MINISTRY OF THE PUBLIC HEALTH OF UKRAINE

ZAPOROZHYE STATE MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

Department of medical , parasitology and

Training center of foreign citizens

Prykhodko O.B., Popovich A.P., Yemets T.I., Maleeva A.Y.,

Gavrilenko K.V., Andreieva O.O., Valchuk T.S.

MEDICAL BIOLOGY

TESTS ITEMS

for the first year training students

of the medical faculty

ZAPORIZHIA 2018

UDC 575(075.8) P85 Ratified on meeting of the Central methodical committee of Zaporizhzhia State Medical University and it is recommended for the use in educational process for foreign students (protocol N ___ from ______)

This text book is composed by:

Head of Department of Medical Biology, Doctor of Biological Sciences O.B. Prikhodko Associate Professor of the Department of Medical Biology A.P. Popovich

Associate Professor of the Department of Language Training of Foreign Citizens and General Theoretical Disciplines T.I. Yemets

Senior Lecturer of the Department of Medical Biology A.Y. Maleeva

Assistant of the Department of Medical Biology K.V. Gavrilenko

Assistant of the Department of Medical Biology O.O. Andreieva

Assistant of the Department of Medical Biology T.S. Valchuk

Reviewers:

Head of Histology, Cytology and Embryology Department Zaporozhye State Medical University, Doctor of Medical Sciences Syrtsow V.K.

Head of Microbiology, Virology and Immunology Department Zaporozhye State Medical University, Doctor of Medical Sciences Kamyshny O.M.

Medical biology: test items for licensing examination Krok 1 for the first year training students of the medical faculty / comp.: O.B. Prikhodko, A.P. Popovich, T.I. Yemets, A.Y. Maleeva, Gavrilenko K.V., Andreieva O.O., Valchuk T.S. – Zaporizhia : ZSMU, 2018. – 79 p.

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MOLECULAR AND CELLULAR LEVELS ORGANIZATION OF LIFE. GENETICS

1. Oval and round organelles D. Granular endoplasmatic with double wall are seen at reticulum the electron micrograph. The E. Lysosomes outer membrane is smooth, the 4. Golgi complex exports inner membrane folded into substances from a cell due to cristae contain enzyme the fusion of the membrane ATPase synthetase. These are: saccule with the cell A. Mitochondria membrane. The saccule B. Golgi complex contents flows out. What C. Lysosomes process is it? D. Centrioles A. Endocytosis E. Ribosomes B. Exocytosis 2. A tissue sample of benign C. Active transport tumor was studied under the D. Facilitated diffusion electron microscope. A lot of E. All answers are false small (15-20 nm) spherical 5. Labelled amino acids alanine bodies, consisting of 2 and tryptophane were injected unequal subunits were to a mouse in order to study detected. These are: localization of protein A. Golgi complex synthesis in its cells. The B. Smooth endoplasmic labelled amino acids will be reticulum accumulated near the C. Ribosomes following organellas: D. Microtubules A. Smooth endoplasmic E. Mitochondria reticulum 3. Low level of albumins and B. Ribosomes fibri nogen was detected in the C. Cell centre patient’s blood. Decreased D. Lysosomes activity of what organelle of E. Golgi apparatus the liver hepatocytes can most 6. The organisms to be identified probably cause it? have a nucleus surrounded by A. Agranular endoplasmatic a nuclear membrane. Genetic reticulum material is concentrated B. Mitochondrions predominantly in the C. Golgi complex chromosomes which consist of 3

DNA strands and protein D. Passive transport, osmosis, molecules. These cells divide simple diffusion, facilitated mitotically. Identify these diffusion, active transport organisms: E. Endocytosis, active transport, A. Eukaryotes active transport, facilitated B. Bacteriophages diffusion, exocytosis C. Prokaryotes 9. Facilitated diffusion requires: D. Viruses A. A concentration gradient E. Bacteria B. Energy 7. Which of the following C. A membrane transport protein processes does a cell use to D. A membrane transport protein take up molecules against their and a concentration gradient concentration gradient? E. Special condition around the A. Simple diffusion cell B. Active transport 10. Which of the following C. Facilitated diffusion transport processes require(s) D. Endocytosis energy? E. Osmosis A. Osmosis 8. Of the following list of B. Facilitated diffusion substances that can enter a C. Facilitated diffusion and cell, match the order with the osmosis correct mechanism by which D. Facilitated diffusion, osmosis, they would enter cells: and endocytosis oxygen, water, sodium ions, E. Endocytosis potassium ions, and bacterium 11. Many metabolic poisons work (Note that sodium ions are by inhibiting ATP production. more concentrated outside Which type of transport would cells than inside; potassium be most affected? ions are more concentrated A. Active transport inside cells than outside): B. Facilitated diffusion A. Simple diffusion, osmosis, C. Osmosis facilitated diffusion, active D. Simple diffusion transport, endocytosis E. All types of transport B. Simple diffusion, osmosis, 12. The active transport through facilitated diffusion, active the membrane is: transport, exocytosis A. Transport of substances with C. Osmosis, simple diffusion, using of energy against a facilitated diffusion, active gradient of concentration transport, endocytosis 4

B. Transport of substances with A. Synthesis in the nucleus using of energy by gradient of B. Lipids synthesis concentration C. Synthesis of proteins C. Transport of substances without D. Synthesis of ATP of energy usage against a E. Synthesis in the cell gradient of concentration 16. Structure of cellular D. Transport of substances without membrane is: expense of energy usage by A. Friable, albuminous gradient of concentration B. Rigid, cellulose E. Diffusion C. Rigid, chitinous 13. Why do erythrocytes swell D. Fluid-mosaic and burst when placed pin E. Elastic, silicone water? 17. Name the place of the ATP A. Since water concentration is synthesis: higher outside the cell, water A. Lysosomes moves inward by passive B. Mitochondria diffusion C. Golgi complex B. Since hemoglobin D. Peroxisomes concentration is higher inside E. Plastids the cell, hemoglobin moves 18. The function of the outward by exocytosis compartmentalization of C. Since potassium ions are more membranes means the: concentrated inside the cells, A. Partition of the cell by sites potassium ions move outward with different metabolic by osmosis activity D. Erythrocytes pump water B. Partition of the cell by inward by active transport to cytoskeletons balance osmotic gradients C. Partition of the cell into sites E. Water is a universal solvent and with different organelles simply dissolves the D. Partition of the cell by Golgi erythrocyte membranes complex 14. The basic structural E. Partition of the cell by component of membranes is: endoplasmatic reticulum A. Proteins 19. Between two layers of a B. Phospholipids membrane are present: C. Polysaccharides A. Covalent bonds D. Glycoprotein B. Hydrophobic interactions E. Corticoids C. Ionic interactions 15. Dissimilation is: D. Hydrogen bonds 5

E. Protein bonds D. It is a region of a parent DNA 20. Assimilation in general is: strand that binds to the RNA A. Synthesis of substances in the polymerase and initiates cell transcription B. Synthesis of proteins E. It is the region of an intrones C. Synthesis of ATP 24. The sequences of three D. Synthesis in the nucleus nitrogenous bases that initiate E. Lipids synthesis or stops translation or specify 21. At the aboratory experiment a particular amino acid in the eukocyte culture was DNA translation are named: mixed with staphylococci. A. Polymerase Neutrophile leukocytes B. DNA engulfed and digested C. Cells bacterial cells. This processes D. Codon are termed: E. Cystron A. Pinocytosis 25. Three codons tell protein B. Phagocytosis synthesis to cease. They are C. Diffusion named: D. Facilitated diffusion A. Silent E. Osmosis B. Stop 22. What is the function of the C. Anticodons regulator gene? D. Start A. Commences the transcription E. Unit B. Switches on the structural 26. A gene: genes A. Is synonymous with a C. Codes the synthesis of a chromosome repressor protein B. Is composed of mRNA D. It joins the repressor protein C. Contains only those nucleotides E. Joins the operator and block the required to synthesize a protein transcription D. Is a specific segment of 23. What is the promoter region? nucleotides in DNA A. It is a region of RNA that binds E. Specifies the sequence of to the RNA polymerase and nutrients required by the body initiates transcription 27. A DNA strand has the B. It is a component of each type sequence A-C-A-G-C-C-G-T- of RNA A. What would be its C. It is responsible for the complementary strand? selective nature of transcription A. A-C-A-G-C-C-G-T-A B. U-G-U-C-G-G-C-A-U 6

C. G-T-G-A-T-T-A-C-G C. Centrosome D. T-A-G-C-C-G-A-C-A D. Histosome E. T-G-T-C-G-G-C-A-T E. Chromosome 28. How much amino acids are 32. Which of the following is an coded by gene with 600 accurate statement concerning nucleotides in both strands? the differences between DNA A. 300 and RNA? B. 600 A. RNA is usually double- C. 200 stranded, but DNA is usually D. 100 single-stranded E. 1800 B. RNA has the sugar 29. In genetic code one amino deoxyribose, but DNA has the acid often has more than one sugar ribose code triplet. Such C. RNA lacks the base thymine characteristic is named: (which is found in DNA) and A. Degeneracy has uracil instead B. Colinearity D. RNA contains three different C. Universality nucleotides, but DNA contains D. No overlapping four different nucleotides E. No punctuation E. DNA and RNA have the same 30. A section of chromosomes structure that codes for a trait can be 33. Information in DNA is carried called a(n): in: A. Gene A. The sugar-phosphate backbone B. Nucleotide of one DNA strand C. Base-pair B. The base pairs between D. Nucleus nucleotides in the two DNA E. Nucleosome strands 31. The unit within the nucleus C. The proteins that bind to the that contains a protein DNA double helix complex (located at the center D. The order of the nucleotide of the unit) of two H2A, H2B, bases in one DNA strand H3 and H4 histone proteins E. The order of the amino acids with DNA wrapped around the 34. Which of the following complex in two turns, each statements about the functions turn consisting of about 80 of RNA is correct? base pairs is called a: A. rRNA is an important A. Nucleosome component of ribosomes B. Ribosome 7

B. The information for protein contains the information for synthesis is carried by tRNA assembly of a specific protein? C. rRNA is an intermediate in the A. Transfer RNA synthesis of mRNA B. Messenger RNA D. Translation requires tRNA and C. Exon DNA mRNA, but not rRNA D. Intron DNA E. tRNA and mRNA are the E. Ribosomal RNA components of the ribosome 39. DNA: structure A. Takes part directly in protein 35. mRNA complementary to synthesis by leaving the DNA is produced via: nucleus and being translated on A. Replication the ribosome B. Translation B. Has nothing to do with protein C. Protein synthesis synthesis; it is involved only in D. Reparation cell division E. Transcription C. Takes part indirectly in protein 36. Since DNA is in the nucleus, synthesis; the DNA itself stays and protein synthesis takes in the nucleus place in the cytoplasm, there D. Is involved in protein synthesis must be an intermediary that within the nucleus carries the DNA's message to E. Codes for mRNA but not for the cytoplasm. This tRNA or rRNA intermediary is called: 40. Anticodon is the term applied A. tRNA to: B. mRNA A. The list of amino acids that C. rRNA corresponds to the genetic code D. ER B. The concept that multiple E. ATP codons sometimes code for a 37. Which of this is the type of single amino acid RNA that carries a specific C. The several three-nucleotide amino acid to the ribosome? stretches that code for "stop" A. tRNA D. The part of the tRNA that binds B. mRNA to an amino acid C. rRNA E. The part of the tRNA that D. DNA interacts with the codon E. iRNA 41. The physical or chemical 38. Which of the following is a factor damaged DNA. The single-stranded molecule that process of DNA correction is named: 8

A. Reparation 45. An experiment proved that B. Transduction UV irradiated skin cells of C. Transcription patients with xeroderma D. Translation pigmentosum restore the E. Transformation native structure of DNA 42. How many hydrogen bonds slower than the cells of are between C and G in the healthy people due to the DNA? defect in repair enzyme. What A. 1 enzyme takes part in this B. 2 process? C. 3 A. RNA ligase D. 0 B. Endonuclease E. 4 C. Primase 43. The structure of the nucleotide D. DNA polymerase in RNA includes: E. DNA gyrase A. A nitrogenous bases- 46. A gene contains 10 exons and deoxyribose-phosphoric acid 7 introns. The m-RNA which B. A nitrogenous bases-lactose- is synthesized on the template phosphoric acid of DNA after the maturation C. A nitrogenous bases-ribose- will have the following phosphoric acid structure: D. A nitrogenous bases-glucose- A. 7 introns organic acid B. 1 exone and 1 introne E. A nitrogenous bases-ribose- C. 10 exons hydrochloric acid D. 17 exones 44. On an electron micrograph a E. 10 exons and 7 introns scientist has identified a 47. The flow of genetic structure formed by eight information in cells depends histone proteins and a part of on specific base pairing DNA molecule which makes between nucleotides. Which of about 1,75 revolutions around the following correctly the molecules. Which matches the type of base structure has been identified? pairing with the process of A. Nucleosoma translation? B. Elemetary fibril A. In translation, RNA base-pairs C. Half-chromatid with DNA D. Chromatid B. In translation, rRNA base-pairs E. Chromosome with DNA

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C. In translation, tRNA base-pairs B. Termination of chain with rRNA elongation D. In translation, tRNA base-pairs C. Formation of a peptide bond with mRNA between adjacent amino acids E. In translation, RNA base-pairs D. Initiation of translation whith precussor RNA E. Termination tRNA molecule 48. How does the sequence of a 51. Interrupted coding sequences strand of DNA correspond to include long sequences of the amino acid sequence of a bases that do not code for protein? This concept is amino acids. These noncoding explained by the central sequences, called dogma of molecular biology ______, are found in which states that : ______cells: A. DNA is replicated and sections A. Exons; prokaryotic of the replication are used to B. Introns; prokaryotic make protein C. Exons; eukaryotic B. DNA is used to make RNA D. Introns; eukaryotic which is used to make protein E. None of the above C. Protein is manufactured directly 52. The repressor is a: from DNA without any A. Protein molecule intermediate B. DNA molecule D. DNA is used to make only C. Lipid molecule enzymes D. RNA molecule E. None of the above E. Carbohydrate 49. Which of the following are 53. What would be the effect of a directly involved in the mutation in the operator that production of the mature blocked the repressor binding? mRNA from its precursor A. The genes would not be (primary transcript)? expressed A. DNA ligase B. The genes would be repressed B. Small nuclear by lactose ribonucleoprotein particles C. The genes would be expressed C. RNA constitutively D. Site-specific recombination D. The genes would be inducible enzymes by lactose E. RNA polymerase E. None of the above 50. In all organisms, the AUG 54. Synthesis of a protein based codon codes for: on the sequence of messenger A. Termination of transcription RNA: 10

