<p> Modul 1 The main methods of examination of patients in Internal Medicine Clinics Text test 1. During inspection of a patient with severe cardiac failure it is possible to discover: A. Pale and puffy face B. *Ematiation or anasarca C. Edema on the legs without elevation of skin under the pressure D. All mentioned E. Jaundice and skin itching 2. A doctor asks a patient about life history. Which contaminant diseases is it necessary to ask about? A. Pneumonia B. Chicken pox C. Hypertension D. Chronic bronchitis E. * Tuberculosis 3. A doctor had completed inquiry and physical examination of a patient. Which conclusion about patient’s health state is the doctor able to make in 3 days of patient’s observation after primary examination when results of laboratory and instrumental examinations are obtained? A. To determine affected system B. * To put clinical diagnosis C. To evaluate general condition of a patient D. To put preliminary diagnosis E. To prescribe necessary treatment 4. A doctor has completed inquiry of a patient. Which conclusion is he able to make? A. * To determine affected system, to establish the connection between complaints and the course of the disease B. To put clinical diagnosis C. To evaluate general condition of a patient D. To put preliminary diagnosis E. To prescribe necessary treatment 5. A doctor is assessing patient’s body built. Which among the following signs are typical for hypersthenic type of constitution? A. Sternum is protruded forward B. *Sub- and supraclavicular fossa are protruded, ribs are horizontal C. Low of blood preasure D. Decreased cholesterol level E. Hypofunction of adrenal and sex glands 6. A doctor is assessing patient’s body built. Which of the following signs are typical for asthenic type of constitution? A. Sternum is protruded forward B. Sub- and supraclavicular fossa are protruded, ribs are horizontal C. High blood preasure D. Increased cholesterol level E. *Hypofunction of adrenal and sex glands 7. A doctor is assessing patient’s body built. Which of the following signs are typical for the “pigeon chest”? A. *Sternum is protruded forward B. Anterioposterior diameter of the chest is larger than the normal C. Ribs are horizontal D. Sub- and supraclavicular fossa are elevated E. Barrel-shaped chest 8. A doctor is assessing patient’s body built. Which of the following signs are typical for the hypersthenic chest? A. Sternum is protruded forward B. *Anterioposterior diameter of the chest is larger than the normal, ribs are horizontal C. Epigastric angle is less than 90 degrees D. Sub- and supraclavicular fossa are elevated E. Cylindric chest 9. A doctor has finished inquiry and general inspection of a patient. Which conclusion is he able to make? A. To determine affected system B. To put clinical diagnosis C. To evaluate general condition of a patient D. * To put preliminary diagnosis E. To determine leading syndrome 10. A doctor has revealed “proud” walking of a patient. Which pathological condition is it typical for? A. Angina pectoris B. Atherosclerosis of lower limbs arteries C. * Ascites D. Bronchial asthma attack E. Paresis of a limb 11. A doctor has revealed accumulation of liquid in patient’s abdominal cavity. How is it called in medical term? A. Hepatomegaly B. Anasarca C. Pleurisy D. * Ascites E. Pastositas 12. A doctor has revealed accumulation of liquid in patient’ subcutaneos tissue. How is it called in medical term? A. Hepatomegaly B. Anasarca C. Pleurisy D. Ascites E. * Edema 13. A doctor has revealed paleness of patient’s skin and edema below his eyes. Which pathological condition is it typical for? A. Daun’s syndrome B. Scleroderma C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Itzenko-Cushin’s disease E. * Renal failure 14. A doctor has revealed lowering of the left upper eyelead in a patient. How is it called? A. Left-sided ectopy B. Left-sided entropy C. Left-sided blepharospasm D. * Left-sided ptosis E. Left-sided exophthalmos 15. A doctor is performing inspection of a neck of a patient with aortal valvular heart defect. Which phenomenon is it possible to reveal during such an examination? A. Negative arterial pulse B. Exophtalmos C. Arterial collapse D. Scoliosis E. * Carotic shudder 16. A patient complains of fever and caugh, pain in the right half of the chest, dyspnea and chest pains. Which system should you start review of systems from? A. * Respiratory B. Digestive C. Cardiovascular D. Any system E. Not affected system 17. A patient has saber-shaped shins. Which pathological condition is it typical for? A. Cardiovascular pathology B. * Congenital syphilis C. Rachitis in childchood D. Respiratory pathology E. Pathology of digestive system 18. A patient is hospitalized because of acute myocardial infarction. In his anamnesis there are data about peptic ulcer and chronic bronchitis. Which system should you start review of systems from? A. Does not matter – any system B. * Cardiovascular C. Nervous D. Respiratory E. Digestive 19. A patient is lying on the affected side of the chest to diminish caugh in the case of : A. Bronchial asthma B. Chronic bronchitis C. *Cavity in the lungs on the affected side D. Myocardial infarction E. Pneumonia 20. A patient is sitting in a bed bending forward and pressing abdominal wall with his hands. Which pathology can you suspect in this case? A. *Stomach or duodenal ulcer or gastritis B. Renal colic C. Pneumonia D. Pericarditis with effusion E. Myocardial infarction 21. A patient suffers of bronchial asthma. What is it necessary to ask about his history of present illness to determine possible cause of the disease? A. When and under what circumstances did first signs of the disease appear B. Harmful habits C. Tuberculosis in the past D. * Allergological anamnesis E. Heredity anamnesis 22. A patient was admitted to therapeutical department of a hospital with diagnosis “ arterial hypertension”. Which details of his heredity will be important to prove the diagnosis? A. * Did patient’s parents suffer of hypertension? B. Does patient’s wife suffer of hypertension? C. Did wife’s parents suffer of hypertension? D. Did the patient suffer of hypertension in early childhood? E. How long the patient experiences hypertension? 23. A patient was admitted to therapeutical department with suspicion on liver disease. Which data of his life history will be helpful to determine the cause of the disease? A. Data about hospital treatment in the past B. * Data about hemotransfusions in the past C. Data about patient’s blood pressure in the past D. Data about living conditions in the past E. All mentioned 24. A patient was undergone to several propcedures of hemotransfusion. What disease can he develop due to these procedures in underobservation of aseptics and antiseptics? A. Pneumonia B. *Viral hepatitis C. Liver cirrhosis D. Hypertension E. Rheumatic fever 25. A patient was undergone to several propcedures of hemotransfusion. What diseases can he develop due to these procedures? A. Pneumonia B. *AIDS C. Liver cirrhosis D. Hypertension E. Rheumatic fever 26. A posture of “supplant” is typical for: A. Rheumatic disease B. * Bechterev’s disease C. Chronic hepatitis D. Peptic ulcer E. Chronic nephritis 27. A student has to perform general inspection of a patient. General inspection means the following: A. Inspection of skin and mucous membranes only B. Inspection of locus morbi C. *Assessment of general patient’s condition, consciousness, patient’s position, skin and mucosa, subcutaneous fat D. Inspection of all the body from the top of the head to feet regardless of localization of pathological process; E. Assessment of general patient’s condition, skin and mucosa, subcutaneous fat 28. A student should assess patient’s facial expression. Which pathological condition is “Korvizar’s face” typical for? A. Kidney disease B. Infectious disease C. * Cardiacfailure D. Anaemia E. Peritonitis 29. A student should assess patient’s facial expression. Which pathological condition is “Hyppocrite’s face” typical for? A. Kidney disease B. Infectious disease C. Cardiacfailure D. Anaemia E. * Peritonitis 30. A student should assess patient’s facial expression. Which pathological condition is “Facies Basedovica” typical for? A. Kidney disease B. Infectious disease C. Cardiacfailure D. Anaemia E. * Toxic goitre. 31. A student should assess patient’s lymph nodes by palpation. In a healthy individual lymphatic nodes are: A. *Not revealed by palpation B. 1-2 mm in diameter C. 3-4 mm in diameter D. 4-5 mm in diameter E. 10 mm in diameter 32. Edematous legs are typical for: A. Congenital heart disease B. Rachitis C. Respiratory pathology D. Syphilis E. Brucellosis 33. Absolute absence of skin pigment is called: A. Vitiligo B. * Albinismus C. Hyperthrichosis D. Achromia E. Hyperchromia 34. Asymetry of face muscles movements and deepness of nasolabial folds may be the sign of: A. Hypertension B. * Disorders of cerebral circulation C. Rheumatic fever D. Hepatitis E. Nephritis 35. Asymmetric movements of facial muscles as well as uneven depth of nasolabial folds may be the sign of: A. Hypertension B. *Brain stroke C. Rheumatic heart disease D. Hepatitis E. Nephritis 36. Blue skin color is typical for: A. Peptic ulcer B. *Cardiac insufficiency (heart failure) C. Hepatitis D. Nephritis E. Nettle rash 37. Blue skin color is typical for: A. Peptic ulcer B. * Respiratory insufficiency C. Hepatitis D. Nephritis E. Nettle rash 38. Light-brown color of skin (like coffee with milk) is typical for: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Rheumatic fever C. * Septic endocarditis D. Bronchitis E. Peptic ulcer 39. Cough with expectoration of rusty sputum is typical for: A. Diffuse catarrhal bronchitis B. Bronchiolitis C. Bronchiectatic disease D. Focal pneumonia E. *Pleuropneumonia 40. Dark-brown color of skin including skin folds is typical for: A. Peptic ulcer B. * Adrenal glands insufficiency C. Chronic hepatitis D. Chronic cholecystitis E. Renal failure 41. Delirium develops in: A. Hypertension B. *Infectious diseases due to intoxication C. Chronic hepatitis D. Nettle rash E. Thyrotoxicosis 42. Delirium develops in: A. Hypertension B. * Alcohol excess C. Chronic hepatitis D. Nettle rash E. Thyrotoxicosis 43. During inspection a doctor revealed “duck walking” of a patient. Which disease is it typical for? A. * Congenital dislocation of femoral joints B. Ascites C. Pericarditis D. Cerebral circulation disorders E. Rachitis in the past 44. During inspection of a patient with heat failure a doctor described changes of patient’s skin as acrocyanosis. In which parts of patient’s body skin becomes blue in this case? A. The face B. Entire body C. Wrists D. The chest E. * Area of a nose, lips, earlobes and nail tips 45. During inspection of a patient with heart failure it is possible to reveal: A. Puffy pale face B. Obesity C. Rigid edema on shins (without) D. “Hypocrate’s face” E. * Marked edema on legs or all the body which leaves elevation against pressure 46. During inspection of patient T. is were revealed yellow plaques on his eyeleads. The patient suffers with liver diseases. How are these plaques called? A. Myosis B. Midriasis C. *Xanthomas D. Keratitis E. Myolisis 47. Edema of vocal folds in myxoedema may be manifested with: A. * Voise hoarsness B. Caugh C. Sneezing D. Fever E. Dryness in the mouth 48. Edema on face may be in: A. Diseases of a heart B. * Kidney diseases C. Pneumonia D. Bronchitis E. Hepatitis 49. Enlarged skull is observed in: A. Microcefalia B. *Hydrocefalia C. Rheumatic heart disease D. Hepatitis E. Nephritis 50. Small skull is typical for: A. * Microcephalia B. Hydrocephalia C. Rheumatic heart disease D. Hepatitis E. Nephritis 51. Erythematous plaques which cover patient’s nose and cheeks in the form of butterfly are typical for: A. * Lupus erythematodus B. Rheumatic fever C. Nettle rash D. Chronic hepatitis E. Chronic pancreatitis 52. Excess skin dryness may be the sign of: A. Hypertension B. Thyrotoxicosis C. Chronic recidive pancreatitis D. Peptic ulcer E. * Dehydratation due to diarrhoea 53. Excess sweating may develop in: A. Hypertension B. Chronic bronchitis C. Peptic ulcer D. * Thyrotoxicosis E. Hypothyreosis 54. Falling of hairs from external parts of eyebrows is observed in: A. Unstable angina pectoris B. Myocardial infarction C. Hypertension D. Rheumatic fever E. * Hypothyreosis 55. For the face of a patient with parkinsonism it is typical the following sign: A. Face is distorted with tubercular and nodal sickness of skin B. * Amimic face C. Rare blinking of eyelids D. Patient’s head is declined forward E. Slipped skin and excess salivation 56. For the face of dying patient (Hippocrite’s face) it is not typical the following: A. Pointed face pattern, especially nose B. Stretched and dry skin of forehead, deep eyes C. * Enlarged eyebrows D. Amimsc face; patient’s look is excited and fixed at one point E. Pergament or pale skin color (especially nose and lips) 57. Hallucinations develop in: A. * Chronic alcoholism B. Hypertension C. Hypothyreosis D. Thyrotoxicosis E. Rheumatic fever 58. “Hippocrate’s face” appears in: A. Presence of air in stomach B. Presence of fluid in stomach C. *Peritonitis D. Ascites E. Ventroptosis 59. Hirsutism is the sign of: A. Rheumatic heart disease B. *Ovarial tumour C. Nephritis D. Hypertension E. Hepatitis 60. Hirsutism may be the sign of: A. Rheumatic fever B. * Cushing’s disease C. Nephritis D. Hypertension E. Nettle rash 61. Hoarse voice is observed in: A. *Aortic aneurism B. Hypertension C. Rheumatic heart disease D. Nephritis E. Hepatitis 62. How is the facial expression typical for heart failure called? A. Hyppocrate’s face B. * Corvisar’s face C. Facies mitralis D. Cushing’s face E. Myxoedematous face 63. How is the symptom called when a patent has focal depigmentation of skin of different sizes? A. * Vitiligo B. Albinismus C. Hypertrichosis D. Achromia E. Hyperchromia 64. How will you explain what is general inspection? A. Observation of a patient in dynamics B. Examination of the region where pathological process is localized C. * Asessment of patient’s body appearance to check any visible pathological changes and evaluate patient’s general health state D. Objective examination of a patient (palpation, perussion, auscultation) E. Asessment of appearance of patient’s separate body parts 65. Hypersthenic type of constitution is characterized by: A. Logitudinal body dymensions prevail in comparation with normosthenics (patients are slim and tall) B. * Transwersal body dymensions prevail in comparation with normosthenics (patient’s parts of body are broad and short) C. Slightly decreased blood pressure D. Epigastric angle is 90 degrees E. Hypofunction of adrenal and sex glands 66. Asthenic type of constitution is characterized by: A. * Logitudinal body dymensions prevail in comparation with normosthenics (patients are slim and tall) B. Transwersal body dymensions prevail in comparation with normosthenics (patient’s parts of body are broad and short) C. Bilirubin concentration is increased in blood D. Blood pressure is increased E. Hyperfunction of adrenal glands 67. In which case may we reveal O-shaped shins? A. In cardiovascular pathology B. In syphilis C. * In the case if the patient had rachitis in childchood D. In respiratory pathology E. In pathology of digestive system 68. In which pathological condition a patient is sitting and supporting with his arms on the window-steel, a table or his knees? A. Diabetes mellitus B. * Bronchial asthma C. Chronic nephritis D. Hypothyreosis E. Thyrotoxicosis 69. In which pathology we can find Corvisar’s face? A. Kidney diseases B. Infections C. * Heart failure D. Anaemia E. Severe disease of abdominal cavity organs 70. Interrupted (scanding) speech of a patient is typical for: A. Chronic bronchitis B. * Neurological disorder C. Rheumatic fever D. Chronic cholecystitis E. Chronic hepatitis 71. Select the proper sentence