Final Exam Review- Quarter 4

Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Why is a gas easier to compress than a liquid or a solid? a. Its volume increases more under pressure than an equal volume of liquid does. b. Its volume increases more under pressure than an equal volume of solid does. c. The space between gas particles is much less than the space between liquid or solid particles. d. The volume of a gas’s particles is small compared to the overall volume of the gas. ____ 2. Why does the pressure inside a container of gas increase if more gas is added to the container? a. There is an increase in the number of collisions between particles and the walls of the container. b. There is an increase in the temperature of the gas. c. There is a decrease in the volume of the gas. d. There is an increase in the force of the collisions between the particles and the walls of the container. ____ 3. How does the gas propellant move when an aerosol can is used? a. from a region of high pressure to a region of lower pressure b. from a region of high pressure to a region of equally high pressure c. from a region of low pressure to a region of higher pressure d. from a region of low pressure to a region of equally low pressure ____ 4. If the volume of a container of gas is reduced, what will happen to the pressure inside the container? a. The pressure will increase. b. The pressure will not change. c. The pressure will decrease. d. The pressure depends on the type of gas. ____ 5. If a balloon is squeezed, what happens to the pressure of the gas inside the balloon? a. It increases. b. It stays the same. c. It decreases. d. The pressure depends on the type of gas in the balloon. ____ 6. What happens to the temperature of a gas when it is compressed? a. The temperature increases. b. The temperature does not change. c. The temperature decreases. d. The temperature becomes unpredictable. ____ 7. As the temperature of the gas in a balloon decreases, which of the following occurs? a. The volume of the balloon increases. b. The average kinetic energy of the gas decreases. c. The gas pressure inside the balloon increases. d. all of the above ____ 8. What happens to the pressure of a gas inside a container if the temperature of the gas decreases? a. The pressure increases. c. The pressure decreases. b. The pressure does not change. d. The pressure cannot be predicted. ____ 9. If 4 moles of gas are added to a container that already holds 1 mole of gas, how will the pressure change inside the container? a. The pressure will be five times higher. b. The pressure will double. c. The pressure will be four times higher. d. The pressure will not change. ____ 10. Why does air escape from a tire when the tire valve is opened? a. The pressure outside the tire is lower than the pressure inside the tire. b. The pressure outside the tire is greater than the pressure inside the tire. c. The temperature is higher outside the tire than inside the tire. d. There are more particles of air outside the tire than inside the tire. ____ 11. Which of these changes would NOT cause an increase in the pressure of a contained gas? a. The volume of the container is increased. b. More of the gas is added to the container. c. The temperature is increased. d. The average kinetic energy of the gas in increased. ____ 12. When the Kelvin temperature of an enclosed gas doubles, the particles of the gas ____. a. move faster b. strike the walls of the container with less force c. decrease in average kinetic energy d. decrease in volume ____ 13. The volume of a gas is doubled while the temperature is held constant. How does the gas pressure change? a. It is reduced by one half. b. It does not change. c. It is doubled. d. It varies depending on the type of gas. ____ 14. The volume of a gas is reduced from 4 L to 0.5 L while the temperature is held constant. How does the gas pressure change? a. It increases by a factor of four. c. It increases by a factor of eight. b. It decreases by a factor of eight. d. It increases by a factor of two. ____ 15. Boyle's law states that ____. a. the volume of a gas varies inversely with pressure b. the volume of a gas varies directly with pressure c. the temperature of a gas varies inversely with pressure d. the temperature of a gas varies directly with pressure ____ 16. When the temperature and number of particles of a gas are constant, which of the following is also constant? a. the sum of the pressure and volume b. the difference of the pressure and volume c. the product of the pressure and volume d. the ratio of the pressure and volume ____ 17. Charles's law states that ____. a. the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its temperature in kelvins b. the volume of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature in kelvins c. the pressure of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature in kelvins d. the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its temperature in kelvins ____ 18. If a balloon is heated, what happens to the volume of the air in the balloon if the pressure is constant? a. It increases. c. It decreases. b. It stays the same. d. The change cannot be predicted. ____ 19. When the pressure and number of particles of a gas are constant, which of the following is also constant? a. the sum of the volume and temperature in kelvins b. the difference of the volume and temperature in kelvins c. the product of the volume and temperature in kelvins d. the ratio of the volume and temperature in kelvins ____ 20. If a balloon is heated, what happens to the pressure of the air inside the balloon if the volume remains constant? a. It increases. c. It decreases. b. It stays the same. d. The change cannot be predicted. ____ 21. When the volume and number of particles of a gas are constant, which of the following is also constant? a. the sum of the pressure and temperature in kelvins b. the difference of the pressure and temperature in kelvins c. the product of the pressure and temperature in kelvins d. the ratio of the pressure and temperature in kelvins ____ 22. As the temperature of a fixed volume of a gas increases, the pressure will ____. a. vary inversely c. not change b. decrease d. increase ____ 23. If a sealed syringe is plunged into cold water, in which direction will the syringe piston slide? a. in c. No movement will occur. b. out d. The direction cannot be predicted. ____ 24. What happens when a piston is used to decrease the volume of a contained gas? a. Fewer gas particles exert a force on the piston. b. The piston’s pressure on the gas becomes greater than the pressure exerted by the gas on the piston. c. Gas particles become compressed. d. Gas particles leak out of the container. ____ 25. A gas occupies a volume of 2.4 L at 14.1 kPa. What volume will the gas occupy at 84.6 kPa? a. 497 L c. 14 L b. 2.5 L d. 0.40 L ____ 26. If a sealed syringe is heated, in which direction will the syringe plunger move? a. out c. The plunger will not move. b. in d. The direction cannot be predicted. ____ 27. A sample of gas occupies 17 mL at –112 C. What volume does the sample occupy at 70 C? a. 10.6 mL c. 36mL b. 27 mL d. 8.0mL ____ 28. In general, for a gas at a constant volume, ____. a. the pressure of the gas is inversely proportional to its temperature in kelvins b. the volume of the gas is inversely proportional to its temperature in kelvins c. the volume of the gas is directly proportional to its temperature in kelvins d. the pressure of the gas is directly proportional to its temperature in kelvins ____ 29. The combined gas law relates which of the following? a. pressure and volume only c. volume and temperature only b. temperature and pressure only d. temperature, pressure, and volume ____ 30. If a balloon containing 3000 L of gas at 39 C and 99 kPa rises to an altitude where the pressure is 45.5 kPa and the temperature is 16 C, the volume of the balloon under these new conditions would be calculated using the following conversion factor ratios: ____. a. c. 3000 L 3000 L b. d. 3000 L 3000 L

____ 31. What does the ideal gas law allow a scientist to calculate that the other gas laws do not? a. number of moles c. volume b. pressure d. temperature ____ 32. At a certain temperature and pressure, 0.20 mol of carbon dioxide has a volume of 3.1 L. A 3.1-L sample of hydrogen at the same temperature and pressure ____. a. has the same mass b. contains the same number of atoms c. has a higher density d. contains the same number of molecules ____ 33. How is the ideal gas law usually written? a. c. PV = nRT = R b. d. = nR P =

____ 34. Which law can be used to calculate the number of moles of a contained gas? a. Boyle’s law c. ideal gas law b. combined gas law d. Charles’s law ____ 35. Which of the following is constant for 1 mole of any ideal gas? a. PVT c.

b. d.

