. Total coliform analysis, Pathogens B. Coliforms, E. coli E. Pathogens, Total coliform analysis C. Fecal coliforms, E. coli F. None of the Above

Types of Water Samples 375. It is important to properly identify the type of ______you are collecting. A. Colilert D. Total coliform analysis B. Coliforms E. Pathogens C. Sample F. None of the Above

The three (3) types of samples are: 376. Samples collected following a coliform present’ routine sample. The number of repeat samples to be collected is based on the number of ______samples you normally collect. A. Repeat D. Total coliform analysis B. Special E. Routine C. QA QC F. None of the Above

377. What type of samples can be collected for other reasons? Examples would be a sample collected after repairs to the system. A. Repeat D. Total coliform analysis B. Special E. Routine C. Sample F. None of the Above

378. What type of samples can be collected on a routine basis to monitor for contamination? Collection should be in accordance with an approved sampling plan. A. Repeat D. Total coliform analysis B. Special E. Routine C. Sample F. None of the Above

Repeat Sampling 379. If a ______is total coliform or fecal coliform present, a set of repeat samples must be collected within 24 hours after being notified by the laboratory. A. MCL compliance D. Original sampling location B. Distribution system E. Repeat sample(s) C. Routine sample F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 65 www.abctlc.com The follow-up for repeat sampling is: 380. If only one ______per month or quarter is required, four (4) repeat samples must be collected. A. Special Sample D. Coliform present B. Routine sample E. Original sampling location C. Repeat sample(s) F. None of the Above

381. For systems collecting two (2) or more routine samples per month, three (3) ______must be collected. A. Compliance sample D. QA/QC Split B. Distribution sample E. Repeat sample(s) C. Routine sample F. None of the Above

382. Repeat samples must be collected from: Within five (5) service connections upstream from the? A. MCL compliance D. Original sampling location B. Distribution system E. Repeat sample(s) C. Routine sample F. None of the Above

383. Repeat samples must be collected from: Within five (5) service connections downstream from the? A. Special Sample D. Coliform present B. Routine sample E. Original sampling location C. Repeat sample(s) F. None of the Above

384. Repeat samples must be collected from: If the system has only one service connection, the ______must be collected from the same sampling location over a four-day period or on the same day. A. Special Sample D. Coliform present B. Routine sample E. Original sampling location C. Repeat sample(s) F. None of the Above

385. Repeat samples must be collected from: All ______are included in the MCL compliance calculation. A. Special Sample D. Coliform present B. Routine sample E. Original sampling location C. Repeat sample(s) F. None of the Above

Sampling Procedures 386. This must be followed and all operating staff must be clear on how to follow the sampling plan. A. Seal individual samples D. Sample siting plan B. Chain of custody E. Positive for total coliform C. Distribution system F. None of the Above

387. Staff must be aware of how often sampling must be done, the ______to be used for collecting the samples, and the proper procedures for identification, storage and transport of the samples to an approved laboratory. A. Multiple sources D. Proper procedures and sampling containers B. Sample siting plan E. Sampling containers C. Total coliform F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 66 www.abctlc.com 388. In addition, proper procedures must be followed for repeat sampling whenever a routine sample result is______. A. Seal individual samples D. Sample siting plan B. Chain of custody E. Positive for total coliform C. Distribution system F. None of the Above

Chain of Custody Procedures 389. If you have physical possession of a sample, have it in view, or have physically secured it to prevent tampering then it is defined as being in “custody." A ______, therefore, begins when the sample containers are obtained from the laboratory. From this point on, a chain of custody record will accompany the sample containers. A. Multiple sources D. Chain of custody record B. Sample siting plan E. Sampling containers C. Total coliform F. None of the Above

390. Each custody sample requires a _____ record and may require a seal. If you do not seal individual samples, then seal the containers in which the samples are shipped. A. Seal individual samples D. Sample siting plan B. Chain of custody E. Positive for total coliform C. Distribution system F. None of the Above

391. Because a sample is physical evidence, ______procedures are used to maintain and document sample possession from the time the sample is collected until it is introduced as evidence. A. Multiple sources D. TCR B. Sample siting plan E. Chain of custody C. Total coliform F. None of the Above

392. If both parties involved in the transfer must sign, date and note the time on the chain of custody record, this is known as? A. Multiple sources D. Samples transfer possession B. Sample siting plan E. Sampling containers C. Total coliform F. None of the Above

