
FAMILY MEDICINE (FM-1) MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS / TYPE I Select the correct answers to the following questions!!! ...each question may have more than one correct answer. FM-1.1. Renal calcification is a possible complication of: A) medullary cystic kidney disease B) renal tuberculosis C) sarcoidosis D) sickle cell anemia E) secondary hyperparathyroidism FM-1.2. Which of the following statements concerning chromosomes are correct? A) their number is normally 46 B) mosaicism is the coexistence of cells with different number of chromosomes within the same organism C) they are always identical in cells of the same phenotype D) nondisjunction must be followed by translocation E) they can be used as tumor markers FM-1.3. Drugs with a bacteriostatic effect in regular doses include: A) tetracyclines B) cephalosporins C) sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim (Sumetrolim) D) erythromycin E) amoxycillin FM-1.4. Factors causing a susceptibility to urinary tract infect include: A) urinary tract obstruction B) diabetes mellitus C) hyperkalemia D) prolonged tetracycline therapy E) pregnancy FM-1.5. The medical history of a 45-year-old male reveals episodes of vertigo and loss of consciousness associated with sweating. Possible causes of his symptoms include: A) hyperventilation B) hyperglycemia C) Zollinger-Ellison syndrome D) pheochromocytoma E) paroxysmal tachycardia FM-1.6. Possible causes of hematemesis include: A) salicylate administration B) an oral iron supplement overdose C) severe burn injury D) Menetrier's disease (giant hypertrophic gastritis) E) feeding via a nasogastric tube FM-1.7. The use of which of the following should be avoided in patients receiving monoamino-oxidase inhibitor therapy: A) cheese B) imipramine (Melipramin) C) phentolamine (Regitin) D) pethidine (Dolargan) E) sulphonamides FM-1.8. Which of the following conditions are usually associated with purpura? A) Henoch-Schonlein syndrome B) hepatic cirrhosis C) systemic lupus erythematosus D) Addison's disease E) Raynaud's phenomenon FM-1.9. Bone density is markedly increased in: A) osteopetrosis B) Paget's disease of the bone C) following the intake of a large amount of fluoride D) hyperparathyroidism E) renal osteodystrophy FM-1.10 Which of the following conditions is associated with a male-type distribution of hair in females? A) myxedema B) true hermaphroditism C) Laurence-Moon-Biedl syndrome D) Stein-Leventhal.syndrome (polycystic ovary) E) Cushing's syndrome FM-1.11. In which of the following conditions can central cyanosis be detected? A) methemoglobinemia B) ventilation-perfusion mismatch C) pulmonary arteriovenous fistula D) heatstroke E) heavy physical exercise FM-1.12. Which of- the following statements about delirium tremens are correct? A) chlormethiazole (Heminevrin) is suitable for treatment B) acoustic hallucinations are common C) visual hallucinations are common D) elecroshock therapy is indicated in severe cases E) the condition may be fatal FM-1.13. In which of the following conditions can renal failure be fatal? A) hypernephroma B) systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) C) Weil's disease D) renal tuberculosis E) accelerated hypertension FM-1.14. Penicillin administration is the appropriate therapy in which of the following complications of syphilis? A) meningitis B) aneurysm of the aorta C) interstitial keratitis D) condyloma latum E) the generalized paralysis of psychotic patients FM-1.15. Characteristics of mycoplasma-pneumonia include: A) pleural effusion as a common complication B) the presence of cold agglutinins C) associated renal failure D) a good response to tetracyclines E) patients immunized against mycoplasma are resistant FM-1.16. Which of the following statements about post-traumatic epilepsy are correct? A) it usually follows head trauma within a month B) the CT reveals the causative abnormalities C) it requires surgical therapy in most cases D) it responds poorly to standard anticonvulsive therapy E) the EEG reveals its characteristic changes FM-1.17. Macroglossia is a possible feature of which of the following conditions? A) acromegaly B) Marfan's syndrome C) Hurler's syndrome D) achondroplasia E) amyloidosis FM-1.18. A paradoxically split second heart sound is a feature of., A) severe pulmonary stenosis B) a ventricular septal defect C) severe aortic stenosis D) a patent ductus arteriosus E) complete right bundle branch block FM-1.19. Bilateral parotid gland enlargement is a symptom of A) Mikulicz's syndrome B) infectious mononucleosis C) mumps D) brucellosis E) sarcoidosis FM-1.20. Which of the following statements about Conn's syndrome are correct? A) a high aldosterone level in the serum is a characteristic finding B) the plasma renin activity is elevated C) the associated hypertension is malignant in 10% of cases D) hyperkalemia is a common