____ 36. At high pressures, how does the volume of a real gas compare with the volume of an ideal gas under the same conditions? a. It is much greater. c. There is no difference. b. It is much less. d. It depends on the type of gas. ____ 37. At low temperatures and pressures, how does the volume of a real gas compare with the volume of an ideal gas under the same conditions? a. It is greater. c. There is no difference. b. It is less. d. It depends on the type of gas. ____ 38. An ideal gas CANNOT be ____. a. condensed c. heated b. cooled d. compressed ____ 39. Under what conditions of temperature and pressure is the behavior of real gases most like that of ideal gases? a. low temperature and low pressure c. high temperature and low pressure b. low temperature and high pressure d. high temperature and high pressure ____ 40. If the atmospheric pressure on Mt. Everest is one-third the atmospheric pressure at sea level, the partial pressure of oxygen on Everest is ____. a. one-sixth its pressure at sea level c. one-half its pressure at sea level b. one-third its pressure at sea level d. equal to its pressure at sea level ____ 41. What happens to the partial pressure of oxygen in a sample of air if the temperature is increased? a. It increases. c. It decreases. b. It stays the same. d. The change cannot be determined. ____ 42. If oxygen is removed from a sample of air as iron rusts, what happens to the partial pressure of oxygen in the air? a. It increases. c. It decreases. b. It stays the same. d. The change cannot be determined. ____ 43. If oxygen is removed from a sample of air as iron rusts, what happens to the total pressure of the air? a. It increases. c. It decreases. b. It stays the same. d. The change cannot be determined. ____ 44. A breathing mixture used by deep-sea divers contains helium, oxygen, and carbon dioxide. What is the partial pressure of oxygen at 101.4 kPa if = 82.5 kPa and = 0.4 kPa? a. 82.9 kPa c. 18.5 kPa b. 19.3 kPa d. 101.0 kPa ____ 45. When a container is filled with 3.00 moles of H , 2.00 moles of O , and 1.00 mole of N , the pressure in the container is 768 kPa. What is the partial pressure of O ? a. 256 kPa c. 128 kPa b. 128 kPa d. 192 kPa ____ 46. A box with a volume of 22.4 L contains 1.0 mol of nitrogen and 2.0 mol of hydrogen at 0 C. Which of the following statements is true? a. The total pressure in the box is 101 kPa. b. The partial pressures of N and H are equal. c. The total pressure is 202 kPa d. The partial pressure of N is 101 kPa. ____ 47. If the volume of a container of air is reduced by one-half, what happens to the partial pressure of oxygen within the container? a. It is reduced by one-half. c. It is doubled. b. It does not change. d. It is reduced by one-fourth. ____ 48. The tendency of molecules to move toward areas of lower concentration is called ____. a. suffusion c. effusion b. suspension d. diffusion ____ 49. Which of the following gases will effuse the most rapidly? a. bromine c. ammonia b. chlorine d. hydrogen ____ 50. Which of the following atoms would have the greatest velocity if each atom had the same kinetic energy? a. bromine c. ammonia b. chlorine d. hydrogen ____ 51. Which of the following gases is the best choice for inflating a balloon that must remain inflated for a long period of time? a. argon c. hydrogen b. oxygen d. neon ____ 52. How does the surface tension of water compare with the surface tensions of most other liquids? a. It is lower. b. It is about the same. c. It is higher. d. It is higher when a surfactant is added. ____ 53. What causes water's low vapor pressure? a. dispersion forces c. hydrogen bonding b. covalent bonding d. ionic attractions ____ 54. What is the shape of the water molecule? a. linear c. trigonal planar b. tetrahedral d. bent ____ 55. Which of the following is primarily responsible for holding water molecules together in the liquid state? a. dispersion forces c. ionic bonds b. hydrogen bonds d. polar covalent bonds ____ 56. Which atom in a water molecule has the greatest electronegativity? a. one of the hydrogen atoms b. both hydrogen atoms c. the oxygen atom d. There is no difference in the electronegativities of the atoms in a water molecule. ____ 57. The bonds between adjacent water molecules are called ____. a. hydrogen bonds c. nonpolar covalent bonds b. ionic bonds d. polar covalent bonds ____ 58. What is primarily responsible for the surface tension of water? a. dispersion forces c. ionic attractions b. hydrogen bonding d. covalent bonding ____ 59. Which of the following is NOT a result of surface tension in water? a. Surface area is maximized. b. Water has an unusually low vapor pressure. c. Surface appears to have a "skin." d. Drops tend to become spherical. ____ 60. Surface tension ____. a. is the inward force which tends to minimize the surface area of a liquid b. may be increased by detergents c. is decreased by hydrogen bonding d. causes beads of water to spread out ____ 61. The bonds between the hydrogen and oxygen atoms in a water molecule are ____. a. hydrogen bonds c. nonpolar covalent bonds b. ionic bonds d. polar covalent bonds ____ 62. How much heat is absorbed when 6.30 g of water melts? a. 21 kJ c. 2.10 kJ b. 0.210 kJ d. 21.0 J ____ 63. The fact that ice is less dense than water is related to the fact that ____. a. the molecular structure of ice is much less orderly than that of water b. the molecules of ice are held to each other by covalent bonding c. ice has a molecular structure in which water molecules are arranged randomly d. ice has a molecular structure that is an open framework held together by hydrogen bonds ____ 64. Which is responsible for the high thermal energy required to melt ice? a. covalent bonding c. hydrogen bonding b. dispersion forces d. ionic attractions ____ 65. What is the term for the dissolving medium in a solution? a. solvent c. solvator b. solute d. emulsifier ____ 66. A solution has which of the following properties? a. Gravity separates its parts. b. The top layer is different in composition than the bottom layer. c. The average diameter of its solute particles usually is less than 1 nm. d. A filter can remove the solute. ____ 67. Which of the following substances is the most soluble in water? a. sodium chloride c. bromine b. methane d. carbon ____ 68. What occurs in solvation? a. Solute ions separate from solvent molecules. b. Solvent molecules surround solute ions. c. Solvent molecules bind covalently to solute molecules. d. Ionic compounds are formed. ____ 69. Which of the following substances dissolves most readily in gasoline? a. CH c. NH b. HCl d. NaBr ____ 70. A solution is a mixture ____. a. from which the solute can be filtered b. that has the same properties throughout c. that is heterogeneous d. in which a solid solute is always dissolved in a liquid solvent ____ 71. Predict which one of the following compounds would be insoluble in water. a. NaCl c. CF b. HCl d. CuSO ____ 72. Why are two nonpolar substances able to dissolve in each other? a. They have similar attractive forces in their molecules. b. They combine to produce a polar substance. c. There is no attractive force between them. d. Nonpolar substances cannot dissolve in each other. ____ 73. Which of these would you expect to be soluble in the nonpolar solvent carbon disulfide, CS ? a. c. NaCl b. CI d. SnS ____ 74. Which of the following substances dissolves most readily in water? a. BaSO c. NH b. CaCO d. CH ____ 75. What type of compound is always an electrolyte? a. polar covalent c. ionic b. nonpolar covalent d. network solid ____ 76. An electric current can be conducted by ____. a. methane gas c. a salt solution b. a sugar solution d. rubbing alcohol ____ 77. Which of the following compounds conducts electricity only in the molten state? a. sodium bromide c. calcium hydroxide b. magnesium sulfate d. barium sulfate ____ 78. Which of the following compounds is a nonelectrolyte? a. sodium bromide c. copper chloride b. magnesium sulfate d. carbon tetrachloride ____ 79. Which of the following compounds is an electrolyte? a. rubbing alcohol c. carbon tetrachloride b. sugar d. sodium hydroxide ____ 80. Which of the following compounds is a nonelectrolyte when pure, but an electrolyte when dissolved in water? a. rubbing alcohol c. carbon tetrachloride b. sugar d. ammonia ____ 81. Which of the following are weak electrolytes in water? a. ionic compounds that partially dissociate in water b. ionic compounds that are soluble c. polar compounds that ionize d. nonpolar compounds that do not ionize ____ 82. Which of the following compounds is a weak electrolyte? a. NaBr c. KOH b. HBr d. NH ____ 83. Which of the following compounds is a strong electrolyte? a. ammonia c. sugar b. acetic acid d. potassium sulfate ____ 84. Which of the following substances is NOT an electrolyte? a. KCl c. LiCl b. CCl d. ____ 85. Which of the following is NOT a common hydrate? a. Epsom salt c. sugar b. borax d. alum ____ 86. Which symbol is used to connect the formula of the compound with the number of water molecules in a hydrate? a. a parenthesis c. a multiplication symbol b. an asterisk d. a dot ____ 87. What is another term for the water of hydration? a. water of solvation c. water of sublimation b. water of crystallization d. water of efflorescence ____ 88. Which compound changes color when it becomes a hydrate? a. silicon dioxide c. copper(II) sulfate b. sodium chloride d. potassium chloride ____ 89. A hydrated crystal that has a water vapor pressure greater than the water vapor pressure of air is called ____. a. a desiccant c. hygroscopic b. deliquescent d. efflorescent ____ 90. A crystal that absorbs water vapor from the air is ____. a. aqueous c. hygroscopic b. deliquescent d. efflorescent ____ 91. Which of the following mixture types is characterized by the settling of particles? a. solution c. colloid b. suspension d. hydrate ____ 92. Which of the following mixture types can be filtered to remove solute? a. suspensions only c. suspensions and colloids b. colloids only d. suspensions and solutions ____ 93. Which of the following materials is NOT a colloid? a. glue c. smoke b. alloy d. muddy water ____ 94. Which of the following mixtures is NOT a colloid? a. fog c. paint b. milk d. sugar water ____ 95. An emulsion is which type of mixture? a. suspension c. solution b. colloid d. gaseous ____ 96. The solute in a colloidal suspension is called the ____. a. dissolving phase c. dispensing phase b. dispersed phase d. dispersion medium ____ 97. What is the size range of particles in a colloid? a. more than 1000 nm c. between 1 nm and 1000 nm b. between 100 nm and 1000 nm d. between 1 nm and 10 nm ____ 98. Which of the following types of mixtures exhibit the Tyndall effect? a. suspensions and colloids c. colloids and solutions b. suspensions and solutions d. colloids only ____ 99. Which of these statements is correct? a. Particles can be filtered from a suspension. b. A solution is heterogeneous. c. A colloidal system does not exhibit the Tyndall effect. d. The particles in a colloidal system are affected by gravity. ____ 100. An emulsion is a colloidal dispersion of a ____. a. solid in a liquid c. gas in a liquid b. liquid in a liquid d. liquid in a gas ____ 101. An emulsifying agent is typically characterized by having ____. a. one polar end c. two polar ends b. one nonpolar end d. one polar end and one nonpolar end ____ 102. What causes Brownian motion in colloids? a. molecules of the dispersion medium colliding with dispersed phase particles b. coagulation of particles of the dispersed phase c. erratic flashes of light d. There is no Brownian motion in colloids. ____ 103. Which of the following usually makes a substance dissolve faster in a solvent? a. agitating the solution b. increasing the particle size of the solute c. lowering the temperature d. decreasing the number of particles ____ 104. What is the maximum amount of KCl that can dissolve in 200 g of water?