393. The recipient will then attach the ______showing the transfer dates and times to the custody sheets. If the samples are split and sent to more than one laboratory, prepare a separate chain of custody record for each sample. A. Seal individual samples D. Sample siting plan B. Chain of custody E. Positive for total coliform C. Shipping invoices F. None of the Above

394. If the samples are delivered to after-hours night drop-off boxes, the custody record should note such ______and be locked with the sealed samples inside sealed boxes. A. Multiple sources D. TCR B. Sample siting plan E. A transfer C. Total coliform F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 67 www.abctlc.com Heterotrophic Plate Count HPC 395. Heterotrophic Plate Count (HPC) --- formerly known as the Standard plate count, is a procedure for estimating the number of live heterotrophic bacteria and measuring changes during water treatment and distribution in water or in swimming pools. A. True B. False

396. Colonies may arise from pairs, chains, clusters, or single cells, all of which are included in the term "______" (CFU). A. Coliform bacteria units D. HPC units B. MCLs units E. Colony-forming units C. Standards F. None of the Above

Spread Plate Method 397. During this method, colonies are on the ______where they can be distinguished readily from particles and bubbles. A. Agar surface D. Bottom B. Surface growth area E. Material C. Top F. None of the Above

398. During the Spread Plate Method, colonies can be transferred quickly, and ______easily can be discerned and compared to published descriptions. A. Colonies grow D. Heterotrophic organisms will grow B. Surface growth E. Colony morphology C. Low counts F. None of the Above

Membrane Filter Method 399. This method permits testing large volumes of ______and is the method of choice for low-count waters. A. Colonies D. Heterotrophic organisms B. Surface water E. MCL C. Low-turbidity water F. None of the Above

Heterotrophic Plate Count (Spread Plate Method) 400. Which term uses inorganic carbon sources as their carbon source (food or substrate)? A. Colonies D. Heterotrophic organisms B. Surface growth E. Autotrophic organisms C. AGAR F. None of the Above

Total Coliforms 401. This MCL is based on the presence of total coliforms, and compliance is on a daily or weekly basis, depending on your water system type and state rule. A. True B. False

402. For systems which collect fewer than ______samples per month, no more than one sample per month may be positive. In other words, the second positive result (repeat or routine) in a month or quarter results in a MCL violation. A. 5 D. 200 B. 10 E. 40 C. 100 F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 68 www.abctlc.com 403. For systems which collect ______or more samples per month, no more than five (5) percent may be Positive, check with your state drinking water section or health department for further instructions. A. 5 D. 200 B. 10 E. 40 C. 100 F. None of the Above

Acute Risk to Health (Fecal coliforms and E. coli) 404. A routine analysis shows total coliform present and is followed by a repeat analysis which indicates? A. Routine analysis D. Human health violation B. Drinking violation E. Fecal coliform or E. coli present C. Water penalty F. None of the Above

405. A routine analysis shows ______is followed by a repeat analysis which indicates total coliform present. A. Routine analysis D. Presence B. Drinking water violation E. Total and Fecal coliform or E. coli present C. MCL violation F. None of the Above

406. A(n) ______requires the water system to provide public notice via radio and television stations in the area. A. Routine analysis violation D. Human health violation B. Drinking water rule violation E. Acute health risk violation C. MCL violation F. None of the Above

407. According to the text, the type of contamination can pose an immediate threat to human health and notice must be given as soon as possible, but no later than 24 hours after notification from your laboratory of the test results. A. True B. False

Public Notice 408. A public notice is required to be issued by a water system whenever it fails to comply with an applicable MCL or______, or fails to comply with the requirements of any scheduled variance or permit. A. Routine analysis D. Human health violation B. Drinking water rule E. Fecal coliform or E. coli present C. Treatment technique F. None of the Above

409. This term best describes what also is required whenever a water system fails to comply with its monitoring and/or reporting requirements or testing procedure. A. Routine analysis D. Public notice B. Drinking water rule E. Fecal coliform or E. coli present count C. MCL violation F. None of the Above