A. Is called transcription disturbance of protein B. Is catalyzed by DNA biosynthesis. What stage of polymerase protein biosynthesis will be C. Is catalyzed by RNA disturbed? polymerase A. Transcription D. Is called translation B. Translation E. Occurs in the nucleus C. Replication 55. Genes that are always D. Aminoacid activation transcribed are called: E. Termination A. Operons 59. It was proved that a molecule B. Repressor genes of immature mRNA C. Constitutive genes (precursor mRNA) contained D. Operator genes more triplets than amino acids E. Transposons found in the synthesized 56. The polypeptide consists of 52 protein. The reason for that is amino acids. How many that translation is normally codones has got mRNA which preceded by: was a matrix? A. Initiation A. 44 B. Reparation B. 52 C. Mutation C. 25 D. Processing D. 156 E. Replication E. 312 60. A patient has low rate of 57. RNA-polymerase B(II) is magnesium ions that are blocked due to amanitine necessary for affixion of poisoning (poison of ribosomes to the endoplasmic deathcup). It disturbs: reticulum. It is known that it A. Synthesis of m-RNA causes disturbance of protein B. Synthesis of t-RNA biosynthesis. At what stage is C. Reverse transcription protein biosynthesis impaired? D. Primers synthesis A. Translation E. Maturation of m-RNA B. Transcription 58. Examination of a patient C. Replication revealed reduced contents of D. Amino acid activation magnesium ions that are E. Termination necessary for attachment of 61. It was found out that some ribosomes to the granular compounds, for instance fungi endoplasmatic reticulum. It is toxins and some antibiotics known that it causes can inhibit activity of RNA- 11

polymerase. What process will polymerase. What process will be disturbed in a cell in case be disturbed in a cell in case of inhibition of this enzyme? of inhibition of this enzyme? A. Processing A. Processing B. Replication B. Replication C. Translation C. Transcription D. Transcription D. Translation E. Reparation E. Reparation 62. A patient’s organism has 65. Infectious diseases are treated decreased concentration of with antibiotics (streptomycin, magnesium ions that are erythromycin, necessary for attachment of chloramphenicol). They ribosomes to the granular inhibit the following stage of endoplasmatic reticulum. It is protein synthesis: known that this causes protein A. Translation biosynthesis disturbance. B. Transcription What stage of protein C. Replication biosynthesis will be disturbed? D. Processing A. Translation E. Splicing B. Transcription 66. At the stage of translation in C. Replication the rough endoplasmic D. Amino acid activation reticulum, the ribosome moves E. Termination along the mRNA. Aminacids 63. You are studying functioning are joined together by peptide of a bacteria operon. The bonds in a specific sequence, operator gene has been and thus polypeptide synthesis released from the repressor takes place. The sequence of gene. Immediately after this amino acids in a polypeptide the following process will start corresponds to the sequence in the cell: of: A. Transcription A. mRNA codons B. Translation B. tRNA nucleotides C. Replication C. tRNA anticodons D. Processing D. rRNA nucleotides E. Repression E. rRNA anticodons 64. It was found out that some 67. During cell division, DNA compounds, for instance fungi replication occurs by a signal toxins and some antibiotics from the cytoplasm, and a can inhibit activity of RNA- certain portion of the DNA 12

helix unwinds and splits into A. 23, 1 two individual strains. What B. 23, 23 enzyme facilitates this C. 2, 2 process? D. 46, 2 A. RNA polymerase E. 22 pairs, 1 pair B. Ligase 72. The two components that C. Helicase make up a duplicated D. Restrictase chromosome are called E. DNA polymerase A. Homologues 68. During which stage of mitosis B. Sister chromatids does cytokinesis usually occur C. Chromatins in animals? D. Translation A. Prophase E. Karyotype B. Metaphase 73. A picture of a person's C. Anaphase chromosomes is called a(n): D. Interphase A. Syndrome E. Telophase B. Chromatin 69. A biologist is measuring the C. Fingerprint amount of DNA in cells D. Genetic card growing in the laboratory. The E. Karyotype quantity of DNA would be 74. During which phase of mitosis seen to double firstly in: is DNA replicated? A. G1 interphase A. Interphase S period B. Prophase B. Telophase C. S phase of interphase C. Prophase D. G2 phase of interphase D. Interphase G1 period E. M phase E. Metaphase 70. Which two phases of mitosis 75. During which stage of mitosis are essentially opposite with do the centromeres split? respect to changes in the A. Prophase nucleus? B. Interphase A. Prophase and telophase C. Telophase B. Prophase and interphase D. Anaphase C. Prophase and metaphase E. Synthesis stage D. Metaphase and anaphase 76. If 10 molecules of DNA are E. Metaphase and telophase present in the nucleus of a 71. A human being has _____ cell, which has just divided, autosomes and ______sex what is the relative amount chromosomes: 13

present in this cell during A. Sexual reproduction does not prophase of the next mitosis? require cell division A. 20 B. Asexual reproduction produces B. 5 offspring identical to the parent C. 10 C. Asexual reproduction cannot D. 2 occur in diploid species E. 14 D. Asexual reproduction cannot 77. Somatic cells of a human have occur in eukaryotes ____ chromosomes and are E. Sexual reproduction produces called ____: offspring identical to the parent A. 10, haploid 81. Gametogenesis is the: B. 46, diploid A. Formation of eggs by the C. 92, diploid female and sperm by the male D. 23, haploid B. Union of an egg and a sperm E. 46, haploid C. Cleavage of the embryo 78. Which of the following is not D. Menstrual cycle in the female a function of mitosis in E. None of the choices are correct humans? 82. The function of the tail of the A. Production of gametes from sperm is to: diploid cells A. Penetrate the egg B. Repair of wounds B. Contain the mitochondria C. Growth C. Regulate protein synthesis D. Replacement of dead cells D. Carry genetic information E. Replacement of damaged cells E. Move the sperm 79. During oogenesis, the egg 83. If 2n = 8, for a particular cell, grows in size by accumulating then the chromosome number ______reserves to support in egg cell after meiosis would future growth and be: development after A. 12 fertilization: B. 10 A. Yolk C. 8 B. Hormone D. 6 C. Sugar E. 4 D. Water 84. Meiosis is involved in which E. Mitochondrial of the following life cycle 80. What is the major difference events? between sexual and asexual A. Cell regeneration reproduction? B. Growth C. Spermatogenesis 14

D. The healing of wounds A. Reproduction where E. Development unfertilized eggs develop into 85. Fertilization in humans mature individuals without normally occurs in the: fertilization A. Uterus B. An asexual means of B. Outer third of the oviducts reproduction involving budding C. Vagina C. Asexual reproduction by D. Abdominal cavity between splitting or fission into several ovary and oviducts new individuals E. Ovarian follicle at time of D. Asexual but haploid by means ovulation of internal self-fertilization 86. The final product of E. Sexual reproduction by cross- spermatogenesis is four: fertilization between A. Sertoli (sustentacular) cells hermaphrodites B. Primary oocytes 90. The ______undergo the first C. Primary spermatocytes meiotic division in the D. Spermatids production of sperm: E. Spermatogonia A. Sertoli (sustentacular) cells 87. The acrosome functions to: B. Primary oocytes A. Contain enzymes that help a C. Spermatids sperm head "digest" its way D. Spermatogonia into an egg E. Primary spermatocytes B. Increase the sperm's motility 91. A sperm penetrates an egg by: C. Direct the sperm to the egg A. Melting its way in using nucleic D. Transport the chromosomes acids in its DNA into the egg B. Forward pressure of the E. Store energy for swimming to flagellum forcing it through the the egg membrane 88. During the process of C. Enzymes in the acrosome that oogenesis: dissolve the jelly coating A. Four ovum are produced D. Being wedge shaped and B. Only one ovum is produced chemically attracted to the egg C. Sperm cells are produced E. Chromosomes aligning across D. Only one polar body is the membrane and causing produced spindle fibers to form E. One ovum and one sperm are 92. In oogenesis, the sequence of produced the development of an egg is: 89. Parthenogenesis is:

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A. Ootid, primary oocyte, hereditary information carried, secondary oocyte, oogonium, they are said to be: ovum A. Somatic B. Primary oocyte, secondary B. Diploid oocyte, ootid, oogonium, ovum C. Homologous C. Oogonium, ootid, primary D. Homozygous oocyte, ovum E. Gametes D. Oogonium, primary oocyte, 96. Complete linkage results in secondary oocyte, ootid, ovum the production of only: E. Oogonium, secondary oocyte, A. Female gametes ootid, ovum B. Recombinant gametes 93. Polar bodies are best C. No crossover gametes characterized as: D. Male gametes A. Follicles that did not become E. Crossover Gametes the graafian follicle 97. Show the stage of crossing B. One haploid nucleus from the over in prophase 1: first meiotic division and one A. Pachytene haploid nucleus from the B. Leptotene second meiotic division C. Zygotene C. Two haploid nuclei from the D. Diplotene first meiotic division E. Diakinesis D. Two haploid nuclei from the 98. During which stage of meiosis second meiotic division do the homologous E. Three haploid nuclei; one from chromosomes begin to move the second division and one toward the poles? from the first that then divided A. Prophase I again to form two more B. Anaphase I 94. Exchange of segments C. Telophase I between homologous D. Anaphase II chromososmes is called: E. Telophase II A. Crossing over 99. How many chromosomes (n) B. Inversion and DNA (c) does present in C. Duplication metaphase 2 of meiosis? D. Translocation A. n2c E. Deletion B. nc 95. When two chromosomes C. 2n2c resemble each other in size, D. 2n4c shape and the kind of E. 4n4c

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100. The last stage of prophase 1 in B. Chromosome condensation meiosis is: C. Homologous chromosomes A. Pachytene pairing B. Zygotene D. Chromosome movement to C. Diakinesis poles D. Leptotene E. DNA replication E. Diplotene 105. Moving of the daughter 101. During which stage of meiosis chromatids to the poles of the do the sister chromatids begin cell is observed in the to move toward the poles? mitotically dividing cell. At A. Prophase I what stage of the mitotic cycle B. Telophase I is this cell? C. Anaphase I A. Metaphase D. Anaphase II B. Telophase E. Telophase II C. Anaphase 102. When ______D. Prophase occurs between nonsister E. Interphase chromatids of homologous, 106. While studying maximally genetic exchange between spiralized chromosomes of chromosomes provides new human karyotype the process combination of genes that are of cell division was stopped in different from either parent: the following phase: A. Cytokinesis A. Prophase B. Mitosis B. Metaphase C. Crossing-over C. Interphase D. Cell division D. Anaphase E. Centromeres splitting E. Telophase 103. During which stage of meiosis 107. Normal, actively dividing cells do tetrads line up at the of human red bone marrow are equator? analyzed. What number of A. Telophase I cells’ chromosomes is typical B. Metaphase II for G1 period? C. Anaphase II A. 46 D. Metaphase I B. 48 E. Anaphase I C. 47 104. The following events occur in D. 45 mitosis and/or meiosis. Which E. 23 event occurs only in meiosis? 108. While studying maximally A. Chromatid formation spiralized chromosomes of 17

human karyotype the process are located in the equatorial of cell division was stopped in plane of the cell. Such the following phase: situation is typical for the A. Prophase following stage of meiosis: B. Interphase A. Metaphase of the first division C. Anaphase B. Anaphase of the first division D. Telophase C. Metaphase of the second E. Metaphase division 109. Life cycle of a cell includes D. Anaphase of the second the process of DNA division autoreduplication. As a result E. Prophase of the first division of it monochromatid 112. In both mitosis and meiosis, chromosomes turn into sister chromatids seperate bichromatid ones. What period during anaphase, but there are of cell cycle does this _____ haploid daughter nuclei phenomenon fall into? produced by meiosis A. S compared to ______diploid B. Go nuclei by mitosis: C. G1 A. 4,2 D. G2 B. 6,3, E. M C. 2,4 110. A specimen of an onion D. 3,6 rootlet includes a cell in which E. 9,1 the fully condensed 113. An animal has 40 chromosomes are located in chromosomes in its gametes, the equatorial plane making how many chromosomes the monaster. What phase of would you expect to find in the mitotic cycle is the cell in? this animal's brain cells? A. Early telophase A. 1 B. Prophase B. 80 C. Metaphase C. 20 D. Interphase D. 40 E. Late telophase E. 46 111. Students study the stages of 114. Which statement correctly gametogenesis. They analyze describes homologous a cell having a haploid number chromosomes? of chromosomes, and each A. They are formed during meiosis chromosome consists of two B. They are held together by chromatids. The chromosomes centromeres 18

C. They are not identical A. 2 D. They carry the same gene loci B. 4 E. They are separated during C. 8 mitosis D. 16 115. The genotype of a human E. 64 zygote will differ from that of 118. A diploid cell of a male both parents. Which of the organism has 16 following does not contribute chromosomes. How many to this variation? chromosomes will be after A. Random combination of meiosis in each of sperm gametes cells? B. Chiasmata occurring during A. 8 meiosis B. 16 C. Mutation of genes C. 32 D. Presence of dominant genes D. 46 E. Independent variation E. 4 116. Which of the following is a 119. An underage patient has signs major difference between of achondroplasia (dwarfism). mitosis and meiosis? It is known that this is a A. Interphase is present only in monogenic disease and the mitosis gene that is responsible for the B. DNA replication occurs only in development of such mitosis abnormalities is a dominant C. Daughter chromatids separate one. The development of that only in meiosis child’s brother is normal. D. Homologous chromosomes Specify the genotype of the associate only in meiosis healthy child: E. Chromosomes line up on the A. aa cell equator only in meiosis B. AA 117. A diploid cell contains two C. Aa pairs of homologous D. AaBb chromosome. Each pair is E. AABB heterozygous for a pair of 120. Which of the following , Aa and Bb respect crosses is a test cross? After meiosis, how many A. Unknown x AA different combinations of B. Unknown x aa these alleles could be C. Unknown x Aa produced in the haploid D. Unknown x unknown daughter cells? E. Unknown x AABb 19

121. If a true-breeding purple plant C. 3 is crossed with a true-breeding D. 4 white flowered plant, the E. 6 possible phenotypes of the 125. Two alleles for pea plant first generation of plants are: height are designated T (tall) A. All white and t (dwarf). These alleles are B. 50% purple and 50% white found on: C. 75% purple and 25% white A. Genes D. All purple B. Sex chromosomes E. 50% white and 50% purple C. Ribosomes 122. If a recessive trait is expressed D. Homologous chromosomes in an organism’s phenotype, E. No homologous chromosomes what can you determine about 126. Mendel's idea that pairs of its genotype? characters separate during A. At least one in the gamete formation is called the genotype is recessive law of B. You cannot determine anything A. Independent assortment about the organism’s genotype B. Particulate inheritance C. Both alleles in the genotype are C. dominant D. Segregation D. Both alleles are linked E. Incomplete dominance E. Both alleles in the genotype are 127. Which of the following recessive phenotypic results are 123. An organisms genotype expected from a dihybrid describes: cross? A. The alleles of the gene it A. 1:1:1:1 ratio contains B. All dominant for both traits B. The form of a trait it displays C. All recessive for both traits C. Its physical characteristics D. 12:3:1 ratio D. The way it looks E. 9:3:3:1 ratio E. The mutational variations 128. What is the segregation of 124. There is an individual with a phenotypes in the F2 genotype of CCDd. How generation of a cross between many genotypically different a tall plant and a dwarf plant? gametes based on these two A. 3 tall : 1 dwarf pairs of alleles could be B. 1 tall : 1 dwarf produced? C. 1 tall : 2 medium : 1 dwarf A. 1 D. All tall B. 2 E. All dwarf 20

129. Which of the following is an E. Recessive epistasis example of a dihybrid cross? 133. Hartnup disease is caused by A. AaBb x aabb point mutation of only one B. aabb x AABB gene which results in C. AaBb x AaBb disturbance of tryptophane D. aabb x aabb absorption in the bowels and E. AABb x aaBB its resorption in the renal 130. Which of the following tubules. It is the reason for correctly identifies the mode disorder of both digestive and of inheritance for the given urination systems. What genetic features? genetic phenomenon is A. Common baldness - dominant observed in this case? B. Blue eye color - dominant A. Complementary interaction C. Sickle cell anemia – recessive B. Pleiotropy D. Polydactyly - recessive C. Polymery E. Albinism – recessive D. Codominance 131. Mendel's laws are explained E. Semidominance by: 134. It is known that the gene A. Chromosome behavior in responsible for development meiosis of blood groups according to B. Chromosome behavior in AB0 system has three allele mitosis variants. If a man has IV C. Cytokinesis in mitosis and blood group, it can be meiosis explained by the following D. Mendel’s laws have not been variability form: explained A. Mutational E. Chromosome number in B. Phenotypic nucleus C. Genocopy 132. A woman with 0 (I) bllod D. Phenocopy group has born a child with E. Combinative AB blood group. This 135. A family of students who woman’s husband has A blood came from Africa got a child group.What genetic with anemia signs. The child interaction explains this died soon. Examination phenomenon? revealed that the child’s A. Codominance erythrocytes have abnormal B. Polymery semilunar shape. Specify C. Incomplete dominance genotypes of the child’s D. Complementation parents: 21