about lymphatic nodes in norm: A. * Are not palpable B. Are palpable, diameter is 1-2 mm C. Are palpable, diameter is 3-4 mm D. Are palpable, diameter is 4-5 mm E. Are palpable, diameter is 5-6 mm 72. Mark AIDS-risk factors: A. Pregnancy B. *Operations, hemotransfusions C. Upper airways infection D. Talking with HIV-infected person E. Alcohol abuse 73. Mask-like amimic face with wax-like stretched shiny skin which is difficult to take in a fold – all this is typical for: A. Rheumatic disease B. * Systemic scleroderma C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Hypothyreosis E. Rheumatoid arthritis 74. Patient’s position lying on the affected side to decrease pain is typical for: A. Bronchial asthma B. Chronic bronchitis C. Cavity in the lungs D. Myocardial infarction E. * Pleuropneumonia 75. Puffy, equally edematous and pale face is typical for: A. Rheumatic disease B. * Myxoedema C. Hypertension D. Hepatitis E. Ischemic heart disease 76. Skin paleness is observed in all enumerated cases except of: A. Anaemia B. Bleeding C. Renal failure D. * Fever E. Collaps 77. Skin paleness is typical depends on: A. Volume of skin vessels B. *Presence of anaemia, vascular spasm and edema C. Edema D. Vascular spasm E. Amount of pigment 78. Skin rash may develop in: A. Chronic bronchitis B. * Pathology of blood system C. Peptic ulcer D. Ischemic heart disease E. Chronic colitis 79. Spider angiomata are the sign of inflammatory process in: A. Kidney B. Brain C. Heart D. * Liver E. Intesatine 80. The sign of heart failure wich is possible to reveal during general inspection is the folloving: A. Puffy pale face B. Boldness C. Skin hyperemia D. Jaundice E. * Anasarca, accumulation of fluid in body cavities (ascites, hydrothorax), 81. Untypically long and narrow nales are the sign of: A. Rheumatic disease B. * Marphan’s syndrome C. Hypertension D. Ischemic heart disease E. All mentioned 82. What components the past medical history does not consist of? A. Occupation B. Harmful habits C. Family history; D. Allergies E. *Data about present illness 83. What diseases should you obviously ask about when you obtain patient’s past medical history? A. Flu B. Chicken pox C. *Tuberculosis D. Pneumonia E. Chronic colitis 84. Which factors does skin color depend on: A. Hemoglobin B. Filling of skin vessels C. Skin sickness D. Amount of pigment E. * All enumerated 85. What is typical for face of feverish patient with tuberculosis? A. Face is distorted with tubercular and nodal sickness of skin B. Deep eyes, pointed face pattern C. Enlarged eyebrows D. * Shining eyes, pale cheeks with flash on them, cyanosis of a nose, lips, ears E. Protruded cheek-bones, nose, lips are stretched, mouth angles are lowered, wrinkles around mouth 86. What is typical for leprosy face (lion face)? A. * Face is distorted with tubercular and nodal sickness of skin B. Deep eyes, pointed face pattern C. Enlarged eyebrows D. thin face with pointed nasolabial folds E. Protruded cheek-bones, nose, lips are stretched, mouth angles are lowered, wrinkles around mouth 87. What is typical for the face in acromegaly? A. Pointed face pattern, especially nose B. Stretchet and dry skin of forehead, deep eyes C. * Enlarged eyebrows D. Amimic face, excites and fixed at one point look E. Pergament or pale skin color (especially nose and lips) 88. When you obtain patient’s heredity you should ask him all aspects except of: A. Present health state of patient’s parents or cases of their death B. *Present health state of patient’s wife (husband) C. Present health state of patient’s uncles (aunts) D. Present health state of patient’s cousins, nephewes; E. Present health state of patient’s sisters and brothers 89. Which among presented below consciousness disorders belong to irritative? A. Clear consciousness B. Coma C. Stupor D. Sopor E. * Hallucinations 90. Which complaints belong to main? A. Complaints typical for main pathology B. Complaints which follow concomitant disease C. General complaints (weakness, low appetite, degrangrd dream) D. * Complaints which disturb a patient most of all E. Those complaints which, on doctors’ opinion, may indicate on severe condition of the patient 91. Which disease is “facies mitralis” typical for? A. Hypertension B. * Mitral stenosis C. Aortal incompetence D. Tricuspid stenosis E. All memtioned 92. Which contaminant disease is skin color like coffee with milk typical for? A. Cholelithiasis B. * Septic endocarditis C. Mitral incompetence D. Renal failure E. Affection of a liver 93. Which contaminant disease in the past is it necessary to ask a patient about? A. Pneumonia B. Chicken pox C. * Viral hepatitis D. Hypertension E. Chronic bronchitis 94. Which factor does skin color depend on? A. Hemoglobin content B. Volume of skin vessels C. Skin sickness D. Amount of pigment E. *All mentioned 95. Which from the following disorders of consciousness belong to irritative? A. *Delirium B. Coma C. Stupor D. Sopor E. Precoma 96. Which information should a doctor obtain from a patient to reveal AIDS risk factors? A. Does the patient suffer of hyprtension B. Did he has frequent respiratory infections? C. * Did he has hemotransfusions in the past? D. Does he suffers of diabetes mellitus? E. Did he suffer of hepatitis A? 97. Which information belongs to “anamnesis vitae”? A. * Professions in the past B. The cause of the disease C. Character of disease onset D. How long does the disease last E. Patient’s complains 98. Which of enumerated conditions is cyanosis typical for? A. Anaemia B. Renal failure C. * Heart failure D. Hypertermia E. Hypertension 99. Which of enumerated conditions is pale skin color typical for? A. * Anaemia B. Renal failure C. Respiratory failure D. Hypertonic crisis E. Hyperrtermia 100. Which of enumerated conditions is red skin color typical for? A. Anaemia B. Renal failure C. Heart failure D. * Hyperthermia E. Respiratory failure 101. Which part of inquiry does allegrological anamnesis belong to? A. Patient’s complaints B. History of main disease C. * Anamnesis vitae D. Review of systems E. Passport data 102. Which position is typical for the patient in coma: A. Active B. * Passive C. Forced D. Orthopnoe E. All mentioned 103. Which quality of pain may be expressed in the terms "crumping, dull boring, burning, pierching"? A. *Character B. Intensity C. Location D. Irradiation E. Conduction 104. Which system should a doctor start from to obtaine review of systems: A. No value B. Cardiovascular C. * Those system which affection is indicated with patient’s complaints D. Respiratory E. Digestive 105. Why are cardiac edema always located on the lower parts of patient’s body? A. Due to decrease of oncotic pressure of the blood B. Due to decrease of hydrostatic pressure in the vascular bed C. *Due to increase of hydrostatic pressure in the veins of lower limbs, slowing of blood flow,especially in the lower parts of patient’s body D. Due to increased concentration of antidiuretic hormone E. Due to increased concentration of aldosterone 106. You have to collect anamnesis of a patient. Into what section are data about patient’s living conditions included? A. Complaints of a patient B. History of present disease C. *Life history D. Questioning on the systems of organs E. Passport information 107. You have to collect anamnesis of a patient. What aspects must be asked about for detalization of such complaint as а headache? A. Character, duration, location, irradiation B. Presence of palpitation, heart intermissions C. How long does the patient suffer with it D. Previous treatment and examinations. E. *Character, duration, location, irradiation, timing, provoking and releasing factors 108. You have to collect anamnesis of a patient. What should be asked about in the section “History of present disease”? A. Genetic anamnesis B. Harmful habits C. Previous diseases D. Allergy E. *When and under the which circumstances did the first signs of the disease appear 109. You have to collect anamnesis of a patient. Into what section is allergiс anamnesis included? A. Complaints of a patient B. History of present disease C. *Life history D. Questioning on the systems of organs E. Passport information 110. You have to collect anamnesis of a patient. What from the following subsections belongs to life history? A. *Professional way B. Anamnesis of present illness C. Cause of illness on patient's own opinion D. Development of the illness E. Complaints 111. You have to collect anamnesis of a patient. What from the following subsection belongs to life history? A. *Previous diseases B. Anamnesis of present illness C. Cause of illness on patient's own opinion D. Development of the illness E. Complaints 112. You have to collect patient’s anamnesis. Put the components of inquiry in the right order: A. Identifying data; history of present illness; complaints; life history; review of systems B. History of present illness; identifying data; review of systems complaints; life history C. *Identifying data; complaints; history of present illness, review of systems, life history D. Identifying data; review of systems, history of present illness; complaints; life history E. The order is not necessary 113. You have to collect patient’s anamnesis. What components of life history can you find here? A. * Occupation B. Secondary complaints C. Passport data D. Main complaints E. Present illness 114. You have to collect patient’s anamnesis. What among the following belongs to data of life history? A. Passport data B. Complaints C. * Family history D. Frequency of exacerbations of the main disease E. Treatment of the main disease 115. You have to collect patient’s anamnesis. What should you ask a patient about if you obtain history of his present illness? A. Detalization of main complaints; B. Patient’s habits; C. *Treatment in the past till the moment of present examination; D. Allergies; E. Diseases in the past. 116. You have to collect patient’s anamnesis. What should you ask a patient about while you are obtaining history of his present illness? A. *Onset of the disease B. Patient’s habits C. Previous vaccinations D. Allergies E. Harmful hazards 117. Cyanosis is typical for: A. Fever B. *Heart failure C. Hepatitis D. Nephritis E. Bacterial endocarditis 118. Cyanosis is typical for: A. Fever B. *respiratory failure C. Hepatitis D. Nephritis E. Bacterial endocarditis 119. Hypersthenic type of constitution is characterized by: A. Logitudinal body dymensions prevail in comparation with normosthenics (patients are slim and tall) B. * Transwersal body dymensions prevail in comparation with normosthenics (patient’s parts of body are broad and short) C. Slightly decreased blood pressure D. Epigastric angle is 90 degrees E. Hypofunction of adrenal and sex glands 120. Asthenic type of constitution is characterized by: A. * Logitudinal body dymensions prevail in comparation with normosthenics (patients are slim and tall) B. Transwersal body dymensions prevail in comparation with normosthenics (patient’s parts of body are broad and short) C. Bilirubin concentration is increased in blood D. Blood pressure is increased E. Hyperfunction of adrenal glands 121. Hypersthenic type of constitution is characterized by: A. Logitudinal body dymensions prevail in comparation with normosthenics (patients are slim and tall) B. * Epigastric angle ismorge than 90 degrees C. Slightly decreased blood pressure D. Epigastric angle is 90 degrees E. Hypofunction of adrenal and sex glands 122. Hypersthenic type of constitution is characterized by: A. Logitudinal body dymensions prevail in comparation with normosthenics (patients are slim and tall) B. Epigastric angle is less than 90 degrees C. *Slightly increased blood pressure D. Epigastric angle is 90 degrees E. Hypofunction of adrenal and sex glands 123. Hypersthenic type of constitution is characterized by: A. Logitudinal body dymensions prevail in comparation with normosthenics (patients are slim and tall) B. Epigastric angle is less than 90 degrees C. Slightly decreased blood pressure D. Epigastric angle is 90 degrees E. *Hyperfunction of adrenal and sex glands 124. Hypersthenic type of constitution is characterized by: A. Logitudinal body dymensions prevail in comparation with normosthenics (patients are slim and tall) B. Epigastric angle is less than 90 degrees C. Slightly decreased blood pressure D. Epigastric angle is 90 degrees E. *Cholesterol concentration is increased in blood 125. Asthenic type of constitution is characterized by: A. * Epigastric angle is less than 90 degrees B. Transwersal body dymensions prevail in comparation with normosthenics (patient’s parts of body are broad and short) C. Cholesterol concentration is increased in blood D. Blood pressure is increased E. Hyperfunction of adrenal glands 126. Asthenic type of constitution is characterized by: A. Epigastric angle is more than 90 degrees B. Transwersal body dymensions prevail in comparation with normosthenics (patient’s parts of body are broad and short) C. * Cholesterol concentration is decreased in blood D. Blood pressure is increased E. Hyperfunction of adrenal glands 127. Asthenic type of constitution is characterized by: A. Epigastric angle is more than 90 degrees B. Transwersal body dymensions prevail in comparation with normosthenics (patient’s parts of body are broad and short) C. Cholesterol concentration is increased in blood D. * Blood pressure is decreased E. Hyperfunction of adrenal glands 128. Asthenic type of constitution is characterized by: A. Epigastric angle is more than 90 degrees B. Transwersal body dymensions prevail in comparation with normosthenics (patient’s parts of body are broad and short) C. Cholesterol concentration is increased in blood D. Blood pressure is increased E. *Hypofunction of adrenal glands 129. What is it possible to reveal during inspection of a neck? A. *Pulsations of carotic arteries B. Edema C. Deformation D. O any changes E. Hyperemia 130. What is it possible to reveal during inspection of a neck? A. *Pulsations of jugular veins B. Edema C. Deformation D. O any changes E. Hyperemia 131. What is it possible to reveal during inspection of a neck? A. * Swelling of jugular veins B. Edema C. Deformation D. O any changes E. Hyperemia 132. What is it possible to reveal during inspection of a neck? A. *Thyroid gland enlargement B. Edema C. Deformation D. O any changes E. Hyperemia 133. What should be paid attention on during inspection of a neck? A. Pulsations of carotic arteries B. Pulsations of jugular veins C. Swelling of jugular veins D. Thyroid gland enlargement E. *All mentioned 134. Which of enumerated conditions is cyanosis typical for? A. Anaemia B. Renal failure C. * Respiratory failure D. Hypertermia E. Hypertension 135. Skin itching is typical for: A. Allergic reaction B. Jaundice C. Scab D. Renal failure E. * All mentioned 136. You have to collect patient’s anamnesis. What should you ask a patient about if you obtain history of his present illness? A. Detalization of main complaints; B. Patient’s habits; C. *Treatment in the past till the moment of present examination; D. Allergies; E. Diseases in the past. 137. You have to collect patient’s anamnesis. What should you ask a patient about if you obtain history of his present illness? A. Detalization of main complaints B. Patient’s habits C. *Results of previous examinations D. Allergies E. Diseases in the past 138. Select a possible cause of hemopthysis: A. Acute catarrhal bronchitis B. Bronchial asthma attack C. * Lung infarction D. Pleurisy E. All mentioned 139. Select a possible cause of hemopthysis: A. Acute catarrhal bronchitis B. Bronchial asthma attack C. * Tuberculosis D. Pleurisy E. All mentioned 140. Select a possible cause of hemopthysis A. Acute catarrhal bronchitis B. Bronchial asthma attack C. * Lung cancer D. Pleurisy E. All mentioned 141. Select a possible cause of hemopthysis: A. Primary or metasthatic lung tumour B. Orthopnea C. Bronchiectatic