410. There shall be certain information, be issued properly and in a timely manner, and contain certain______on the public notice. A. Legal analysis D. Mandatory language B. Drinking water rule information E. Fecal language C. NOVs F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 69 www.abctlc.com 411. If there is a(n) ______present to users, the timing and place of posting of the public notice may have different priorities. A. Routine analysis D. Human health violation B. Drinking water rule E. Fecal coliform or E. coli present C. Acute risk F. None of the Above

The following are acute violations: 412. Which is violation of nitrate? A. Presence D. Count B. MCL E. Acute violations C. MCLG F. None of the Above

413. Concerning total coliforms - when fecal coliforms or E. coli are present in the distribution system and is a violation of the? A. Presence D. Count B. MCL E. Acute violations C. MCLG F. None of the Above

414. Any outbreak of ______, as defined by the rules. A. Total coliforms D. Radioactive bacteria B. MCL E. Acute violations C. Waterborne disease F. None of the Above

Chlorine Section Chlorine Exposure Limits 415. OSHA PEL ______A. 10 PPM D. 1,000 PPM B. 1 PPM E. 100 PPM C. 00.1 PPM F. None of the Above

416. Solid chlorine is about ______times heavier than water and gaseous chlorine is about 2.5 times heavier than air. A. 1.5 D. 2.5 B. 1.0 E. 3.0 C. 0.5 F. None of the Above

417. Cl2 IDLH ______A. 10 PPM D. 1,000 PPM B. 1 PPM E. 100 PPM C. 00.1 PPM F. None of the Above

418. Cl2 Fatal Exposure Limit ______A. 10 PPM D. 1,000 PPM B. 1 PPM E. 100 PPM C. 00.1 PPM F. None of the Above

419. The current Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) permissible exposure limit (PEL) for chlorine is 10 PPM (3 milligrams per cubic meter (mg/m (3))) as a ceiling limit. A worker's exposure to chlorine shall at no time exceed this ceiling level. A. True B. False

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 70 www.abctlc.com 420. When using chlorine gas: In addition to protective clothing and goggles, chlorine gas should be used only in a well-ventilated area so that ______cannot concentrate. A. Chlorine exposure D. Any leaking gas B. Connection E. Several safety precautions C. Leak area F. None of the Above

421. HOCl and OCl-: The OCL- is the hypochlorite ion and both of these species are known as free available chlorine, they are the two main chemical species formed by chlorine in water and they are known collectively as ______and the ______. A. Hypochlorous acid, Cl2 D. Combined Available Chlorine, Total B. Hypochlorous acid, Hypochlorite ion E. Monochloramine, Cl2 C. HOCl2 and OCl2 F. None of the Above

422. Which of the following terms when added to water, rapidly hydrolyzes, the chemical equations best describe this reaction is Cl2 + H2O --> H+ + Cl- + HOCl? A. Chlorine gas D. Combined Available Chlorine B. Cl E. Monochloramine C. HOCl and OCl- F. None of the Above

Chloramine Section 423. Free chlorine reacts with the chloramine to produce hydrogen ion, water, and ______which will come out of solution. In the case of the monochloramine, the following reaction occurs: 2NH2Cl + HOCl -> N2 + 6HCl + H2O A. Free chlorine D. Nitrogen gas B. Chloramine(s) E. Ammonia and chlorine compounds C. Dichloramine F. None of the Above

424. ______: NH2Cl + 2HOCl -> NHCl2 + 2H2O A. Free chlorine D. Monochloramine B. TrichloramineE. Ammonia and chlorine compounds C. Dichloramine F. None of the Above

425. ______are formed in the pH range of 4.5 to 8.5, however, monochloramine is most common when the pH is above 8. When the pH of the water is below 4.5, the most common form of chloramine is trichloramine which produces a very foul odor. A. Free chlorine D. Monochloramine and dichloramine B. Chloramine(s ) E. Ammonia and chlorine compounds C. Dichloramine F. None of the Above

Understanding Disinfection Wastewater Disinfection 426. According to the text, there are a number of chemicals and processes that will______, but none are universally applicable. A. Limit the effects of organic material D. Disinfect wastewater B. Alternative disinfection processes E. Limit the travel of pathogens C. Residual level of disinfection F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 71 www.abctlc.com 427. Aerobic treatment processes reduce pathogens, but not enough to qualify as a? A. As necessary D. Primary methods B. Disinfection process E. Economical and versatile chemicals C. Environmental and regulatory impact F. None of the Above