complication E) operative therapy is usually recommended FM-1.21. Recognized causes of nodular hepatomegaly include: A) postnecrotic cirrhosis B) primary biliary cirrhosis C) syphilis of the liver D) Weil's disease (Leptospira icterohemorrhagica) E) carcinomatous metastases of the liver FM-1.22. Which of the following symptoms are associated with Turner's syndrome? A) infantilism B) congenital abnormalities of the external genitalia C) an atrial septal defect D) retinitis pigmentosa E) a short stature FM-1.23. Symptoms characteristic of an acute exacerbation of ulcerative colitis include: A) the development of anemia B) the occurrence of vertigo following sulfasalazine therapy C) macroscopically detected blood in the feces D) the development of generalized eruptions E) an increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate FM-1.24. The early manifestations of congenital syphilis include: A) oral eczema B) interstitial keratitis C) occipital lymphadenopathy D) Clutton-knee (Clutton's joint) E) chorioretinitis FM-1.25. Which of the following statements about congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis are correct? A) it is more frequent in females B) there is an increased likelihood for any offspring to be similarly afflicted C) any vomit almost never contains bile D) the pyloric ring is rarely palpable E) the majority of patients require surgical therapy FM-1.26. Which of the following statements about renal disease are correct? A) a 3000 ml/24 h urine volume is a normal finding B) the severity of proteinuria correlates with the severity of the responsible renal disease C) granular casts are observed exclusively in renal disease D) orthostatic proteinuria, if chronic, is abnormal E) Tamm-Horsfall protein is a normal constituent of the urine FM-1.27. Which of the following conditions is associated with true hematuria? A) urinary tract tuberculosis B) acute pyelonephritis C) acute cystitis D) malignant hypertension E) renal infarction FM-1.28. Which of the following statements about medullary cystic kidney disease are correct? A) the prognosis is usually poor B) it is usually manifested during childhood C) the diagnosis is based on the associated radiological findings D) renal calculi may be present E) renal function is frequently impaired FM-1.29. In the carcinoid syndrome: A) mitral stenosis is a possible complication B) it may be diagnosed by measuring the vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) concentration in the urine C) the application of methysergide (Deseril) is a possible therapeutic intervention D) any associated alcohol intake can induce a facial blushing E) chronic dyspnea is a recognized complication FM-1.30. Primary optic nerve atrophy is a recognized complication of: A) glaucoma B) disseminated sclerosis C) Paget's disease of the skull D) neurosyphilis E) ethambutol (Sural) therapy FM-1.31. Recognized causes of motor neuropathy include: A) diabetes mellitus B) porphyria C) Guillain-Barre syndrome D) Friedrich's ataxia E) diphtheria FM-1.32. Possible causes of hypercholesterolemia include: A) primary biliary cirrhosis B) the nephrotic syndrome C) hyperthyroidism D) hepatocellular jaundice E) Gaucher's disease FM-1.33. Which of the following statements about Charcot's joint are correct? A) it is caused by syringomyelia B) it is caused by diabetes mellitus C) it is more frequent in females than in males D) one of its complications is kyphosis E) penicillin therapy is effective if this alteration is caused by syphilis FM-1.34. Recurrent syncopes are possible complications: A) in narcolepsy B) during the Valsalva maneuver C) in children suffering from whooping cough D) of the Shy-Drager syndrome E) in Adams-Stokes syncope FM-1.35. Which of the following symptoms are associated with chronic alcoholism? A) acoustic hallucinations B) amnestic syndromes C) severe pruritus D) degeneration of the corpus callosum E) multiple mononeuritis FM-1.36. Which of the following signs can be attributed to an iron deficiency anemia? A) a pale color of the sclera B) hepatosplenomegaly C) glossodynia (pain in the tongue) D) menorrhagia E) neurologic abnormalities FM-1.37. Which of the following statements about lymphogranuloma inguinale are correct? A) its causative agent is Chlamydia B) it is associated with painful primary genital lesions C) it causes painless inguinal lymphadenopathy D) it is frequently associated with suppuration of the inguinal lymph nodes E) rectal stenosis is a possible complication FM-1.38. Which of the following statements about hallucinations are correct? A) acoustic hallucinations are a common complication of amphetamine psychosis B) paranoid symptoms are characteristic of "cocaine psychosis" C) amphetamines can induce hallucinations D) hallucinations are inevitable symptoms of schizophrenia E) purely
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