1. What Type of Address Is 21Cc:0252 F8cb:05F1:0042:C324?

Exam 4

1. What type of address is 21cc:0252::f8cb:05f1:0042:c324? A. IPv4 B. IPv6 C. MAC D. DNS

2. What type of transmission provides a one-to-many transmission service but only the nearest one receives the transmission? A. unicast B. mulitcast C. anycast D. bi-cast

3. What mechanism is used to enable devices behind non-IPv6 NAT routers to function as tunnel endpoints? A. 6to4 B. ISATAP C. Teredo D. 4to6

4. What are null packets used by Teredo clients called? A. bubbles B. taps C. format prefixes (FPs) D. proxy packets

5. What is used to identify the type of unicast IPv6 address? A. format prefix B. CDR notation C. subnet mask D. SRV record

6. What is the most common DNS server? A. WINS B. SUN C. Oracle D. BIND

7. What is the minimum number of domain controllers every Active Directory domain should have? A. one B. two C. three D. four

8. Which group is used for non-security–related functions, such as sending email messages to a collection of users? A. distribution B. universal C. global D. security

9. You want to give a user at a remote site the ability to change password for all users within an organizational unit. What is the best way to give the user this ability? A. Make the user a domain administrator. B. Make the user an administrator on the local server. C. Assign the Administrative right to the user. D. Run the Delegation of Control Wizard.

10. What describes the amount of time that it takes for all domain controllers in the environment to contain the most up-to-date information? A. replication B. convergence C. completion D. propagation

11. What defines a chain of site links by which domain controllers from different sites can communicate? A. site-link bridge B. site chain C. site-chain bridge D. site-link chain

12. When you create Active Directory sites, which of the following is not a primary reason to conserve bandwidth? A. replication B. encryption C. authentication D. applications

13. Which ADFS role service is located on the perimeter network that provides secured Internet access to the Federation Service on an internal server? A. Federation Service B. Federation Service Proxy C. AD FS Web Agents D. DC Connector

14. Which ADFS role service runs on the web servers host applications accessed by users on the remote domain? A. Federation Service B. Federation Service Proxy C. AD FS Web Agents D. DC Connector

15. Which mechanism used with NFS Server searches the AD DS database for the UID and GID values in an NFS file access request? A. user name mapping B. Identity Management for UNIX C. Network Information Service D. Active Directory lookup

16. What role service automatically detects password changes in AD DS or Windows and sends those changes to selected UNIX systems via encrypted messages? A. Identity Management B. User Name Mapping C. NFS D. Password Synchronization

17. How many domain controllers should you have at medium branch office running its own domain?

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

18. How many global catalogs should you have at a medium branch office running its own domain? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

19. In which version of Windows was Server Core introduced? A. Windows Server 2003 B. Windows Server 2003 R2 C. Windows Server 2008 D. Windows Server 2008 R2 20. Through what feature do read-only domain controllers provide added security in the way passwords are stored? A. Password Integration Policy B. Password Caching Policy C. Password Storage Policy D. Password Replication Policy

21. Which service would you install on a site server to manage installing Windows Updates while minimizing WAN traffic? A. WSUS B. DFS C. Cluster Server D. RRAS

22. Which versions of Windows can use BranchCache? A. Windows XP B. Windows XP with SP3 C. Windows Vista with SP1 D. Windows 7

23. Typically, in a small office of 10 users to less, you typically do not have ______IT staff.

A. dedicated B. isolated C. prepared D. supervised

24. What option allows users to install the applications that they consider useful to them? A. Assign B. Require C. Amend D. Publish

25. What type of file can be written to allow non-Windows Installer– compliant applications to be deployed? A. .msi B. .exe C. .zap D. .ini

26. When installing the Remote Desktop Services role using Server Manager, the Add Roles Wizard enables you to select from various role services. Which role service balances the client load among multiple terminal servers and saves session state information so that clients can reconnect to the same session from which they disconnected? A. Remote Desktop Server B. Remote Desktop Licensing C. Remote Desktop Connection Broker D. Remote Desktop Gateway

27. Remote Desktop Services has two operational modes. Which one is the default? A. Execution B. Install C. Application D. none of the above

28. What type of licensing enables one user to connect to the terminal server no matter what device the user is running? A. Per Device B. Per User C. Per System D. Per OU

29. What performance monitor counter reports the number of active Remote Desktop Services sessions during the sample time interval? A. Terminal Services: Inactive Sessions B. Terminal Services: Live Sessions C. Terminal Services: Monitoring Sessions D. Terminal Services: Active Sessions

30. Windows Server 2008 R2 users Remote Desktop Services. What was the service called in Windows Server 2008? A. Remote Assistance B. TakeOver Admin C. Terminal Services D. Computer Management

31. What is a collection of processes that form an individual user environment running on the server? A. registry B. authorization C. authentication D. session