428. Chlorination/dechlorination has been the most widely used disinfection technology in the U.S.; ozonation and UV light are emerging technologies." Each of these three methods have different considerations for the? A. Disinfection of wastewater D. The primary methods B. Disinfection process E. Economical and versatile chemicals C. Environmental and regulatory impact F. None of the Above

Water Disinfection 429. Disinfection is usually the final stage in the ______in order to limit the effects of organic material, suspended solids and other contaminants. A. Limit the effects of organic material D. Water treatment process B. Alternative disinfection processes E. Limit the travel of pathogens C. Residual level of disinfection F. None of the Above

430. The primary methods used for the ______in very small (25-500 people) and small (501-3,300 people) treatment systems are ozone, ultraviolet irradiation (UV) and chlorine. A. Chlorates are powerful oxidizers D. Microbiological contamination B. Adverse health effects E. Sodium chloride C. Disinfection of water F. None of the Above

431. Which of the following term expresses that this is less widely used in small and very small water treatment systems, including chlorine dioxide, potassium permanganate, chloramines and peroxone (ozone/hydrogen peroxide)? A. Limit the effects of organic material D. Additional killing mechanism B. Numerous alternative disinfection processes E. Pathogens C. Residual level of disinfection F. None of the Above

432. According to the text, surface waters have been the focal point of ______since their inception, as groundwaters (like wells) have been historically considered to be free of microbiological contamination. A. Chlorates are powerful oxidizers D. Microbiological contamination B. Adverse health effects E. Sodium chloride C. Water disinfection regulations F. None of the Above

433. Which of the following terms is predicted by VSEPR, about chlorate anions? A. Acid/base balance D. Trigonal pyramidal structures B. Stable perchlorates E. Chemical formula CaCl2 C. Formula ClO-3 F. None of the Above

434. According to the text, which of the following should be kept away from organics or easily oxidized materials? A. Chlorates are powerful oxidizers D. Microbiological contamination B. Adverse health effects E. Sodium chloride C. Formula ClO-3 F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 72 www.abctlc.com 435. Chlorates were once widely used in ______for this reason, though their use has fallen due to their instability. Most pyrotechnic applications which formerly used chlorates in the past now use the more stable perchlorates instead. A. Acid/base balance D. Pyrotechnics B. Stable perchlorates E. Chemical formula CaCl2 C. Formula ClO-3 F. None of the Above

Chloride Ion 436. The chloride ion is formed when the______, a halogen, gains an electron to form an anion (negatively-charged ion) Cl-. A. Chlorates are powerful oxidizers D. Microbiological contamination B. Adverse health effects E. Sodium chloride C. Element chlorine F. None of the Above

437. The salts of hydrochloric acid contain chloride ions and can also be called chlorides. The chloride ion, and its salts such as sodium chloride? A. Acid/base balance D. Are very soluble in water B. The stable perchlorates E. The chemical formula CaCl2 C. The formula ClO-3 F. None of the Above

438. Methyl chloride, more commonly called chloromethane, (CH3Cl) is______, which does not contain a chloride ion. A. Chlorates are powerful oxidizers D. An organic covalently bonded compound B. Adverse health effects E. Sodium chloride C. The chloride ion F. None of the Above

439. Other salts such as calcium chloride, magnesium chloride, potassium chloride have varied uses ranging from medical treatments to______. A. Chemical formula CaCl2 D. Corresponding anions Cl-, ClO-, ClO2-, ClO3-, or ClO4 B. Cement formation E. Chlorine dioxide C. Chlorite ion is ClO2-. F. None of the Above

440. Which of the following compounds is an example is table salt? A. CaCl2 D. Cl-, ClO-, ClO2-, ClO3-, or ClO4 B. NaCl E. NACl2 C. ClO2-. F. None of the Above

441. Which of the following compounds or element is also the prosthetic group present in the amylase enzyme? A. Chemical formula CaCl2 D. Corresponding anions Cl-, ClO-, ClO2-, ClO3-, or ClO4 B. A chloride ion E. Chlorine dioxide C. Chlorite ion is ClO2-. F. None of the Above