A. Аа х аа D. Eyes color B. Aа х Аа E. Color of pea seeds C. АА х АА 139. Skin color in humans is D. аа х аа determined by several E. Аа х АА different genes. This is an 136. An 18-year-old male has been example of what pattern of diagnosed with Marfan inheritance? syndrome. Examination A. Codominance revealed a developmental B. Incomplete dominance disorder of connective tissue C. Multiple alleles and eye lens structure, D. Polygenic inheritance abnormalities of the E. Epistasis cardiovascular system, 140. In snapdragons, red flower arachnodactylia. What genetic color, R, is incompletely phenomenon has caused the dominant to white, r, with Rr development of this disease? being pink. A red flowered A. Complementarity plant is crossed with a pink B. Codominance flowered one .Which progeny C. Multiple allelism could occur in this cross? D. Pleiotropy A. 50% red flowered, 50% pink E. Incomplete dominance flowered 137. Consider the cross AaBb x B. Red flowered AaBb If the alleles for both C. Pink flowered genes exhibit complete D. Pink flowered and white dominance, what genotypic flowered ratio is expected in the E. 75% pink flowered and 25% resulting offspring? red flowered A. 1:1:1:1 141. Brachyphalangy is lethal when B. 9:3:3:1 homozygous and is dominant C. 3:6:3:1:2:1 in humans. Heterozygotes D. 1:2:1:2:4:2:1:2:1 have characteristically short E. 9:7 fingers. Two short-fingered 138. An example of incomplete persons are married. What dominance is: genotypic ratios are expected A. Pink flowers from white in their living progeny? snapdragons crossed with red A. 1 AA:2 Aa:1 aa snapdragons B. 1AA:1aa B. Albinism C. 100% aa C. ABO blood types in humans D. 2Aa:aa 22

E. 1Aa:aa 146. Human height is believed to 142. In humans there are three be controlled by at least three alleles at the ABO locus pairs of genes. What type of causing blood types A, B, AB, gene interaction? O. What genotypic A. Complementary genes combinations are possible in B. Polygenic traits the offspring of a man with C. Incomplete dominance AB blood group (IAIB) D. Pleiotropy married to a woman whith A E. Epistasis blood (IAI0)? 147. Which form of gene A. IAIA, IAI0, IAIB, IBI0 interactions is characterized B. IAIA, IAIB that one gene masks the C. IAIA, IBI0, IAI0 phenotypic effect of gene from D. IAIB different pair? E. IAIB, I0I0 A. Epistasis 143. What are the chances of a B. Complete dominance woman with Type AB and a C. Incomplete dominance man with Type A having a D. Superdominance child with Type O? E. Complementarity A. 25% 148. Allele is said to be pleiotropic B. 0% if: C. 50% A. The dominant gene completely D. 100% masks the effect of recessive E. 75% gene in heterozygous condition 144. What gene interaction is non- B. The dominant allele is partially allelic? expressed A. Complete dominance C. Allele has more than one effect B. Incomplete dominance on the phenotype C. Complementarity D. One dominant allele in D. Codominance heterozygous has more E. Pleiotropy expressive manifestation than 145. The cross gives a ratio of 13:3. in homozygous one What type of gene interaction? E. One pair of gene prevent the A. Epistasis expression of another pair B. Complementary genes 149. Non allelic genes: C. Incomplete dominance A. Are situated in the non- D. Polygenic traits homologous chromosomes E. Pleiotropy B. Have the same structure

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C. Have the same loci in the D. Y-linked chromosome homologous chromosomes E. X-linked dominant D. Control two alternative chromosome expressions 153. Hypertrychosis of auricles is E. All of the above caused by a gene that is 150. The example of codominance localized in Y-chromosome. is: Father has this feature. What A. AB blood group is the probability to give birth B. Blood group B to a boy with such anomaly? C. Blood group A A. 0% D. Blood group O B. 25% E. Pink color in snapdragon C. 35% flowers D. 100% 151. A couple came for medical E. 75% genetic counseling. The man 154. A patient (male) with Red- has hemophilia, the woman is green color blindness has two healthy and there were no healthy parents. Find his cases of hemophilia in her parents genotype: family. What is the risk of A. XDXd x XDY having a sick child in this B. XdXdxXdY family? C. XDXdxXdY A. 0% D. XDXDxXdY B. 100% E. XDXD x XDY C. 75% 155. A stillborn child was found to D. 50% have thickened skin E. 25% resembling of the tortoise 152. The study of the genealogy of shell, underdeveloped auricles. a family with hypertrichosis Histological examination of (helix excessive pilosis) has skin revealed hyperkeratosis, demonstrated that this atrophy of the granular symptom is manifested in all epidermis layer; inflammatory generations only in men and is changes were not present. inherited by son from his What is the most likely father. What is the type of diagnosis? hypertrichosis inheritance? A. Leukoplakia A. Autosome-recessive B. Ichthyosis B. Autosome-dominant C. Xerodermia C. X-linked recessive D. Erythroplakia chromosome E. Dermatomyositis 24

156. Examination of newborns in sickle as a result of one of the Ukrainian cities substitution of glutamin by revealed a baby with valine in the hemoglobin phenylketonuria. The baby’s molecule. What is the cause of parents don’t suffer from this this disease? disease and have two other A. Gene mutation healthy children. Specify the B. Disturbance of mechanisms of most likely parents’ genotype genetic information realization with phenylketonuria gene: C. Crossingover A. АА х аа D. Genomic mutations B. аа х аа E. Transduction C. Аа х Аа 160. Continuous taking of some D. Aа х аа drugs foregoing the pregnancy E. Аа х АА increase the risk of giving 157. Hypertrichosis is the Y-linked birth to a child with genetic character. The father has defects. What is this effect hypertrichosis, and the mother called? is healthy. In this family,the A. Embryotoxic effect probability of having a child B. Teratogenic effect with hypertrichosis is: C. Mutagenic effect A. 0,5 D. Fetotoxical effect B. 0,25 E. Blastomogenic effect C. 0,125 161. You are studying functioning D. 0,625 of a bacteria operon. The E. 1 operator gene has been 158. Part of the DNA chain turned released from the repressor 180 degree as a result of gene. Immediately after this gamma radiation. What type the following process will start of mutation took place in the in the cell: DNA chain? A. Translation A. Deletion B. Replication B. Doubling C. Transcription C. Translocation D. Processing D. Inversion E. Repression E. Replication 162. A cell at the stage of mitosis 159. In some regions of South anaphase was stimulated by Africa there is a spread sickle- colchicine that inhibits shaped cell anemia, in which chromosome separation to the erythrocytes have shape of a 25

poles. What type of mutation poles. What type of mutation will be caused? will be caused? A. Polyploidy A. Inversion B. Inversion B. Deletion C. Deletion C. Polyploidy D. Duplication D. Duplication E. Translocation E. Translocation 163. 46 chromosomes were 166. A mother had taken synthetic revealed on karyotype hormones during pregnancy. examination of the 5 year old Her daughter was born with girl. One of the 15th pair of hirsutismformally resembling chromosomes is longer than of adrenal syndrome. Such usual due to connected manifestation of variability is chromosome from the 21 pair. called: What type of mutation does A. Phenocopy this girl have? B. Mutation A. Deletion C. Recombination B. Translocation D. Heterosis C. Inversion E. Replication D. Insufficiency 167. A female suffered rubella E. Duplication during pregnancy. The child 164. It is known that the gene was born with developmental responsible for development abnormalities, namely cleft lip of blood groups according to and palate. The child’s AB0 system has three allele genotype is normal. These variants. If a man has IV malformations are a blood group, it can be manifestation of: explained by the following A. Polyploidy variability form: B. Combinative variability A. Mutational C. Modification variability B. Phenotypic D. Chromosomal mutation C. Genocopy E. Aneuploidy D. Phenocopy 168. A child with a normal E. Combinative karyotype is diagnosed with 165. A cell at the stage of mitosis cleft lip and hard palate, anaphase was stimulated by defects of the cardiovascular colchicine that inhibits system, microcephaly. The chromosome separation to the child’s mother suffered rubella during pregnancy. This 26

pathology in the child may be 173. In Klinefelter syndrome, an example of: individuals are phenotypically A. Trisomy male, but they are tall and B. Phenocopy thin, have a female-like C. Monosomy development of the hips and D. Polysomy breasts. The cells of E. Genocopy Klinefelter individuals have 169. Some people can roll their two X chromosomes and one tongues whilst others Y (they are XXY instead of cannot.What is this an XY). That is, Klinefelter example of? syndrome is a(n): A. Variation A. Translocation B. Genetically inherited B. Aneuploidy characteristic C. Polyploidy C. Adaptation D. Duplication D. Mutation E. Monosomy E. Specialization 174. Cells that have more than two 170. Chromosomal aberration is: complete sets of chromosomes A. Allopolyploid are termed: B. Triploid A. Aneuploid C. Duplication B. Diploid D. Loss nucleotide C. Polyploid E. Insert nucleotide D. Nanoploid 171. Exchange of segments E. Trisomy between non homologous 175. Gene A is normally found on chromosomes is called: chromosome number 15 in A. Crossing over humans If amniocentesis B. Inversion reveals fetal cells containing C. Duplication gene. A on chromosome 17, D. Deletion but not on 15, the best E. Translocation explanation would be that: 172. Variations occurred during A. Crossing over occurred during meiosis due to: synapsis of meiosis I in one A. Duplicatoin parent's gametes B. Mutation B. Base substitution occurred C. Crossing over either during gametogenesis or D. Linkage in the mitotic divisions E. Disjunction following fertilization

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C. An inversion of gene A probably occurs much less occurred on chromosome 15 frequently D. At least one parent probably 179. Which one of the following is had a genetic syndrome the only known viable human E. Translocation occurred monosomy? 176. Which type of variation can be A. XO presented as a line graph? B. XYY A. Continuous C. YO B. Genetic D. XY C. Discontinuous E. XXY D. Combinational 180. A patient has 45 E. Mutational chromosomes. What type of 177. Gene mutations change: mutation is this? A. Structure of chromosomes A. Duplication B. Quantities of sexual B. Triploid chromosomes C. Aneuploidy C. The order nucleotide in DNA D. Loss of the nucleotide D. Arrangements of E. Polyploidy heterochromatin 181. Mutations: E. Quantities of autosomes A. Change a genotype 178. Why are individuals with an B. Arise mass extra chromosome 21, which C. Do not change a genotype causes Down syndrome, more D. Always are inherited by numerous than individuals offspring with an extra chromosome 3 E. Always have adaptive character or chromosome 16? 182. A healthy woman has three A. There are probably more genes sons affected by color on chromosome 21 than on the blindness who were born after others her two marriages. Children B. Chromosome 21 is a sex both of her husbands are chromosome, and 3 and 16 are healthy.What is themost not possible pattern of inheritance C. Extra copies of the other of this disease? chromosomes are probably fatal A. Y-linked to the developing embryo B. Autosomal recessive D. Down syndrome is not more C. X-linked recessive common, just more serious D. Autosomal dominant E. Nondisjunction of E. X-linked dominant chromosomes 3 and 16 28

183. A genetics specialist analyzed C. Recessive, sex-linked the genealogy of a family and D. Autosomal dominant found that both males and E. Semidominance females may have the illness, 186. During a prophylactic medical not across all the generations, examination a 7-year-old boy and that healthy parents may was diagnosed with daltonism. have ill children. What is the His parents are healthy and type of illness inheritance? have normal colour vision, but A. Autosomal recessive his grandfather on his B. Autosomal dominant mother’s side has the same C. X-linked dominant abnormality. What is the type D. X-linked recessive of the abnormality E. Y-linked inheritance? 184. In course of prophylactic A. Recessive, sex-linked medical examination a 7-year- B. Dominant, sex-linked old boy was diagnosed to have C. Semidominance daltonism. Parents are healthy, D. Autosomal recessive color vision is normal. But E. Autosomal dominant grandfather from the mother’s 187. Examination of a 12-year-old side has the same disorder. boy with developmental lag What is the type of inheriting revealed achondroplasia: of this anomaly? disproportional constitution A. Dominant, sex-linked with evident shortening of B. Recessive, sex-linked upper and lower limbs as a C. Incomplete domination result of growth disorder of D. Autosomal-recessive epiphyseal cartilages of long E. Autosomal-dominant tubal bones. This disease is: 185. As a result of prophylactic A. Inherited, recessive medical examination a 7 year B. Inherited, sex-linked old boy was diagnosed with C. Inherited, dominant Lesch-Nyhan syndrome (only D. Congenital boys fall ill with it). The boy’s E. Acquired parents are healthy but his 188. A man suffering from a grandfather by his mother’s hereditary disease married a side suffers from the same healthy woman. They got 5 disease. What type of disease children, three girls and two inheritance is it? boys. All the girls inherited A. Dominant, sex-linked their father’s disease. What is B. Autosomal recessive 29

the type of the disease C. XDXd x XdY inheritance? D. XDXD x XdY A. Autosomal recessive E. XDXD x XDY B. Autosomal dominant 192. What type of crossing enables C. Dominant, X-linked to determine distance between D. Y -linked genes in group of linkage? E. Recessive, X-linked A. Monohybrid 189. A couple has a son with B. Dihybrid haemophilia. The parents are C. Polyhybrid healthy but the maternal D. Analyzing grandfather also has E. Trihybrid haemophilia. Specify the type 193. What is the probability that a of inheritance: male will inherit an X-linked A. Recessive autosomal recessive allele from his B. Dominant sex-linked father? C. Semidominance A. 0% D. Autosomal dominant B. 25% E. Recessive sex-linked C. 50% 190. During a prophylactic medical D. 75% examination a 7-year-old boy E. 100% was diagnosed with daltonism. 194. The first person to propose the His parents are healthy and chromosome theory of have normal colour vision, but inheritance was: his grandfather on his A. mother’s side has the same B. Walter Sutton abnormality. What is the type C. of the abnormality D. Francis Crick inheritance? E. Theodor Schwann A. Dominant, sex-linked 195. The number of linkage groups B. Recessive, sex-linked of genes in organisms of each C. Semidominance biological species is equaled: D. Autosomal recessive A. To number of pair’s allelic E. Autosomal dominant genes 191. A patient (male) with Red- B. To quantity of sexual green color blindness has two chromosomes healthy parents. Find his C. To quantity of autosomes parents genotype: D. Haploid number of A. XdXd x XdY chromosomes B. XDXd x XDY 30

E. Diploid number of B. Size of the linkage group chromosomes C. Length of the linked genes 196. If a fruit fly has four linkage D. Distance between the linked groups then it has: genes A. Four pairs of homologous E. Size of the centromeres chromosomes 200. If two genes are linked: B. Two pairs of homologous A. They are on different chromosomes chromosomes C. Eight pairs of homologous B. They assort independently chromosomes C. They are on the same D. Sixteen pairs of chromosomes D. They code for the same protein E. Eight pairs of nonhomologous E. They are on sex chromosomes chromosomes 201. All of the genes on a single 197. Why were Thomas Hunt chromosome form a(n): Morgan’s experiments A. Genome important? B. Allele A. Results helped to explain why C. Aneuploidy more men than women in a D. Linkage group family have hemophilia E. Genotype B. Showed nonsexual traits could 202. Genes of hemophilia and color be sex-linked blindness are located on C. Showed that Mendel’s distance 10%. What crossing explanations of heredity were over gamete’s and in what incomplete quantity can be formed at the D. Showed how a mutation can woman with a genotype: affect genders differently XHDXhd? E. Showed modifications A. 45 % XHD; 5 % Xhd 198. The relative position of genes B. 45 % XHD; 45 % Xhd on a chromosome can be done C. 5 % XhD; 5 % XHd using: D. 5 % XhD; 45 % XHD A. Karyotyping E. 5 % XHD; 5 % Xhd B. Linkage mapping 203. Analysis of the family history C. Punnett-square method of children with Van der D. Monohybrid crosses Woude syndrome revealed E. Test crosses that in their families one of the 199. The amount of crossing over parents had the typical for this is primarily determined by the: syndrome defects (cleft lip and A. Length of the chromosome palate, lip pits regardless of 31

gender). What is the type of side has the same disorder. inheritance of this syndrome? What is the type of inheriting A. Autosomal dominant of this anomaly? B. X-linked recessive A. Dominant, sex-linked C. X-linked dominant B. Recessive, sex-linked D. Autosomal recessive C. Incomplete domination E. Multifactorial D. Autosomal-recessive 204. A healthy woman has three E. Autosomal-dominant sons affected by color 207. As a result of prophylactic blindness who were born after medical examination a 7 year her two marriages. Children old boy was diagnosed with both of her husbands are Lesch-Nyhan syndrome (only healthy.What is themost boys fall ill with it). The boy’s possible pattern of inheritance parents are healthy but his of this disease? grandfather by his mother’s A. Y-linked side suffers from the same B. Autosomal recessive disease. What type of disease C. Autosomal dominant inheritance is it? D. X-linked recessive A. Recessive, sex-linked E. X-linked dominant B. Dominant, sex-linked 205. A genetics specialist analyzed C. Autosomal recessive the genealogy of a family and D. Autosomal dominant found that both males and E. Semidominance females may have the illness, 208. During a prophylactic medical not across all the generations, examination a 7-year-old boy and that healthy parents may was diagnosed with daltonism. have ill children. What is the His parents are healthy and type of illness inheritance? have normal colour vision, but A. Autosomal recessive his grandfather on his B. Autosomal dominant mother’s side has the same C. X-linked dominant abnormality. What is the type D. X-linked recessive of the abnormality E. Y-linked inheritance? 206. In course of prophylactic A. Dominant, sex-linked medical examination a 7-year- B. Semidominance old boy was diagnosed to have C. Autosomal recessive daltonism. Parents are healthy, D. Recessive, sex-linked color vision is normal. But E. Autosomal dominant grandfather from the mother’s 32