disease D. Tuberculosis E. * All mentioned 142. Select the earliest sign of bronchial obstruction: A. Participation of respiratory muscles in breathing B. * Orthopnea and expiratory dyspnea C. Inspiratory dyspnea in physical load D. Cough with small amount of glass-like transparent viscous sputum E. Whistling rales in forced expiration 143. Select the typical peculiarity of pain in pleurisy: A. Short pain B. Prolonged pain C. * Pain occures in deep inspiration and cough D. Pain decreases after usage of nitroglycerine E. Pain is combined with hemopthysis 144. Secelt typical complain of a patient with pleurisy with effusion: A. Pain in the chest in breathing B. Dry cough C. Difficult swallowing D. * Inspiratory dyspnea E. Hemopthysis 145. Name symptom of pleurisy: A. Intensification of vocal fremitus B. Pressing pain in heart region C. * Retardation of affected side of the chest in respiration D. Whistling breathing E. All mentioned 146. Name factors which provoke lung cancer: A. Chronic bronchitis B. * Smoking C. Dust in the air D. Irradiation E. All mentioned 147. Most frequent mechanism of night cough is: A. Pleural irritation B. Accumulation of sputum in bronchi C. *Compression of bronchi with tracheobronchial lymph nodes D. No any of them E. All of them 148. Evening cough is typical for: A. Chronic bronchitis in remission phase B. * Pneumonia C. Lung cancer D. Bronchiectatic disease in remission phase E. Heart failure 149. Most often cause of hemopthysis is: A. Pleurisy with effusion B. Chronic bronchitis C. Bronchial asthma D. * Pulmonary infarction E. Acute bronchitis 150. Expectoration of sputum at once with “full mouth” is typical for: A. Tuberculosis B. * Lung abscess after rupture in a bronchus C. Focal pneumonia D. Pleural empyema E. Bronchial asthma 151. Main symptom of dry pleurisy is: A. Pain in the chest, cough with expectoration of sputum B. * Dry cough, pain in the chest, which intensifies in breath C. Cough with expectoration of sputum, fever D. Pain in the chest with irradiation to the left arm E. Dull boring pain in the chest 152. Periodical Biot’s breathing indicates on: A. Bronchospasm B. Bronchial mucosa inflammation C. * Disordered activity of respiratory center D. Accumulation of effusion in the pleural cavity E. All mentioned 153. Which line should a student start from to determine position of lower border of the left lung? A. Parasternal B. Scapular C. * Anterior axillary D. Medial axillary E. Posterior axillary 154. Which line should a student start to determine position of lower border of the right lung? A. * Parasternal B. Scapular C. Anterior axillary D. Medial axillary E. Posterior axillary 155. Comparative percussion of lungs starts on anterior side of a chest should be started from the following region: A. Suprascapular region B. Intrascapular space C. Infrascapular region D. Lung apexes posteriorly E. * Supraclavicular 156. During inspection of the chest of a patient with pleurisy with effusion we can find: A. Affected part of the chest is decreased B. Barrel-shaped chest C. Protrusion of supraclavicualr regions D. * Retardation of affected part of the chest in breathing E. Participation of adventitious muscles in respiration 157. During inspection of a chest during attacks of bronchial asthma we can find: A. Affected part of the chest is decreased B. Paralytic chest C. * Protrusion of supraclavicualr regions D. Retardation of affected part of the chest in breathing E. Decreased sizes of all the chest 158. By inspection of a chest during attacks of bronchial asthma we can find: A. Affected part of the chest is decreased B. Paralytic chest C. Elevattion of supraclavicualr regions D. Retardation of affected part of the chest in breathing E. * Participation of adventitious muscles in respiration 159. From which level is it necessary to determine lower lung border on scapular line? A. II intercostal space B. III intercostal space C. IV intercostal space D. V intercostal space E. * Lower scapular angle 160. What disease can you suspect in a patient if he periodically diacharges large anount of sputum in one certain position of his body? A. Croupous pneumonia B. Diffuse bronchitis C. * Bronchiectatic disease D. Lung cancer E. Bronchial asthma 161. How will patient’s body temperature change after rupture of lung abscess into a bronchus? A. Will be increase B. * Will be decreased C. Will be hectic D. Will be remitting E. Will be subnormal 162. Which shape of a chest is typical for syringomyelia? A. Barrel-shaped B. Paralytic C. Pigeon chest D. * Foveated chest E. Kyphoscoliosis 163. In which disease the zone of transition of resonant (clear pulmonary) sound to dull one is displaced upwards (data of topographic percussion)? A. * Pleurisy with effusion B. Focal pneumonia C. Bronchiectatic disease D. Diffuse bronchitis E. No any of them 164. . In which disease hemopthysis will be the most often symptom? A. Acute bronchitis B. Focal pneumonia C. Pneumothorax D. * Bronchiectatic disease E. Bronchial asthma 165. In which disease of lungs there will be fingers in the form of "Hippocrete’s fingers"? A. * Chronic lung abscess B. Acute lung abscess C. Pleurisy with effusion D. No any of them E. Croupous pneumonia 166. In which disease of lungs there will be fingers in the form of "Hippocrete’s fingers"? A. * Bronchiectatic disease B. Acute lung abscess C. Pleurisy with effusion D. No any of them E. Croupous pneumonia 167. In which disease a patient first expectorates fresh blood in sputum, and then in several days– dark one? A. Acute catarrhal bronchitis B. Bronchial asthma attack C. * Pulmonary artery thrombembolism D. Pleurisy E. All mentioned 168. The cause of displacement of the lower lung border upwards is: A. * Hepatomegaly B. Acute bronchitis C. Basal pneumosclerosis D. Dry pleurisy E. Bronchial asthma 169. Which bronchitis is dyspnea typical for? A. * With affection of small bronchi B. With affection of medial bronchi C. Diffuse with affection of large bronchi D. All mentioned E. No correct answer 170. The cause of displacement of the lower lung border downwards is: A. Hepatomegaly B. * Pneumothorax C. Basal pneumosclerosis D. Dry pleurisy E. Acute bronchitis 171. The cause of displacement of the lower lung border upwards is: A. Hepatomegaly B. * Lobectomia C. Basal pneumosclerosis D. Pleurisy with effusion E. Acute bronchitis 172. In which disease will vocal fremitus be absent on the side of affection? A. Croupous pneumonia B. Tumour of the large bronchus with oncomplete obturation of the bronchus C. * Pleurisy with effusion D. Pneumosclerosis E. Bronchial asthma 173. In which disease will vocal fremitus be absent on the side of affection? A. Croupous pneumonia B. Tumour of the large bronchus with uncomplete obturation of the bronchus C. * Tumour of the large bronchus with complete obturation of the bronchus D. Pneumosclerosis E. Bronchial asthma 174. In which disease will vocal fremitus be intensified on the side of affection? A. Pleurisy with effusion B. * Croupous pneumonia C. Bronchial asthma D. Pulmonary emphysema E. Pneumothorax 175. In which disease will vocal fremitus be weakened on the side of affection? A. Croupous pneumonia B. * Tumour of the large bronchus with uncomplete obturation of the bronchus C. Tumour of the large bronchus with complete obturation of the bronchus D. Pneumosclerosis E. All mentioned 176. In which disease will vocal fremitus be weakened on the side of affection? A. Croupous pneumonia II st. B. * Pleural sickness C. Dry pleurisy D. Pneumosclerosis E. All mentioned 177. Development of pleurisy with effusion is possible due to all pathological mechanisms except of: A. Increased permeability of vascular and lymph vessels of pleura B. Disorder of lymph circulation because of block of lymph ducts C. General immune processes and change of reactivity of the organism D. * Prevalence of effusion resorption behind its accumulation E. Local allergic processes 178. Topographic percussion of lungs fo determination of lower lung border’s position should be started from: A. * II-III intercostal spaces on anterior surface of the chest B. Lateral surface of the chest on anterior axillary line C. Lateral surface from the costal arch upward D. Posterior surface from scapular angles downward E. Posterior surface on paravertebral lines 179. Prolonged bleeding is typical for: A. Tuberculosis B. Lung cancer C. * Bronchiectatic disease D. No any ANSWER is correct E. All named causes 180. Which location of bronchial affection in bronchitis is followed with dyspnea? A. Large bronchi B. Medial bronchi C. * Small bronchi D. Large and medial bronchi E. All types of bronchi 181. Periodical appearance of hemopthysis is typical for: A. Pleurisy with effusion B. Bronchial asthma C. * Lung cancer D. Pneumosclerosis E. Focal pneumonia 182. Who inculcated the percussion hummer into diagnostical practice? A. Corvisar B. Auennbrugger C. Laenneck D. * Piorri E. Vasylenko 183. Who inculcated percussion into diagnostical practice? A. Corvisar B. * Auennbrugger C. Laenneck D. Piorri E. Vasylenko 184. What is the mechasnism of lung ventilation disorders of obstructive type? A. * Narrowing of fine bronchi B. Decreased diaphragm mobility C. Adhesions in pleural cavity D. Weak mobility of respiratory muscles E. Disorders of perfusion 185. What is the mechasnism of lung ventilation disorders of restrictive type? A. Decreased diaphragm mobility B. Adhesions in pleural cavity C. Poor chest excursion D. Disorders of alveolar perfusion E. * All mentioned 186. What is possible to find in pneumonia located in the lower lung lobe? A. Increase of active movility of the lower lung border B. * Decrease of active movility of the lower lung border C. Decrease of the heighth of lungs apexes D. Tympanic percussion sound E. Bandbox percussion sound 187. Which among the following signs are the most typical for bronchial asthma? A. Cough with expectoration of rusty sputum B. Pulmonary emphysema C. Barking cough D. Permanent expiratory dyspnea E. * Attacks of dyspnea (asthma) 188. Which shape of a chest is typical for terminal stage of tuberculosis? A. Foveated B. Truncated C. Pigeon D. Barrel-shaped E. * Paralytic 189. Which shape of a chest is typical for patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease? A. Foveated B. Truncated C. Pigeon D. * Barrel-shaped E. Paralytic 190. Which disease may be complicated with hemopthysis? A. Pleurisy with effusion B. Focal pneumonia C. * Bronchiectatic disease D. Diffuse bronchitis E. No any of them 191. Select dyspnea with periodical breathing: A. Kussmaul’s breath B. Asthma C. * Cheyn-Stocks breath D. Grocco-Frugony’s breath E. All mentioned 192. Which sputum is typical for bronchial asthma? A. Mucoserous B. Mucoseroso-purulent with prevalence of pus C. Purulent D. * Glass-like mucous E. Rusty 193. Which sputum is typical for bronchiectatic disease? A. Mucoserous B. Mucoseroso-purulent with prevalence of pus C. * Purulent D. Glass-like E. Rusty 194. Which sputum is typical for focal pneumonia? A. Mucoserous B. * Mucopurulent C. Purulent D. Glass-like E. Rusty 195. Which sputum is typical for lung gangroene? A. * Serous-purulent-hemorrhagic B. Mucopurulent C. Purulent D. Glass-like E. Rusty 196. Which sputum is typical for croupous pneumonia? A. Serous B. Mucopurulent C. Purulent D. Glass-like E. * Rusty 197. Which sputum is typical for chronic bronchitis? A. Serous-mucous-hemorrhagic B. * Mucopurulent C. Purulent D. Glass-like E. Rusty 198. Which sound will be obtained by percussion of the chest in bronchial asthma attack? A. Dull B. Flat C. Dull-to-thympany D. * Bandbox E. Clear pulmonary (resonant) 199. Which temperature curve is typical for cropous pneumonia (if the patient doesn’t receive specific treatment)? A. * Stable febril fever B. Litic decrease of temperature C. Critical drop of temperature D. Periodical high elevation of temperature E. Prolonged subfebril 200. Which data of palpation is it possible to obtain in pleurisy with effusion? A. Pleural friction B. Pain in palpation C. Intensified vocal fremitus D. * Vocal fremitus is absent at the affecter area E. Normal vocal fremitus 201. Which data of palpation of a chest will be in intercostal muscles inflammation (myositis)? A. Pleural friction B. * Pain in affected zone in palpation C. Pain along intercostal space D. Weakened vesicular breathing E. Cracking sounds 202. Intensive morning cough is the most typical for: A. Dry pleurisy B. Pneumonia C. Lung cancer D. * Bronchiectatic disease E. Acute bronchitis 203. Which data of palpation of a chest will be in dry pleurisy if lung parenchyma is not changed? A. * Pleural friction B. Pain in affected zone C. Pain along intercostal space D. Weakened vesicular breathing E. Cracking sounds 204. Which data of palpation of a chest will be in intercostal neuralgia? A. Pleural friction B. Pain in affected zone C. * Pain along intercostal space D. Weakened vesicular breathing E. Cracking sounds 205. Which data may be obtained by percussion in pleurisy with effusion in the projection of liquid? A. Bandbox sound B. * Dull sound C. Dull-to-thympany sound D. Clear pulmonary (resonanrt) sound E. Slight dullness 206. Which data of percussion will be in acute catarrhal bronchitis? A. Dull percussion sound B. Dull-to-thympany sound C. Tympanic sound D. Bandbox sound E. * Clear pulmonary (resonant) sound 207. Which data of percussion will be in croupous pneumonia in the stage of inflow? A. Dull percussion sound B. * Dull-to-thympany sound C. Tympanic sound D. Bandbox sound E. Clear pulmonary (resonant) sound 208. Which data of palpation will be in rib fracture? A. Intensified vocal fremitus on affected side B. Intensified vocal fremitus on the opposite to the affected side C. * Crunch sound, pain in palpation of affected rib D. Weakened or absent vesicular breathing on the side opposite to affected E. Normal vocal fremitus 209. Which data will be in inspection of a patient with bronchial asthma? A. Increased affected side of a chest B. Decreased affected side of a chest C. Paralytic chest D. * Emphysematous chest E. All mentioned 210. Which data will be in inspection of a patient with croupous pneumonia? A. * Increased affected side of a chest B. Decreased affected side of a chest C. Paralytic chest D. Emphysematous chest E. Elevation of supraclavicular focca 211. . Which data will be in percussion of a patient’s chest in croupous pneumonia, consolidation stage? A. * Dull sound B. Bandbox sound C. Tympanic sound D. Clear pulmonary (resonant) one E. Dull-to-thympany sound 212. Which signs are typical for spontaneous pneumothorax? A. Acute onset with chest pain B. Sharp dyspnea C. Cyanosis D. Tympanic sound in percussion on affected side E. * All mentioned 213. Select a disease which may be the cause of pulmonary thrombembolism: A. Thrombosis of lower limbs veins B. Thrombosis of pelvis veins C. Surgical intervention D. Malignant tumours E. * All mentioned 214. Which peculiaritier of pulmonary cyanosis do you know? A. * Diffuse, warm, located at a tongue and oral mucosa B. Diffuse, cold C. Is located on small area of a body, cold D. Located in one limb E. No any answer is correct 215. Select typical early symptom of lung cancer: A. * Cough B. Chest pain C. Dyspnea D. Voice hoarsness E. Lung bleeding 216. What is character of sputum in acute catarrhal bronchitis? A. Serous B. * Mucous C. Mucopurulent D. Lurulent E. Glass-like 217. How is attack of dyspnea called if it is caused with blood congestion in lungs? A. Bronchial asthma attack B. * Cardiac asthma C. Asphyxia D. Tachypnoe E. Dyspnoe 218. What is normal lower lung border mobility on scapular line? A. 1-2 сm. B. 2-3 сm C. 3-4 сm D. * 4-6 сm E. 6-8 сm 219. What is normal lower lung border mobility on midaxillary line? A. 1-2 сm. B. 2-3 сm C. 3-4 сm D. 4-6 сm E. * 6-8 сm 220. A patient complains of cough with expectoration of green sputum. How is this sputum called? A. Serous B. Mucous C. Hemorrhagic D. * Purulent E. Mucopurulent 221. Select a possible cause of hemopthysis in the form of single blood streaks in the sputum: A. Acute catarrhal bronchitis B. Bronchial asthma attack C. * Grippe D. Pleurisy E. All mentioned 222. A patient developed right-sided hydropneumothorax. Which percutorial sound will be above the lower parts of the right lung? A. Resonant B. Bandbox C. Tympanic D. * Dull E. Dull-to-thympany 223. A patient developed right-sided hydropneumothorax. Which percutorial sound will be above the right apex? A. Resonant B. Bandbox C. * Tympanic D. Dull E. Dull-to-thympany 224. Absence of vocal fremitus above the right medial lobe of the lung may be the sign of … A. Croupous pneumonia B. Compressive atelectasis of this lobe C. * Complete obturation of the main bronchus providing ventilation of the lobe D. Emphysema of the lobe E. Lobular pneumonia 225. Barking cough is typical for… A. Dry pleurisy B. Pleurisy with effusion C. * Laringitis D. Pneumothorax E. Tuberculosis 226. Comparative percussion is used for definition of: A. Mobility of lungs borders; B. Width of `Kroenig’s area; C. The lower lungs borders position; D. Height of lungs apexes. E. * No any answer is correct 227. Complete dull percutorial sound (flat sound) may be obtained in the case of … A. * Hydrothorax B. Empty cavern C. Empty bronchiectasis D. Pneumothorax E. Lung emphysema 228. Cough with expectoration of more than 1 liter of sputum is typical for: A. Pneumonia B. Pulmonary artery thromboembolism C. Bronchial asthma D. * Lung abscess E. Pleurisy with effusion 229. Cough with expectoration of viscous glass-like sputum is observed in… A. At the top of lung edema B. * In resolution of bronchial asthma attack C. In resolution of croupous pneumonia D. In penetration of lung abscess into the bronchus E. In tuberculosis with exudative pleurisy 230. Crimson gelly-like consistence of sputum is the symptom of: A. croupous pneumonia, B. bronchiectatic disease, C. lung tuberculosis, D. lung abscess, E. * lung cancer. 