442. Which of the following compounds is also used for maintaining unpaved roads and for sanite fortifying roadbases for new construction? A. Chemical formula CaCl2 D. Corresponding anions Cl-, ClO-, ClO2-, ClO3-, or ClO4 B. Calcium chloride E. Chlorine dioxide C. Chlorite ion is ClO2-. F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 73 www.abctlc.com 443. Which of the following compounds are a closely monitored constituent of the mud system? A. Chemical formula CaCl2 D. Chlorides B. Chloride E. Chlorine dioxide C. Chlorite ion is ClO2-. F. None of the Above

444. Which of the following terms is also a useful and reliable chemical indicator of river, groundwater fecal contamination, as chloride is a non-reactive solute and ubiquitous to sewage & potable water. A. Chemical formula CaCl2 D. Corresponding anions Cl-, ClO-, ClO2-, ClO3-, or ClO4 B. Chloride E. Chlorine dioxide C. Chlorite ion is ClO2-. F. None of the Above

Chlorite Ion 445. The chlorite ion is? A. Chemical formula CaCl2 D. Corresponding anions Cl-, ClO-, ClO2-, ClO3-, or ClO4 B. Chloride E. Chlorine dioxide C. ClO2- F. None of the Above

446. Chlorine can assume oxidation states of -1, +1, +3, +5, or +7 within the corresponding anions Cl-, ClO-, ClO2-, ClO3-, or ClO4-, known commonly and respectively as? A. Chemical formula CaCl2 D. Chlorine dioxide B. Chloride E. Chloride, hypochlorite, chlorite, chlorate, and perchlorate C. Chlorite ion is ClO2-. F. None of the Above

447. According to the text, an additional oxidation state of +4 is seen in the neutral compound______, which has a similar structure to chlorite ClO2- (oxidation state +3) and the cation chloryl (ClO2+) (oxidation state +5). A. Chemical formula CaCl2 D. Corresponding anions Cl-, ClO-, ClO2-, ClO3-, or ClO4 B. Chloride E. Chlorine dioxide ClO2 C. Chlorite ion is ClO2-. F. None of the Above

Understanding Commonly Used Water Disinfectants 448. Almost all U.S. systems that disinfect their water use some type of chlorine-based process, either alone or in combination with? A. Other disinfectants D. Disease-causing organisms B. Residual disinfectant E. Slime bacteria C. Chemical compounds F. None of the Above

449. In addition to controlling disease-causing organisms; chlorination offers a number of benefits including: Reduces many? A. Other disinfectants D. Disease-causing organisms B. Residual disinfectant E. Disagreeable tastes and odors C. Chemical compounds F. None of the Above

450. In addition to controlling disease-causing organisms; Eliminates ______that commonly grow in water supply reservoirs. A. Color D. Disease-causing organisms B. Residual disinfectant E. Slime bacteria, molds and algae C. Chemical compounds F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 74 www.abctlc.com 451. Removes chemical compounds that have unpleasant tastes and______. A. Combination with other disinfectants D. Disease-causing organisms B. Residual disinfectant E. Hinder disinfection C. Removes chemical compounds F. None of the Above

452. In addition to controlling disease-causing organisms; helps remove ______from raw water. A. Turbidity D. Disease-causing organisms B. Residual disinfectant E. Slime bacteria C. Iron and manganese F. None of the Above

453. Chlorine-based chemicals provide “______” levels that prevent microbial re- growth and help protect treated water throughout the distribution system. A. Combination with other disinfectants D. Contact time B. Residual disinfectant E. Safe C. Static F. None of the Above

The Risks of Waterborne Disease 454. Even where water treatment is widely practiced, constant vigilance is required to guard against waterborne disease outbreaks. Well-known pathogens such as Cholera, polio, typhoid, hepatitis are easily controlled with chlorination, but can cause deadly outbreaks given conditions of inadequate or no disinfection. A. True B. False

455. Some emerging pathogens such as ______are resistant to chlorination and can appear even in high quality water supplies. A. Total Coliform (TC) D. Cryptosporidium B. Indicator organisms E. Giardia C. Cholera, polio, typhoid, hepatitis F. None of the Above

456. New regulations from the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) will require water systems to monitor for this term and adopt a range of treatment options based on source water concentrations. A. Total Coliform (TC) D. Cryptosporidium B. Indicator organisms E. Giardia C. Cholera, polio, typhoid, hepatitis F. None of the Above