(The solubility of KCl is 34 g/100 g H2O at 20 C.) a. 17 g c. 68 g b. 34 g d. 6800 g ____ 105. What is the solubility of silver nitrate if only 11.1 g can dissolve in 5.0 g of water at 20 C? a. c. at 20 C at 20 C

b. d. at 20 C at 20 C

____ 106. Which of the following expressions is generally used for solubility? a. grams of solute per 100 grams of solvent b. grams of solute per 100 milliliters of solvent c. grams of solute per 100 grams of solution d. grams of solute per 100 milliliters of solution ____ 107. Which of the following pairs of factors affects the solubility of a particular substance? a. temperature and the nature of solute and solvent b. temperature and degree of mixing c. particle size and degree of mixing d. particle size and temperature ____ 108. If a crystal added to an aqueous solution causes many particles to come out of the solution, the original solution was ____. a. unsaturated c. an emulsion b. saturated d. supersaturated ____ 109. Which of the following substances is less soluble in hot water than in cold water? a. CO c. NaNO b. NaCl d. KBr ____ 110. Which of the following occurs as temperature increases? a. Solubility decreases. c. Solubility remains the same. b. Solubility increases. d. Molarity doubles. ____ 111. The solubility of a gas in a liquid is ____. a. proportional to the square root of the pressure of the gas above the liquid b. directly proportional to the pressure of the gas above the liquid c. inversely proportional to the pressure of the gas above the liquid d. unrelated to the pressure of the gas above the liquid

____ 112. If the solubility of a particular solute is at 20 C, which of the following solution concentrations

would represent a supersaturated aqueous solution of that solute? a. c. at 25 C at 20 C

b. d. at 15 C at 20 C

____ 113. What happens to the solubility of a gas, in a liquid, if the partial pressure of the gas above the liquid decreases? a. The solubility decreases. c. The solubility remains the same. b. The solubility increases. d. The solubility cannot be determined. ____ 114. To increase the solubility of a gas at constant temperature from 1.20 g/L, at 1.4 atm, to 2.3 g/L, the pressure would have to be increased to ____. a. 0.37 atm c. 1.37 atm b. 0.7 atm d. 2.7 atm ____ 115. If the solubility of a gas in water is 4.0 g/L when the pressure of the gas above the water is 3.0 atm, what is the pressure of the gas above the water when the solubility of the gas is 1.0 g/L? a. 0.75 atm c. 4.0 atm b. 1.3 atm d. 12 atm ____ 116. In a concentrated solution there is ____. a. no solvent c. a small amount of solute b. a large amount of solute d. no solute ____ 117. What is the molarity of a solution that contains 6 moles of solute in 2 liters of solution? a. 6M c. 7M b. 12M d. 3M ____ 118. In which of the following is the solution concentration expressed in terms of molarity? a. c.

b. d.

