DAMB 711 Microbiology Exam IV B 100 points November 30, 2010

Your name (Print Clearly):

Exam # ______

Seat ______

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I. Multiple Choice: Choose the ONE BEST answer. Mark the correct answer on Part 1 of the answer sheet. Use a #2 pencil.

Use the choices below to answer questions 1 through 6.

A. HAV B. HBV C. HCV D. HDV E. B and C

A 1. Sometimes called “short incubation” .

C 2. Highest chronicity rate.

D 3. Co-infects with HBV.

A 4. Fecal/oral transmission.

B 5. HBsAg in patient’s serum

E.6. Chronicity predisposes to liver cancer

7. Coxiella burnetti is etiologic in ______and is ______.

A. Q fever: transmitted through a fecal/oral route B. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever: transmitted in blood from tick bites. C. Q fever: inhaled in aerosols of dried waste from livestock. D. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever: transmitted in tick bites E. Erlichiosis resident in leukocytes in blood transmitted by ticks

8. Viruses are susceptible to extra-cellular antiviral drugs and during the: A. eclipse phase B. intracellular phase C. transmission phase D. latent phase E. C and D.

9. Surface glycoprotein(s) that may act as the major viral adhesin and antigen:

A. core protein B. C. matrix protein D. peplomer

10. If a virus invades the mucosal epithelium of the upper respiratory tract, replicates locally to cause disease and is shed from the upper respiratory tract:

A. The virus is causing a systemic infection. B. The virus is causing a localized infection. C. The virus is oncogenic. D. The virus is causing a latent infection.

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11. A virus invades the mucosal epithelium of the upper respiratory tract and replicates locally. It then becomes viremic and infects the spleen where it causes tissue damage. Subsequently, the virus causes a secondary viremia and then reinfects and is shed from the mucosal epithelium of the upper respiratory tract.

A. The virus is causing a systemic infection. B. The virus is causing a localized infection. C. The virus is oncogenic. D. The virus is causing a latent infection.

12. Viruses that can cause uncontrolled growth of cells in vivo with resulting tumor formation are:

A. transforming B. latent C. chronic D. oncogenic E. lytic

13. A nonspecific immune defense against viral infection:

A. pyocyanin B. transformation C. interferon D. oncogene

14. Which of the following types of animal virus requires RNA-dependent DNA polymerase to be replicated?

A. (+) sense ssRNA viruses B. ssDNA viruses C. (–) sense ssRNA viruses D. E. dsDNA viruses

15. Latency is an outcome particularly characteristic of which one of the following virus groups?

A. Polioviruses B. Herpesviruses C. Rhinoviruses D. viruses

A local laboratory testing the serum of source patients from sharps injuries in dental offices obtains the results indicated in 16 through 19. Use the choices below to indicate the HBV status of the patients. A. acute HBV infection B. immunity to HBV C. late stage chronic HBV infection D. either acute or chronic E. incubating carrier

D 16. HBsAg, HBeAg and anti-HBcAg

B 17. anti-HBsAg only

C 18. HBsAg, anti-HBcAg and anti-HBeAg

E 19. HBsAg only

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20. The serum factor that indicates a patient is infected with an actively replicating HBV that is highly transmissible is :

A. HBsAg B. anti-HBcAg C. anti-HBeAg D. HBeAg E. anti-HBsAg

21. The hemagglutinin of the influenzae virus:

A. is an envelope protein that binds selectively to neuraminic acid B. is a capsid protein that removes sialic acid from host glycoproteins (mucins) C. is an important antigen that allows the virus to infect the host. D. A and C are true. E. A and B are true.

22. Mutations in the influenzae virus that result in a new strain of virus are:

A. antigenic drift B. the result of mixed infection with two or more strains of influenzae virus one of which is an avian strain C. antigenic shift D. possible because the segmented ssRNA genome allows reassortment of the genes that encode the hemagglutinin and neuraminidase E. All except A.

23. The Epstein-Barr virus is implicated in all of the following diseases EXCEPT:

A. Burkitt’s lymphoma B. cervical cancer C. nasopharyngeal carcinoma D. mononucleosis E. oral hairy leukoplakia

24. An opportunistic cancer that is associated with human herpes virus 8:

A. Kaposi’s sarcoma B. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma C. B cell lymphoma D. Burkitt’s lymphoma E. Hairy cell leukemia

25. A patient with shingles has a latent infection with:

A. Varicella B. Zoster C. HTLV D. virus 1 E. herpes simplex virus 2

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26. The envelope protein on the influenzae virus that mediates release of the virus from the cells of the respiratory epithelium as well as dispersion of aggregated influenza virions is:

A. the neuraminidase B. a glycoprotein Fc receptor C. the hemagglutinin D. the matrix (M2) protein

27. This viral chemotherapeutic agent is an ion channel blocker that inhibits replication of the influenzae virus.

A. acyclovir B. zidovudine (AZT) C. amantadine D. ritonavir

28. This virus causes a form of infectious mononucleosis in which a patient’s B cells will produce heterophile antibodies.

A. Epstein Barr B. Zoster C. HTLV D. herpes simplex virus 1 E. Cytomegalovirus

29. The HIV virus utilizes the chemokine receptors, CCR5 and CXCR4:

A. to promote the action (function) of B. as secondary receptors to bind gp120 C. to promote fusion of the viral and host cell membranes D. A, B and C are true. E. B and C are true.