The Benefits of Chlorine Potent Germicide 457. Chlorine disinfectants can reduce the level of ______in drinking water to almost immeasurable levels. A. Cryptosporidium parvum and Giardia lamblia D. Sodium hypochlorite solution B. Many disease-causing microorganisms E. Chlorine disinfectants C. Nitrogenous compounds F. None of the Above

458. According to the text, chlorine is added to drinking water to destroy pathogenic (disease-causing) organisms. It can be applied in several forms: ______, sodium hypochlorite solution (bleach) and dry calcium hypochlorite. A. Cryptosporidium parvum and Giardia lamblia D. Sodium hypochlorite solution B. Many disease-causing microorganisms E. Chlorine disinfectants C. Elemental chlorine (chlorine gas) F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 75 www.abctlc.com 459. While any of these forms of chlorine can effectively disinfect drinking water, each has distinct advantages and limitations for? A. Cryptosporidium parvum and Giardia lamblia D. Sodium hypochlorite solution B. Many disease-causing microorganisms E. Chlorine disinfectants C. Particular applications F. None of the Above

Taste and Odor Control 460. Chlorine oxidizes many naturally occurring substances such as______, sulfides and odors from decaying vegetation. A. Cryptosporidium parvum and Giardia lamblia D. Sodium hypochlorite solution B. Many disease-causing microorganisms E. Foul-smelling algae secretions C. Nitrogenous compounds F. None of the Above

Biological Growth Control 461. Chlorine disinfectants eliminate ______that commonly grow in water supply reservoirs, on the walls of water mains and in storage tanks. A. Cryptosporidium parvum and Giardia lamblia D. Slime bacteria, molds and algae B. Many disease-causing microorganisms E. Chlorine disinfectants C. Nitrogenous compounds F. None of the Above

Chemical Control 462. Chlorine disinfectants destroy ______(which has a rotten egg odor) and remove ammonia. A. Cryptosporidium parvum and Giardia lamblia D. Hydrogen sulfide B. Many disease-causing microorganisms E. Chlorine disinfectants C. Nitrogenous compounds F. None of the Above

Water Treatment 463. Broadly speaking, water is treated to render it suitable for human use and consumption. While the primary goal is to produce a biologically (disinfected) and chemically safe product, other objectives also must be met, including: no objectionable taste or odor; low levels of color and turbidity (cloudiness); and chemical stability (non- corrosive and non-scaling). Individual facilities customize treatment to address the particular natural and manmade contamination characteristic of their raw water. A. True B. False

464. Surface water usually presents a greater treatment challenge than groundwater, which is naturally filtered as it percolates through sediments. A. True B. False

465. Surface water is laden with organic and mineral particulate matter, and may harbor protozoan parasites such as Cryptosporidium parvum and Giardia lamblia. A. True B. False

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 76 www.abctlc.com Water Distribution 466. In storage and distribution, drinking water must be kept safe from microbial contamination. Frequently, slippery films of bacteria, known as biofilms, develop on the inside walls of pipes and storage containers. Among disinfection techniques, chlorination is unique in that a pre-determined chlorine concentration may be designed to remain in treated water as a measure of protection against harmful microbes encountered after leaving the treatment facility. A. True B. False

467. In the event of a significant intrusion of pathogens resulting, for example, from a broken water main, the level of the average “Chemical or biological contamination” will be sufficient to disinfect contaminated water. In such cases, it is the monitoring of the sudden drop in the chlorine residual that provides the critical indication to water system operators that there is a source of contamination in the system. A. True B. False

The Challenge of Disinfection Byproducts 468. While protecting against microbial contamination is the top priority, water systems must also control microbial contamination when chlorine and other disinfectants react with natural organic matter in water. A. True B. False

469. While the available evidence does not prove that potential threats in drinking water cause adverse health effects in humans, high levels of these chemicals are certainly undesirable. Cost-effective methods to reduce critical assets are available and should be adopted where possible. A. True B. False

Understanding Disinfection Byproducts (DBPS) 470. Which term has been widely used by public water systems (along with filtration) to protect the public from microbial pathogens in drinking water? A. Chlorates D. Ozone B. UV E. Chlorine and other chemical disinfectants C. THMs and HAAs F. None of the Above

471. In most cases, natural organic matter (NOM) is an important factor that affects the levels of DBPs that form (NOM is usually measured as TOC). A. True B. False