209. Examination of a 12-year-old 212. During a prophylactic medical boy with developmental lag examination a 7-year-old boy revealed achondroplasia: was diagnosed with daltonism. disproportional constitution His parents are healthy and with evident shortening of have normal colour vision, but upper and lower limbs as a his grandfather on his result of growth disorder of mother’s side has the same epiphyseal cartilages of long abnormality. What is the type tubal bones. This disease is: of the abnormality A. Inherited, recessive inheritance? B. Inherited, dominant A. Dominant, sex-linked C. Inherited, sex-linked B. Semidominance D. Congenital C. Recessive, sex-linked E. Acquired D. Autosomal recessive 210. A man suffering from a E. Autosomal dominant hereditary disease married a 213. Analysis of the family history healthy woman. They got 5 of children with Van der children, three girls and two Woude syndrome revealed boys. All the girls inherited that in their families one of the their father’s disease. What is parents had the typical for this the type of the disease syndrome defects (cleft lip and inheritance? palate, lip pits regardless of A. Dominant, X-linked gender). What is the type of B. Autosomal recessive inheritance of this syndrome? C. Asutosomal dominant A. X-linked recessive D. Y -linked B. X-linked dominant E. Recessive, X-linked C. Autosomal dominant 211. A couple has a son with D. Autosomal recessive haemophilia. The parents are E. Multifactorial healthy but the maternal 214. Two carriers of albinism have grandfather also has four children. One of their haemophilia. Specify the type children is albino and the of inheritance: remaining three are normally A. Recessive autosomal pigmented. What is the B. Recessive sex-linked probability that their next C. Dominant sex-linked child will be albino? D. Semidominance A. 0 % E. Autosomal dominant B. 25 % C. 75 % 33

D. 100 % E. Females are hemizygous E. 50% 218. Y-linked traits are inherited: 215. A woman whose husband A. Only by males worked at the Chernobyl B. Only by females nuclear reactor gives birth to a C. By both males and females hemophiliac son: D. Only sometimes A. She should blame the reactor E. By all offspring’s accident because the radiation 219. Red-green color blindness is: caused the hemophilia A. An X-linked dominant trait B. Her husband should sue for B. An Y-linked trait divorce because it cannot be his C. Both X and Y linked child D. An X-linked recessive trait C. Further genetic tests should be E. Autosomal trait done to determine who is at 220. The X and Y chromosomes in fault humans are called: D. She should not blame the A. Sex chromosomes accident because she carried the B. Multiple alleles hemophilia allele C. Polygenic traits E. Hemophilia is environmentally D. Codominance induced, not genetic E. Autosomes 216. Parents of a color blind female 221. A female is heterozygous for (XcXc) could have the the recessive X-linked gene genotypes: for hemophilia. Her husband A. XCXc and XcY is healthy. What proportion of B. XCXc and XCY her daughters will be C. XcXc and XCY "carriers" for the trait? D. XCXC and XcY A. 90% E. XCXC and XcYc B. 50% 217. Sex-linked traits appear more C. 0% often in males than in females D. 75% because: E. 25% A. Males are produced in greater 222. A female is diagnosed with numbers hemophilia, an X-linked B. Males have only one X recessive gene disorder chromosome characterized by failure of C. Females with a sex-linked trait blood to clot In checking her will die medical history, the doctor D. Sex-linked traits are carried on will most likely discover that: the y chromosome A. Her brother has hemophilia 34

B. Her father's mother had A. His mother must have hemophilia hemophilia C. Her mother had hemophilia, her B. His mother's father must have father was normal hemophilia D. Her father had hemophilia, her C. His mother must be normal mother was carrier D. His father's mother must have E. Her maternal grandmother had hemophilia hemophilia E. His sister must have hemophilia 223. Which pair of chromosomes 227. Sex-linked genetically would produce a male inherited traits: offspring? A. Can appear in both males and A. XY females B. XX B. Are only found in males C. XO C. Are only found in females D. AB D. Result from modification E. 22A+XX E. Are lethal 224. A gene that is not on a sex 228. Men with red-green color chromosome is termed: blindness inherited the genes A. Y-linked for it from: B. Chromosomal A. Their fathers C. X-linked B. Their mothers D. Autosomal C. Either their mothers or fathers E. Dominant D. Their grandparents 225. In dealing with an X-linked E. Mutational process trait, a male will express X 229. Pedigree analysis is especially chromosome alleles directly in useful in determining the the phenotype because the Y mode of inheritance in chromosome lacks homology organisms: with the X-linked gene. This A. With very few offspring condition is referred to as produced in each generation being: and with long generation times A. Parazygous B. With a very large number of B. Homozygous offspring per generation and C. Heterozygous with short generation times D. Hemizygous C. That reproduces asexually E. Monozygous D. That is haploid 226. For a male to have X-linked E. With greater than 500 hemophilia: chromosomes

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230. The technical term for the B. A new mutation in each of the individual in a pedigree who sons expressing the trait has the phenotype of interest C. Autosomal recessive and is the starting point for D. X-linked dominant undertaking the pedigree E. Y-linked dominant analysis is: 234. A couple has a female child A. Proboscis with Tay Sachs disease, and B. Proband three unaffected children. C. Progeny Neither parent nor any of the D. Grandparent four biological grandparents E. Victim of the affected child has had 231. A trait that is present in one this disease. The most likely parent but not present in the genetic explanation is that Tay second generation is Sachs disease is inherited as characteristic of a(n): a(n): A. Autosomal recessive trait A. Autosomal dominant B. Autosomal dominant B. Sex-linked recessive C. Quantitative trait C. Sex-linked dominant D. Y-linked trait D. Cannot make a reasonable E. X-linked recessive trait guess from this information 232. What is the best hypothesis for E. Autosomal recessive the mode of transmission of a 235. Which is NOT a common trait where one parent method used in human genetic expresses the trait, the other analysis? parent does not, and all of the A. Test cross children (regardless of sex) B. Karyotyping express the trait? C. DNA analysis A. X-linked dominant D. Pedigree analysis B. Autosomal recessive E. Somatic cell genetics C. Autosomal dominant 236. Monozygotic twins are used in D. Y-linked dominant human heritability studies E. X-linked recessive because: 233. What is the best hypothesis for A. They are raised together in the the mode of transmission of a same environment trait where neither parent B. They are genetically identical expresses the trait but one half C. Environmental effects are not of the sons do? important to the expression of A. X-linked recessive their genotypes

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D. Monozygotic twins are offspring: one normal male, genetically similar in the same one affected male, and two way siblings are; however, they affected female, the disease is shared the same womb: MOST LIKELY inherited as: E. They are not used in human A. X linked dominant heritability studies B. X linked recessive 237. Normal male mates with a C. Autosomal dominant female who is homozygous for D. Autosomal recessive an X-linked recessive E. Y linked disorder. Of the offspring that 240. What is the probability of they may have, it is probable having an affected child if one that: parent is affected with an A. All sons will be affected, and autosomal recessive disease 1/2 the daughters will be and the other parent is a carriers carrier? B. No sons will be affected, and A. ½ all daughters will be carriers B. 2/3 C. All sons will be affected, and C. Close to 100% because new all daughters will be affected mutations are frequent D. All sons will be affected, and D. 1/4 all daughters will be carriers E. Zero E. No sons will be affected, and 241. When a zygote splits, the two all daughters will be affected identical, independent clusters 238. Parents of a child with an that develop become: autosomal recessive disease A. Dizygotic twins are: B. Fraternal twins A. Obligatory carriers C. Monzygotic twins B. Likely to have mutations in D. Trizygotic twins different genes, locus E. Sibs heterogeneity 242. In scientific research, the best C. Likely to have more affected way to separate the effects of sons than daughters genes and the environment is D. Most likely homozygous to study: normal and the disease was A. Monozygotic twins raised in caused by a new mutation different environments E. Not at risk of having another B. Dizygotic twins child with the disease C. Adopted children and their 239. If an affected male mates with biological parents a normal female and has four 37

D. Adopted children and their 246. Examination of initial adoptive parents molecular structure revealed E. Dizygotic twins raised in substitution of the glutamic different environments acid by valine. What inherited 243. Dizygotic twins result when: pathology is it typical for? A. A single egg is fertilized by a A. Thalassemia sperm and then splits B. Minkowsky-Shauffard disease B. A single egg is fertilized by two C. Favism different sperm D. Sickle-cell anemia C. Two eggs are fertilized by two E. Hemoglobinosis different sperm 247. Examination of cell culture D. Either a single egg is fertilized got from a patient with by one sperm or two eggs are lysosomal pathology revealed fertilized by two different accumulation of great quantity sperm of lipids in the lysosomes. E. Two eggs are fertilized by two What of the following diseases identical sperm is this disturbance typical for? 244. Substitution of the glutamic A. Gout acid on valine was revealed B. Phenylketonuria while examining initial C. Wilson disease molecular structure. For what D. Tay-Sachs disease inherited pathology is this E. Galactosemia symptom typical? 248. A child’s blood presents high A. Thalassemia content of galactose, glucose B. Minkowsky-Shauffard disease concentration is low. There C. Sickle-cell anemia are such presentations as D. Favism cataract, mental deficiency, E. Hemoglobinosis adipose degeneration of 245. Albinos can’t stand sun impact liver.What disease is it? – they don’t aquire sun-tan but A. Diabetes mellitus get sunburns. Disturbed B. Lactosemia metabolism of what aminoacid C. Steroid diabetes underlies this phenomenon? D. Galactosemia A. Methionine E. Fructosemia B. Tryptophan 249. A 6 year old child was C. Phenilalanine delivered to a hospital. D. Glutamic acid Examination revealed that the E. Histidine1 child couldn’t fix his eyes, didn’t keep his eyes on toys, 38

eye ground had the cherry-red D. Albinism spot sign. Laboratory analyses E. Xanthinuria showed that brain, liver and 252. Examination of a 27-year-old spleen had high rate of patient revealed pathological ganglioside glycometide. changes in liver and brain. What congenital disease is the Blood plasma analysis child ill with? revealed an abrupt decrease in A. Wilson’s syndrome the copper concentration, B. Turner’s syndrome urine analysis revealed an C. Niemann-Pick disease increased copper D. Mac Ardle disease concentration. The patient was E. Tay-Sachs disease diagnosed with Wilson’s 250. Nappies of a newborn have degeneration. To confirm the dark spots being the evidence diagnosis it is necessary to of homogentisic acid study the activity of the formation. This is caused by following enzyme in blood the metabolic disorder of the serum: following substance: A. Ceruloplasmin A. Tyrosine B. Carbonic anhydrase B. Galactose C. Xanthine oxidase C. Methionine D. Leucine aminopeptidase D. Cholesterol E. Alcohol dehydrogenase E. Tryptophan 253. One of the parents is 251. A 1,5-year-old child presents suspected of having with both mental and physical phenylketonuria recessive lag, decolorizing of skin and gene. What is the risk of hair, decrease in giving birth to a child with catecholamine concentration inborn phenylketonuria? in blood. When a few drops of A. 0% 5% solution of trichloroacetic B. 25% iron had been added to the C. 50% child’s urine it turned olive D. 75% green. Such alteration are E. 100% typical for the following 254. A patient has been diagnosed pathology of the amino acid with alkaptonuria. Choose an metabolism: enzyme whose deficiency can A. Alkaptonuria be the reason for this B. Phenylketonuria pathology: C. Tyrosinosis A. Phenylalanine hydroxylase 39

B. Homogentisic acid oxidase D. Homogentisates C. Glutamate dehydrogenase E. Carbonates D. Pyruvate dehydrogenase 258. Alkaptonuria is: E. Dioxyphenylalanine A. Modification decarboxylase B. Mutation 255. A 2 year old child with mental C. Change of phenotype and physical retardation has D. Chromosomal disorders been delivered to a hospital. E. Duplication He presents with frequent 259. A young man with vomiting after having phenylketonuria, who was meals.There is phenylpyruvic successfully treated following acid in urine.Which diagnosis on newborn metabolism abnormality is the screening, is planning to start reason for this pathology? a family with his healthy, A. Lipidic metabolism unaffected, and unrelated B. Carbohydrate metabolism partner, who has no family C. Water-salt metabolism history of phenylketonuria. D. Amino-acid metabolism Phenylketonuria shows E. Phosphoric calcium metabolism autosomal recessive 256. In case of alkaptonuria, inheritance. What is the homogentisic acid is excreted probability that their children in urine in large amounts. The will be normal? development of this disease is A. 25 associated with a disorder of B. 75 metabolism of the following C. 100 amino acid: D. 0 A. Tyrosine E. 50 B. Phenylalanine 260. Albinism is caused by an C. Alanine autosomal recessive allele. A D. Methionine man is the carrier of the E. Valine disorder; his wife does not 257. A patient with homogentisuria have albinism and is not a has signs of arthritis, carrier. What is the probability ochronosis. In this case, the their offspring will have the pain in the joints is associated disorder and others will be with the deposition of: carriers? A. Urates A. Albinism B. Phosphates C. Oxalates 40

B. 50% of the offspring will have E. Bone cells the disorder; 50% will be 265. Tay-Sachs disease shows carriers autosomal recessive C. 0% of males would be carriers inheritance. Normal and 100% of females would be heterozygote parents of a carriers newly diagnosed affected D. 50% of the males would have child are referred for genetic the disorder; 100% of the counseling. It would be females would be carriers correct to tell them that: E. 0% of the offspring will have A. The probability that the older the disorder; 100% will be unaffected sister of the affected carriers child is a carrier is 1/2 261. What is the name of melanin B. The probability that their next metabolism disorder? child will be affected is 1/2 A. Phenylketonuria C. The fact that their last child was B. Turner’s syndrome affected means that their next C. Alkaptonuria three children will not be D. Albinism affected E. Huntington’s chorea D. The probability that their next 262. Name the mode of inheritance child will be affected is ¼ for Phenylketonuria: E. The probability that each next A. Autosomal Dominant child will be a carrier is 1 B. Autosomal Recessive 266. A patient has Sickle cell C. X-Linked Recessive anemia. What type of D. X-Linked Dominant mutation is this? E. Y - Linked A. Aneuploid 263. Which disease is treated in B. Duplication part by a low-galactose diet? C. Loss nucleotide A. Cystic Fibrosis D. Insert nucleotide B. Hemophillia E. Point mutation C. Galactosemia 267. What is the diagnostic method D. Phenylketonuria of Phenylketonuria? E. Talassemia A. Biochemical method 264. Gene for sickle cell anemia is B. Analysis of chromosomes only transmitted by: C. Examination of sex A. Autosomes chromosome number B. Sex cells D. Pedigree analysis C. Blood transfusion E. DNA analysis D. Sex chromosomes 41