231. Damuazo’s line – this is… A. The line which separate medial and lower lung lobes B. * The line which separate the upper level of liquid in pleurisy with effusion C. The line which separate air and lung parenchyma in pneumothorax D. The line which indicates the high of lungs apexes E. It indicates the lower lung border 232. Discharge of large volume of sputum in special position of the patient testifies about: A. Croupous pneumonia B. Diffuse bronchitis C. Lung tuberculosis D. Lung cancer E. * Cavity in the lungs 233. Discharge of a large volume of sputum in special position of the patient testify about: A. Croupous pneumonia B. Diffuse bronchitis C. Lung tuberculosis D. Lung cancer E. * Bronchiectatic disease 234. Dull percussion sound above the lungs may be heard in the following case: A. Bronchial asthma B. * Hydrothorax C. Cavern D. Pneumothorax E. Pulmonary emphysema 235. Duration of percussion sound increases when: A. Pulmonaty tissue is more solid, B. * Pulmonaty tissue contains more air, C. Pulmonaty tissue consistence and its mass are increased, D. It does not depend on consistence of pulmonary tissue, E. It does not depend on mass of pulmonary tissue. 236. During inspection of a patient with respiratory failure you may observe the following skin color: A. Acrocyanosis B. Hyperemia C. * Diffuse cyanosis D. Yellow color E. Spider angiomata 237. During percussion above a cavern it is possible to obtain the following sound… A. Bandbox B. Dull C. Dull-to-thympany D. * Tympanic E. Resonant 238. During percussion of a patient it was revealed tympanic sound over the lower lobe of the left lung. In which case is it possible in physiological conditions? A. If respiration is absent B. In labored respiration C. In fasting D. * In overfilled stomach E. In physical examination 239. Except of bronchial mucosa pain receptors are present … A. On the surface of pericardium B. On the surface of peritoneum C. * On the surface of pleura D. On the surface of skin and the chest E. On the surface of a tongue 240. herpes eruption on the nose and lips are typical for… A. Bronchial cancer B. Bronchial asthma C. * Croupous pneumonia D. Bronchopneumonia E. Pleurisy with effusion 241. How Kroenig’s area and height of lung apexes will change in right-sided pneumothorax? A. The height of lungs apexes and Kroenig’s area will not change B. The height of lungs apexes will rise while Kroenig’s area will diminish C. The height of lungs apexes will diminish while Kroenig’s area will be enlarged D. * The height of lungs apexes and Kroenig’s area will increase E. The height of lungs apexes will not change while Kroenig’s area will increase 242. If a patient developed pneumothorax his chest appearance will be the following… A. depressed chest B. Normal shape C. * Protruded especially in its upper part D. Protruded especially in its lower part E. Emphysematous 243. In which cases among the following vocal fremitus become intensified? A. Pulmonary emphysema B. The I stage of lobar pneumonia C. Bronchiectatic disease D. * The II stage of lobar pneumonia E. Above the cavern, filled with liquid 244. In which case among the following vocal fremitus disappears or becomes weakened at affected area? A. The II stage of lobar pneumonia B. * Pleurisy with effusion C. In dry pleurisy D. Above Damuazo’s line E. In lung infarction 245. In which cases among the following vocal fremitus disappears at affected area? A. The II stage of lobar pneumonia, B. Pleurisy with efusion (at the zone of the lung located above exudate) C. Dry pleurisy D. Pulmonary emphysema E. * Pneumothorax 246. In which sequence should be percussion carried out to determine mobility of the lower border of the right lung? A. Scapular line; midclavicular line; paravertebral line; anterior axillary line; posterior axillary line; midaxillary line; parasternal line B. Parasternal line, midclavicular line; anterior axillary line; midaxillary line; posterior axillary line; scapular line; paravertebral line C. *Midclavicular line; midaxillary line; scapular line D. Midaxillary line; scapular line E. Anterior axillary line; midaxillary line; posterior axillary line; scapular line; paravertebral line 247. In which sequence should be percussion carried out to determine mobility of the lower border of the left lung? A. Scapular line; midclavicular line; paravertebral line; anterior axillary line; posterior axillary line; midaxillary line; parasternal line B. Parasternal line, midclavicular line; anterior axillary line; midaxillary line; posterior axillary line; scapular line; paravertebral line C. Midclavicular line; midaxillary line; scapular line D. *Midaxillary line; scapular line E. Anterior axillary line; midaxillary line; posterior axillary line; scapular line; paravertebral line 248. In which sequence should be percussion carried out to determine the lower border of the left lung? A. Scapular line; midclavicular line; paravertebral line; бnterior axillary line; posterior axillary line; midaxillary line; parasternal line B. Scapular line; midclavicular line; midaxillary line; parasternal line.paravertebral line; anterior axillary line; posterior axillary line C. Parasternal line, midclavicular line; anterior axillary line; midaxillary line; posterior axillary line; scapular line; paravertebral line D. * Anterior axillary line; midaxillary line; posterior axillary line; scapular line; paravertebral line E. Paravertebral line, scapular line; posterior axillary line; midaxillary line; anterior axillary line 249. In which sequence should be percussion carried out to determine the lower border of the right lung? A. Scapular line; midclavicular line; paravertebral line; бnterior axillary line; posterior axillary line; midaxillary line; parasternal line B. Scapular line; midclavicular line; midaxillary line; parasternal line.paravertebral line; бnterior axillary line; posterior axillary line C. * Parasternal line, midclavicular line; anterior axillary line; midaxillary line; posterior axillary line; scapular line; paravertebral line D. Anterior axillary line; midaxillary line; posterior axillary line; Scapular line; paravertebral line E. Paravertebral line, scapular line; posterior axillary line; midaxillary line; anterior axillary line 250. Loudless cough is typical for patients with: A. * Destruction of vocal cords due to tuberculosis, syphilis or cancer B. Acute bronchitis C. Croupous pneumonia D. Bronchial asthma E. Acute tonsillitis 251. Morning cough is typical for: A. * Smockers B. Laryngitis C. Pneumonia D. Dry pleurisy E. Lung cancer 252. Night cough is typical for: A. Bronchiectatic disease B. Laryngitis C. * Enlargement of intrathoracic lymph nodes D. Dry pleurisy E. Lung cancer 253. Normal respiratory rate is equal to: A. 10-14 per min B. 12-16 per min C. 14-18 per min D. * 16-20 per min E. 18-22 per min 254. Rusty sputum is the symptom of: A. * Congestive heart failure B. Bronchiectatic disease C. Lung tuberculosis D. Lung abscess E. Lung cancer 255. Sharp development of diffuse cyanosis is typical for… A. Acute bronchitis B. Bronchial cancer C. Pneumonia D. * Pneumothorax E. Bronchiectatic disease 256. Sudden knife-like pain in the chest with the following pressing and distending sensations in the chest as well as development of dyspnea are typical for: A. Pulmonary artery thromboembolism B. Pleurisy with effusion C. Dry pleurisy D. Pneumonia E. * Pneuumothorax 257. The active mobility of the lower lungs border decreases in the case of: A. Deep breathing B. * Emphysema of the lungs C. Enteroptosis D. Physical examination E. Dyspnea 258. The height of lungs apexes above clavicles in a healthy person takes approximately: A. lungs apexes don’t go upwards from the the level of clavicle B. Rise up to 1 cm C. 1-2 cm D. * 3-4 cm E. 4-6 cm 259. The lower border of the left lung at the parasternal line is located at: A. IV rib B. V rib C. VI rib D. VII rib E. * It is not determined 260. The lower border of the right lung at the scapula line is located at: A. VI rib B. VII rib C. VIII rib D. ІХ rib E. * Х rib 261. The lower lungs borders are displaced upwards on both sides in the case of: A. Deep breathing B. * Liver cirrhosis C. Pulmonary emphysema D. Chronic blood congestion in the lungs E. Enteroptosis 262. The sign of bronchial obstruction is the following percutorial sound… A. * Bandbox (hyperresonant) B. Dull above both lungs C. Dull above one lung D. Absolute dullness (flat sound) E. Resonant one 263. Topographic percussion is used for definition of: A. Height of lungs apexes B. Mobility of lungs borders C. Width of `Kroenig’s area D. The lower lungs borders position E. * All above mentioned 264. Topographic percussion is used for determination of all the following except of: A. * Assessment of percussion sound on symmetrical points on the chest B. The lungs borders mobility C. The width of the Krenig’s area D. The low lungs borders position E. The size of pathological focus 265. Vocal fremitus is weakened above the whole lung parenchyma in the case of … A. Lung abscess B. Croupous pneumonia C. Lobular pneumonia D. Dry pleurisy E. * Pulmonary emphysema 266. What percussion sound is possible to hear over cavity in the lungs? A. Dull B. Bandbox C. Dull-to-tympanic D. Resonant E. * Tympanic 267. What percutorial sound is it possible to hear over the lungs in patients with bronchial obstruction? A. Dull B. * Bandbox C. Dull-to-tympanic D. Resonant E. Tympanic 268. What percutorial sound occures in the I stage of pleuropneumonia? A. Dull B. Dull-to-resonance C. * Dull-to-tympanic D. Resonant E. Tympanic 269. What percutorial sound does occur in the II stage of pleuropneumonia? A. * Dull B. Bandbox C. * Dull-to-tympanic D. Resonant E. Tympanic 270. What pulmonary sound can occur in percussion above the Traube’s space in left- sided hydrothorax? A. * Dull B. Dull-to-resonance C. Resonance D. Tympanic E. Dull-to-thympany 271. What pulmonary sound occures during percussion above Traube’s space? A. dull B. dull-to-resonance; C. resonance D. * tympanic E. dull-to-tympanic. 272. What percussion sound occures in the II stage of atelectasis (complete collapse)? A. * Dull B. Dull-to-resonance C. Dull-to-tympanic D. Resonant E. Tympanic 273. What results of topographical percussion may be obtained in a patient with dry pleurisy? A. * Decreased lungs active mobility at the affected side B. Displacement downward lower lungs borders C. Displacement upward of lower lungs borders D. Extension of the Krenig’s area E. Reduction of the of the lungs’ apexes 274. Which facial expression is typical for a patient with pneumonia? A. Pale and puffy B. Moon-shaped and red C. Puffy, with pale-yellowish tint D. With exaphthalmus E. * Facies febrilis 275. Which kind of sound will be obtained above the zone of dry costal pleurisy? A. Dull B. * Resonant C. Bandbox D. Tympanic E. Complete dullness (flat sound) 276. Which sound will be obtained by percussion in the patient with emphysematous chest when vocal fremitus is weakened on both sides? A. Dull B. * Bandbox C. Resonant D. Tympanic E. Absolute dullness 277. Morning cough is typical for: A. *Bronchiectatic disease B. Laryngitis C. Pneumonia D. Dry pleurisy E. Lung cancer 278. Select the sign of bronchial asthma attack release: A. Participation of respiratory muscles in breathing B. Orthopnea and expiratory dyspnea C. Inspiratory dyspnea in physical load D. * Cough with small amount of glass-like transparent viscous sputum E. Whistling rales in forced expiration 279. Periodical appearance of hemopthysis is typical for: A. Pleurisy with effusion B. Bronchial asthma C. * Tuberculosis D. Pneumosclerosis E. Focal pneumonia 280. Select the sign of bronchial asthma attack release: A. Participation of respiratory muscles in breathing B. Orthopnea and expiratory dyspnea C. Inspiratory dyspnea in physical load D. * Caugh with small amount of glass-like transparent viscous sputum E. Whistling rales in forced expiration 281. Periodical appearance of hemopthysis is typical for: A. Pleurisy with effusion B. Bronchial asthma C. * Tuberculosis D. Pneumosclerosis E. Focal pneumonia 282. What is typical for pulmonary emphysema? A. Decreased vital lung capacity B. Increased vital lung capacity C. *Increased residual volume D. Increased minute lung ventilation E. Respiratory acidosis 283. Which changes may be revealed on X-ray in chronic bronchitis? A. Pulmonary tissue infiltration B. Lung emphysema C. Multiple small focci in the lungs D. Cavity in the lung E. * Pointed lung pattern 284. Rivolt’s test is used for… A. * Differentiation of exssudate and transsudate B. Determination of allergic sensitivity C. Determination of sputum viscosity D. Assessment of immune resistance E. Assessment of blood coagulation 285. Which elements in sputum are typical for bronchial asthma? A. Fridlender’s bacilli B. * Charcot-Leyden’s crystals C. Mycobacteria D. Pneumococci E. erythrocytes 286. «Rusty» sputum may be in patients with… A. * Mitral valvular stenosis complicated with heart failure B. Bronchopneumonia C. Pleurisy with effusion D. Dry pleurisy E. Bronchiectatic disease 287. Sputum wit admixtures of scarlet blood with turns to be of rusty color in some days may be in patients with… A. * Pulmonary artery thromboembolism B. Bronchopneumonia C. Pleurisy with effusion D. Dry pleurisy E. Bronchiectatic disease 288. A doctor during auscultation of a patient has found vesicular breathing with metallic tint at the right lung apex. In which disease may it be? A. Pulmonary tuberculosis B. Lung cancer C. Pneumonia D. Atelectasis E. * Pneumothorax 289. A doctor has found in a patient crepitatio redux. What pathological condition it is typical for? A. Bronchial asthma attack B. Acute bronchitis C. Chronic bronchitis D. Initial stage of croupous pneumonia E. * Final stage of croupous pneumonia 290. A patient developed bronchial tumour with partial obturation of bronchial lumen. Which changes