____ 119. Which of the following operations yields the number of moles of solute? a. molarity moles of solution c. molarity mass of solution b. molarity liters of solution d. moles of solution volume of solution ____ 120. What is the molarity of a solution containing 7.0 moles of solute in 569 mL of solution? a. 81M c. 12M b. 0.081M d. 4.0M ____ 121. What is the molarity of 200 mL of solution in which 2.0 moles of sodium bromide is dissolved? a. 2.0M c. 0.40M b. 10M d. 4.0M ____ 122. What is the number of moles of solute in 250 mL of a 0.4M solution? a. 0.1 mol c. 0.62 mol b. 0.16 mol d. 1.6 mol ____ 123. What is the molarity of a solution containing 56 grams of solute in 959 mL of solution? (molar mass of solute = 26 g/mol) a. 1.5M c. 2.1M b. 2.2M d. 0.0022M ____ 124. What mass of sucrose, C H O , is needed to make 500.0 mL of a 0.200M solution? a. 34.2 g c. 17.1 g b. 100 g d. 68.4 g ____ 125. What mass of Na SO is needed to make 2.5 L of 2.0M solution? (Na = 23 g; S = 32 g; O = 16 g) a. 178 g c. 356 g b. 284 g d. 710 g ____ 126. What does NOT change when a solution is diluted by the addition of solvent? a. volume of solvent c. number of moles of solute b. mass of solvent d. molarity of solution ____ 127. How many mL of a 2.0M NaBr solution are needed to make 200.0 mL of 0.50M NaBr? a. 25 mL c. 100 mL b. 50 mL d. 150 mL ____ 128. The volume of 6.00M HCl needed to make 319 mL of 6.80M HCl is ____. a. 0.128 mL c. 281 mL b. 7.8 mL d. 362 mL ____ 129. If 2.0 mL of 6.0M HCl is used to make a 500.0-mL aqueous solution, what is the molarity of the dilute solution? a. 0.024M c. 0.30M b. 0.24M d. 0.83M ____ 130. To 225 mL of a 0.80M solution of KI, a student adds enough water to make 1.0 L of a more dilute KI solution. What is the molarity of the new solution? a. 180M c. 0.35M b. 2.8M d. 0.18M ____ 131. If the percent by volume is 2.0% and the volume of solution is 250 mL, what is the volume of solute in solution? a. 0.5 mL c. 5.0 mL b. 1.25 mL d. 12.5 mL ____ 132. In which of the following is concentration expressed in percent by volume? a. 10% (v/v) c. 10% (m/m) b. 10% (m/v) d. 10% ____ 133. If the percent (mass/mass) for a solute is 4% and the mass of the solution is 200 g, what is the mass of solute in solution? a. 8.0 g c. 80 g b. 50 g d. 800 g ____ 134. The volume of alcohol present in 620 mL of a 40.0% (v/v) solution of alcohol is ____. a. 372 mL c. 248 mL b. 40.0 mL d. 580 mL ____ 135. How many milliliters of alcohol are in 167 mL of an 85.0% (v/v) alcohol solution? a. 252 mL c. 145 mL b. 228 mL d. 142 mL ____ 136. In which of the following is concentration expressed in percent by volume? a. c. 100% 100% b. d. 100% 100%

____ 137. Which of the following is NOT a colligative property of a solution? a. boiling point elevation c. vapor pressure lowering b. supersaturation d. freezing point depression ____ 138. Colligative properties depend upon the ____. a. nature of the solute c. number of solute particles in a solution b. nature of the solvent d. freezing point of a solute ____ 139. A solute depresses the freezing point because the solute ____. a. is colder than the solvent b. disrupts crystal formation of the solvent c. tends to sink to the bottom of the solution d. has bigger molecules than the solvent ____ 140. The molality of a solution containing 8.1 moles of solute in 4847 g of solvent is ____. a. 39m c. 0.17m b. 1.7m d. 598m ____ 141. Which of the following is an expression of molality? a. c.

b. d.

____ 142. What is the mole fraction of ethanol in a solution of 3.00 moles of ethanol and 5.00 moles of water? a. 0.375 c. 1.67 b. 0.6 d. 15 ____ 143. What is the molality of a solution containing 8.0 grams of solute in 0.50 kg of solvent? (molar mass of solute = 24 g) a. 0.67m c. 1.67m b. 4m d. 0.17m ____ 144. What is the number of kilograms of solvent in a 0.70 molal solution containing 5.0 grams of solute? (molar mass of solute = 30 g) a. 0.24 kg c. 0.11 kg b. 2.4 kg d. 1.1 kg ____ 145. To which of the following variables is change in boiling point directly proportional? a. molarity of solution c. percent by volume of solution b. molality of solution d. percent (mass/mass) of solution ____ 146. What is the freezing point of a solution of 0.5 mol of LiBr in 500 mL of water? (K = 1.86 C/m) a. –1.86 C c. –5.58 C b. –3.72 C d. –7.44 C ____ 147. The freezing point of a solution that contains 0.550 moles of NaI in 615 g of water is ____. (K = 1.86 C/m; molar mass of water = 18 g) a. 1.66 C c. 3.33 C b. –1.66 C d. –3.33 C ____ 148. What is the boiling point of a solution that contains 3 moles of KBr in 2000 g of water? (K = 0.512 C/m; molar mass of water = 18 g) a. 97 C c. 101.4 C b. 99.7 C d. 103 C ____ 149. What is the molality of a solution of water and KCl if the freezing point of the solution is –3 C? (K = 1.86 C/m; molar mass of water = 18 g) a. 0.6m c. 0.8m b. 1.2m d. 6m ____ 150. What is the boiling point of a solution of 0.1 mole of glucose in 200 mL of water? (K = 0.512 C/m) a. 100.06 C c. 100.26 C b. 100.13 C d. 100.5 C ____ 151. What is the approximate molar mass of a molecular solute if 300 g of the solute in 1000 g of water causes the solution to have a boiling point of 101 C? (K = 0.512 C/m; K = 1.86 C/m; molar mass of water = 18 g) a. 15 amu c. 150 amu b. 30 amu d. 300 amu ____ 152. What happens to the energy produced by burning gasoline in a car engine? a. The energy is lost as heat in the exhaust. b. The energy is transformed into work to move the car. c. The energy heats the parts of the engine. d. all of the above ____ 153. A piece of metal is heated, then submerged in cool water. Which statement below describes what happens? a. The temperature of the metal will increase. b. The temperature of the water will increase. c. The temperature of the water will decrease. d. The temperature of the water will increase and the temperature of the metal will decrease. ____ 154. How does a calorie compare to a joule? a. A calorie is smaller than a joule. c. A calorie is equal to a joule. b. A calorie is larger than a joule. d. The relationship cannot be determined. ____ 155. What would likely happen if you were to touch the flask in which an endothermic reaction were occurring? a. The flask would probably feel cooler than before the reaction started. b. The flask would probably feel warmer than before the reaction started. c. The flask would feel the same as before the reaction started. d. none of the above ____ 156. Which of the following is NOT a form of energy? a. light c. heat b. pressure d. electricity ____ 157. When energy is changed from one form to another, ____. a. some of the energy is lost entirely b. all of the energy can be accounted for c. a physical change occurs d. all of the energy is changed to a useful form ____ 158. If heat is released by a chemical system, an equal amount of heat will be ____. a. absorbed by the surroundings c. released by the surroundings b. absorbed by the universe d. released by the universe ____ 159. Which of the following is transferred due to a temperature difference? a. chemical energy c. electrical energy b. mechanical energy d. heat ____ 160. In an exothermic reaction, the energy stored in the chemical bonds of the reactants is ____. a. equal to the energy stored in the bonds of the products b. greater than the energy stored in the bonds of the products c. less than the energy stored in the bonds of the products d. less than the heat released ____ 161. A process that absorbs heat is a(n) ____. a. endothermic process c. exothermic process b. polythermic process d. ectothermic process ____ 162. When your body breaks down sugar completely, how much heat is released compared to burning the same amount of sugar in a flame? a. The body releases more heat. b. The body releases less heat. c. The body releases the same amount of heat. d. The body releases no heat. ____ 163. The quantity of heat required to change the temperature of 1 g of a substance by 1 C is defined as ____. a. a joule c. a calorie b. specific heat d. density ____ 164. A piece of candy has 5 Calories (or 5000 calories). If it could be burned, leaving nothing but carbon dioxide and water, how much heat would it give off? a. 500 calories c. 5000 joules b. 5 kilocalories d. Not enough information is given. ____ 165. How many joules are in 148 calories? (1 cal = 4.18 J) a. 6.61 J c. 148 J b. 35.4 J d. 619 J ____ 166. What is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 200.0 g of aluminum by 10 C? (specific heat of aluminum = 0.21 ) a. 420 cal c. 42,000 cal b. 4200 cal d. 420,000 cal ____ 167. What is the specific heat of a substance if 1560 cal are required to raise the temperature of a 312-g sample by 15 C? a. c. 0.033 0.99 b. d. 0.33 1.33