30. During the period of clinical latency, the HIV virus is:

A. latent in the lymphoid tissue B. actively replicating in and destroying the lymphoid tissue C. invading neural tissue including macrophages and glial cells in the brain D. maintained in high levels in the blood E. Both B and C.

31. Among the genes encoding the HIV proteins, the gene that shows the greatest divergence (highest mutation rate) is:

A. gag B. C. D. gene that encodes gp120 and gp 41 E. C and D.

32. The principal reservoir for the antigenic shift variants of the influenza virus appears to be

A. people in isolated communities such as the Arctic. B. animals, specifically pigs, horses and fowl. C. soil, especially in the tropics. D. sewage.

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33. Which of the following conditions is LEAST likely to be caused by adenovirus?

A. Conjuctivitis B. Pneumonia C. Pharyngitis D. Glomerulonephritis

34. Each of the following statements concerning the antigenicity of influenza A virus is correct EXCEPT:

A. Antigenic shifts, which represent major changes in antigenicity, occur infrequently and are due to the recombination (reassortment) of segments of the viral genome. B. Antigenic shifts can affect both the hemagglutinin and the neuraminidase. C. The world wide epidemics caused by influenza A virus are due to antigenic shifts. D. New strains of influenza B produced by antigenic drift are responsible for recurring influenza pandemics

35. A class of antiviral drugs that block by inhibiting cleavage and, therefore, maturation of HIV proteins.

A. inhibitors B. nucleoside analogs C. DNA polymerase inhibitors D. protease inhibitors E. non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

36. Which of the following is NOT an opportunistic infection that commonly infects AIDS patients?

A. extrapulmonary tuberculosis B. adult acute T-cell lymphocytic leukemia C. Pneumocystis pneumonia D. progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy E. oral candidiasis

37. An outbreak of severe pneumonia with several fatalities among the residents of a nursing home was traced to contaminated respiratory therapy equipment. Specimens were collected from the equipment and grown using special culture media. The causative agent was eventually isolated from the cytoplasm of freshwater protozoa living on the respiratory equipment. What is the most likely etiologic agent causing this outbreak?

A. Adenovirus B. Chlamydia pneumonia C. Mycoplasma pneumonia D. Legionella pneumophilia E. Respiratory Syncitial Virus

38. One of the following respiratory pathogens can be cultivated in vitro on artificial media. The others must be cultivated on cells or in fertilized eggs. Which pathogen can be cultivated on artificial media?

A. Adenovirus B. Chlamydia pneumonia C. Mycoplasma pneumonia D. Chlamydia psittaci E. Respiratory Syncitial Virus

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II. Matching: The questions below consist of headings followed by a list of phrases. For each phrase select the ONE heading that best describes that phrase. Mark the answer in Part 2, numbers 1-10, of your answer sheet.

1. elementary body 7. trachoma 2. icteric phase 8. psittacosis 3. arthropod 9. inclusion body 4. HAART 10. Legionella pneumophilia 5. Chlamydia trachomatis 11. Rickettsia prowazekii 6. Rickettsia ricketsii 12. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

5 1. has a rudimentary life cycle

11 2. etiologic in epidemic typhus

7 3. in the late stages of this chronic conjunctivitis the eyelashes can abrade the cornea to cause blindness

1 4. infectious form of chlamydia

8 5. a parrot can be the reservoir for this disease

3 6. reservoir, primary host and vector of rickettsial diseases

6 7. etiologic agent of Rocky Mountain spotted fever

2 8. major symptom is jaundice

9 9. seen in histological stains of CMV infected cells

12 10. requires sterols for growth

4 11. protease inhibitor with two reverse transcriptase inhibitors

5 12. co-infection with Neisseria gonorrhea

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Your name (Print Clearly): KEY

III. Short answers. Please, write legibly. I will not give credit for an answer that I cannot read.

(3) 1. Describe the viral genome that can function as mRNA? (+) sense, single stranded RNA

(3) 2. Give the genus and species names of three bacteria that are etiologic agents of atypical pneumoniae.

___Mycoplasma______pneumoniae______

__Chlamydia______pneumoniae_____

___Legionella______pneumophilia______

(1) 3. The Picornavirus that frequently causes the common cold in human adults is: Rhinovirus

(1) 4. A virus that frequently causes the common cold in children under the age of 14 is the: Adenovirus

(1) 5. A virus that causes the common cold, pneumonia and encephalitis is: Adenovirus

(1) 6. SARS and the common cold are caused by different strains of the __Coronavirus______.

(2) 7. Koplik’s spots are a symptom of __measles_ caused by the _Morbillivirus_____.

(2) 8. The most common cause of infantile gastroenteritis is ____Rotavirus___; a related virus that is

a common cause of adult gastroenteritis is __Norwalk virus_____.

(3) 9. What Paramyxoviridae cause the following:

lower respiratory tract disease in children __Respiratory Syncitial Virus____

swelling in the parotid glands ____Mumps___

subacute sclerosing panencephalitis __Morbillivirus__

(2) 10. The basic structure of a viral capsid is either __icosahedral___ or __helical______.

(1) 11. A vaccine that can prevent birth defects resulting in cardiac abnormalities and blindness is the _MMR_.

Measles Rubella

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