268. What method is used to protruding tongue, short neck, diagnose the Hemophilia flat hands, and stubby fingers. carrier? What diagnosis can be put to A. Analysis of chromosomes only the patient? B. Examination of sex A. Klinefelter’s syndrome chromosome number B. Alkaptonuria C. Pedigree analysis C. Supermales D. Population statistic method D. Down’s syndrome E. Study of twins E. Turner’s syndrome 269. Choose the right type of 272. Autopsy of a newborn boy heredity of Albinism: revealed polydactylia, A. Gene mutation in Autosomes microcephalia, cheiloschisis Dominantly inherited traits and uranoschisis as well as B. Gene mutation in sex hypertrophy of chromosomes Recessively parenchimatous organs. These inherited traits defects correspond with the C. Gene mutation in Autosomes description of Patau’s Recessively inherited traits syndrome. What is the most D. Gene mutation in sex probable cause of this chromosomes Dominantly pathology? inherited traits A. Trisomy of the 13th E. Aneuploid chromosome 270. A woman who was sick with B. Trisomy of the 18th rubella during the pregnancy chromosome gave birth to a deaf child with C. Trisomy of the 21st hare lip and cleft palate. This chromosome congenital defect is an D. Nondisjunction of sex example of: chromosomes A. Phenocopy E. Partial monosomy B. Edward’s syndrome 273. Medical examination at the C. Genocopy military registration and D. Patau’s syndrome enlistment office revealed that E. Down’s syndrome a 15-year-old boy was high, 271. An individual is characterized with eunuchoid body by rounded face, broad proportions, gynecomastia, forehead, a Mongolian type of female pattern of pubic hair eyelid fold, flattened nasal distribution. The boy had also bridge, permanently open fat deposits on the thighs, no mouth, projecting lower lip, facial hair, high voice, 42

subnormal intelligence the opposite poles of a cell quotient.Which karyotype during gametogenesis corresponds with this disease? (meiosis). The ovum was A. 45, XO impregnated with a normal B. 46, XX spermatozoon. Which C. 47, XXY chromosomal disease can be D. 46, XY found in her child? E. 47, XXX A. Down’s syndrome 274. A 28-year-old female patient B. Patau’s syndrome consulted a gynecologist about C. Turner’s syndrome sterility. Examination revealed D. Edwards’ syndrome underdeveloped ovaries and E. Cat cry syndrome uterus, irregular menstrual 277. Examination of an 18-year-old cycle. Analysis of the sex girl revealed the following chromatin revealed 2 Barr’s features hypoplasia of the bodies in most somatic cells. ovaries, broad shoulders, What chromosome disease is narrow pelvis, shortening of most likely? the lower extremities, "sphinx A. Edwards’ syndrome neck". Mental development is B. Triple X syndrome normal. The girl was C. Patau’s syndrome diagnosed with Turner’s D. Klinefelter’s syndrome syndrome. What kind of E. Turner’s syndrome chromosome abnormality is 275. According to the phenotypic it? diagnosis a female patient has A. Trisomy X been provisionally diagnosed B. Monosomy X with X-chromosome C. Trisomy 13 polysomia. This diagnosis can D. Trisomy 18 be confirmed by a cytogenetic E. Nullisomy X method. What karyotype will 278. A 35-year-old male patient has allow to confirm the been referred by an diagnosis? andrologist for the genetic A. 48, XXXY counselling for the deviations B. 48, XXYY of physical and mental C. 47, XXY development. Objectively: the D. 47, ХХХ patient is tall, has asthenic E. 46, XX constitution, gynecomastia, 276. Sex chromosomes of a woman mental retardation. didn’t separate and move to Microscopy of the oral 43

mucosa cells revealed sex Cytogenetic analysis revealed chromatin (single Barr body) the trisomy 13 in the somatic in 30% of cells.What is the cells (Patau syndrome). What most likely diagnosis? phenomenon has caused the A. Klinefelter syndrome defects? B. DiGeorge syndrome A. Somatic mutation C. Down syndrome B. Recessive mutation D. Recklinghausen’s disease C. Abnormal gametogenesis E. Cushing pituitary basophilism D. Dominant mutation 279. A 25-year-old patient E. Chromosomal mutation consulted a doctor about 282. A boy referred to a genetics dysmenorrhea and infertility. clinic was found to have 1 Examination revealed that the drumstick in blood patient was 145 cm high and neutrophils. The boy is likely had underdeveloped secondary to have the following sex characteristics, alar folds syndrome: on the neck. Cytological study A. Down’s didn’t reveal any Barr bodies B. Turner’s in the somatic cells.What C. Klinefelter’s diagnosis was made? D. Edwards’ A. Klinefelter syndrome E. Trisomy X B. Morris syndrome 283. Amniocentesis revealed two C. Trisomy X syndrome sex chromatin bodies (Barr D. Down syndrome bodies) in each cell of the E. Turner’s syndrome sample. What disease is this 280. Amniocentesis revealed two character typical for? sex chromatin bodies (Barr A. Klinefelter syndrome bodies) in each cell of the B. Turner’s syndrome sample. What disease is this C. Trisomy X character typical for? D. Down’s syndrome A. Trisomy X E. Patau syndrome B. Klinefelter syndrome 284. A patient intending to undergo C. Turner’s syndrome a gender reassignment surgery D. Down’s syndrome has been admitted to a E. Patau syndrome specialised clinic. In the 281. Healthy parents with course of examination both unremarkable family history male and female gonades have have the child with multiple been revealed, with male developmental defects. structure of external genitals. 44

What kind of genital E. It is lethal mutation maldevelopment has the 288. Individuals with three copies patient? of most autosomes do not A. Male pseudohermaphroditism survive Individuals with an B. Female pseudohermaphroditism extra X chromosome, C. Accessory ovary however, survive with D. Ectopia of testis relatively mild (compared to E. True hermaphroditism autosomal abnormalities) 285. A 2-year-old boy is diagnosed consequences. Why? with Down syndrome. What A. The X chromosome contains chromosomal changes may be few genes while autosomes the cause of this disease? contain a large number A. Trisomy 21 B. The extra X chromosome(s) are B. Trisomy 13 inactivated C. Trisomy X C. The X chromosome determines D. Trisomy 18 sex only E. Monosomy X D. The X chromosome 286. A female patient saught abnormalities effects males medicalgenetic consultation. only Physical examination revealed E. None of the above pterygium colli deformity 289. X-inactivation can be used to (webbed neck), broad chest, identify individuals who are: underdeveloped breasts. Study A. Homozygous unaffected of buccal epithelium cells B. Heterozygous revealed no X-chromatin in C. Homozygous affected the nuclei. This indicates that D. Missing or extra X the patient has the following chromosome syndrome: E. Hemizygous A. Klinefelter’s 290. What causes Turners B. Turner’s syndrome? C. Patau’s A. Being monosomic for X D. Down’s chromosome E. Edwards’ B. Any one extra chromosome 287. What would be the sex of an C. Any one fewer chromosome XXY individual? D. Being trisomic for chromosome A. Male 21 B. Female E. Being trisomic for chromosome C. Hermaphrodite 11 D. Mosaic 45

291. Trisomy XXX is otherwise E. Any of the above, depending on called: the number of other A. Klinfelter's syndrome chromosomes B. Turner's syndrome 295. Which one of the following is C. Supermale the only known viable human D. Down's syndrome monosomy? E. Superfemale A. XYY 292. Albino allele (a) frequency B. YO 0,01. How many normal C. XO alleles (A) are in population? D. XY A. 0,49 E. XXY B. 1/10 000 296. Which type of chromosomal C. 0,99 alteration is responsible for the D. 0,9 disorder cri du chat? E. 0,89 A. Deletion 293. In Klinefelter syndrome, B. Inversion individuals are phenotypically C. Duplication male, but they are tall and D. Genetic imprinting thin, have a female-like E. Translocation development of the hips and 297. What is the diagnostic method breasts. The cells of of Downs Syndrome? Klinefelter individuals have A. Examination of sex two X chromosomes and one chromosome number Y (they are XXY instead of B. Biochemical analysis XY). That is, Klinefelter C. Pedigree analysis syndrome is a(n): D. Analysis of chromosomes only A. Aneuploidy E. DNA analysis B. Translocation 298. What is the name of XYY C. Polyploidy disorder? D. Duplication A. Supermales E. Monosomy B. Down Syndrome 294. A person with two X C. Klinefelter’s Syndrome chromosomes and one Y D. Turner’s Syndrome chromosome would appear to E. Alkaptonuria be: 299. A patient (female) has two A. Female Barr body’s. What is the name B. Male of this disorder? C. Both male and female A. Klinefelter’s Syndrome D. Neither male nor female B. Superfemale 46

C. Turner’s Syndrome C. Condensed X chromosome D. Down Syndrome D. Visible in cells of both males E. Supermales and females 300. What method is used to E. Present only in males, because diagnose Turner’s syndrome? their female chromosomes are A. Analysis of chromosomes only inactivated B. Examination of sex 302. In humans, Down syndrome chromosome number has been shown to be due to C. Analysis of chromosomes and abnormalities in embryonic examination of sex development brought about chromosome number by: D. Pedigree analysis A. Deletion of a part of a E. DNA analysis chromosome 301. A Barr body is: B. Inversion of a chromosome A. An organelle involved in C. Three copies of chromosome protein synthesis #18 B. Another term for chromosomes D. An extra chromosome # 21 as they are seen during cell E. A missing chromosome division

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POPULATION - SPECIES, BIOGEOCENOTIC AND BIOSPHERICAL LEVELS OF LIVING THINGS ORGANIZATION

303. Patients with similar others. The source of parasite complaints applied to the invasion is always a human. doctor: weakness, pain in the Such specific human parasites intestines, disorder of GIT. cause the diseases that are Examination of the faeces called: revealed that one patient with A. Zoonoses four nucleus cysts should be B. Anthropozoonoses hospitalized immidiately. For C. Infections what protozoa are such cysts D. Anthroponoses typical? E. Multifactorial diseases A. Intestinal amoeba 306. Patients have similar B. Dysenteric amoeba complaints: weakness, pain in C. Balantidium the intestines, and disorder of D. Trichomonas gastrointestinal tract. E. Lamblia Examination of the feces 304. Examination of the duodenal revealed that one patient who contents revealed some pear- has cysts with four nuclei shaped protozoa with two should be hospitalized nuclei and four pairs of immediately. What kind of flagella. The organisms had protozoa has such cysts? also two axostyles between the A. Intestinal amoeba nuclei and a ventral adhesive B. Dysenteric amoeba disc. What protozoan C. Balantidium representative was found in D. Trichomonas the patient? E. Lamblia A. Toxoplasma 307. A patient is suspected with B. Leishmania liver abscess. He was admitted C. Intestinal trichomonad to the surgical department. For D. Lamblia a long time the patient had E. Trypanosome stayed on business in one of 305. As an example of specific African countries. and felt human parasites one can name repeatedly ill with acute Plasmodium falciparum, gastrointestinal disorders. human pinworm and some 48

What protozoan disease let it 311. What forms of Entamoeba be? histolitica can be revealed in A. Trypanosomosis the feces of the patient B. Leishmaniasis suffering from amoebiasis? C. Amebiasis A. Cysts with 2 nuclei D. Malaria B. Cysts with 1 nucleus E. Toxoplasmosis C. Entamoeba histolitica (forma 308. What symptom is typical for magna) amebiasis? D. Eggs A. Headache E. Sporozoites B. High temperature 312. What is mode of invasion by C. Toothache the Entamoeba histolitica? D. Diarrhea A. Using raw meat E. Cough B. Through injured skin 309. Fresh feces of the patient with C. Through mosquitoes’ bites dysfunction of gut were D. Swallowing cysts studied under the microscope. E. Through tsetse bites Admixture of blood and 313. Name the specific feature of numerous protozoan cells with Entamoeba histolytica (mature pseudopodia and erythrocytes cyst) in the cytoplasme have been A. 2 nuclei found in the feces. What B. 8 nuclei species of Protozoa were C. Food vacuoles with found? erythrocytes A. Entamoeba coli D. Cilia B. Entamoeba gingivalis E. 4 nuclei C. Leishmania 314. What is specific D. Lamblia morphologyof Entamoeba coli E. Entamoeba histolitica (mature cyst) 310. Which one is a pathogenic A. 8 nuclei organism? B. 2 nuclei A. Entamoeba histolitica (forma C. 4 nuclei magna) D. Food vacuoles with B. Entamoeba histolitica (forma erythrocytes minuta) E. Cilia C. Entamoeba histolitica (cyst) 315. What do we call a form of D. Entamoeba coli association between organisms E. Amoeba proteus from which one uses other as environment for living and 49

from which it obtains food B. Oral cavity from him and damage him? C. Small intestine A. mutualism D. Stomach B. commensalisms E. Rectum C. symbiosis 321. The mechanical vectors cysts D. preying of Entamoeba histolitica are: E. Parasitism A. Mosquitoes 316. The laboratory examination of B. Lice amoebiasis is based on: C. Bugs A. Immunology D. Fleas B. Examination of vaginal and E. Flies and cockroaches uretral discharge 322. Parents with an ill child C. Stool examination consulted an infectionist. They D. Blood test had been working in one of E. Liquor test Asian countries for a long 317. What is the infective stage of time. The child has sallow Dysenteric amoeba? skin, loss of appetite, laxity, A. Immature cyst enlarged liver, spleen, B. Trophozoite peripheral lymph nodes. What C. Mature cyst protozoal illness can be D. Egg suspected? E. Sporozoites A. Balantidiasis 318. What is the diagnostic stage of B. Amebiasis Dysenteric amoeba? C. Toxoplasmosis A. Mature cyst D. Visceral leishmaniasis B. Immature cyst E. Lambliasis C. Trophozoite 323. A duodenal content smear of a D. Egg patient with indigestion E. Sporozoites contains protosoa 10-18 mcm 319. The localization of Dysenteric large. They have piriform amoeba in human organism: bodies, 4 pairs of filaments, A. Oral cavity two symmetrically located B. Small intestine nuclei in the broadened part of C. Large intestine body. What kind of the lowest D. Stomach organisms is it? E. Heart A. Dysentery ameba 320. The localization ofEntamoeba B. Trichomonas gingivalis in human organism: C. Lamblia A. Large intestine D. Intestinal ameba 50

E. Balantidium 327. What type of parasites 324. Apatient has symptoms of Leishmania is? inflammation of urogenital A. Facultative parasite tracts. Examination of a B. Ectoparasite vaginal smear revealed big C. Endoparasite monocellular, pear-shaped D. Pseudoparasite organisms with the pointed E. Temporary parasite spike at the posterior end of 328. What is geographical body, big nucleus and distribution of Trypanosoma undulating membrane. What cruzi? protozoa were found in the A. East Africa smear? B. West Africa A. Trichomonas hominis C. Central America B. Trichomonas buccalis D. India C. Trypanosoma gambiense E. Cosmopolitan D. Trichomonas vaginalis 329. Who is vector of E. Lamblia intestinalis leishmaniasis? 325. A gynaecologist was A. Anopheles examining a patient and B. Triatoma bug revealed symptoms of genital C. Phlebotomus tract inflammation. A smear D. Tsetse fly from vagina contains pyriform E. Glossina protozoa with a spine, flagella 330. Who is vector of sleeping at their front; there is also an sickness? undulating membrane. What A. Phlebotomus disease can be suspected? B. Mosquito A. Lambliasis C. Tsetse fly B. Intestinal trichomoniasis D. Anopheles C. Urogenital trichomoniasis E. Triatoma bug D. Toxoplasmosis 331. Who is vector of Chagas E. Balantidiasis disease? 326. Which Protozoa is an agent of A. Triatoma bug the transmissive disease? B. Phlebotomus A. Entamoeba gingivalis C. Glossina B. Toxoplasma gondii D. Tsetse fly C. Leishmania tropica E. Anopheles D. Lamblia intestinalis 332. What islaboratorydiagnosis of E. Trichomonas vaginalis trypanosomiasis?

