PATHOPHYSIOLOGY Name REVIEW ASSIGNMENT #1 – Chapters 6, 7 and 8 Instructions: You may use any resources you wish to answer these questions. 1. Which of the following is part of the body’s first line of defense? A. antibodies B. neutrophils and macrophages C. complement proteins and interferon D. antimicrobial peptides secreted by epithelial cells 2. Overwhelming infections occur when: A. the immune response is inadequate B. any pathogens enter the body C. the immune system overreacts to a threat D. antibodies bind to antigens on bacteria 3. Which of the following is CORRECT about bacteria on the surface of the body? A. All bacteria are pathogenic and should be removed regularly. B. Normal bacterial flora helps to protect the body against pathogens. C. Bacteria that come in contact with the body surface are rapidly killed by body secretions, so the skin has very few bacteria at any one time. D. Body secretions promote the growth of pathogenic bacteria on the skin. 4. When the inflammatory process begins, which cells release chemicals that initiate the vascular response? A. mast cells B. vascular epithelium C. neutrophils D. macrophages 5. What is a purpose of the inflammatory process? A. To provide specific responses toward antigens B. To lyse cell membranes of microorganisms C. To limit and control tissue damage and prevent serious infection D. To create immunity against subsequent tissue injury 6. Which mast cell product causes brief vasoconstriction followed by vasodilation? A. tumor necrosis factor-alpha B. bradykinin C. histamine D. platelet activating factor 7. Aspirin and ibuprofen are good at controlling pain, fever and inflammation because they: A. prevent mast cell degranulation B. block binding of histamine C. interfere with the action of interleukins D. inhibit prostaglandin synthesis 8. Complement proteins have all of the following actions EXCEPT: A. inducing cell lysis B. stimulating pain receptors C. causing mast cell degranulation D. opsonizing encapsulated bacteria 2 9. A six -year-old cuts her foot on a piece of dirty glass in the morning. That evening the cut is red and inflamed. Which type of cell would be present in highest numbers at the site of the cut? A. lymphocyte B. macrophage C. neutrophil D. eosinophil 10. Which of the following is a CORRECT statement about cytokines? A. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha and interleukin-1 both cause fever. B. Interleukins are secreted by virus-infected cells to protect their neighbors from infection. C. All cytokines stimulate the inflammatory response. D. Most cytokines are produced by neutrophils. 11. A hospitalized patient develops an unexplained fever. A differential blood count is done, which shows an increase in lymphocytes but a normal neutrophil count. This person is probably suffering from a: A. bacterial infection B. post-surgical reaction to anesthesia C. reaction to pain medication D. viral infection 12. Which of the following in NOT characteristic of chronic inflammation? A. inflammation for more than 2 weeks B. granuloma formation C. high fever and a differential blood cell count with many neutrophils D. presence of many lymphocytes and macrophages 13. A 22 -year-old woman suffers acute hepatitis. Within a few weeks she is recovered and her liver has fully regenerated. A biopsy of her liver tissue six months later would show: A. both healthy cells and scar tissue evenly distributed throughout the sample B. healthy tissue that looks nearly the same as a person who had not suffered hepatitis C. areas of necrosis and fibrosis interspersed with healthy tissue D. replacement of some normal liver cells with hypertrophic cells 14. When a wound pulls apart at a suture line this is referred to as: A. dehiscence B. contracture C. keloid formation D. dysfunctional collagen synthesis 15. Which of the following is NOT correct about adaptive immunity? A. It is specific. B. It produces memory cells. C. It induces a response that provides long-lasting protection from invaders. D. It takes effect very rapidly when new pathogens are first encountered. 16. An important role played by some phagocytes is to alert the adaptive immune system to the presence of foreign pathogens. They do this by: A. secretion of histamine and prostaglandins B. activating the complement cascade C. presenting engulfed antigens to lymphocytes D. releasing antibodies 3 17. The process of B-cell activation by an antigen and the subsequent formation of plasma cells that can secrete antibodies specific for that same antigen is known as: A. cell mediated immunity B. humoral immunity C. innate immunity D. passive immunity 18. An example of active immunity is: A. development of antibodies in response to vaccination B. transfer of antibodies from mother to child through her milk C. injection with antisera to combat snake venom D. transfusion of anti-Rh antibodies to prevent an Rh-negative mother from becoming sensitized to an Rh-positive fetus. 