472. The levels of this term in drinking water can vary significantly from one point in a distribution system to another, as many continue to form in the distribution system. DBP levels are generally higher in surface water systems because surface water usually contains higher DBP precursor levels and requires stronger disinfection. A. Haloforms D. Alternative disinfectants B. Trihalomethane(s) E. DBPs C. Total concentration F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 77 www.abctlc.com Updating the Safe Drinking Water Act Regulations 473. The first DBP standards limited ______to 100 parts per billion (ppb) for systems serving more the 10,000 people. In the 1996 Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA). A. Potential DBP risks D. Many trihalomethanes B. THM levels E. Enforceable Maximum Contaminant Levels (MCLs) C. THMs and HAAs F. None of the Above

Stage 1 DBP Rule 474. In December 1998 USEPA issued this rule? A. Haloforms D. MCL(s) B. Trihalomethane(s) E. Stage 1 Disinfectants and Disinfection Byproducts C. Total concentration F. None of the Above

475. Which rule mandates a process called enhanced coagulation to remove natural organic matter, reducing the potential for DBPs to form? A. Potential DBP risks D. Trihalomethane B. The Stage 1 DBP rule E. Enforceable Maximum Contaminant Levels (MCLs) C. THMs and HAAs F. None of the Above

476. Which rule sets enforceable Maximum Contaminant Levels (MCLs) for total trihalomethanes at 80 pp b and the sum of five Haloacetic Acids (HAAs) at 60 ppb? A. Potential DBP risks D. Trihalomethane B. The Stage 1 DBP rule E. Enforceable Maximum Contaminant Levels (MCLs) C. THMs and HAAs F. None of the Above

477. These ______are based on system-wide running annual averages, meaning that concentrations may be higher at certain times and at certain points in the system. A. Haloforms D. MCLs B. Trihalomethane(s) E. Stage 1 Disinfectants and Disinfection Byproducts C. Total concentration F. None of the Above

478. The Agency recognized that alternative disinfectants might reduce ______, but produce other, less understood, byproducts. A. Potential DBP risks D. Many trihalomethanes B. THM(s) E. Enforceable Maximum Contaminant Levels (MCLs) C. THMs and HAAs F. None of the Above

Total Trihalomethanes 479. The trihalomethanes are only one group of many hundreds of______the vast majority of which are not monitored. A. Potential DBP risks D. Many trihalomethanes B. THM(s) E. Possible disinfection by-products C. THMs and HAAs F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 78 www.abctlc.com 480. In the United States, the EPA limits the total concentration of the four chief constituents (chloroform, bromoform, bromodichloromethane, and dibromochloromethane), referred to as______, to 80 parts per billion in treated water. A. Haloforms D. MCL(s) B. Trihalomethane(s) E. Total trihalomethanes (TTHM) C. Total concentration F. None of the Above

THM Treatment 481. Which of the following terms are organic materials which reacts with chlorine to form THM's? A. Haloforms D. MCL(s) B. Trihalomethane(s) E. Precursors C. Total concentration F. None of the Above

482. Reducing this term is one way to decrease THM's? A. Haloforms D. MCL(s) B. Trihalomethane(s) E. Precursors C. Total concentration F. None of the Above

483. If some oxidation before filtration is required, an alternative disinfectant like ______could be considered. A. Haloforms D. Potassium permanganate or peroxide B. Trihalomethane(s) E. Disinfectants and Disinfection Byproducts C. Total concentration F. None of the Above

484. The EPA has indicated that the best available technology for THM control at treatment plants is removal of______through "enhanced coagulation". A. Haloforms D. MCL(s) B. Trihalomethane(s) E. Precursors C. Total concentration F. None of the Above

485. Enhanced coagulation refers to the process of optimizing the filtration process to maximize removal of ______. A. Potential DBP risks D. Many trihalomethanes B. THM(s) E. Precursors C. THMs and HAAs F. None of the Above

486. Removal is improved by decreasing pH (to levels as low as 4 or 5), increasing the feed rate of ______, and possibly using ferric coagulants instead of alum. A. Potential DBP risks D. Many trihalomethanes B. THM(s) E. Enforceable Maximum Contaminant Levels (MCLs) C. THMs and HAAs F. None of the Above