of bronchophony will be? A. Intensification on affected side B. * Weakening on affected side C. Symmetrical intensification D. Symmetrical weakening E. Absent on affected side 291. A patient developed dry pleurisy. Which changes of bronchophony will be? A. Intensification on affected side B. Weakening on affected side C. * No changes D. Symmetrical weakening E. Absent on affected side 292. A patient developed pleurisy with effusion. Which changes of bronchophony will be? A. Intensification on affected side B. Weakening on affected side C. Symmetrical intensification D. Symmetrical symmetrical E. * Absent on affected side 293. A patient developed pneumonia. Which changes of bronchophony will be? A. * Intensification on affected side B. Symmetrical on affected side C. Symmetrical intensification D. Symmetrical weakening E. Absent on affected side 294. A patient developed pulmonary emphysema. Which changes of bronchophony will be? A. Intensification on affected side B. Weakening on affected side C. Symmetrical intensification D. * Symmetrical weakening E. Absent on affected side 295. Adventitious respiratory sounds are: A. Vesicular, harsh and bronchial breathing B. * Rales, crepitation and pleural friction C. Vesicular breathing, moist and dry rales D. Broinchial breathing, crepitation and pleural friction E. Harsh breathing, crepitation and pleural friction 296. Atypical cells in the sputum are the signs of… A. Focal pneumonia B. Acute bronchitis C. Bronchial asthma D. Tuberculosis E. * Lung cancer 297. Bronchial breathing in normal conditions originates in… A. Alveoli B. Terminal bronhchi C. Medial bronchi D. Large bronchi and trachea E. * Larynx 298. Bronchial breathing is heard… A. During inspiration and first 1/3 of expiration B. In 1st phase of inspiration C. In 1st phase of expiration D. During inspiration and the last 1/3 of expiration E. * During inspiration and expiration 299. Bronchovesicular breathing may be heard in such cases as: A. * Appearence of consolidation foci in the deep layers of pulmonary tissue, B. Lung emphysema C. Thin chest wall D. Physical loading E. Swelling of bronchial mucosa 300. Cholesterol pleural exssudate is typical for… A. * Tuberculosis and cancer B. Pneumonia C. Bronchitis D. Pneumoconniosis E. Helminthiasis 301. Crepitation is heard… A. During inspiration and expiration B. * In 1st phase of inspiration C. In 1st phase of expiration D. In lastt phase of inspiration E. In last phase of expiration 302. Crepitation is heard… A. During inspiration and expiration B. * In 1st phase of inspiration C. In 1st phase of expiration D. In last phase of inspiration E. In last phase of expiration 303. Crepitation is the symptom of A. * Croupous pneumonia B. Acute bronchitis C. Dry pleurisy D. Chronic bronchitis E. Pulmonary emphysema 304. Crepitation is the symptom of: A. * Lung lobe complete atelectasis B. Pneumonia II stage C. Dry pleurisy D. Chronic bronchitis E. Pulmonary emphysema 305. Crepitation originates… A. * In alveoli B. In terminal bronchi C. In medial bronchi D. In large bronchi E. Between pleural layers 306. Curshman’s spirals are observed in sputum of patients with… A. Acute bronchitis B. Bronchopneumonia C. Croupous pneumonia D. * Bronchial asthma E. Lung cancer 307. Decreased Tiffneu index indicates on… A. Presence of cavity in the lungs B. * Obstructive disorders of lung ventilation C. Restrictive disorders of lung ventilation D. Compensatory erythraemia E. Spontaneous pneumothorax 308. Diffuse dry whistling high pitched rales are heard in… A. Bronchiectatic disease B. Croupous pneumonia C. Bronchopneumonia D. * Bronchial asthma attack E. Cardiac asthma attack 309. Ditrich’s plaques are present in sputum in… A. Acute broncitis B. Chronic bronchitis C. * Bronchiectasia D. Exudative pleurisy E. Dry pleurisy 310. Dry rales are observed in: A. Croupous pneumonia B. * Bronchitis C. Dry pleurisy D. Pulmonary emphysema E. Pneumothrax 311. Dry rales are observed in: A. Croupous pneumonia B. Lung abscess C. Pulmonary emphysema D. * Bronchial asthma attack E. Dry pleurisy 312. Dry whistling rales are typical for: A. Appearence of liquid secretion in fine bronchi B. Appearence of liquid secretion in large bronchi C. Appearence of liquid secretion in alveoli D. * Appearence of viscous secretion in fine bronchi E. Dry pleurisy 313. Elastic fibers are present in sputum in… A. Acute broncitis B. Chronic bronchitis C. Bronchiectasia D. * Pulmonary tissue destruction E. Pleurisy 314. Elastic fibers in sputum indicates on… A. * Pulmonary tissue destruction B. Bronchial obstruction C. Migration of helmints D. Hyperplasia of bronchial epithelium E. Atrophy of respiratory airways mucosa 315. Eosinophils are present in spu 316. tum in: A. Acute broncitis B. Bronchopneumonia C. Croupous pneumonia D. * Bronchial asthma E. Lung cancer 317. Eosinophils are present in sputum in… A. Acute broncitis B. Chronic bronchitis C. Bronchiectasia D. Pulmonary tissue destruction E. * Bronchial asthma 318. For diagnostics of central lung cancer optimal is… A. Chest roentgenoscopy B. Chest roentgenography C. Fluorography D. Computer tomography E. * Bronchoscopy 319. For diagnostics of perypheric lung cancer optimal is… A. Chest roentgenoscopy B. Chest roentgenography C. Fluorography D. * Computer tomography E. Bronchoscopy 320. Glass-like viscous transparent white sputum is typical for … A. Acute bronchitis. B. Chronic bronchitis C. * Bronchial asthma D. Pneumothorax E. Pleurisy with effusion 321. Harsh breathing indicates on… A. * Bronchitis B. Dry pleurisy C. Pleurisy with effusion D. Pulmonary emphysema E. Pneumonia 322. Hemorrhagic exssudate is typical for… A. * Pulmonary artery thromboembolism and cancer B. Pneumonia C. Bronchitis D. Pneumoconniosis and tuberculosis E. Ascaridosis and mucoviscidosis 323. Hemorrhagic exssudate is typical for… A. * Pulmonary artery thromboembolism B. Pneumonia C. Bronchitis D. Pneumoconniosis and tuberculosis E. Ascaridosis and mucoviscidosis 324. Hemorrhagic exssudate is typical for… A. * Lung cancer B. Pneumonia C. Bronchitis D. Pneumoconniosis and tuberculosis E. Ascaridosis and mucoviscidosis 325. Hemorrhagic exssudate is typical for: A. Pneumonia B. * Lung cancer C. Pleural ampyema D. Ascaridosis E. Bronchial asthma 326. Homogeneous intensive darkness with distinct oblique upper level on X-ray film is typical for… A. Focal pneumonia B. Lobar pneumonia C. Acute bronchitis D. Bronchial asthma E. * Pleurisy with effusion 327. If the patient develops accumulation of fluid in pleural cavity, which finding will be revealed by inspection? A. Retardation of affected side of the chest in respiration B. * Retardation of affected side of the chest in respiration and protrusion of intercostal spaces on affected side C. Elevation of intercostal spaces on affected side D. No changes E. Emphysematous chest 328. If the patient with pneumonia develops crepitation over the lower lobe of the right lung, which main respiratory sound should be expected to hear with auscultation at affected area? A. Bronchial breathing B. Amphoric breathing C. Vesicular breathing D. Pueril breathing E. * Weakened vesicular breathing 329. If the patient develops pleural friction over the lower lobe of the right lung, which character of pain will be in this case? A. Constricting B. Pierching C. Restricting D. Dull boting E. * Pinching, stubbing 330. If the patient develops pleural friction over the lower lobe of the right lung, which finding will be revealed by inspection? A. * Retardation of affected side of the chest in respiration B. Protrusion of intercostal spaces on affected side C. Elevation of intercostal spaces on affected side D. No changes E. Emphysematous chest 331. In a healthy individual bronchial breathing is heart at the following area on the posterior chest surface… A. * Intrascapular region at ІІІ and ІV intercostal spaces B. At paravertebral zones at the level of VІІ ribs C. Below the left scapular angle D. Below the left scapular angle E. Above and below the scapulas 332. In a healthy individual bronchial breathing is heart at the following erea on the posterior chest surface… A. * Intrascapular region at ІІІ and ІV intercostal spaces B. At paravertebral zones at the level of VІІ ribs C. Below the left scapular angle D. Below the left scapular angle E. At paravertebral zones at the level of Х ribs 333. In patient’s sputum there were found diamond-shaped elements of golden yellow clolr. What is this? A. Cholesterol crystals B. Hematoidin crystals C. * Charcot-Leyden’s crystals D. Curshman’s spirals E. Ditrich’s plaques 334. In patient’s sputum there were found solis spiral-shaped transparent elements with shiny central part. What is this? A. Cholesterol crystals B. Hematoidin crystals C. Charcot-Leyden’s crystals D. * Curshman’s spirals E. Ditrich’s plaques 335. In physiological conditions crepitation is heard in the following case… A. Heavy physical examination B. Intake of large volume of liquid C. Overheating D. * Long-term bed mode in old patients E. In low temperature of environment 336. In which between the following cases moist consonant rales may be heard: A. * In combination of bronchitis with lung induration around the bronchus (bronchopneumonia) B. In lung emphysema C. Accumulation of exsudate in the pleural cavity D. Accumulation of transsudate in the pleural cavity E. In attack of bronchial asthma 337. In which disease atypical cells appear in sputum? A. Croupous pneumonia B. Chronic obstructive bronchitis C. Bronchial asthma D. Lung abscess E. * Lung cancer 338. In which disease elastic fibers appear in sputum? A. Croupous pneumonia B. Chronic obstructive bronchitis C. Bronchial asthma D. * Lung abscess E. Chronic non-obstructive bronchitis 339. Infiltration of pulmonary tissue on X-ray film is typical for… A. Tuberculosis B. * Lobar pneumonia C. Acute bronchitis D. Bronchial asthma E. Pleurisy with effusion 340. Intensification of bronchopulmonary pattern on X-ray film is typical for… A. Focal pneumonia B. Lobar pneumonia C. * Chronic bronchitis D. Bronchial asthma E. Pleurisy with effusion 341. Intensified vesicular breathing is heard in such cases as: A. Lung emphysema B. * Thin chest wall C. Liquid in the pleural cavity D. Lung induration E. Swelling of bronchial mucosa 342. Intensified vesicular breathing is heard in such pathological cases as: A. * Lung emphysema B. Thin chest wall C. Lung induration D. Liquid in pleural cavity E. Pneumothorax 343. Intensified vesicular breathing is heard in such physiological cases as: A. Physical examination B. * Thin chest wall C. Hypertrophy of chest muscles D. Pulmonary emphysema E. Pleuropneumonia, II stage 344. Lukerini’s test is used for… A. * Differentiation of exssudate and transsudate B. Determination of allergic sensitivity C. Determination of sputum viscosity D. Assessment of immune resistance E. Assessment of blood coagulation 345. Lymphocytosis is typical for… A. Focal pneumonia B. Acute bronchitis C. * Tuberculosis D. Pleurisy with effusion E. Lung cancer 346. Macrophages are present in sputum in… A. Acute broncitis B. Chronic bronchitis C. Bronchiectasia D. Pulmonary tissue destruction E. * Pneumonia 347. Moist coarse consonant rales may be heard above… A. * Lung abscess filled with pus and air and connected with a bronchus B. Narrowed bronchi C. Isolated cavern D. Pleural liquid E. Empty bronchiectasia 348. Neutrophil leycocytosis and shift to the left, toxic granulosity of neutrophils, increased ESR – these signs are typical for … A. Bronchial asthma B. Acute bronchitis C. Chronic bronchitis D. Pulmonary emphysema E. * Croupous pneumonia 349. Normal maximal lung ventilation is: A. 20-40 l B. 40-60 l C. 60-100 l D. * 80-200 l E. 200-250 l 350. Normal minute volume respiration is: A. 2-4 l B. 4-5 l C. * 4-8 l D. 10-15 l E. 15-20 l 351. Normal ratio between duration of inspiration and expiration is A. * 1 : 1,2 B. 1,3 : 2 C. 2 : 2,3 D. 2,3 : 3 E. 3 : 3,3 352. Pathological bronchial breathing – this is: A. Intensified bronchial breathing B. Weakened bronchial breathing C. * Bronchial breathing heard in atypical zones where normally vesicular breathing is heard D. When bronchial breathing is absent in interscapular space E. When bronchial breathing is absent at the larynx 353. Pathological bronchial breathing may be heard in the following disease\: A. Pulmonary emphysema B. Pneumothorax C. Acute bronchitis D. Pleurisy E. * Pneumonia 354. Pathological bronchial breathing may be heard in the following syndrome: A. Pulmonary emphysema B. Pneumothorax C. Accumclation of air and fluid in pleural cavity D. Accumulation of fluid in pleural cavity E. * Consolidation of pulmonary tissue 355. Pathological weakened vesicular breathing is typical for: A. Physical loading B. Thin chest wall C. Well-developed superficial chest muscles D. * Lung emphysema E. Swelling of bronchial mucosa 356. Physiological weakened vesicular breathing is typical for: A. Physical loading B. Thin chest wall C. * Well-developed (hypertrophied) superficial chest muscles D. Lung emphysema E. Pneumonia 357. Pleural friction is heard… A. During inspiration and first 1/3 of expiration B. In 1st phase of inspiration C. In 1st phase of expiration D. During inspiration and the last 1/3 of expiration E. * During inspiration and expiration 358. Pneumotachymetry is the method for determination of A. Arterial blood gases B. Respiratory volumes C. * Velocity of air streams D. Location of pathological process in the lungs E. Ethiology of disease of respiratory system 359. Poor bronchopulmonary pattern on X-ray film is typical for… A. Focal pneumonia B. Lobar pneumonia C. Chronic bronchitis D. * Bronchial asthma E. Pleurisy with effusion 360. Poor bronchopulmonary pattern, elevation of diaphragm and horizontal ribs direction on X-ray film is typical for… A. * Pulmonary emphysema B. Lobar pneumonia C. Acute bronchitis D. Bronchial asthma E. Pleurisy with effusion 361. Pseudochylous exssudate is typical for: A. Pneumonia B. Lung cancer C. * Syphilis with affection of serous cavities D. Ascaridosis E. Bronchial asthma 362. Purulent exssudate is typical for: A. Pneumonia B. Lung cancer C. * Pleural ampyema D. Ascaridosis E. Bronchial asthma 363. Rales are heard… A. During inspiration and first 1/3 of expiration B. In 1st phase of inspiration C. In 1st phase of expiration D. During inspiration and the last 1/3 of expiration E. * During inspiration and expiration 364. Rales originates… A. In alveoli B. * In bronchi C. No any answer is correct D. In larynx E. Between pleural layers 365. Respiratory insufficiency of obstructive type develops due to: A. Appearance of air in the pleural cavity B. Limitation of the chest wall movements C. * Obstruction of bronchial lumen D. Diminishing of lungs' reespiratory surface E. Diminishing of lungs parenchyma elasticity 366. Respiratory insufficiency of restiuctive type develops due to: A. Appearance of air in the pleural cavity B. Limitation of the chest wall movements C. * All mentioned D. Diminishing of lungs' reespiratory surface E. Diminishing of lungs parenchyma elasticity 367. Round white ring on X-ray film of lungs is typical for… A. Focal pneumonia B. Acute bronchitis C. Bronchial asthma D. Pleurisy with effusion E. * Lung cancer 368. Spyragraphic examination lets to determine… A. Arterial blood gases B. Signs of pulmonary hypertension C. Location of pathological process in the lungs D. * Function of external respiration E. Ethiology of disease of respiratory system 369. Spyrometry is the method for determination of A. Arterial blood gases B. * Respiratory volumes C. Velocity of air streams D. Location of pathological process in the lungs E. Ethiology of disease of respiratory system 370. The cause of restrictive type of respiratory failure may be all presented below except of: A. Bronchial tumour which closes completely its lumen B. Pneumofibrosis C. Pneumonia D. Pneumothorax E. * Bronchial obstruction 