32. Which WSUS architecture should you use when the branch office is connected to a central office with a slow WAN link? A. low-bandwidth WSUS servers B. replica WSUS servers C. disconnected WSUS servers D. autonomous WSUS servers

33. According to Microsoft, what is the maximum number of tiers that should be used for a WSUS design? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

34. Which of the following is not an update that can be deployed via WSUS? A. security fixes B. critical updates C. additional user experience features D. critical drivers

35. Which of the following is not a category for Windows updates? A. Group Policy updates B. critical updates C. recommended downloads D. multilanguage features

36. If you are installing IIS on a server that already is using the default website, what is the default port for WSUS? A. 43 B. 80 C. 8080 D. 8530

37. What would you use to automatically configure clients to receive updates from a WSUS server? A. Control Panel console B. WSUS console C. Group policies D. SCCM console

38. What Microsoft website works with Automatic Updates to provide timely, critical, and noncritical system updates? A. Windows Update B. Technet C. Msdn D. SecureNet

39. What is a WSUS server-side component on your organization’s intranet that retrieves the latest critical updates from the Windows Update website? A. Content synchronization service B. Windows Update service C. BITS D. Windows Installer service

40. Which of the following is the only technology included in Windows Server 2008 that can protect data while it is in transit? A. Encrypting File System (EFS) B. BitLocker C. IPsec D. Windows Firewall

41. Which of the following protocols does PPTP not support for authentication? A. Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol version 1 B. Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol version 2 C. Microsoft Point-to-Point Encryption (MPPE) D. Extensible Authentication Protocol

42. Secure Sockets Tunneling Protocol (SSTP) is supported only on clients running which of the following operating systems? A. Windows Vista B. Windows Vista with Service Pack 1 C. Windows Server 2008 D. Windows XP with Service Pack 2

43. Which mutual authentication method offers encryption of both authentication data and connection data? A. EAP.TLS B. MS-CHAPv1 C. MS-CHAPv2 D. Extensible Authentication Protocol-Message Digest 5 Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (EAP-MD5 CHAP)

44. One example of an NPS Policy Setting includes IP properties that specify IP address assignment behavior. Which of the following is not an option? A. Server Must Supply an IP Address B. Client Must Supply an IP Address C. Client May Request an IP Address D. Server Settings Determine IP Address Assignment

45. Who maintains information about the health of the NAP client computer and transmits information between the NAP Enforcement Clients and the System Health Agents? A. Health Registration Authority B. System Health Agent C. NAP Agent D. System Health Validator

46. A server that operates the NAP Enforcement Server components is referred to as a NAP ______. A. Agent B. enforcement point C. enforcement server D. none of the above

47. What is a rule for evaluating remote connections? A. VPN Authentication rule B. Remote access connection syntax C. NPS Network Policy D. SoH

48. What hybrid RAID consists of a mirrored dataset, which is then striped? A. RAID 1+0 B. RAID 0+1 C. RAID 5H D. RAID 0H

49. What do you call an extra hard drive that sits idle until it is needed to replace a failed drive in a RAID configuration? A. primary drive B. secondary drive C. parity drive D. hot spare

50. When using domain-based namespaces, what is the maximum number of folders that you should have to avoid performance problems? A. 100 B. 500 C. 1,000 D. 5,000

51. What replaced FRS in Windows Server 2003 R2? A. DFS replication B. clustering C. LUN management D. DSL

52. What protocol conserves network bandwidth by detecting changes in files and transmitting only the modified data to the destination? A. Remote Desktop Protocol B. Remote Differential Compression C. Load Balancing Protocol D. Server Message Block

53. What works in tandem with DFS Namespaces to provide unified services such as data distribution, load balancing, and data collection? A. DFS Load Balancing B. DFS Mirroring C. DFS Replication D. DFS Looping

54. If your mobile computer does not include a TPM, where would you store the startup key? A. USB flash drive B. network drive C. floppy disk D. CD or DVD disk

55. How do you create a data recovery agent for BitLocker? A. group policies B. Computer Management console C. EFS Console D. BitLocker Console

56. What is the best way to make DHCP fault tolerant? A. Use NLB. B. Use a failover cluster. C. Use IIS. D. Install DHCP on each subnet.

57. What modern solution allows you to resolve NetBIOS names of servers? A. Enhanced WINS B. Enhanced DNS C. NetBIOS converter D. GlobalNames zones

58. You have a member server that includes the DNS server. What role do you need to support Active Directory integrated zones? A. LDAP Resolver B. Web Services C. Application Services D. Active Directory Services

59. What is the process called when one DNS server updates another DNS server? A. zone transfers B. zone synchronization C. zone delegation D. zone forwarding

60. What type of NAP enforcement provides the best protection? A. DHCP B. IPSec C. VPN D. 802.1x