Understanding Cryptosporidiosis 487. Which of the following organism/bug/disease is an emerging parasitic protozoan pathogen because its transmission has increased dramatically over the past two decades? A. Waterborne disease outbreaks D. Parasitic protozoan pathogen B. Cryptosporidium E. Emerging waterborne pathogen C. Giardia lamblia F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 79 www.abctlc.com 488. Which of the following organism/bug/disease spread in day-care centers and possibly in widely distributed water supplies, public pools and institutions such as hospitals and extended-care facilities for the elderly? A. Cryptosporidium D. Parasitic protozoan pathogen B. Chlorine-based disinfectants E. Emerging waterborne pathogen C. Giardia lamblia F. None of the Above

489. Which of the following organism/bug/disease is able to cause potentially life- threatening disease in the growing number of immunocompromised patients? A. Cryptosporidium D. Parasitic protozoan pathogen B. Chlorine-based disinfectants E. Emerging waterborne pathogen C. Giardia lamblia F. None of the Above

490. The EPA is developing new drinking water regulations to reduce ______and other resistant parasitic pathogens. A. Cryptosporidium D. Parasitic protozoan pathogens B. MIB E. Emerging waterborne pathogens C. Giardia lamblia F. None of the Above

491. Systems with high concentrations of ______in their source water may adopt alternative disinfection methods (e.g., ozone, UV, or chlorine dioxide). A. Cryptosporidium D. Emerging parasitic protozoan pathogens B. Beaver fever E. Emerging waterborne pathogens C. Giardia lamblia F. None of the Above

492. Water systems must continue to maintain residual levels of ______in their distribution systems. A. High-test calcium hypochlorite(s) D. Chlorine-based disinfectants B. Calcium hypochlorite tablets E. Chlorine dioxide C. Hypochlorous acid F. None of the Above

Understanding Giardia lamblia 493. Which of the following organism/bug/disease is another emerging waterborne pathogen that can be transmitted to humans through drinking water that might otherwise be considered pristine? A. Cryptosporidium D. An emerging parasitic protozoan pathogen B. Water bear E. Emerging waterborne pathogen C. Giardia lamblia F. None of the Above

494. There is a distinct pattern to the emergence of______. First, there is a general recognition of the effects of the pathogen in highly susceptible populations such as children, cancer patients and the immunocompromised. Next, practitioners begin to recognize the disease and its causative agent in their own patients, with varied accuracy. A. Cryptosporidium D. New pathogens B. Chlorine-based disinfectants E. Emerging waterborne pathogen C. Giardia lamblia F. None of the Above

Waterborne Assignment TLC © 11/1/2017 80 www.abctlc.com Understanding Waterborne Diseases 495. Detection and investigation of waterborne disease outbreaks is the primary responsibility of local, state and territorial public health departments, with voluntary reporting to the CDC. The CDC and the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) collaborate to track diagnosed cases of waterborne illness of chemical origins. Data on drinking water and recreational water outbreaks and contamination events have been collected and summarized since 1971. A. True B. False

496. For those who do seek medical attention, attending physicians and laboratory and hospital personnel are required to report diagnosed cases of waterborne illness to state health departments. Further reporting of these illness cases by state health departments to the CDC is voluntary, and statistically more likely to occur for large outbreaks than small ones. A. True B. False

497. Despite these limitations, surveillance data may be used to evaluate the relative degrees of risk associated with different types of source water and systems, problems in current technologies and operating conditions, and the adequacy of current regulations. A. True B. False

Disinfection Rules Disinfection Byproduct Regulations 498. In December 1998, the EPA established the Stage 1 Disinfectants/Disinfection Byproducts Rule that requires public water systems to use treatment measures to reduce the formation of disinfection byproducts and to meet the following specific standards: Currently trihalomethanes are regulated at a maximum allowable annual average level of 100 parts per billion for water systems serving over 10,000 people under the Total Trihalomethane Rule finalized by the EPA in 1979. A. True B. False

499. The Stage 1 Disinfectant/Disinfection Byproduct Rule standards became effective for trihalomethanes and other disinfection byproducts listed above in December 2001 for large surface water public water systems. Those standards became effective in December 2003 for small surface water and all ground water public water systems. A. True B. False

500. Which term represents regulations that have been established have been identified in drinking water, including trihalomethanes, haloacetic acids, bromate, and chlorite. A. Total coliform rule D. Disinfection byproducts B. CWA E. Trihalomethane rule C. Treatment measures F. None of the Above