51

A. Microscopic examination of D. Promastigote vaginal and urethral discharges E. Amastigote B. Microscopic examination of 336. A journalist’s body feces temperature has sharply C. Microscopic examination of increased in the morning three urine weeks after his mission in D. Microscopic examination of India, it was accompanied saliva with shivering and bad E. Microscopic analysis of blood headache. A few hours later smear the temperature decreased. 333. What islaboratorydiagnosis of The attacks began to repeat in giardiasis? a day. He was diagnosed with A. Microscopic analysis of blood tropical malaria. What stage of smear development of Plasmodium B. Microscopic examination of is infective for anopheles- vaginal and urethral discharges female? C. Microscopic examination of A. Gametocytes urine B. Shizontes D. Microscopic examination of C. Merozoites feces D. Microgamete E. Microscopic examination of E. Sporozoites saliva 337. A patient has been brought to 334. What islaboratorydiagnosis of the hospital with the leishmaniasis? complaints of headache, pain A. Microscopic examination of in left hypochondrium. He has vaginal and urethral discharges been ill for 1,5 weeks. The B. Microscopic examination of sudden illness began with the urine increase of body temperature C. Microscopic examination of up to 39, 90C. In 3 hours the feces temperature decreased and D. Microscopic analysis of blood hydropoiesis began. The smear attacks repeat rhythmically in E. Microscopic examination of 48 hours. The patient had saliva visited one an African 335. What is invasive stage country. The doctors have forGiardia lamblia? suspected malaria. What A. Trophozoite method of laboratory B. Cyst diagnostics is necessary to C. Egg use? 52

A. Immunological tests E. Toxoplasms B. Stool examination 340. A woman delivered a dead C. Blood examination child with multiple D. Examination of vaginal and developmental defects. What urethral discharge protozoan disease might have E. Urine examination caused the intrauterine death? 338. Slime, blood and protozoa 30- A. Leishmaniasis 200 microns long have been B. Toxoplasmosis revealed in a man’s feces. The C. Malaria body is covered with cilias D. Amebiasis and has correct oval form with E. Lambliasis a little bit narrowed anterior 341. A patient working at a pig and wide round shaped farm complains about posterior end. At the anterior paroxysmal abdominal pain, end a mouth is visible. In liquid feces with admixtures cytoplasm there are two of mucus and blood, headache, nucleui and two short weakness, fever. Examination vacuoles. What are the of large intestine revealed described features typical for? ulcers from 1 mm up to A. Lamblia several cm large, feces B. Balantidium contained oval unicellular C. Dysenteric amoeba organisms with cilia. What D. Trichomonas disease should be suspected? E. Intestinal amoeba A. Amebiasis 339. A lymph node punctate of a B. Toxoplasmosis patient with suspected C. Balantidiasis protozoal disease was D. Lambliasis examined. Examination of the E. Trichomoniasis stained specimen 342. A male patient has fever and (Romanovsky’s stain) enanthesis. As a result of the revealed some crescent bodies examination involving with pointed end, blue serological tests he has been cytoplasm and red nucleus. diagnosed with fasciola What protozoan were revealed hepatica. It was found out that in the smears? the patient had been infected A. Malarial plasmodiums through raw river water. B. Dermotropic leishmania Which stage of fasciola life C. Viscerotropic leishmania cycle is invasive for humans? D. Trypanosomes A. Adolescaria 53

B. Metacercaria D. Trichmonas C. Ovum E. Toxoplasma D. Miracidium 346. Humans can be only the E. Cysticercus intermediate host for: 343. A patient who has recently A. Toxoplasma gondii arrived from an endemic area B. Intestinal amoeba presents with elevated body C. Lamblia intestinalis temperature, headache, chills, D. Dysentery ameba malaise, that is with the E. Trichomonas vaginalis symptoms which are typical 347. What parasite doesn’t form a for a common cold. What cyst? laboratory tests are necessary A. Balantidium coli to prove or to disprove the B. Entamoeba histolitica diagnosis of malaria? C. Plasmodium vivax A. Urinalysis D. Lamblia intestinalis B. Study of cerebrospinal fluid E. Giardia duodenalis C. Microscopy of blood smears 348. What is Toxoplasma gondii D. Microscopy of bone marrow pathogenisity? E. Punctate A. Duodenitis in pregnancy 344. After 2 weeks of blood women transfusion a recepient has B. Hydrocephalus in fetus developed fever. What C. High temperature protozoal disease let it be? D. In liver abscess in pregnancy A. Trypanosomiasis women B. Amebiasis E. Cough in pregnancy women C. Malaria 349. What is specific morphology D. Toxoplasmosis of Toxoplasma gondii E. Leishmaniasis trophozoite? 345. Examination of a man A. 2 nucleus revealed a protozoan disease B. Konoid that affected brain and caused C. Flagella vision loss. Blood analysis D. Food vacuoles with revealed unicellular half- erythrocytes moon-shaped organisms with E. Cilia pointed end. The causative 350. What stage of malaria parasite agent of this disease is: is invasive to the man? A. Leishmania A. Sporozoites B. Lamblia B. Trohpozoite C. Amoeba C. Schizonts 54

D. Male and female gametes E. Examination of uretral E. Oocysts discharge 351. What is diagnostics of 356. The localization of toxoplasmosis? Balantidium coli in human A. Feces examination organism: B. Blood examination A. Oral cavity C. Urine examination B. Small intestine D. Serological test C. Large intestine E. Biopsy D. Stomach 352. What stage of malaria parasite E. Rectum is invasive to the mosquito? 357. A patient complains of pain in A. Gametocytes the area of his liver. Duodenal B. Sporozoites intubation revealed yellowish, C. Trohpozoite oval, narrowed at the poles D. Schizonts eggs with an operculum at the E. Oocysts end. Size of these eggs is the 353. Who is the final host of the smallest among all helminth causative agent of malaria? eggs. What is the most A. Human probable diagnosis? B. Sandfly A. Teniasis C. Tsetse fly B. Opisthorchosis D. Mosquito Anopheles C. Beef tapeworm infection E. Bug D. Echinococcosis 354. Who is the intermediate host E. Diphyllobothriasis of the causative agent of 358. A patient consulted an malaria? urologist about pain during A. Human urination. Analysis of his B. Mosquito Anopheles urine taken in the daytime C. Sandfly revealed eggs with a D. Tsetse fly characteristic sharp point. It is E. Bug known from the anamnesis 355. The laboratory examination of that the patient has recently malaria is based on: returned from Australia. What A. Stool examination is the most likely diagnosis? B. Skinbiopsy A. Intestinal schistosomiasis C. Microscopic examination of B. Japanese schistosomiasis blood C. Opisthorchiasis D. Examination of vaginal D. Urogenital schistosomiasis discharge E. Dicroceliasis 55

359. In patients with chronic B. The veins of the urogenital cholecystitis were found eggs system Fasciola hepatica in the feces. C. The portal vein What stage is invasive for the D. In peripheral blood final host of the parasite: E. In blood vessels of intestines A. Readia 363. What kind of worms that can B. Adolescaria develop only with change of C. Cercaria the hosts? D. Miracidium A. Contact worms E. Sporocyst B. Biohelmintes 360. Localization of Dicrocoelium C. Heohelmintes lanceatum in humans is: D. Definitive A. Pancreas E. Temporary B. Liver 364. Name connective tissue in C. Bile ducts Plathelminthes: D. The blood vessels of the A. Ectoderm intestine B. Endoderm E. Urinary bladder C. Parenchyma 361. During surgical operation D. Mesoderm (removing of pulmonary E. Mesenchyme abscess) in patient’s lung was 365. The main characteristics of the found red-brown helminth Trematodes class are: oval in shape, length 1 cm. A. Have the primary body cavity What kind of parasite can B. Sexually separated cause a lung abscess in C. The excretory system patient: protonephridia’s type A. Paragonimus ringer D. Open circulatory system B. Fasciola hepatica E. The esophagus has a bulb C. Opistorchis felineus 366. Put correct order of the stages D. Dicrocoelium lanceatum for Fasciola hepatica life E. Schistosoma hematobium cycle: 362. In patient’s feces during A. Egg – miracidium – sporocyst – ovoscopy were found eggs of redia – cercaria – adolescaria Schistosoma mansoni. Specify B. Miracidium – sporocyst – redia the localization of this parasite – cercaria – mature individuals in the human body: C. Sporocyst – miracidium – A. In the veins of the mesentery of cercaria – redia the small pelvis D. Egg – larva – mature individuals 56

E. Metacercaria – cercaria – 370. Who are an intermediate hosts sporocyst – redia for lung fluke (Paragonium 367. What stage of Opistorchis westermani)? felineus is invasive to final A. Terrestrial molluscs kind host: Zebrina, ants genus Formica A. Redia B. Shellfish kind Bithinia, Carp B. Cercaria fish C. Metacercaria C. Shellfish kind Melania, D. Miracidium freshwater crayfish and crabs E. Sporocyst D. Shellfish kind Bithinia, salmon 368. In patient was found fish pancreatic cancer as result of E. Freshwater clams different Opistorchis felineus genera development. What are the 371. The way of Schistosomes preventive measures? invasion is: A. Finding miracidium in feces A. Cercaria actively penetrate the B. Finding of parasite eggs in human body through the skin sputum B. After ants ingestion C. Finding eggs in faeces C. By eating of fish with D. Finding eggs in the urinary metacercaria sediment D. When you use unboiled water E. inding miracidium in the gut with cercaria 369. Determine the correct order of E. By eating of lobsters and crabs Dicrocoelium lanceatum with Metacercaria development: 372. What types of personal A. Egg – miracidium – first- prevention measures for generation sporocysts – second fascioliasis? generation sporocysts – A. Do not eat improperly salted cercaria– metacercaria fish B. Sporocyst – miracidium – B. Do not eat raw crayfish and metacercaria – cercaria crabs C. Egg – miracidium – sporocyst – C. Do not eat poorly thermally readia – adoleskaria processed beef D. Egg – miracidium – cercaria – D. Do not eat bad pork meat metacercaria – sporocyst E. Do not drink unboiled water E. Egg – cercaria – miracidium – from open reservoirs sporocyst 373. The patient is suspected opistorchosis. What makes it

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possible to diagnose the relatives living with her had disease? the similar condition. What is A. Detection of parasite eggs in the most likely diagnosis? the sputum A. Echinococcosis B. Detection miracidiums in B. Teniasis faeces C. Trichiniasis C. Detection of eggs in the faeces D. Ascaridiasis D. Detection of eggs in the urine E. Diphyllobothriasis sediment 376. A shepherd who has tended E. Detection of miracidium in the sheep together with dogs gut consulted a doctor about pain 374. A 26-year-old female in his right subcostal area, consulted a doctor about nausea, vomiting. having stool with white flat Roentgenoscopy revealed a moving organisms resembling tumour-like formation. What noodles. Laboratory analysis kind of helminthiasis might be revealed proglottids with the suspected? following characteristics: A. Echinococcosis long, narrow, with a B. Ascaridiasis longitudinal channel of the C. Enterobiasis uterus with 17-35 lateral D. Taeniarhynchosis branches on each side. What E. Taeniasis kind of intestinal parasite was 377. Find correct features of the found? immature segments for A. Taenia solium Cestoda? B. Hymenolepis nana A. Contain only uterus with eggs C. Diphyllobothrium latum B. They are hermaphroditic D. Taeniarhynchus saginatus C. They do not have testes E. Echinococcus granulosus D. They do not have reproductive 375. A female patient consulted a system physician about digestive E. Contain only ovaries disorder, extended abdominal 378. What enzymes can be secreted pain. Examination revealed by tegument and protect drastic decrease in helminthes from digestion in hemoglobin concentration. It the gut of the host? is known from the anamnesis A. Anticoagulative that while living in the Far B. Proteolytic East the patient used to eat C. Antyproteolitc freshly-salted caviar. Some D. Mucolytic 58

E. Serous A. Hymenolepis nana 379. What systematic feature of the B. Taeniarinchus saginatus Cestoidea structure is used for C. Taenia solium diagnosis of disease? D. Diphyllobothrium latum A. Shape of scolex E. Ancylostoma duodenale B. Body shape 384. How person can get C. Shape of uterus cysticercosis? D. Presence of tegument A. After eating of raw or poorly E. Number of body segments thermally processed pork 380. What kind of Cestoda larval B. After entering eggs of stage has a spherical shape Taeniarinchus saginatus in the and six hooks? human body A. Oncosphere C. After ingesting of Taenia B. Bladder-warm solium eggs with contaminated C. Cysticercus water D. Cystycercoid D. After eating of raw or poorly E. Plerocercoid fried beef 381. Patient has taeniarhynchosis. E. After eating of poorly coocked Localization of Taeniarinchus or raw fish saginatus in human body is: 385. The child has dysbacteriosis, A. The sigmoid colon headache, irritability. In faeces B. Skeletal muscle were found eggs of C. Small intestine Hymenolepis nana. What D. The large intestine measure of personal E. Blood prevention of hymenolepiasis? 382. After eating of beef meet with A. Do not eat poorly thermally blood a man has got processed pork indigestion, he began to lose B. Do not eat poorly thermally weight. What worm can lead processed beef to such symptoms? C. Do not eat badly salted or fried A. Hymenolepis nana fish B. Taenia solium D. Observe good personal hygiene C. Echinococcus granulosus E. Reveal and treat patients D. Diphyllobothrium latum 386. What worm has length of 4-5 E. Taeniarinchus saginatus cm, pear-shaped scolex with 4 383. In woman’s feces were found suckers and row of hooks? mature segments of helminth A. Taenia solium with 7-12 pairs of branches B. Taeniarinchus saginatus filled of eggs. Name parasite: C. Echinococcus granulosus 59

D. Hymenolepis nana D. Optional helminths E. Diphyllobothrium latum E. Tissue helminths 387. What steps of life cycle for 391. General diagnosis of teniasis Taenia solium? is: A. Mature individuals – A. Immunological reaction onchospheres – eggs – bladder- B. Identification of cysticercus in warm feces B. Cysticercus – eggs – C. Investigation of gastric contents onchospheres – mature D. Identify proglotyd in feces individuals E. Detection onchospheres in C. Mature individuals – bladder- feces warm – onchospheres – eggs 392. Find the invasive stage D. Eggs – onchospheres – ofDiphyllobothrium latum for cysticercoid – mature final host: individuals A. Procercoid E. Eggs – onchospheres – B. Coracidium cysticercus – mature C. Plerocercoid individuals D. Egg 388. Who is the intermediate host E. Proglottid for Hymenolepis nana: 393. What is Echinococcus A. Human granulosus pathogenicity? B. Sheep A. Pressure atrophy of the affected C. Predatory fish tissue D. Pigs B. Anemia (B12 avitaminosis) E. Cattle C. High temperature 389. Find structural features of D. Liver damage cestodes: E. Cough A. Have esophagus and three lips 394. What is classification for B. The digestive system is absent Diphyllobothrium latum? C. Have anus A. Platyhelminthes, Trematoda, D. The respiratory system is Pseudophyllidea represented by trachea B. Platyhelmintes, Cestoda, E. Have the front, middle and Pseudophyllidea hindgut C. Platyhelmintes, Turbelaria 390. According to life cycle, Cyclophyllidea Hymenolepis nana refers to: D. Platyhelmintes, Cestoda, A. Contact helminthes Pseudophyllidea B. Biohelminths E. Platyhelminthes, Cestoda, C. Heohelminths Cyclophyllidea 60