371. The following auscultative criterion is typical for the syndrome of pulmonary emphysema… A. Bronchial breathing B. Vesicular breathing C. Crepitation D. * Weakened vesicular breathing and prolonged inspiration E. Weakened vesicular breathing and prolonged expiration 372. The following auscultative criterion is typical for the syndrome of pulmonary tissue consolidation… A. * Bronchial breathing B. Vesicular breathing C. Crepitation D. Weakened vesicular breathing E. No correct answer 373. The following auscultative criterion is typical for the syndrome of liquid accumulation in pleural cavity… A. Bronchial breathing B. Vesicular breathing C. Crepitation D. * Absent vesicular breathing at zone of liquid accumulation E. Weakened vesicular breathing and prolonged expiration 374. The main respiratory sounds are: A. Rales and crepitation B. Pleural friction and rales C. Vesicular breathing and rales D. * Vesicular and bronchial breathing E. Vesicular and harsh breathing 375. The most informative method for determination of origin of hemopthysis is… A. * Bronchoscopy B. Pneumotachymetry C. Spyrography D. Termography E. 13С-respiratory test 376. The most informative method for diagnostics of pleurisy with effusion is… A. Roentgenography B. Fluorography C. * Ultrasound examination of pleural cavity D. Bronchoscopy E. Bronchigraphy 377. The most often cause of hemopthysis is… A. * Cancer and tuberculosis B. Bronchial asthma C. Chronic bronchitis D. Acute bronchitis E. Pneumonia 378. The reserve exspiratory volume is: A. 300 ml B. 800 ml C. * 1500 ml D. 1880 ml E. 2000 ml 379. The reserve inspiratory volume is: A. 100 ml B. 1000 ml C. * 1500 ml D. 3000 ml E. 4000 ml 380. Tiffneu index -this is ratio of: A. Volumes of forced inspiration to expiration B. * Volumes of forced inspiration to vital lung capacity C. Volumes of forced inspiration to reserve inspiratory volume D. Volumes of forced expiration to vital lung capacity E. Volumes of forced expiration and inspiration vital lung capacity 381. Select the proper concentration for proteinin transsudate among the presented below: A. * 20 g/l B. 50 g/l C. 60 g/l D. 70 g/l E. 80 g/l 382. Vesicular breathing in normal conditions originates in… A. * Alveoli B. Terminal bronchi C. Medial bronchi D. Large bronchi and trachea E. Larynx 383. Vesicular breathing is heard… A. * During inspiration and first 1/3 of expiration B. In 1st phase of inspiration C. In 1st phase of expiration D. During inspiration and the last 1/3 of expiration E. During inspiration and expiration 384. Vital lung capacity – this is a summation of… A. Respiratory and residual volumes of lungs B. * Respiratory volume, reserve inspiratory and expiratory volumes C. Respiratory volume, reserve expiratory and minute volumes D. Respiratory volume, reserve expiratory volume E. Residual volume, reserve inspiratory and expiratory volumes 385. Weakened vesicular breathing with prolonged expiration are the signs of the following syndrome… A. Consolidation of pulmonary tissue B. Air accumulation on pleural cavity C. Fluid accumulation in pleural cavity D. Accumulation of air and fluid in pleural cavity E. * Bronchial obstruction 386. What does crepitatio indux suggest about? A. Bronchial asthma attack B. Acute bronchitis C. Chronic bronchitis D. * Initial stage of croupous pneumonia E. Final stage of croupous pneumonia 387. What does crepitatio redux suggest about? A. Bronchial asthma attack B. Acute bronchitis C. Chronic bronchitis D. Initial stage of croupous pneumonia E. * Final stage of croupous pneumonia 388. What is hydrothorax? A. It is a condition when lungs are overfilled with air B. It is a condition when air penetrates into pleural cavity C. * It is a condition when liquid is accumulated in pleural cavity D. It is a condition when pulmonary tissue becomes solid E. Presence of cavity in the lungs 389. What is pneumothorax? A. It is a condition when lungs are overfilled with air B. * It is a condition when air penetrates into pleural cavity C. It is a condition when liquid is accumulated pleural cavity D. It is a condition when pulmonary tissue becomes solid E. Presence of cavity in the lungs 390. What is pulmonary emphysema? A. * It is a condition when lungs are overfilled with air B. It is a condition when air penetrates into pleural cavity C. It is a condition when liquid is accumulated pleural cavity D. It is a condition when pulmonary tissue becomes solid E. Presence of cavity in the lungs 391. What is syndrome of pulmonary tissue consolidation A. It is a condition when lungs are overfilled with air B. It is a condition when air penetrates into pleural cavity C. It is a condition when liquid is accumulated pleural cavity D. * It is a condition when pulmonary tissue becomes solid E. Presence of cavity in the lungs 392. What is typical for croupous pneumonia? A. * Decreased vital lung capacity B. Increased vital lung capacity C. Increased residual volume D. Increased minute lung ventilation E. Respiratory acidosis 393. What onset is typical for bronchopneumonia? A. Sharp B. Acute C. Prolonged D. * Gradual E. Dilated 394. What provoking factor is the most often met in bronchopneumonia? A. Overeating B. Overcooling C. * Viral or bacterial bronchitis D. Physical overload E. All mentioned 395. What provoking factor is the most often met in pleuropneumonia? A. Overeating B. * Overcooling C. Viral or bacterial bronchitis D. Physical overload E. All mentioned 396. Where do coarse moist rales originate A. In bronchioli B. * In large bronchi or trachea C. In medial bronchi D. In alveoli E. In larynx 397. Where do fine moist rales originate A. * In bronchioli B. In large bronchi or trachea C. In medial bronchi D. In alveoli E. In larynx 398. Where do mediane moist rales originate A. In bronchioli B. In large bronchi or trachea C. * In medial bronchi D. In alveoli E. In larynx 399. Which adventitious examination is it necessary to execute for diagnostics of pneumonia? A. * Chest X-ray B. Examination of stomach content C. Duodenal probing D. Analysis of feces for helmints ova E. Immunological examination of blood serum 400. Which adventitious examination is it necessary to execute for diagnostics of bronchial asthma? A. Complete blood count B. * Pneumotachymetry C. Plan chest X-ray D. Contrast chest X-ray E. Computer tomography 401. Which changes may be revealed on X-ray in bronchial asthma? A. Pulmonary tissue infiltration B. * Poor lung pattern, flat diaphragm C. Multiple small focci in the lungs D. Cavity in the lung E. Norm 402. Which changes may be revealed on X-ray in pneumonia? A. * Pulmonary tissue infiltration B. Lung emphysema C. Multiple small focci in the lungs D. Cavity in the lung E. Norm 403. Which changes of main respiratory sounds are diffuse dry rales usually combined with? A. Amphoric breathing B. * Harsh breathing C. Pueril respiration D. Interrupted breathing E. Intensified vesicular breathing 404. Which changes of vocal fremitus, bronchophony and percussion soung are typical for pulmonary tissue consolidation? A. * Vocal fremitus will be intensified, percussion sound will be dull, bronchophony will be intensified B. Vocal fremitus will be weakened, percussion sound will be dull, bronchophony will be weakened C. Vocal fremitus will be weakened, percussion sound will be dull-to-thympany, bronchophony will be weakened D. Vocal fremitus will not be changed, percussion sound will be resonant, bronchophony will not be changed E. Vocal fremitus will be intensified, percussion sound will be tympanic, bronchophony will be intensified 405. Which changes will be on X-ray in cavity in the lungs? A. Ring-like reserved shade with horizontal level B. Increased transparency of the lungs, depressed diaphragm C. Pointed lung pattern D. * Intensive homogenous darkening with oblique upper edge E. Homogenous reserved shade of high density 406. Which changes will be on X-ray in pleurisy with effusion? A. Pulmonary tissue infiltration B. Increased transparency of the lungs, depressed diaphragm C. Pointed lung pattern D. * Intensive homogenous darkening with oblique upper edge E. Diffuse small focci in lower parts of the lungs, enlarged paratracheal lymph nodes. 407. Which changes will be on X-ray in pneumofibrosis? A. Pulmonary tissue infiltration B. Increased transparency of the lungs, depressed diaphragm C. * Pointed lung pattern D. Intensive homogenous darkening with oblique upper edge E. Diffuse small focci in lower parts of the lungs, enlarged paratracheal lymph nodes. 408. Which changes will be on X-ray in pneumonia? A. * Pulmonary tissue infiltration B. Increased transparency of the lungs, depressed diaphragm C. Pointed lung pattern D. Intensive homogenous darkening with oblique upper edge E. Diffuse small focci in lower parts of the lungs, enlarged paratracheal lymph nodes 409. Which changes will be on X-ray in pulmonary emphysema? A. Pulmonary tissue infiltration B. * Increased transparency of the lungs, depressed diaphragm C. Pointed lung pattern D. Intensive homogenous darkening with oblique upper edge E. Diffuse small focci in lower parts of the lungsm enlarged paratracheal lymph nodes. 410. Which character of pain will be in pleurisy with effusion? A. * Pressing B. Pierching C. Stubbing D. No pain E. Cutting 411. Which data may be found by auscultation in a patient with lung abscess after its drainage and complete emptying? A. Vesicular breathing B. * Amphoric breathing C. Harsh breathing D. Harsh breathing with prolonged expiration E. Bronchial breathing 412. Which data of auscultation of lungs are present in a healthy individual? A. Bronchial breathing B. Vesicular breathing C. * Vesicular breathing over lung parenchyma and bronchial breathing in intrascapular region D. Amphoric breathing at projection of the cavern E. Bronchovesicular breathing 413. Which data of auscultation is to be expected above affected part of the lung in cavernous tuberculosis? A. Bronchial breathing B. * Amphoric breathing at projection of the cavern C. Vesicular breathing D. Bronchovesicular breathing E. Weakened vesicular breathing 414. Which data of auscultation is to be expected above affected lung in pneumothorax? A. Bronchial breathing B. Amphoric breathing at the affected side C. Vesicular breathing D. Bronchovesicular breathing E. * Absent respiratory breathing on affected side 415. Which data of auscultation is to be expected above affected part of the lung in dry pleurisy? A. Dry whistling rales B. Dry buzzing rales C. Moist rales D. Crepitation E. * Pleural friction 416. Which data of auscultation is to be expected above affected part of the lung in pleurisy with effusion? A. Bronchial breathing B. Amphoric breathing at the affected side C. Vesicular breathing D. Bronchovesicular breathing E. * Weakened vesicular breathing of even absent over affected side 417. Which data of auscultation will be above affected part of the lung in II stage of lobar pneumonia (corresponds to pulmonary tissue consolidation)? A. * Bronchial breathing B. Amphoric breathing at the affected side C. Vesicular breathing D. Bronchovesicular breathing E. Weakened vesicular breathing 418. Which disease is sputum with sharp unpleasant smell typical for? A. Bronchial asthma B. * Lung gangroene C. Acute bronchitis D. Lung infarction E. Pneumonia 419. Which elements are to be obviously present in pleural fluid in pleural empyema? A. Atypical cells B. Mesotelial cells C. * Bacteria D. Erythrpcites E. Lymphocytes 420. Which elements in sputum are typical for croupous pneumonia? A. Fridlender’s bacilli B. * Cocci, macrophages C. Mycobacteria D. Pneumococci E. Erythrocytes 421. Which elements in sputum are typical for tuberculosis? A. Fridlender’s bacilli B. Charcot-Leyden’s crystals C. * Mycobacteria D. Pneumococci E. Erythrocytes 422. Which index of FEV1 corresponds to norm? A. * >80 %, deviation B. >80 %, deviation =20-30 %. C. . 60-80 % , deviation >30 %. D. 60 %, deviation > 30 %. E. 55 %, deviation = 25 %. 423. Which examination method is it necessary to execute for verification of pneumonia? A. * X-ray of the chest B. Computer tomography C. Bronchoscopy D. Bronchigraphy E. ECG 424. Which pathological conditions is crepitation typical for? A. * Congestive heart failure B. Bronchitis C. Dry pleurisy D. Lung emphysema E. Pleurisy with effusion 425. Which pathological conditions crepitation is typical for? A. * Pneumonia B. Bronchitis C. Dry pleurisy D. Lung emphysema E. Pleurisy with eefusion 426. Which pathological conditions are dry rales typical for? A. Pneumonia, especially lobar one B. * Bronchitis C. Dry pleurisy D. Lung emphysema E. Atelectasis 427. Which pathological conditions are dry low-pitched rales typical for? A. Pneumonia B. * Chronic bronchitis C. Dry pleurisy D. Pulmonary emphysema E. Pleurisy with eefusion 428. Which reasons for pulmonary tissue consolidation do you know? A. Accumulation of liquid in alveoli B. Replacement of pulmonary tissue to connective one C. Tumour in the lungs D. Atelectasis E. * All mentioned above 429. How is pulsation of carotic arteries called? A. Negative pulse B. *Carotic shudder C. Positive pulse D. Venous pulse E. Arterial pulse 430. Accentuation of II heart sound above pulmonary artery occurs in: A. Aortal stenosis; B. * Pulmonary artery thrombembolism C. Syphilitic mesaortitis; D. Atherosclerosis of aorta; E. Acute catarrhal bronchitis. 431. Accentuation of II heart sound above pulmonary artery occurs in: A. Aortal stenosis; B. * Mitral incompetence C. Syphilitic mesaortitis; D. Atherosclerosis of aorta; E. Acute catarrhal bronchitis 432. Accentuation of II heart sound above pulmonary artery occurs in: A. Aortal stenosis; B. * Bronchial asthma attack C. Syphilitic mesaortitis; D. Atherosclerosis of aorta; E. Acute catarrhal bronchitis 433. Accentuation of П heart sound above the aorta is observed in: A. Mitral incompetence; B. Mitral stenosis; C. * Aortal stenosis D. Hypertension in lesser circulation; E. arterial hypotension. 434. Conduction of murmur in aortic valvular defects: A. Left axillary region B. Botkin-Erb’s point; C. Right axillary region D. * Intascapular space E. Epigastyrium 435. Conduction of murmur in mitral valvular defects: A. * Left axillary region B. Botkin-Erb’s point; C. Right axillary region D. Intascapular space E. Epigastyrium 436. Durosier’s murmur at femoral artery is observed in: A. Anemias B. * Aortal incompetence C. Aortal stenosis D. Mitral incompetence E. Mitral stenosis 437. Evaluate such ECG findings: P wave in I, aVL and V5-6 is double-headed and broad, in III, aVF and V1 it is flat? A. Hyperthrophy of the left ventricle B. Hyperthrophy of the right ventricle, C. Hyperthrophy of the right atrium, D. * Hyperthrophy of the left atrium, E. Norm 438. Evaluate such ECG findings: P wave is high and acute in leads III, aVF, in V1 is 3-4 mm, of acute shape, in I, aVL and V5-6 is flat? A. Hyperthrophy of the left ventricle B. Hyperthrophy of the right ventricle, C. * Hyperthrophy of the right atrium, D. Hyperthrophy of the left atrium, E. Norm 439. Functional systolic murmur differs from organic one because it: A. Does not depend on a phase of respiration B. Is rasping, sonorous, long C. Does not vary at exertion; D. * Is not conducted E. Is heard at all points of auscultation. 440. Functional systolic murmur differs from organic one because it: A. Does not depend on a phase of respiration B. Is high-pitched, rasping, loud, long C. Does not vary at exertion; D. * Is always blowing and of low pitch E. Is heard at all points of auscultation. 441. Functional systolic murmur differs from organic one because it: A. Does not depend on a phase of respiration B. Is high-pitched, rasping, loud, long C. Does not vary at exertion; D. * May change in different situations E. Is heard at all points of auscultation. 442. Functional systolic murmur differs from organic one because it: A. * Depends on a phase of respiration B. Is high-pitched, rasping, loud, long C. Does not vary at exertion; D. Does not change in different situations (permanent) E. Is heard at all points of auscultation. 