____ 168. How many kilocalories of heat are required to raise the temperature of 225 g of aluminum from 20 C to 100 C? (specific heat of aluminum = 0.21 ) a. 0.59 kcal c. 85 kcal b. 3.8 kcal d. none of the above ____ 169. The heat capacity of an object depends in part on its ____. a. mass c. shape b. enthalpy d. potential energy ____ 170. Which of the following is a valid unit for specific heat? a. c.

b. cal d. C ____ 171. When 45 g of an alloy, at 25 C, are dropped into 100.0 g of water, the alloy absorbs 956 J of heat. If the final temperature of the alloy is 37 C, what is its specific heat? a. c. 0.423 9.88 b. d. 1.77 48.8

____ 172. How can you describe the specific heat of olive oil if it takes approximately 420 J of heat to raise the temperature of 7 g of olive oil by 30 C? a. greater than the specific heat of water c. equal to the specific heat of water b. less than the specific heat of water d. Not enough information is given.

____ 173. The specific heat of silver is 0.24 . How many joules of energy are needed to warm 4.37 g of silver from 25.0 C to 27.5 C? a. 2.62 J c. 45.5 J b. 0.14 J d. 0.022 J ____ 174. Which of the following has the greatest heat capacity? a. 1000 g of water c. 1 g of water b. 1000 g of steel d. 1 g of steel ____ 175. Which of the following substances has the highest specific heat? a. steel c. alcohol b. water d. chloroform ____ 176. By what quantity must the heat capacity of an object be divided to obtain the specific heat of that material? a. its mass c. its temperature b. its volume d. its energy ____ 177. The amount of heat transferred from an object depends on which of the following? a. the specific heat of the object c. the mass of the object b. the initial temperature of the object d. all of the above ____ 178. What does the symbol H stand for? a. the specific heat of a substance b. the heat capacity of a substance c. the heat of reaction for a chemical reaction d. one Calorie given off by a reaction ____ 179. Standard conditions of temperature and pressure for a thermochemical equation are ____. a. 0 C and 101 kPa c. 0 C and 0 kPa b. 25 C and 101 kPa d. 25 C and 22.4 kPa ____ 180. The heat content of a system is equal to the enthalpy only for a system that is at constant ____. a. temperature c. pressure b. volume d. mass ____ 181. On what principle does calorimetry depend? a. Hess's law c. law of enthalpy b. law of conservation of energy d. law of multiple proportions ____ 182. How can the enthalpy change be determined for a reaction in an aqueous solution? a. by knowing the specific heat of the reactants b. by mixing the reactants in a calorimeter and measuring the temperature change c. by knowing the mass of the reactants d. The enthalpy change for this type of reaction cannot be determined. ____ 183. A chunk of ice whose temperature is –20 C is added to an insulated cup filled with water at 0 C. What happens in the cup? a. The ice melts until it reaches the temperature of the water. b. The water cools until it reaches the temperature of the ice. c. Some of the water freezes, so the chunk of ice gets larger. d. none of the above ____ 184. The amount of heat released by the complete burning of 1 mole of a substance is the ____. a. specific heat c. heat capacity b. heat of combustion d. heat of fusion ____ 185. Calculate the energy required to produce 7.00 mol Cl O on the basis of the following balanced equation. 2Cl (g) + 7O (g) + 130 kcal 2Cl O (g) a. 7.00 kcal c. 130 kcal b. 65 kcal d. 455 kcal ____ 186. What is the standard heat of reaction for the following reaction? Zn(s) + Cu (aq) Zn (aq) + Cu(s) ( H for Cu = +64.4 kJ/mol; H for Zn = –152.4 kJ/mol) a. 216.8 kJ released per mole c. 88.0 kJ absorbed per mole b. 88.0 kJ released per mole d. 216.8 kJ absorbed per mole ____ 187. Calculate H for the following reaction. C H (g) + H (g) C H (g) ( H for C H (g) = 52.5 kJ/mol; H for C H (g) = –84.7 kJ/mol) a. –137.2 kJ c. 32.2 kJ b. –32.2 kJ d. 137.2 kJ ____ 188. Calculate the energy released when 24.8 g Na O reacts in the following reaction. Na O(s) + 2HI(g) 2NaI(s) + H O(l) H = –120.00 kcal a. 0.207 kcal c. 48.0 kcal b. 2.42 kcal d. 3.00 10 kcal ____ 189. The amount of heat needed to melt one mole of a solid at a constant temperature is called ____. a. molar heat of fusion c. heat of reaction b. molar heat of solidification d. enthalpy ____ 190. During a phase change, the temperature of a substance ____. a. increases c. remains constant b. decreases d. may increase or decrease ____ 191. To calculate the amount of heat absorbed as a substance melts, which of the following information is NOT needed? a. the mass of the substance c. the change in temperature b. the specific heat of the substance d. the density of the sample ____ 192. What is the heat of solution? a. the amount of heat required to change a solid into a liquid b. the amount of heat absorbed or released when a solid dissolves c. the amount of heat required to change a vapor into a liquid d. the amount of heat released when a vapor changes into a liquid ____ 193. The H is ____. a. always negative b. always positive c. sometimes positive, sometimes negative d. always 0 ____ 194. When 1.0 g of solid NaOH ( H = –445.1 kJ/mol) dissolves in 10 L of water, how much heat is released? a. 445.1 kJ c. 11.1 J b. 405.1 kJ d. 11.1 kJ ____ 195. When 10 g of diethyl ether is converted to vapor at its boiling point, about how much heat is absorbed? (C H O, H = 15.7 kJ/mol, boiling point: 34.6 C) a. 2 kJ c. 0.2 kJ b. 2 J d. Not enough information is given. ____ 196. Hess's law ____. a. makes it possible to calculate H for complicated chemical reactions b. states that when you reverse a chemical equation, you must change the sign of H c. determines the way a calorimeter works d. describes the vaporization of solids ____ 197. Using a table that lists standard heats of formation, you can calculate the change in enthalpy for a given chemical reaction. The change in enthalpy is equal to ____. a. H of products minus H of reactants b. H of products plus H of reactants c. H of reactants minus H of products d. H of products divided by H of reactants ____ 198. The amount of heat involved in the synthesis of 1 mole of a compound from its elements, with all substances in their standard states at 25 C, is called ____. a. enthalpy c. standard heat of formation b. heat of reaction d. heat of solidification ____ 199. The symbol H stands for the ____. a. specific heat of a substance b. heat capacity of a substance c. heat of reaction for a chemical reaction d. standard heat of formation for a compound ____ 200. H for the formation of rust (Fe O ) is –826 kJ/mol. How much energy is involved in the formation of 5 grams of rust? a. 25.9 kJ c. 66 kJ b. 25.9 J d. 66 J ____ 201. Calculate H for the reaction of sulfur dioxide with oxygen. 2SO (g) + O (g) 2SO (g) ( H SO (g) = –296.8 kJ/mol; H SO (g) = –395.7 kJ/mol) a. –98.9 kJ c. 197.8 kJ b. –197.8 kJ d. Not enough information is given. ____ 202. How many valence electrons does a carbon atom have? a. 1 c. 3 b. 2 d. 4 ____ 203. How many covalent bonds can each carbon atom form? a. 1 c. 3 b. 2 d. 4 ____ 204. How many double covalent bonds are in an alkane? a. 0 c. 2 b. 1 d. 3 ____ 205. Alkanes are hydrocarbons that contain what type of bonds? a. single covalent bonds only c. at least one triple bond b. at least one double bond d. ionic bonds ____ 206. What is the simplest alkane? a. butane c. methane b. ethane d. pentane ____ 207. How many carbons are in a molecule of hexane? a. 3 c. 5 b. 4 d. 6 ____ 208. What is the simplest straight-chain alkane? a. graphite c. methane b. ammonia d. ethane ____ 209. The names of the straight-chain alkanes all end with the suffix ____. a. -ene c. -ane b. -ine d. -ino ____ 210. The longest continuous carbon chain of a branched-chain hydrocarbon is called a(n) ____. a. isomer c. principle alkane b. substituted alkane d. parent alkane ____ 211. What is the physical state of the smallest alkanes at room temperature? a. gas c. solid b. liquid d. gas or liquid ____ 212. What is the increment of change in a series of straight-chain alkanes? a. CH c. CH b. CH d. CH ____ 213. What is the condensed structural formula for 2,2-dimethylbutane? a. CH (CH ) CH c. (CH ) CCH CH b. CH CH CH CH CH d. C H (CH ) ____ 214. What is the name of the compound CH CH(CH )C(CH ) ? a. 2,2,3-trimethylbutane c. 1,1,1,2-tetramethylpropane b. tetramethylpropane d. isoheptane ____ 215. The condensed structural formula for 2,2,3-trimethylbutane is ____. a. CH CH (CH )CH(CH ) c. CH C(CH ) CH(CH ) b. CH C(CH ) C(CH ) d. CH CH CH(CH )C(CH ) ____ 216. In which of the following liquids is hexane most likely to dissolve? a. aqueous ammonium hydroxide c. rubbing alcohol b. vinegar d. octane ____ 217. Which of the following compounds is an unsaturated hydrocarbon? a. methane c. nonane b. propyne d. methyl ____ 218. A saturated straight-chain hydrocarbon with two carbons is ____. a. ethene c. propane b. decane d. ethane ____ 219. The general name for hydrocarbons with at least one triple covalent bond is ____. a. alkenes c. alkanes b. alkyls d. alkynes ____ 220. What is the name of the smallest alkyne? a. butyne c. methyne b. ethyne d. propyne ____ 221. An organic compound that contains only carbon and hydrogen and at least one carbon-carbon triple bond is classified as an ____. a. alkane c. alkyne b. alkene d. arene ____ 222. Which of the following compounds is a structural isomer of butane? a. 2-methylbutane c. 2-methylpropane b. 2,2-dimethylbutane d. 2,2-diethylpropane ____ 223. Which of the following is true about structural isomers? a. Structural isomers have the same molecular formula. b. Structural isomers have different physical and chemical properties. c. Structural isomers have the same elemental composition. d. all of the above ____ 224. A structural isomer of hexane is ____. a. 2,2-dimethylbutane c. benzene b. cyclohexane d. 2-methylpentene ____ 225. How many different atoms or groups are attached to an asymmetric carbon? a. 2 c. 6 b. 4 d. 8 ____ 226. Hydrocarbons containing a saturated carbon ring are called ____. a. cyclic hydrocarbons c. aliphatic hydrocarbons b. aromatic hydrocarbons d. alkylated hydrocarbons ____ 227. Which hydrocarbon rings are most common in nature? a. rings with 3 or 4 carbon atoms c. rings with 5 or 6 carbon atoms b. rings with 4 or 5 carbon atoms d. rings with 6 or 7 carbon atoms ____ 228. What compound is the simplest aromatic compound? a. methane c. ethyne b. ethene d. benzene ____ 229. Which of the following molecules does NOT display resonance? a. benzene c. m-xylene b. phenylethane d. cyclohexane ____ 230. What is the main hydrocarbon component of natural gas? a. benzene c. ethene b. ethane d. methane ____ 231. The controlled process by which hydrocarbons are broken down or rearranged into smaller, more useful molecules is called ____. a. vaporizing c. distillation b. cracking d. fractionating ____ 232. What is the first step in the refining of petroleum? a. cracking c. cooling b. drilling d. distillation ____ 233. Which of the following is NOT a product obtained from the distillation of coal tar? a. benzene c. coke b. phenol d. toluene ____ 234. What is the name of the functional group in the following compound?