395. Who are intermediate hosts for 399. The final host for Diphyllobothrium latum? echinococcus can be: A. 1 – snail, 2 – ants A. Herbivorous mammals B. 1 – copepod crustacea B. Man (Cyclops), 2– crayfish C. Dogs C. 1 – water snail (Melania) , 2 – D. Gophers fish E. Predatory fish D. 1 – copepod crustacea 400. Specify the location of (Cyclops), 2 – fish bladder-worms of E. Man Echinococcus granulosus in 396. Indicate the invasive stage the host’sbody: ofDiphyllobothrium latum for A. Small intestine the second intermediate host: B. Blood A. Procercoid C. Stomach B. Coracidium D. Lungs C. Plerocercoid E. Colon D. Egg 401. Specify the morphological E. Proglottids features of Echinococcus 397. What is preventive measure of granulosus: echinococcosis? A. Fixing organ- bothria A. Pet dogs should be dewormed B. The width of the hermaphrodite periodically segments longer than the length B. Thorough cooking or freezing C. Length 1.2 - 3.7 mm of fish D. Scolex has oval shape C. Thorough cooking or freezing E. Strobila consist of 3 - 4 of crayfish segments D. Thorough cooking or freezing 402. What kind of helminthosis is of beef characterized by the E. Thorough cooking or freezing development of anemia? of pork A. Diphyllobothrium latum 398. What is diagnostic method for B. Taenia solium diphyllobotriasis? C. Echinococcus granulosus A. Immunodiagnosis D. Teaniarhynhus saginatus B. Finding eggs in urine E. Echinococcus multilocularis C. Finding eggs in feces 403. Indicate the invasive stage of D. Finding gravid proglottids in Echinococcus granulosus for feces humans: E. Biopsy A. Hydatid cyst B. Oncosphere 61

C. Gravid proglottids D. Platyhelmintes, Turbelaria, D. Eggs Ascaridae E. Cisticercus E. Nemathelminthes, Nematoda, 404. Indicate the infectious stage of Cyclophyllidea Diphyllobothrium latum for 408. After what time eggs of copepod crustacea: Ascaris lubricoides become A. Procercoid invasive? B. Plerocercoid A. 4-6 hours C. Coracidium B. 7 days D. Egg C. 1 hour E. Proglottids D. 24 days 405. The patient is suspected E. 1 year diphyllobothriasis. What 409. Indicate the invasive stage of makes it possible to diagnose Trichocephalus trichiurusfor the disease? human? A. Finding of larva in the faeces A. Eggs with larva B. Finding of eggs in the faeces B. Rhabditiform larva C. Finding plerocercoid in faeces C. Adult worm D. Finding of eggs in the urine D. Encapsulated larva sediment E. Filariform larva E. Finding of plerocercoid in the 410. What is geographical gut distribution of Entorobius 406. The way of Diphyllobothrium vermicularis? latum invasion is: A. India A. By eating of raw pork meat B. East Africa B. When you use unboiled water C. West Africa with proglottids D. Central America C. By eating of raw beef meat E. Cosmopolitan D. By eating of raw fish and 411. What is diagnostic method of poorly salted caviar ancylostomiasis? E. By eating of lobsters and crabs A. Finding eggs on perianal region 407. What is classification for B. Finding rhabditiform larvain Ascaris lubricoides? feces A. Nemathelminthes, Trematoda, C. Finding eggs in feces Ascaridae D. Finding microfilaria in feces B. Nemathelminthes, Nematoda, E. Biopsy Filariidae 412. What stage of Ancylostoma C. Nemathelminthes, Nematoda, duodenale is invasive to Ascaridae humans? 62

A. Egg 417. What kind of Nematode is B. Rhabditiform larva contact helminth? C. Filariform larva A. Ancylostoma duodenale D. Adult worm B. Trichocephalus trichiurus E. Encapsulated larva C. Entorobius vermicularis 413. The location of D. Ascaris lubricoides Trichocephalus trichiurus in E. Diphyllobotrhrium latum humam’s body is: 418. What is diagnostic method of A. Liver trichocephaloasis? B. LungsLungs A. Finding eggs on perianal region C. Colon B. Findingrhabditiform larva in D. Pancreas feces E. Large intestine C. Finding microfilaria in feces 414. Specify the location of D. Finding eggs in feces Ancylostoma in the human’s E. Biopsy body: 419. Specify the localization of A. Duodenum Entorobius vermicularis in the B. LungsLungs human’s body: C. Liver A. Lungs D. Large intestine B. Duodenum E. Skin C. Skin 415. What is invasive stage of D. Large intestine Entorobius vermicularis for E. Liver humans? 420. What stage of Ancylostoma A. Eggs with larva duodenale can penetrate into B. Rhabditiform larva human’s body? C. Adult worm A. Eggs, through dirty hands D. Encapsulated larva B. Eggs, with water E. Filariform larva C. Rhabditiform larva,through 416. What is personal preventive skin measure of ascariasis? D. Filariform larva, through skin A. Regular examinations of E. Rhabditiform larva,through preschool children dirty hands B. Wearing shoes and other 421. What sexual dimorphism for protective clothes Nematodes? C. Inspection and cooking or A. Females have cylindrical body freezing of pork B. Hermaphrodites D. Washing hands before meals C. Males are generally larger E. Control of mosquitoes 63

D. The males have a curved 426. What kind of nematodes is posterior end transmitted by bite of E. Females are smaller mosquito? 422. What is classification for A. Dracunculus medinensis Wuchereria bancrofti? B. Onhocerca volvulus A. Nemathelminthes, Trematoda, C. Toxocara canis Ascaridae D. Wuchereria bancrofti B. Nemathelminthes, Nematoda, E. Loa loa Ascaridae 427. What is the infective stage of C. Platyhelmintes, Turbelaria, Trichinella spiralis? Ascaridae A. Encysted larva D. Nemathelminthes, Nematoda, B. Cercaria Filariidae C. Redia E. Nemathelminthes, Nematoda, D. Miracidiun Cyclophyllidea E. Eggs 423. Indicate the disease where 428. What is diagnostic stage of humans are dead-end hosts: Dracunculus medinensis: A. Filariasis A. Cercaria B. Loiasis B. Miracidium C. Ascariasis C. Stool examination D. Trichinelliasis D. Worm under the skin E. Dracunculiasis E. Redia 424. What is Wuchereria bancrofti 429. What is laboratory pathogenisity? examination of Trichinella A. Pressure atrophy of the affected spiralis based on? tissue A. Blood B. Pruritus B. Liquor C. Elephantiasis C. Serological tests D. Liver damage D. Muscle biopsy E. Cough, asthma E. Stool examination 425. Who are the intermediate host 430. What is the infective stage of for Dracunculus medinensis? Wuchereria bancrofti? A. Mosquito A. Cercaria B. Cattle B. Worm under the skin C. Man C. Miracidium D. Cyclops D. Eggs E. Chrisops E. Larva

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431. What kind of nematodes is D. Filariform larva, through the transmitted by bite of skin Chrysops flies? E. Eggs, through the skin A. Loa loa 436. Specify the location of B. Wuchereria bancrofti Onchocerca volvulus in the C. Onhocerca volvulus human’s body: D. Toxocara canis A. Muscles E. Dracunculus medinensis B. Joints 432. Specify the location of Loa loa C. Lungs in the human’s body: D. Skin A. Skin E. Stomach B. Lymph 437. A 10-year-old child complains C. Eyes of weakness, nausea, D. Lungs irritability. Helminthes of E. Stomach while color and 5-10 mm long 433. Specify the location of were found on the underwear. Wuchereria bancrofti in the On microscopy of the scrape human’s body: from the perianal folds A. Skin achromic ovums of B. Eyes unsymmetrical form were C. Lungs revealed. Indicate what D. Lymph helminth is parasiting on the E. Stomach child? 434. Specify the location of A. Ancylostoma duodenalis Strongyloides stercoralis in B. Trichuris the human’s body: C. Enterobins vermicularis A. Large intestine D. Trichina B. Liver E. Ascaris lumbricoides C. Pancreas 438. Microscopic examination of D. Small intestine the sputum of a patient with E. Brain pneumonia occasionally 435. What stage of Strongyloides revealed some larvae. stercoralis penetrates into the Eosinophiles were detected on human’s body? blood examination. What A. Eggs, through the dirty hands helminthiasis can be B. Rhabditiform larva, through the diagnosed? skin A. Enterobiosis C. Rhabditiform larva, through the B. Trichocephaliasis dirty hands C. Paragonimiasis 65

D. Ascariasis A. Ascariasis E. Opisthorchosis B. Amebiasis 439. A child complains of general C. Trichocephalosis weakness, loss of appetite, a D. Ankylostomiasis troubled sleep, itching in the E. Enterobiasis perianal area. The provisional 442. A miner consulted a physician diagnosis is enterobiasis. In about the appearance of body order to specify this diagnosis rash followed by a loss of it is necessary to perform: appetite, bloating, duodenal A. Roentgenoscopy pain, frequent bowel B. Biopsy of muscle tissue movements, dizziness. C. Immune diagnostics Ovoscopic probes of feces and D. Scraping from perianal folds duodenal contents revealed E. Duodenal contents analysis some eggs covered with a 440. In the perianal folds of a 5- transparent membrane through year-old girl her mother has which 4-8 germinal cells could found some white be seen. What disease is likely "worms"that caused itch and to have occurred in the anxiety in the child. The patient? "worms"were sent to the A. Strongyloidiasis laboratory. During B. Trichocephaliasis examination the physician saw C. Ancylostomiasis white filiform helminths 0,5-1 D. Hymenolepiasis cm long, with pointed ends, E. Enterobiasis some helminthes had twisted 443. A patient consulted a ends. What is the most likely physician about chest pain, diagnosis? cough, fever. A. Diphyllobothriasis Roentgenography of lungs B. Teniasis revealed eosinophilic C. Ascaridiasis infiltrates which were found to D. Enterobiasis contain the larvae. What kind E. Opisthorchiasis of helminthiasis are these 441. During regular examination of presentations typical for? schoolchildren it was revealed A. Echinococcosis that a 10 year old girl had B. Fascioliasis asymmetric oval eggs with a C. Ascariasis larva in the scrape from her D. Cysticercosis perianal folds. What diagnosis E. Trichinosis should be made? 66

444. In one of Polessye regions black abdomen with two rows there was an outbreak of of red dots on its dorsal helminthiasis manifested by surface, four pairs of cramps and facial edmata. The segmented extremities covered developed preventive with tiny black hairs. Identify measures in particular this arthropod: included ban for eating A. Scorpion infested pork even after heat B. Karakurt spider processing. What C. Solifugae helminthiasis was the case? D. Mite A. Taeniarhynchosis E. Tarantula B. Teniasis 447. A patient presents with acne C. Echinococcosis and inflammatory alterations D. Alveococcosis of facial skin. Microscopial E. Trichinosis investigation of lesion foci has 445. A man has worked in an revealed live arthropods sized African country for 3 years. A 0,2-0,5 mm. They have prolate month after is return to vermiform form and four pairs Ukraine he consulted an of thin short limbs located in ophthalmologist and the middle part of the body. complained about eye ache, The revealed arthropods eyelid edema, lacrimation and cause: temporary visual impairment. A. Scabies Underneath the eye B. Pediculosis conjunctiva the doctor C. Phthiriasis revealed helminths 30-50 mm D. Demodicosis long with elongated filiform E. Dermamyiasis body. What diagnosis might 448. A patient complains of skin be suspected? itch, especially between A. Filariasis fingers, in the inguinal B. Diphyllobothriasis creases, on the lower C. Ascaridiasis abdomen. Examination of D. Enterobiasis these regions revealed there E. Trichocephaliasis some small vesicles. 446. While on holiday in the Laboratory diagnostics countryside a boy found a allowed to establish that this spider with the following condition had been caused by morphological peculiarities: a representative of body length of 2 cm, round Arthropoda. Specify the 67

disease caused by this 452. The woman found inside her arthropod: ear Ixodes tick. Describe the A. Demodicosis life cycle of this arthropods: B. Scabies A. Egg - larva - nymph - adult C. Myiasis B. Larva - nymph - nymph – adult D. Pediculosis C. Egg - nymph - adult - doll E. Dermatotropic leishmaniasis D. Larva - adults - nymph - egg 449. Indicate medical importance E. Egg - larva - pupa - adult of Cyclops: 453. The child complains of itching A. Cyclops are intermediate hosts between the fingers and the for the pork tapewarm (Tenia lower abdomen which is solium) worse at night. Skin analyzing B. Cyclops are intermediate hosts revealed tick size of 0.3 - 0.4 for the broad tapeworm mm. Specify the type of (Difillobotrium latum) and parasite. Dracunculus medinensis A. Ixodes persulcatus C. Cyclops are intermediate hosts B. Demodex folliculorum for the beef tapewarm (Tenia C. Dermacentor pictus saginata) D. Sarcoptes scabiei D. Cyclops are intermediate hosts E. Ornithodorus papillipes for the blood fluke 454. Ticks with size 0.2 - 2.5 mm E. All of the above are the parasites of birds and 450. Name a species which lives in can carry infectious disease the follicles and wax glands of belongs to: the human forehead, nose, A. Family Solpugae chin, but usually does not B. Family Gamasoidae cause any symptoms: C. Family Aranei A. Sarcoptes scabiei D. Family Argasidae B. Ornitodorus papillipes E. Family Ixodidae C. Ixodes persulcatus 455. After walk through the forest, D. Demodex folliculorum a man found a tick which was E. Pediculus humanus sucking his leg. Specify the 451. Who are the carriers of taiga family of this tick? encephalitis? A. Family Ixodidae A. Ornithodorus papillipes B. Family Aranei B. Dermacentor marginatus C. Family Solpugae C. Ixodes persulcatus D. Family Gamasoidae D. Ixodes ricinus E. Family Argasidae E. Dermacentor pictus 68

456. What kind of mites found in E. Crushing lice and passing of countries with warm climates, hemolymph into the wound has an oval body, no dorsal 460. What kind of spiders have shield and living in caves and neurotoxic poison which old? causes asthma, spasm of A. Ornithodorus papillipes bronchus, swoons: B. Ixodes ricinus A. Demodex folliculorum C. Dermacentor pictus B. Sarcoptes scabiei D. Ixodes persulcatus C. Iycosa sigoriensis E. Dermacentor marginatus D. Latrodectus tredecimguttatus 457. What kind of these ticks can E. Ixodes persulcatus carry tularemia? 461. To the dermatologist came the A. Ixodes ricinus, Ornithodorus young man, suffering from papillipes acne on his face. During the B. Ixodes ricinus, Dermacentor study was taken material from pictus the internal contents of acne C. Ixodes ricinus, Demodex and were found an arthropods folliculorum (0.5 mm.) They had a worm- D. Ixodes persulcatus, Sarcoptes like shape and reduced four scabiei pairs of limbs placed in the E. Ornithodorus papillipes, front of the body. What kind Dermacentor nutalli of parasite is this: 458. Gamasid ticks can cause: A. Ixodes persulcatus A. Scabious B. Dermacentor pictus B. Tularemia C. Sarcoptes scabiei C. Dermatitis D. Demodex folliculorum D. Acne E. Ornithodorus papillipes E. Tick-borne typhus 462. Larvae of ticks have: 459. How a person can become A. Underdeveloped mouthparts infected with Demodex B. Size 6-8 mm folliculorum? C. Four pairs of walking limbs A. Contact with clothes of sick D. Three pairs of walking limbs people E. No segmentation of the body B. Insect bites 463. A sick man with high C. Contamination of wounds temperature and a lot of tiny D. Passing of hemolimph with wounds on the body has been rickettsia into a wound on the admitted to the hospital. Lice skin have been found in the folds

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of his clothing. What disease C. Pediculosis - skin disease can be suspected? caused by being infected with A. Tularemia itch mites B. Scabies D. Pediculosis -heavy infestation C. Malaria of hair with lice D. Plague E. All of the above E. Epidemic typhus 467. What stage of development for 464. A patient with suspicion on Blatella germanica? epidemic typhus was admitted A. Egg - larva (caterpillar) - pupa - to the hospital. Some imago arachnids and insects have B. Egg - larva - nymph - imago been found in his flat.Which C. Egg - larva – imago of them may be a carrier of the D. Blatella germanicais vivipara pathogen of epidemic typhus? E. larva - pupa - imago A. Lice 468. Pediculus humanus humanus B. Spiders is a vector of the causative C. Bed-bugs agent for? D. Cockroaches A. Plague E. Houseflies B. Taiga encephalitis 465. Mother of a boy who had C. Scabies recently returned from a D. Epidemic typhus summer camp found some E. Pediculosis small whitish insects up to 3 469. The child has light-gray lice mm long on the child’s with dark pigmented spots on clothing. Specify the parasite: thorax and abdomen. Name of A. Phtirus pubis this parasite: B. Pulex irritans A. Pediculus humanus capitis C. Cimex lectularius B. Pulex irritans D. Pediculus humanus humanus C. Pediculus humanus corporis E. Blattella germanica D. Phthirus pubis 466. What is pediculosis? E. Xenopsylla cheopis A. Pediculosis - skin disease 470. Life cycle of fleas going caused by being infected with through the stage: ticks A. Egg – larva – pupa – imago B. Pediculosis - skin disease B. Egg – larva –imago caused by being infected with C. Egg – pupa – imago fleas D. Egg– adult organism E. Egg – larva – pupa – nymph