443. Functional systolic murmur differs from organic one because it: A. Does not depend on a phase of respiration B. Is high-pitched, rasping, loud, long C. * Varies at exertion; D. Does not change in different situations (permanent) E. Is heard at all points of auscultation. 444. Functional systolic murmur differs from organic one because it: A. Does not depend on a phase of respiration B. Is high-pitched, rasping, loud, long C. Does not vary at exertion; D. * Is heard only at pulmonary trunk or apex E. Is heard at all points of auscultation. 445. Horizontal heart electrical axis position: value of angle alfa is equal to: A. -30° to -60°; B. 0° to -30°; C. * 0° to +30°; D. +30° to +69°; E. +70° to +90°. 446. Murmur in valvular heart defects is better heard above: A. Zone of relative heart dullness B. Heart apex C. Zone of absolute heart dullness D. At xyphoid process E. *Standard points of auscultation of valves 447. Select the normal duration of QRS complex: A. * 0,1 sec B. 0,12 sec C. 0,14 sec D. 0,16 sec E. 0,18 sec 448. Normal position of ST segment on ECG curve? A. On izoelectrical line B. * May deviate from izoelectrical line not more than on 1 mm C. May deviate from izoelectrical line not more than on 2 mm D. May deviate from izoelectrical line not more than on 3 mm E. May deviate from izoelectrical line not more than on 4 mm 449. Periodical intensification of 1 heart sound at heart apex is typical for: A. Mitral incompetence B. * Extrasystoly C. Hypertension D. Myocardial infarction E. Myocarditis 450. Place of auscultation of murmur in aortal incompetence except of second intercostal space righwards from the sternum : A. Heart apex; B. * Botkin-Erb’s point; C. Second intercostal space leftwards from the sternum; D. Jugular fossa. E. Xyphoid process 451. Place of auscultation of murmur in mitral incompetence: A. * Heart apex; B. Botkin-Erb’s point; C. Second intercostal space righwards from the sternum D. Second intercostal space leftwards from the sternum; E. Fifth intercostal space righwards from the sternum. 452. Place of auscultation of murmur in mitral stenosis: A. * Heart apex; B. Botkin-Erb’s point; C. Second intercostal space righwards from the sternum D. Second intercostal space leftwards from the sternum; E. Fifth intercostal space righwards from the sternum. 453. Pleuropericardial friction murmur is better heard above: A. * Borders of relative heart dullness B. Heart apex C. Zone of absolute heart dullness D. At xyphoid process E. Standard points of auscultation of valves 454. Splitting of IІ heart sound in a healthy children and young persons may be heard in: A. Deep expiration B. * Deep inspiration C. Physical exercises D. During sleep E. Is not heard in no any case 455. Splitting of І heart sound In a healthy children and young persons may be heard in: A. * Deep expiration B. Deep inspiration C. Physical exercises D. During sleep E. Is not heard in no any case 456. Vertical heart electrical axis position: value of angle alfa is equal to: A. -30° to -60°; B. 0° to -30°; C. 0° to +30°; D. +30° to +69°; E. * +70° to +90°. 457. Which auscultative fenomenon (cardiac melody) includes opening snup sound? A. Presystolic gallop rrhythm B. Pendulum rrhythm C. Protodiastolic gallop rrhythm D. *Tripple rrhythm E. All mentioned 458. Which auscultative fenomenon is observed above femoral artery in aortal incompetence? A. * Durosier’s murmur B. Opening snup sound C. Pendulum rrhythm D. Gallop rrhythm E. Pericardial click 459. Which auscultative fenomenon is observed above femoral artery in aortal incompetence? A. * Double Traube’s sound B. Opening snup sound C. Pendulum rrhythm D. Gallop rrhythm E. Pericardial click 460. Which auscultative fenomenon is observed in mitral stenosis? A. Durosier’s murmur B. * Opening snup sound C. Pendulum rrhythm D. Gallop rrhythm E. Pericardial click 461. Which auscultative fenomenon is observed in pericardial adhesions? A. Durosier’s murmur B. Opening snup sound C. Pendulum rrhythm D. Gallop rrhythm E. * Pericardial click 462. Which auscultative fenomenon is observed in severe tachycardia? A. Durosier’s murmur B. Opening snup sound C. * Pendulum rrhythm D. Gallop rrhythm E. Pericardial click 463. Which auscultative fenomenon is observed in severe myocardial affections? A. Durosier’s murmur B. Opening snup sound C. Pendulum rrhythm D. * Gallop rrhythm E. Pericardial click 464. Which heart defect is the organic ejection diastolic murmur typical for? A. * Mitral incompetence B. Aortal incompetence C. Aortic stenosis D. Stenosis of pulmonary artery; E. Tricuspid valve stenosis. 465. Which heart defect is the organic ejection diastolic murmur typical for? A. Mitral valve stenosis B. Aortal incompetence C. Aortic stenosis D. Stenosis of pulmonary artery; E. * Tricuspid incompetence. 466. Which heart defect is the organic ejection systolic murmur typical for? A. Stenosis of mitral orifice B. * Stenosis of aortic orifice C. Aortic incompetence D. Pulmonary artery valvular stenosis; E. Tricuspid valve incompetence. 467. Which heart defect is the organic ejection systolic murmur typical for? A. Stenosis of mitral orifice B. Mitral incompetence C. Aortic incompetence D. * Stenosis of pulmonary artery valve; E. Tricuspid valve incompetence. 468. Which heart defect is the organic regurgitation diastolic murmur typical for? A. * Aortal incompetence B. Mitral incompetence C. Aortic incompetence D. Stenosis of pulmonary artery; E. Tricuspid valve stenosis. 469. Which heart defect is the organic regurgitation diastolic murmur typical for? A. Aortal stenosis B. Mitral incompetence C. Aortic incompetence D. * pulmonary artery valve incompetence; E. Tricuspid valve stenosis. 470. Which heart defect is the organic regurgitation systolic murmur typical for? A. Aortal incompetence B. * Mitral incompetence C. Aortic incompetence D. Stenosis of pulmonary artery; E. Tricuspid valve stenosis. 471. Which heart defect is the organic regurgitation systolic murmur typical for? A. Aortal incompetence B. Mitral stenosis C. Aortic incompetence D. Stenosis of pulmonary artery; E. * Tricuspid valve incompetence. 472. Pericardial friction murmur is better heard above: A. Zone of relative heart dullness B. Heart apex C. * Zone of absolute heart dullness D. At xyphoid process E. Botkin-Erb’s point 473. Accentuation of II heart sound above pulmonary artery occurs in: A. . Hypertension in larger circulation B. * Hypertension in lesser circulation C. In systemic arterial hypertension D. In myocardial infarction E. In emotional stress 474. Accentuation of II heart sound above pulmonary artery occurs in: A. Aortal stenosis; B. * Mitral stenosis C. Syphilitic mesaortitis; D. Atherosclerosis of aorta; E. Acute catarrhal bronchitis. 475. Accentuation of П heart sound above the aorta is observed in: A. Mitral incompetence; B. Mitral stenosis; C. * Arterial hypertension; D. Hypertension in lesser circulation; E. Arterial hypotension. 476. Double Traube’s sound is observed in: A. Anemias B. * Aortal incompetence C. Aortal stenosis D. Mitral incompetence E. Mitral stenosis 477. During analysis of ECG a student has made a conclusion that electrical heart axis is not deviated. What signs are necessary to find out in ECG standard leads to make such a conclusion? A. In the I standard lead wave R is the highest while in the III the – wave S is the deepest. B. In the III standard lead wave R is the highest while in the I the – wave S is the deepest. C. Wave R is the highest in the I standard lead. D. * Wave R is the highest in the II standard lead E. Wave R is the highest in the III standard lead 478. During analysis of ECG a student has noticed that the wave P is negative in lead aVR, its duration is 0,08 sec. In which case may it be? A. Hyperthrophy of both atriums B. * In norm C. In intraatrial block D. In atrial extrasystole E. In myocardial infarction of anterriolateral wall of the left ventracle. 479. During examination of patient S. aortal stenosis was revealed. Which murmur may be heard by auscultation? A. * Systolic at aortal valve B. Diastolic at Botkin-Erb’s point, C. Systolic at heart apex D. Diastolic at aortal valve E. Diastolic at heart apex. 480. Evaluate such correlation of the waves: RI>RII>RIII; Rv6>Rv5>Rv4; RI + RII+ RIII =16 mm, prolongation of QRS. A. * Hyperthrophy of the left ventricle B. Hyperthrophy of the right ventricle, C. Hyperthrophy of the left atrium, D. Hyperthrophy of the left atrium, E. Norm 481. Evaluate such correlation of the waves: RIII> RII> RI; Rv1v2> Rv4> Rv5,v6, prolongation of QRS. A. Hyperthrophy of the left ventricle, B. * Hyperthrophy of the right ventricle C. Hyperthrophy of the left atrium D. Hyperthrophy of the left atrium, E. Norm 482. Functional murmurs in anemia are often: A. Systolic B. Diastolic C. Protodiastolic D. Presystolic E. * Systolodiastolic 483. In the norm it is possible to to listen to the: A. * III sound B. IV sound, C. Extra-pericardial sound D. Gallop rrhythm, E. Opening snup 484. In the V interspace 1-1,5 cm medially from the left midclavicular line it is possible to listen to: A. Aortal valve B. Pulmonary trunk valve C. * Mitral valve D. Tricuspid valve E. No any heart valve 485. In which disease is weakening of I heart sound observed? A. Extrasystole B. Simultaneous systoles of atria and ventricles C. * Myocardiosclerosis D. Stenosis of mitral aperture E. Disorders of heart conduction 486. Intensification of 1 heart sound at heart apex is typical for: A. Mitral incompetence B. * Mitral stenosis C. Hypertension D. Myocardial infarction E. Myocarditis 487. Intensification of the first heart sound is observed in: A. Myocardial infarction; B. * Simultaneous systoles of atria and ventricles C. Complete atrioventricular block D. Myocarditis E. Heavy chronic anemia. 488. Weakening of the first heart sound is observed in: A. *Mirtal incompletence B. Mitral stenosis C. Aortal valve calcification; D. Pulmonary hypertension E. Arterial hypertension 489. Metallic tint of II heart sound above the aorta may be present in: A. Aortal incompetence B. Aortal stenosis of rheumatic origin; C. * Induration of aortal valve due to atherosclerosis; D. Left ventricular hyperthrophy E. Right ventricular hyperthrophy. 490. Normal amplitude of P wave? A. 0,5-1,5 mm B. 1,0-2,0 mm C. * 1,5-2,5 mm D. 2,0-3,0 mm E. 2,5-3,5 mm 491. Normal amplitude of Q wave in standard leads? A. 1-2 mm B. 1-3 mm C. * 1/4 of R wave D. 2-5 mm E. 2-6 mm 492. Normal amplitude of T wave in standard leads? A. 1-2 mm B. 1-3 mm C. 2-4 mm D. 1-5 mm E. * 2-6 mm 493. Normal amplitude of T wave in chest leads? A. 5-7 mm B. 7-10 mm C. 10-15 mm D. *15-17 mm E. 17-20 mm 494. Normal duration of P wave? A. * 0,1 sec B. 0,12 sec C. 0,14 sec D. 0,16 sec E. 0,18 sec 495. Normal duration of QRS complex? A. * 0,1 sec B. 0,12 sec C. 0,14 sec D. 0,16 sec E. 0,18 sec 496. Normal duration of T wave? A. 0,10-0,12 sec B. 0,12-0,14 sec C. 0,14-0,20 sec D. * 0,16-0,24 sec E. 0,18-0,26 sec 497. Place of auscultation of murmur in aortic incompetence: A. Heart apex; B. * Botkin-Erb’s point; C. 3rd intercostal space righwards from the sternum D. 3rd intercostal space leftwards from the sternum E. Fifth intercostal space righwards from the sternum 498. Place of auscultation of murmur in aortic stenosis: A. Heart apex; B. Botkin-Erb’s point; C. * Second intercostal space righwards from the sternum D. Second intercostal space leftwards from the sternum; E. Fifth intercostal space righwards from the sternum. 499. Projection of aortal valve on the chest wall is the following: A. II intercostal space leftward of the sternum B. * At the midpoint of the line connecting II costal cartilages of left and right ribs C. Leftward of the sternum at the point of junction of the Ш rib with the sternum D. At the midpoint of the line connecting junction of the Ш left rib and junction of V left rib to the sternum E. At the level of 3rd ribs at the midpoint of the sternum 500. Projection of mitral valve on the chest wall is the following: A. II intercostal space leftward of the sternum B. At the midpoint of the line connecting II costal cartilages of left and right ribs C. * Leftward of the sternum at the point of junction of the Ш rib with the sternum D. At the midpoint of the line connecting junction of the Ш left rib and junction of V left rib to the sternum E. At the level of 3rd ribs 501. Projection of pulmonary trunk valve to the chest wall is the following: A. * II intercostal space leftward of the sternum B. At the midpoint of the line connecting II costal cartilages of left and right ribs C. Leftward of the sternum at the point of junction of the Ш rib with the sternum D. At the midpoint of the line connecting junction of the Ш left rib and junction of V left rib to the sternum E. At the level of 3rd ribs 502. Projection of tricuspid valve on the chest wall A. II intercostal space leftward of the sternum B. At the midpoint of the line connecting II costal cartilages of left and right ribs C. Leftward of the sternum at the point of junction of the Ш rib to the sternum D. * At the midpoint of the line connecting junction of the III left rib and junction of V left rib to the sternum E. At the level of 3rd ribs 503. Protodiastolic, mesodiastolic or presystolic murmurs at heart apex are observed in: A. * Mitral stenosis B. Mitral incompetence C. Aortal incompetence D. Aortal stenosis E. The cause is not indicated 504. Relative systolic murmur differs from organic one in such a way: A. It doesn’t depend on respiratory phases; B. It is hough, loud and long; C. It doesn’t change in physical load D. * Is not transmitted (“dies at the place of occurence”); E. It is heard in all points of auscultation. 505. Slupping І sound at heart apex is typical for: A. Mitral incompetence; B. Aortal stenosis; C. Aortal incompetence; D. * Mitral stenosis; E. Pneumosclerosis 506. Splitting of І heart sound is typical for: A. Atrioventricular block B. * Ventricular block of impulse conduction C. Acute bronchitis D. Mitral stenosis E. Angina pectoris 507. Splitting of ІІ heart sound at pulmonary artery is observed in A. Aortal incompetence B. Aortal stenosis C. Acute bronchitis D. * Mitral stenosis E. Rheumatic myocarditis 508. Normal value of electric axis of the heart (angle ά) is equal to: A. -30° to -60°; B. 0° to -30°; C. 0° to +30°; D. * +30° to +69°; E. +70° to +90°. 