a. halogen c. carbonyl b. ester d. carboxylic acid ____ 235. The most important way to classify organic compounds is by ____. a. the number of carbon atoms in the longest chain b. functional group c. the type of carbon—carbon bonds d. reactivity ____ 236. Which of the following compounds is trichloromethane? a. c.

b. d.

____ 237. What type of compound is CH OCH CH CH ? a. alcohol c. ether b. aldehyde d. ketone ____ 238. The functional group in CH OCH CH CH CH is a(n) ____. a. ester c. carbonyl b. ether d. carboxyl ____ 239. Which carbon skeleton represents an ether? a. c. CCCOCCC

b. d. none of the above

____ 240. What type of compound is the following? a. alcohol c. ether b. aldehyde d. ketone ____ 241. Which carbon skeleton represents an aldehyde? a. c.

b. d. none of the above

____ 242. Which carbon skeleton represents a ketone? a. c.

b. d.

____ 243. Aldehydes have the general structure ______. a. c.

b. d.

____ 244. A ketone has the general structure ______. a. c. ROR

b. d.

____ 245. Which carbon skeleton contains a carboxyl group? a. c. CCCO b. d.

____ 246. Which of the following carbon skeletons represents a carboxylic acid? a. c. CCCCCO

b. d.

____ 247. Which of the following compounds is known as acetic acid? a. c.

b. d. CH —CH OH

____ 248. Which carbon skeleton represents an ester? a. c. CCCCCOCC

b. d.