19. Chronic infections are most likely to occur in people whose immune systems are: A. sensitive B. normal C. overactive D. compromised 20. A female student is vaccinated against polio before traveling to Africa on a mission trip. While there she encounters a patient suffering from polio, but she does not develop the disease herself. Which of the following is most important in preventing her from developing polio? A. B cells are destroying virus-infected cells before the virus can spread. B. Antibodies bind to the virus and prevent it from binding to and entering her cells. C. Memory T cells are attacking the virus particles and lysing them. D. Phagocytes in her respiratory epithelium engulf and destroy the virus before it can enter other tissues. 21. A medical student is studying why some children are less likely than others to develop “pink eye” (conjunctivitis - an infection of the conjunctiva of the eye). When tears from resistant children are analyzed, which of the following is most likely to be present? A. IgA antibodies B. cytotoxic T cells C. IgG antibodies D. complement protein 22. Which type of cell is directly responsible for the process of cell-mediated immunity? A. T lymphocytes B. B lymphocytes C. macrophages D. plasma cells 23. In which process does the body produce millions of different T and B cells that each have receptors to recognize one specific antigen? A. clonal selection B. clonal diversity C. clonal deletion D. self-antigen selection 4 24. Which statement is CORRECT about development of antigen receptors on the surface of lymphocytes? A. When a lymphocyte encounters a foreign antigen it produces the specific antigen receptors that will bind to it. B. Each lymphocyte’s particular antigen receptors are acquired while it is maturing in the bone marrow or thymus. C. All lymphocytes develop identical antigen receptors during differentiation in the bone marrow. D. Antigen receptors develop after the primary response on the surface of memory cells. 25. Which cells coordinate the immune response and activate other cells of immunity and inflammation? A. mast cells B. macrophages C. B lymphocytes D. T lymphocytes 26. Why does the secondary immune response occur faster than the primary response? A. T cells must encounter antigen twice before they will respond to it. B. Only a few plasma cells are produced during the primary response. C. Clonal selection occurs faster each time it happens. D. Memory cells are already present and can rapidly produce large amounts of antibody. 27. Which type of antibody is transferred from the mother to the fetus across the placenta? A. IgA B. IgE C. IgG D. IgM 28. Which of the following declines the most as a result of atrophy of the thymus with increased age? A. T cell function B. B cell function C. phagocytosis D. autoimmune reactions 29. Hypersensitivity is: A. a reduced immune response found in most pathologic states. B. a normal immune response to an infectious agent. C. an excessive or inappropriate response of the immune system to a sensitizing antigen. D. antigenic desensitization. 30. Cindy, who is allergic to cats, visits a new friend who owns a cat. If you analyzed a sample of Cindy’s blood serum later that day, which of the following would be most likely? A. No change would be noticeable in her blood. B. It would contain a high number of lymphocytes. C. It would contain a low level of IgM. D. It would contain high levels of IgE antibody. 31. A woman purchases an inexpensive metal bracelet. After wearing it for a couple of days she notices a red rash in the area where it contacts her skin. Which of the following immune reactions is she experiencing? A. IgE-mediated B. Tissue specific C. Immune complex D. Cell-mediated 5 32. A 16 -year-old boy who is allergic to peanuts visits a restaurant that serves unshelled peanuts to waiting customers as an appetizer. After a few minutes he begins itching and develops red, watering eyes and difficulty breathing. He is suffering from: A. alloimmunity. B. autoimmunity. C. anaphylaxis. D. tissue-specific hypersensitivity. 33. A 12 -year-old girl suffers a severe strep throat infection. Antigens from the strep bacteria form complexes with antibodies in her blood and become deposited in the glomeruli of her kidneys, triggering an immune response. This is an example of: A. Type I hypersensitivity B. Type II hypersensitivity C. Type III hypersensitivity D. Type IV hypersensitivity 34. After receiving penicillin for an infection, a woman develops fatigue, dyspnea on exertion, and pallor. Blood tests reveal hemolytic anemia and the presence of antibodies against her red blood cells. This is an example of: A. Type I hypersensitivity B. Type II hypersensitivity C. Type III hypersensitivity D. Type IV hypersensitivity 35. An example of a tissue-specific autoimmune disease is: A.