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471. A man diagnosed with 474. The patient was diagnosed phtiriasis. Specify where is the with Chagas' disease. Who is a localization of the parasite: carrier of this disease? A. On the skin of head A. Cimex lectularius B. In the folds of clothes and B. Phthirus pubis underwear C. Xenopsylla cheopis C. At the hairy areas of the skin, D. Pulex irritans except head E. Triatoma infestans D. In the horny layer of the 475. What kind of louse has a wide epidermis body (length 1.5 mm - female, E. The ducts of the sebaceous male - 1mm) and female lays glands and hair bags up to 3 eggs per day? 472. Residents of the house noticed A. Phthirus pubis in their dark apartments B. Pediculus humanus capitis wingless insect with a C. Pediculus humanus corporis flattened laterally body. D. Pulex irritans Determine what kind of E. Cimex lectularius insects and what can they 476. A woman pay attention to the carry? small wingless insects that A. The bugs, vectors of Chagas' jump, and in the morning on disease the body noticed the bite B. Mites that carry the spirochete marks. Determine who is this? C. Lice, rickettsial vectors A. Pediculus humanus capitis D. The fleas that carry the plague B. Pulex irritans bacteria C. Phthirus pubis E. Cockroaches, vectors of D. Pediculus humanus corporis pathogens of intestinal E. Cimex lectularius infections 477. The carrier of spirochetes - 473. In kindergarten, three children agents a form of relapsing have lice. Indicate which stage fever can be: of development of the lice A. Pediculus humanus capitis feed on blood? B. Pulex irritans A. Adults and larvae C. Phthirus pubis B. Only adults D. Blatta orientalis C. Only the larvae E. Xenopsylla cheopis D. Adults, larvae and pupae 478. Which of the insects can E. Eat only females at all stages of develop with complete development metamorphosis? A. Lice 71

B. Locust 482. According to the data of C. Cockroaches WHO, for about 250 mln of D. Bedbugs Earth population fall ill with E. Fleas malaria. This disease is mostly 479. Find correct type of insects spread in tropical and segmention? subtropical regions. Range of A. Homonomous its spread falls into the areal of B. At the cephalothorax and the following mosquitoes: abdomen A. Culex C. On the head, chest and B. Aedes abdomen C. Mansonia D. Only segmented abdomen D. Anopheles E. The body is not segmented E. Culiseta 480. What is medical importance 483. A doctor revealed tissues for Blatella germanica? injury on patient’s scalp with A. Transmissible carriers of localized suppurations and protozoa cysts and helminth diagnosed his disease as eggs myiasis. This infestation is B. Vector of Chagas disease caused by larvae of the C. Mechanical carriers of protozoa following insect: cysts and helminth eggs A. Kissing bug D. Transmissible carriers of plague B. Stable fly (Stomoxys calcitrans) and typhus C. Wohlfahrt fly E. Mechanical vectors of D. Malarial mosquito leishmaniasis and E. Mosquito trypanosomiasis 484. The larvae of Anopheles 481. A businessman came to India mosquitoes: from South America. On A. Have a conical respiratory examination the physician siphon found that the patient was B. Haven’t a respiratory siphon suffering from sleeping- C. Have a respiratory siphon, sickness. What was the way of which arranged at an angle to invasion? the surface A. As a result of mosquito’s bites D. Have a respiratory siphon, B. With contaminated fruits and which located on the surface of vegetables the water horizontally C. As a result of bug’s bites E. Have a cylindrical respiratory D. Through dirty hands siphon E. After contact with a sick dogs 72

485. The patient lives in Central B. The maturation of eggs - Asia. He has a cutaneous nutrition of blood – searching leishmaniasis. What insects of pond - eggs laying – finding are carriers of this disease? of a host - the blood nutrition A. Anopheles maculipennis C. Nutrition of blood - searching B. Simuliidae sp. of pond - the maturation of C. Tabanidae sp. eggs - eggs laying - finding of a D. Phlebotomus sp. host - nutrition of blood E. Ceratopogonidae sp. D. Searching of pond - nutrition of 486. Horseflies can be carriers of: blood - the maturation of eggs - A. Relapsing fever eggs laying - finding of a host - B. Leishmaniasis nutrition of blood C. Siberian plague E. Finding of a host - nutrition of D. Malaria blood - the maturation of eggs - E. African sleeping sickness nutrition of blood - searching of 487. The larvae of Anopheles pond – eggs leaving mosquitoes live in: 490. A woman was bitten by A. Contaminated pools, which Anopheles maculipennis. well heated by the sun What kind of helminths can B. Exclusively in pure or nearly transmit this mosquito? pure waters A. Enterobius vermicularis and C. Gutter Ascaris lumbricoides D. Damp basements premises B. Ancylostoma duodenale and E. In rotting leaves Trichocephalus trichiurus 488. An insect that can be human’s C. Loa loa and Onchocerca parasitie only in the larval volvulus stage is: D. Dracunculus medinensis and A. The head louse Trichinella spiralis B. Slimies E. Wuchereria bancrofti and C. Wohlfahrtia magnifica Brugia malayi D. Horsefly 491. Adult insectamakes an angle E. Mosquito 45 degrees to the surface, has 489. Choose the correct sequence yellowish brown color, one for gonotrophic cycle stages lobe with continuous row of female mosquito genus Culex: hairs, spotted wings. A. Nutrition of blood - the Determine what kind of maturation of eggs - searching insecta is it: of pond - eggs laying - finding A. Mosquito Anopheles of a host - nutrition of blood B. Mosquito Culex 73

C. Mosquito Aedes Diptera on holiday . On the D. Deer fly site of the bite formed strong E. Black fly irritation. What type could 492. The mosquito larvae which cause the appearance of did not have respiratory tubes irritation and sepsis? and therefore placed on the A. Musca domestica surface of the water B. Stomoxys calcitrans horizontally belongs to: C. Wohlfartia magnifica A. Culex D. Anopheles maculipennis B. Muscidae E. Aёdes vexans C. Aёdes 496. How would you characterize D. Anopheles the medical importance of E. Tabanidae Fleas? 493. During a holiday in nature, a A. Either temporary or permanent man was bitten by Aёdes ectoparasites mosquitoes . What kind of B. Vector of plague caused by disease can they carry? Yersinia pestis A. American trypanosomiasis C. Causative agent of pediculosis B. Dengue fever and tularemia D. Mechenical transmitters of C. African trypanosomiasis protozoan infections D. Malaria and filariases E. Non of above E. Papatachifever and cutaneous 497. In the child's left ear cavity leishmaniasis were found insects larvae, 494. What features are typical to which eat away and destroy development of Culex? the blood vessels. Specify the A. The larvae have a breathing type of insect: siphon and placed in the water A. Wohlfartia magnifica at an angle B. Tabanus bovinus B. Imago has dark spots on the C. Glossina palpalis wings D. Aёdes vexans C. Eggs of mosquitoes have air E. Stomoxys calcitrans belts 498. The man who came from a D. Larvae have respiratory ducts tropical country, in a smear of and arranged horizontally on blood were found S - shaped the water surface unicellular parasites with E. Pupas have conical breathing undulating membrane. The tubes patient complains of muscle 495. A woman diagnosed with weakness and depression. sepsis. She was bitten by What disease has man and 74

what kind of insect is a vector C. African trypanosomiasis, vector of the parasite? Glossina palpalis A. Giardiasis, vector Blattella D. Malaria, vector Anopheles germanica maculipennis B. Balantidiasis, vector Musca E. Dermotropic leishmaniasis, domestica vector Phlebotomus

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Answers

1. A. 2. C. 3. D. 4. B. 5. B. 6. A. 7. B. 8. A. 9. D. 10. E. 11. A. 12. A. 13. A. 14. B. 15. D. 16. D. 17. B. 18. A. 19. B. 20. A. 21. B. 22. C. 23. D. 24. D. 25. B. 26. D. 27. E. 28. D. 29. A. 30. A. 31. A. 32. C. 33. D. 34. A. 35. E. 36. B. 37. A. 38. B. 39. C. 40. E. 41. A. 42. C. 43. C. 44. A. 45. B. 46. C. 47. D. 48. B. 49. A. 50. D. 51. D. 52. A. 53. C. 54. A. 55. C. 56. B. 57. A. 58. B. 59. D. 60. A. 61. D. 62. A. 63. A. 64. C. 65. A. 66. A. 67. C. 68. E. 69. C. 70. A. 71. E. 72. B. 73. E. 74. A. 75. D. 76. A. 77. B. 78. A. 79. A. 80. B. 81. A. 82. E. 83. E. 84. C. 85. B. 86. D. 87. A. 88. B. 89. A. 90. E. 91. C. 92. D. 93. E. 94. A. 95. C. 96. C. 97. A. 98. B. 99. A. 100. C. 101. D. 102. C. 103. D. 104. C. 105. C. 106. B. 107. A. 108. E. 109. A. 110. C. 111. C. 112. A. 113. B. 114. D. 115. A. 116. D. 117. B. 118. A. 119. A. 120. B. 121. D. 122. E. 123. A. 124. B. 125. D. 126. A. 127. E. 128. A. 129. C. 130. E. 131. A. 132. E. 133. B. 134. E. 135. B. 136. D. 137. B. 138. A. 139. D. 140. A. 141. D. 142. A. 143. B. 144. C. 145. A. 146. B. 147. A. 148. C. 149. A. 150. A. 151. A. 152. D. 153. D. 154. A. 155. B. 156. C. 157. A. 158. D. 159. A. 160. C. 161. C. 162. A. 163. B. 164. E. 76

165. C. 166. A. 167. C. 168. E. 169. B. 170. C. 171. E. 172. C. 173. B. 174. C. 175. E. 176. A. 177. C. 178. C. 179. A. 180. C. 181. A. 182. C. 183. A. 184. B. 185. C. 186. A. 187. C. 188. C. 189. E. 190. B. 191. B. 192. D. 193. A. 194. A. 195. D. 196. A. 197. C. 198. B. 199. D. 200. C. 201. D. 202. C. 203. A. 204. D. 205. A. 206. B. 207. A. 208. D. 209. B. 210. A. 211. B. 212. C. 213. C. 214. B. 215. D. 216. A. 217. B. 218. A. 219. D. 220. A. 221. B. 222. D. 223. A. 224. D. 225. D. 226. B. 227. A. 228. B. 229. A. 230. B. 231. A. 232. C. 233. A. 234. E. 235. A. 236. B. 237. A. 238. A. 239. B. 240. A. 241. C. 242. A. 243. C. 244. C. 245. C. 246. D. 247. D. 248. D. 249. E. 250. A. 251. B. 252. A. 253. A. 254. B. 255. D. 256. A. 257. D. 258. B. 259. C. 260. A. 261. D. 262. B. 263. C. 264. A. 265. D. 266. E. 267. A. 268. C. 269. C. 270. A. 271. D. 272. A. 273. C. 274. B. 275. D. 276. C. 277. B. 278. A. 279. E. 280. A. 281. C. 282. C. 283. C. 284. E. 285. A. 286. B. 287. A. 288. B. 289. D. 290. A. 291. E. 292. C. 293. A. 294. B. 295. C. 296. A. 297. D. 298. A. 299. B. 300. C. 301. C. 302. D. 303. B. 304. D. 305. D. 306. B. 307. C. 308. D. 309. E. 310. A. 311. C. 312. D. 313. E. 314. A. 315. E. 316. C. 317. C. 318. A. 319. C. 320. B. 321. E. 322. D. 323. C. 324. D. 325. C. 326. C. 327. B. 328. D. 329. E. 330. C. 331. D. 332. E. 333. A. 334. C. 335. C. 336. A.

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337. C. 338. B. 339. E. 340. B. 341. C. 342. A. 343. C. 344. C. 345. E. 346. A. 347. C. 348. B. 349. B. 350. A. 351. D. 352. A. 353. D. 354. A. 355. C. 356. C. 357. B. 358. D. 359. B. 360. B. 361. A. 362. E. 363. B. 364. C. 365. C. 366. A. 367. C. 368. C. 369. A. 370. C. 371. A. 372. E. 373. C. 374. D. 375. E. 376. A. 377. B. 378. C. 379. C. 380. A. 381. D. 382. E. 383. C. 384. C. 385. D. 386. D. 387. E. 388. A. 389. B. 390. A. 391. D. 392. C. 393. A. 394. D. 395. D. 396. A. 397. A. 398. C. 399. C. 400. D. 401. E. 402. A. 403. D. 404. C. 405. B. 406. D. 407. C. 408. D. 409. D. 410. E. 411. C. 412. C. 413. C. 414. A. 415. D. 416. D. 417. C. 418. D. 419. D. 420. D. 421. D. 422. D. 423. D. 424. C. 425. D. 426. D. 427. A. 428. D. 429. D. 430. E. 431. A. 432. C. 433. D. 434. D. 435. D. 436. D. 437. C. 438. D. 439. D. 440. D. 441. E. 442. C. 443. C. 444. E. 445. A. 446. B. 447. D. 448. B. 449. B. 450. D. 451. C. 452. B. 453. D. 454. D. 455. D. 456. E. 457. A. 458. C. 459. A. 460. D. 461. D. 462. D. 463. E. 464. A. 465. D. 466. D. 467. C. 468. D. 469. A. 470. A. 471. C. 472. D. 473. A. 474. E. 475. A. 476. B. 477. A. 478. E. 479. C. 480. C. 481. C. 482. D. 483. C. 484. B. 485. D. 486. C. 487. B. 488. C. 489. A. 490. E. 491. A. 492. D. 493. B. 494. A. 495. C. 496. D. 497. A. 498. C.

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RECOMMENDED LITERATURE

Basic:

1. Lazarev, K. L. Medical Biology : Textbook / K.L. Lazarev. - 2th ed. - Simferopol : IAD CSMU, 2003. - 592 p. 2. Bihunyak T. V. Medical Biology : textbook / T. V. Bihunyak. - 2nd ed. unchanged. - Ternopil : Ukrmedknyha, 2016. - 214 p. 3. Medical biology: the study guide of the practical classes course : study guide for students of higher medical educational establishments of the IV level of accreditation / O. V. Romanenko [et al.] ; ed by.: O. V. Romanenko. - Kyiv : Medicine, 2008. - 304 p. 4. Molecular and cellular levels organization of living things. Навчально- методичний посібник для студентів І курсу медичних факультетів спеціальність «лікувальна справа» англійська мова навчання / Приходько О.Б., Попович А.П., Ємець Т.І.– Запоріжжя: ЗДМУ, 2017. – 177 с. 5. Population-specific, biogeocenotic and Biosphere Biological Organisation. Text-book. / Prykhodko A.B, Popovich A.P., Yemets T.I., Maleeva A.Y. – Zaporizshya: ZSMU, 2017. – 108 с. Additional:

1. Lieberman, Michael A. Biochemistry, Molecular Biology & Genetics / Michael A. Lieberman, R. Rice. - 6th ed. - India : Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2016. - 449 p. 2. Friedman J.M., Dill F.J., Hayden M.R., McGillivray B.C. Genetics. – Harward Publishing company, 1976, 250 p. 3. Green N.P.O., StoutG.W., Taylor D.J., Soper R. Biological science – Cambridge University Press, 1993. 4. Widnell C.C., Pflenninger K.H. Essential cell biology – Baltimore, Hong Kong, 1990, 396 p.

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