____ 249. What type of chemical bond links the monomers in a polymer? a. ionic bond c. metallic bond b. hydrogen bond d. covalent bond ____ 250. What happens in a condensation reaction? a. head-to-tail joining of monomers b. side-by-side joining of monomers c. cross-linking of monomers d. substitution of a halogen on monomers Final Exam Review- Quarter 4 Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 413 | p. 414 OBJ: 14.1.1 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 2. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 415 OBJ: 14.1.2 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 3. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 416 OBJ: 14.1.2 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 4. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 416 OBJ: 14.1.2 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 5. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 416 OBJ: 14.1.2 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 6. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 416 OBJ: 14.1.2 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 7. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 417 OBJ: 14.1.2 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 8. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 417 OBJ: 14.1.2 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 9. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 415 OBJ: 14.1.2 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 10. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 416 OBJ: 14.1.2 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 11. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 415 | p. 416 | p. 417 OBJ: 14.1.2 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 12. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 417 OBJ: 14.2.1 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 13. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 418 OBJ: 14.2.1 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 14. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 418 OBJ: 14.2.1 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 15. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 418 OBJ: 14.2.1 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 16. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 418 OBJ: 14.2.1 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 17. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 420 OBJ: 14.2.1 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 18. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 420 OBJ: 14.2.1 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 19. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 421 OBJ: 14.2.1 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 20. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 422 OBJ: 14.2.1 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 21. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 422 OBJ: 14.2.1 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 22. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 422 OBJ: 14.2.1 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 23. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 420 OBJ: 14.2.1 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 24. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 416 OBJ: 14.2.1 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 25. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 419 OBJ: 14.2.1 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 26. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 420 OBJ: 14.2.1 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 27. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 421 OBJ: 14.2.1 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 28. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 422 OBJ: 14.2.1 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 29. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 424 OBJ: 14.2.2 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 30. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 419 OBJ: 14.2.2 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 31. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 426 OBJ: 14.3.1 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 32. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 426 OBJ: 14.3.1 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 33. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 426 OBJ: 14.3.1 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 34. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 426 OBJ: 14.3.1 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 35. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 429 OBJ: 14.3.1 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 36. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 428 OBJ: 14.3.2 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 37. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 428 OBJ: 14.3.2 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 38. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 428 OBJ: 14.3.2 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 39. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 428 OBJ: 14.3.2 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 40. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 433 OBJ: 14.4.1 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 41. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 422 | p. 432 OBJ: 14.2.1 | 14.4.1 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 42. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 433 OBJ: 14.4.1 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 43. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 433 OBJ: 14.4.1 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 44. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 434 OBJ: 14.4.1 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 45. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 434 OBJ: 14.4.1 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 46. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 434 OBJ: 14.4.1 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 47. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 426 OBJ: 14.4.1 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 48. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 435 OBJ: 14.4.2 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 49. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 436 OBJ: 14.4.2 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 50. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 436 OBJ: 14.4.2 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 51. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 436 OBJ: 14.4.2 STA: 3.4.10.A.3 52. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 447 OBJ: 15.1.1 53. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 447 OBJ: 15.1.1 54. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 446 OBJ: 15.1.1 55. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 446 OBJ: 15.1.1 56. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 446 OBJ: 15.1.1 57. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 446 OBJ: 15.1.1 58. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 446 | p. 447 OBJ: 15.1.1 59. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 447 OBJ: 15.1.1 60. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 447 OBJ: 15.1.1 61. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L3 REF: p. 446 OBJ: 15.1.1 62. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 449 OBJ: 15.1.2 63. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 448 | p. 449 OBJ: 15.1.2 64. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L3 REF: p. 449 OBJ: 15.1.2 65. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 450 OBJ: 15.2.1 66. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 450 OBJ: 15.2.1 67. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 451 OBJ: 15.2.2 68. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 451 OBJ: 15.2.2 69. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 451 OBJ: 15.2.2 70. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L3 REF: p. 450 OBJ: 15.2.2 71. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L3 REF: p. 451 OBJ: 15.2.2 72. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L3 REF: p. 451 OBJ: 15.2.2 73. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L3 REF: p. 451 OBJ: 15.2.2 74. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L3 REF: p. 451 | p. 453 OBJ: 15.2.2 75. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 452 OBJ: 15.2.3 76. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 452 | p. 453 OBJ: 15.2.3 77. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 452 OBJ: 15.2.3 78. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 452 OBJ: 15.2.3 79. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 453 OBJ: 15.2.3 80. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 453 OBJ: 15.2.3 81. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 453 OBJ: 15.2.3 82. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 453 OBJ: 15.2.3 83. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 452 | p. 453 OBJ: 15.2.3 84. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L3 REF: p. 452 | p. 453 OBJ: 15.2.3 85. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 455 OBJ: 15.2.4 86. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 454 OBJ: 15.2.4 87. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 454 OBJ: 15.2.4 88. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 454 OBJ: 15.2.4 89. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 455 OBJ: 15.2.4 90. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 455 OBJ: 15.2.4 91. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 459 OBJ: 15.3.1 92. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 459 | p. 460 OBJ: 15.3.1 | 15.3.2 93. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 460 OBJ: 15.3.2 94. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 460 OBJ: 15.3.2 95. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 462 OBJ: 15.3.2 96. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 459 | p. 460 OBJ: 15.3.2 97. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 460 OBJ: 15.3.2 98. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 461 OBJ: 15.3.1 | 15.3.2 99. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 450 | p. 459 | p. 460 | p. 461 OBJ: 15.3.1 | 15.3.2 100. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 462 OBJ: 15.3.2 101. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 462 OBJ: 15.3.2 102. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L3 REF: p. 461 OBJ: 15.3.2 103. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 471 | p. 472 OBJ: 16.1.1 104. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 473 OBJ: 16.1.2 105. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 473 OBJ: 16.1.2 106. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 473 OBJ: 16.1.2 107. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 473 | p. 474 OBJ: 16.1.3 108. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 474 OBJ: 16.1.3 109. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 475 OBJ: 16.1.3 110. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 474 OBJ: 16.1.3 111. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 476 OBJ: 16.1.3 112. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L3 REF: p. 474 OBJ: 16.1.3 113. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 476 | p. 477 OBJ: 16.1.3 114. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 476 | p. 477 OBJ: 16.1.3 115. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L3 REF: p. 476 | p. 477 OBJ: 16.1.3 116. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 480 OBJ: 16.2.1 STA: 3.4.12.A.8 117. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 481 OBJ: 16.2.1 STA: 3.4.12.A.8 118. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 480 | p. 481 OBJ: 16.2.1 STA: 3.4.12.A.8 119. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 480 OBJ: 16.2.1 STA: 3.4.12.A.8 120. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 480 | p. 481 OBJ: 16.2.1 STA: 3.4.12.A.8 121. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 481 OBJ: 16.2.1 STA: 3.4.12.A.8 122. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 480 | p. 482 OBJ: 16.2.1 STA: 3.4.12.A.8 123. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L3 REF: p. 481 OBJ: 16.2.1 STA: 3.4.12.A.8 124. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L3 REF: p. 481 | p. 482 OBJ: 16.2.1 STA: 3.4.12.A.8 125. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L3 REF: p. 481 | p. 482 OBJ: 16.2.1 STA: 3.4.12.A.8 126. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 483 OBJ: 16.2.2 STA: 3.4.12.A.8 127. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 483 | p. 484 OBJ: 16.2.2 128. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 483 | p. 484 OBJ: 16.2.2 129. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 483 | p. 484 OBJ: 16.2.2 130. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L3 REF: p. 483 | p. 484 OBJ: 16.2.2 131. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 485 OBJ: 16.2.3 132. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 485 OBJ: 16.2.3 133. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 486 OBJ: 16.2.3 134. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 485 OBJ: 16.2.3 135. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 485 OBJ: 16.2.3 136. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 485 OBJ: 16.2.3 137. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 487 OBJ: 16.3.1 138. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 487 | p. 488 OBJ: 16.3.1 139. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 488 OBJ: 16.3.2 140. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 491 OBJ: 16.4.1 STA: 3.4.12.A.8 141. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 491 OBJ: 16.4.1 STA: 3.4.12.A.8 142. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 492 OBJ: 16.4.1 STA: 3.4.12.A.8 143. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 491 OBJ: 16.4.1 STA: 3.4.12.A.8 144. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L3 REF: p. 491 | p. 492 OBJ: 16.4.1 STA: 3.4.12.A.8 145. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 494 OBJ: 16.4.2 STA: 3.4.12.A.8 146. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 494 | p. 495 OBJ: 16.4.1 | 16.4.2 STA: 3.4.12.A.8 147. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 495 OBJ: 16.4.2 148. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L3 REF: p. 494 | p. 496 OBJ: 16.4.2 149. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L3 REF: p. 494 | p. 495 OBJ: 16.4.2 150. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L3 REF: p. 495 | p. 496 OBJ: 16.4.2 151. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L3 REF: p. 491 | p. 494 | p. 496 OBJ: 16.4.2 152. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 505 OBJ: 17.1.1 153. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 506 OBJ: 17.1.1 154. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 506 OBJ: 17.1.1 STA: 3.4.12.B.1 155. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 506 OBJ: 17.1.1 STA: 3.4.12.B.1 156. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 505 OBJ: 17.1.1 157. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 506 OBJ: 17.1.1 STA: 3.1.10.E.1 158. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 506 OBJ: 17.1.1 STA: 3.4.12.B.1 159. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 506 OBJ: 17.1.1 160. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 506 OBJ: 17.1.1 STA: 3.4.12.B.1 161. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 506 OBJ: 17.1.2 STA: 3.4.12.B.1 162. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 507 OBJ: 17.1.2 STA: 3.4.12.B.1 163. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 507 OBJ: 17.1.2 STA: 3.4.12.B.4 164. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 507 OBJ: 17.1.2 STA: 3.4.12.B.4 165. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 507 OBJ: 17.1.3 166. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 508 OBJ: 17.1.3 STA: 3.4.12.B.4 167. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 509 | p. 510 OBJ: 17.1.3 STA: 3.4.12.B.4 168. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 508 OBJ: 17.1.3 STA: 3.4.12.B.4 169. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 508 OBJ: 17.1.3 STA: 3.4.12.B.4 170. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 508 OBJ: 17.1.3 171. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 509 OBJ: 17.1.3 STA: 3.4.12.B.4 172. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 509 | p. 510 OBJ: 17.1.3 STA: 3.4.12.B.4 173. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 509 | p. 510 OBJ: 17.1.3 STA: 3.4.12.B.4 174. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 508 OBJ: 17.1.3 STA: 3.4.12.B.4 175. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 509 | p. 510 OBJ: 17.1.3 STA: 3.4.12.B.4 176. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 509 | p. 510 OBJ: 17.1.3 | 17.1.4 STA: 3.4.12.B.4 177. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 512 OBJ: 17.2.1 STA: 3.4.12.B.4 178. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 514 OBJ: 17.2.1 STA: 3.4.12.B.1 179. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 514 OBJ: 17.2.1 180. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 511 OBJ: 17.2.1 STA: 3.4.12.B.4 181. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 511 OBJ: 17.2.1 182. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 512 OBJ: 17.2.1 STA: 3.4.12.B.4 183. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 512 OBJ: 17.2.1 184. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 517 OBJ: 17.2.2 STA: 3.4.12.B.4 185. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 515 OBJ: 17.2.2 | 17.2.3 STA: 3.4.12.B.4 186. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 516 OBJ: 17.2.2 STA: 3.4.12.B.1 187. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 516 OBJ: 17.2.2 | 17.2.3 STA: 3.4.12.B.1 188. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 516 OBJ: 17.2.2 | 17.2.3 STA: 3.4.12.B.4 189. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 520 OBJ: 17.3.1 190. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 520 OBJ: 17.3.1 STA: 3.4.10.A.4 191. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 521 OBJ: 17.3.1 STA: 3.4.12.B.4 192. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 525 OBJ: 17.3.2 193. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 525 OBJ: 17.3.2 194. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 526 OBJ: 17.3.2 195. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 524 OBJ: 17.3.2 196. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 527 OBJ: 17.4.1 197. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 530 OBJ: 17.4.2 | 17.2.3 198. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 530 OBJ: 17.4.2 STA: 3.4.12.B.4 199. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 530 OBJ: 17.4.2 200. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 531 OBJ: 17.4.2 201. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 531 OBJ: 17.4.2 STA: 3.4.12.B.1 202. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 694 OBJ: 22.1.1 STA: 3.4.10.A.9 203. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 694 OBJ: 22.1.1 STA: 3.4.10.A.9 204. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 694 OBJ: 22.1.2 205. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 694 OBJ: 22.1.2 206. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 694 OBJ: 22.1.2 207. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 695 OBJ: 22.1.2 STA: 3.4.12.A.1 208. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 695 OBJ: 22.1.2 STA: 3.4.12.A.1 209. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 696 OBJ: 22.1.2 STA: 3.4.12.A.1 210. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 697 OBJ: 22.1.2 STA: 3.4.12.A.1 211. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 695 OBJ: 22.1.2 STA: 3.4.10.A.5 212. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 695 OBJ: 22.1.2 STA: 3.4.12.A.1 213. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 696 | p. 698 OBJ: 22.1.2 STA: 3.4.12.A.1 214. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 698 OBJ: 22.1.2 STA: 3.4.12.A.1 215. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 698 OBJ: 22.1.2 STA: 3.4.12.A.1 216. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 700 OBJ: 22.1.3 STA: 3.4.10.A.5 217. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 703 OBJ: 22.2.1 218. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 695 OBJ: 22.1.2 | 22.2.2 STA: 3.4.12.A.1 219. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 702 OBJ: 22.2.2 STA: 3.4.12.A.1 220. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 703 OBJ: 22.2.2 STA: 3.4.12.A.1 221. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 703 OBJ: 22.2.2 222. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 704 OBJ: 22.3.1 223. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 704 OBJ: 22.3.1 224. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 704 OBJ: 22.3.1 225. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 705 OBJ: 22.3.3 STA: 3.4.10.A.9 226. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 709 OBJ: 22.4.1 STA: 3.4.12.A.1 227. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 709 OBJ: 22.4.1 228. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 710 OBJ: 22.4.2 229. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 710 OBJ: 22.4.2 230. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 712 OBJ: 22.5.2 231. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 713 OBJ: 22.5.3 232. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 713 OBJ: 22.5.3 233. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 715 OBJ: 22.5.3 234. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 726 OBJ: 23.1.1 STA: 3.4.12.A.1 235. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 725 OBJ: 23.1.1 STA: 3.4.12.A.1 236. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 728 OBJ: 23.1.3 STA: 3.4.12.A.1 237. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 735 OBJ: 23.2.4 STA: 3.4.12.A.1 238. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 735 OBJ: 23.2.4 STA: 3.4.12.A.1 239. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 735 OBJ: 23.2.4 STA: 3.4.12.A.1 240. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 737 OBJ: 23.3.1 STA: 3.4.12.A.1 241. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 737 OBJ: 23.3.1 STA: 3.4.12.A.1 242. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 737 OBJ: 23.3.1 STA: 3.4.12.A.1 243. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 737 OBJ: 23.3.1 STA: 3.4.12.A.1 244. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 737 OBJ: 23.3.1 STA: 3.4.12.A.1 245. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 740 OBJ: 23.3.2 STA: 3.4.12.A.1 246. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 740 OBJ: 23.3.2 STA: 3.4.12.A.1 247. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 740 OBJ: 23.3.2 STA: 3.4.12.A.1 248. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 741 OBJ: 23.3.3 STA: 3.4.12.A.1 249. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 747 OBJ: 23.4.1 250. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 750 OBJ: 23.4.2 STA: 3.4.10.A.7