509. The first heart sound on the phonocardiogram begins in the following period after the beginning of Q wave on ECG: A. 0.01-0.02 seconds, B. 0.03-0.04 seconds, C. * 0.03-0.06 seconds D. 0.01-0,06 seconds E. 0.02-0.08 seconds 510. The second heart sound on the phonocardiogram begins: A. In 0.03 sec before the beginning of the T wave, B. * In 0.02 sec before the beginning of the T wave C. In 0.01 sec before the beginning of the T wave, D. In 0.06 sec before the beginning of the T wave E. Simultaneously with the beginning of the T wave. 511. Wave P duration is equal to: A. 0,02-0,03 sec; B. 0,03 - 0,05 sec; C. 0,02 - 0,07 sec; D. * 0,06-0,10 sec E. 0,12- 0,18 sec. 512. Wave P represents potentials of: A. Sino-atrial node; B. * Atriums C. Left ventricle; D. Right ventricle; E. Atrioventricular node. 513. Weakening of 1 heart sound is typical for: A. Extrasystoly B. Synchronous systoly of atriums and ventricles, complete atrioventricular block; C. * Myocardiosclerosis D. Mitral stenosis; E. Coffeinomania 514. What ECG-signs of left atrial hyperthrophy do you know? A. Rising of amplitude of wave P. B. Rising of amplitude of wave R. C. Decreasing of amplitude of wave R. D. Duration of wave P is not changed. E. * Appearance of byphasic P wave. 515. What is the diffecence of pericardial friction murmur and organic systolic and diastolic murmurs? A. It is nit detectible by palpation; B. Intensifies if a patient bends backward; C. * Intensifies if a patient bends forward; D. Doesn’t coinside with systole and diastole; E. Weak; of low intensity 516. Where is Botkin-Erb’s point located? A. V interspace 1-1,5 cm medially from the left midclavicular line B. II interspace leftward of the sternum C. * III-IV interspaces leftward of the sternum D. At the xyphoid process E. II interspace rightward of the sternum 517. Which component of ECG reflects cardiac electrical diastole? A. T wave B. QRS complex C. P-T interval D. * T-P interval E. P-Q interval 518. Which component of ECG reflects cardiac electrical systole? A. T wave B. P wave C. QRS complex D. * PT complex E. ST interval 519. Which component of ECG reflects conduction of impulse through AV node? A. T wave B. P wave C. QRS complex D. * PQ interval E. ST interval 520. Which component of ECG reflects excitation of atriums? A. T wave B. * P wave C. QRS complex D. PQ interval E. ST interval 521. Which component of ECG reflects excitation of ventricles? A. T wave B. P wave C. * QRS complex D. PQ interval E. ST interval 522. Which component of ECG reflects repolarization of ventricles? A. * T wave B. P wave C. QRS complex D. PQ interval E. ST interval 523. Which component of ECG reflects total excitation of ventricles? A. T wave B. P wave C. * QRS complex D. PQ interval E. ST interval 524. Which heart defect the organic systolic murmur is typial for? A. Stenosis of mitral orifice B. * Stenosis of aortic orifice C. Aortic incompetence D. Stenosis of pulmonary artery; E. Tricuspid valve incompetence. 525. Which among presented below murmurs are extracardial? A. Kumb’s, Flint’s and Grahaim-Steel’s murmurs B. Precardial, cardiopulmonic, pleuropericardial, Kumb’s, Flint’s and Grahaim- Steel’s murmurs C. Precardial, cardiopulmonic, pleuropericardial, Kumb’s murmurs D. * Pericardial and pleuropericardial friction murmurs E. Flint’s, precardial, cardiopulmonic murmurs 526. Which organic murmur at heart apex resembles sensation of a cat’s purr? A. Systolic murmur of the mitral valve inompetence B. * Diastolic murmur of mitral stenosis C. Systolic murmur of aortic stenosis D. Diastolic murmur of aortic incompetence E. Systolic murmur of stenosis of pulmonary artery 527. Which organic murmur gives the filling of “cat’s purr” at heart apex? A. Sytolic murmur in mitral incompetence B. * Diastolic murmur in mitral stenosis; C. Systolic murmur in aortal stenosis; D. Diastolic murmur in aortal incompetence; E. Systolic murmur in in anemia 528. Which valve is listened at Botkin-Erb’s point? A. * Artal valve B. Pulmonary trunk valve C. Mtral valve D. Tricuspid valve E. No any heart valve 529. Which valve is listened at heart apex? A. aortal valve B. Pulmonary trunk valve C. Mtral valve D. Tricuspid valve E. * N any heart valve 530. Which valve is listened at II interspace leftward of the sternum? A. Aortal valve B. * Plmonary trunk valve C. Mitral valve D. Tricuspid valve E. N any heart valve 531. Which valve is listened at II interspace rightward of the sternum? A. * Artal valve B. Pulmonary trunk valve C. Mitral valve D. Tricuspid valve E. No any heart valve 532. Which valve is listened at xyphoid process? A. Aortal valve B. Plmonary trunk valve C. Mitral valve D. * Ticuspid valve E. No any heart valve 533. In the II interspace rightward of the sternum it is possible to listen to: A. *Artal valve B. Pulmonary trunk valve C. Mitral valve D. Tricuspid valve E. No any heart valve 534. In the II interspace leftward of the sternum it is possible to listen to: A. Aortal valve B. *Plmonary trunk valve C. Mitral valve D. Ticuspid valve E. No any heart valve 535. At the xyphoid process it is possible to listen to A. Artal valve B. Pulmonary trunk valve C. Mitral valve D. *Ticuspid valve E. No any heart valve 536. At Botkin-Erb’s pint it is possible to listen to A. *Artal valve B. Pulmonary trunk valve C. Mitral valve D. Tricuspid valve E. No any heart valve 537. Place of auscultation of murmur in aortic incompetence: A. Heart apex; B. * 2nd intercostal space righwards from the sternum C. 3rd intercostal space righwards from the sternum D. 3rd intercostal space leftwards from the sternum E. Fifth intercostal space righwards from the sternum 538. Which organic murmur gives the filling of “cat’s purr” at basis of the heart? A. Systolic murmur in mitral incompetence B. Diastolic murmur in mitral stenosis; C. *Sstolic murmur in aortal stenosis; D. Diastolic murmur in aortal incompetence; E. Systolic murmur in in anemia 539. Clinical manifestation of atrioventricular block, II degree: A. * feeling of escape of heart beats B. palpitation C. Dizziness, faints D. Morgagni-Adams-Stock’s syndrome E. No symptoms 540. Clinical manifestation of extrasystole: A. * feeling of escape of heart beats B. palpitation C. Dizziness, faints D. Morgagni-Adams-Stock’s syndrome E. No symptoms 541. Clinical manifestation of marked bradycardia: A. feeling of escape of heart beats B. palpitation C. * Dizziness, faints D. Morgagni-Adams-Stock’s syndrome E. No symptoms 542. Clinical manifestation of sinus respiratory arrhythmia: A. feeling of escape of heart beats B. palpitation C. Dizziness, faints D. Morgagni-Adams-Stock’s syndrome E. * No symptoms 543. Clinical manifestation of marked tachicardia: A. feeling of escape of heart beats B. * palpitation C. Dizziness, faints D. Morgagni-Adams-Stock’s syndrome E. No symptoms 544. Clinical manifestation of transition of incomplete AV block to complete one: A. feeling of escape of heart beats B. palpitation C. Dizziness, faints D. * Morgagni-Adams-Stock’s syndrome E. No symptoms 545. ECG signs of atrioventricular extrasystole: A. Р wave is present, ventricular complex is not changed; B. Unbroadened Р wave, altered ventricular complex; C. Missed Р wave and broadened disfigured ventricular complex; D. Р wave present and ventricular complex is missed; E. * Presence of negative Р wave before or after not changed QRS. 546. ECG signs of sinus bradicardia: A. R-R intervals periodically are shorter but sometimes they become longer. All components of ECG are not changed. Change of RR interval duration don’t depend on respiratory phases B. R-R intervals periodically are shorter but sometimes they become longer. All components of ECG are not changed. Change of RR interval duration depends on respiratory phases; C. R-R intervals periodically are shorter but sometimes they become longer. QRS complex is disfigured, P wave is absent. D. R-R intervals are shorter than normal, heart rate is 106 per min E. * R-R intervals are longer than normal, heart rate is 56 per min 547. ECG signs of sinus non-respiratory arrhythmia? A. * *-R intervals periodically are shorter but sometimes they become longer. All components of ECG are not changed. Change of RR interval duration don’t depend on respiratory phases B. R-R intervals periodically are shorter but sometimes they become longer. All components of ECG are not changed. Change of RR interval duration depends on respiratory phases; C. R-R intervals periodically are shorter but sometimes they become longer. QRS complex is disfigured, P wave is absent. D. R-R intervals are shorter than normal, heart rate 106 per min E. R-R intervals are longer than normal, heart rate 56 per min 548. ECG signs of sinus respiratory arrhythmia? A. R-R intervals periodically are shorter but sometimes they become longer. All components of ECG are not changed. Change of RR interval duration don’t depend on respiratory phases B. * R-R intervals periodically are shorter but sometimes they become longer. All components of ECG are not changed. Change of RR interval duration depends on respiratory phases; C. R-R intervals periodically are shorter but sometimes they become longer. QRS complex is disfigured, P wave is absent. D. R-R intervals are shorter than normal, heart rate 106 per min E. R-R intervals are longer than normal, heart rate 56 per min 549. ECG signs of sinus tachicardia? A. R-R intervals periodically are shorter but sometimes they become longer. All components of ECG are not changed. Change of RR interval duration don’t depend on respiratory phases B. R-R intervals periodically are shorter but sometimes they become longer. All components of ECG are not changed. Change of RR interval duration depends on respiratory phases; C. R-R intervals periodically are shorter but sometimes they become longer. QRS complex is disfigured, P wave is absent. D. * R-R intervals are shorter than normal, heart rate 106 per min E. R-R intervals are longer than normal, heart rate 56 per min 550. Electrocardiographic signs of incomplete atrioventricular block, П degree, Mobitz І type: A. Prolongation of interval P-Q; B. * Gradual prolongation of P-Q interval with periodical missing of QRST complex; C. Duration of P-Qintewrval is equal, periodic missing of ventricular complex; D. Absence of relation between P waves (in 2-3 times more frequent) and ventricular complexes; E. Negative wave Р after complex QRS, frequency of cardiac complexes (52 per 1 minute) and ventricular complexes appearance (25 after 1 minute). 551. Electrocardiographic signs of incomplete atrioventricular block, П degree, Mobitz IІ type: A. Prolongation of interval P-Q; B. Gradual prolongation of P-Q interval with periodical missing of QRST complex; C. * P-Q interval is equally polonged, periodical not frequent missing of ventricular complex; D. Absence of relation between P waves (in 2-3 times more frequent) and ventricular complexes; E. Negative wave Р after complex QRS, frequency of cardiac complexes (52 per 1 minute) and ventricular complexes appearance (25 after 1 minute). 552. Electrocardiographic signs of incomplete atrioventricular block, П degree, Mobitz IIІ type: A. Prolongation of interval P-Q; B. Gradual prolongation of P-Q interval with periodical missing of QRST complex; C. * P-Q interval is equally polonged, periodical frequent missing of ventricular complex; D. Absence of relation between P waves (in 2-3 times more frequent) and ventricular complexes; E. Negative wave Р after complex QRS, frequency of cardiac complexes (52 per 1 minute) and ventricular complexes appearance (25 after 1 minute). 553. Electrocardiographic signs of atrioventricular block, ПI degree: A. Prolongation of interval P-Q; B. Gradual prolongation of P-Q interval with periodical missing of QRST complex; C. Duration of P-Qintewrval is equally polonged, periodical frequent missing of ventricular complex; D. * Absence of relation between P waves and ventricular complexes (appearance of P waves is in 2-3 times more frequent than QRS complexes) E. Negative wave Р after complex QRS, frequency of cardiac complexes (52 per 1 minute) and ventricular complexes appearance (25 after 1 minute). 554. II heart sound on PCG begins in: A. 0,03 sec before Т wave beginning; B. 0,02 sec before Т wave ending; C. May appear in the same time with the beginning of Т wave; D. * May appear in the same time with the ending of Т wave E. 0,02 sec after its beginning 555. Select dangerous for patient’s life arrhythmia: A. sinual tachicardia; B. * ventricular flutter; C. sinual arrhythmia; D. atrial flutter; E. paroxismal tachycardia 556. What among the following is typical for complete AV block? A. Heart rate 60-90 per min B. Heart rate 90-160 per min C. Heart rate more than 160 per min D. Heart rate 40-60 per min E. * Heart rate less than 40 per min 557. What among the following is typical for paroxismal tachycardia? A. Heart rate 60-90 per min B. Heart rate 90-160 per min C. * Heart rate more than 160 per min D. Heart rate 40-60 per min E. Heart less than 40 per min 558. What among the following is typical for sinus bradycardia? A. Heart rate 60-90 per min B. Heart rate 90-160 per min C. Heart rate more than 160 per min D. * Heart rate 40-60 per min E. Heart less than 40 per min 559. What among the following is typical for sinus tachycardia? A. Heart rate 60-90 per min B. * Heart rate 90-160 per min C. Heart rate more than 160 per min D. Heart rate 40-60 per min E. Heart less than 40 per min 560. What among the following is typical normocardia? A. * Heart rate 60-90 per min B. Heart rate 90-160 per min C. Heart rate more than 160 per min D. Heart rate 40-60 per min E. Heart less than 40 per min 561. Which extrasystole is followed with complete compensatory pause? A. atrioventricular; B. atrial; C. Sinoatrial D. * ventricular; E. No any of them. 562. Which extrasystole is followed with non-complete compensatory pause? A. all of them; B. * atrial; C. Sinoatrial D. ventricular; E. No any of them. 563. Which extrasystole is followed with non-complete compensatory pause? A. * atrioventricular; B. all of them C. Sinoatrial D. ventricular; E. No any of them. 564. Which extrasystole is not followed with compensatory pause? A. atrioventricular; B. all of them C. * *Sinoatrial D. ventricular; E. No any of them. 565. Asystoly may develop as the result of: A. atrial fibrillation B. Ventricular fibrillation C. atrial flutter D. Ventricular flutter E. * intraventricular block 566. Asystoly may develop as the result of: A. intraventricular block of the right Hiss bundlebranch B. * Ventricular fibrillation C. Intraatrial block D. Ventricular flutter E. intraventricular block of the left Hiss bundlebranch 567. Asystoly of ventricles leads to: A. * cessation of blood circulation and clinical death B. Cardiogenic shock C. Thrombogenesis and embolism D. hypotension E. myocardial infarction 568. Asystoly: this is… A. absence of P wave in ECG, shaotic waves f, intervals R-R are different B. * absence of any waves on ECG C. QRS complexes are absent, ECG shows shaotic waves with different shape and amplitude D. frequent regular waves similar in shape and amplitude E. periodical missing of complete cardiac cycle 569. Cardiac electrostimulation: this is… A. treatment with electrical impulses with sufficient energy B. * Treatment with influence on myocardium with electrical current of sufficient potential and frequency C. Recording of the movements of heart apex during contractions D. intracardial administration of medicines E. administration of roentgencontrast in large vessels 570. Cardioversion: this is … A. treatment with electrical impulses with sufficient energy B. Treatment with influence on myocardium of electrical current of sufficient potential and frequency C. Recording of the movements of heart apex during contractions D. * intracardial administration of medicines E. administration of roentgencontrast into large vessels 571. Causes of sinoatrial block: A. Disturbance of impulse production by sinus node, B. * Disturbance of impulse conduction from sinus node to atriums; C. Disturbance of impulse conduction through AV node; D. Disturbance of impulse conduction through the right Hiss budle branch; E. Disturbance of impulse conduction through the left Hiss budle branch. 572. Clinical manifestation of attack of extrasystoly: A. * sudden “discoordinated palpitation”, feeling of dull kicks in heart region, dyspnea, fear and irritation B. Sudden strong palpitation, anginous pain, dizziness, faint, tick-tack heart rrhythm (embriocardia) C. faint, absence of pulse and blood pressure as well as heart sounds, pupillas become dilated, a patient develops convulsions, uncontrolled urination and defecation D. sudden dizziness and convulsions E. intensive pressing chest pain, intensive feeling of air hunger and sudden death 573. Clinical manifestation of Morgagni-Adams-Stocks syndrome: A. sudden “discoordinated palpitation”, feeling of dull kicks in heart region, dyspnea, fear and irritation B. Sudden strong palpitation, anginous pain, dizziness, faint, tick-tack heart rrhythm (embriocardia) C. * faint, absence of pulse and blood pressure as well as heart sounds, pupillas become dilated, uncontrolled urination and defecation D. sudden dizziness and convulsions E. intensive pressing chest pain, intensive feeling of air hunger and sudden death 574. Clinical manifestation of paroxysmal tachycardia: A. sudden “discoordinated palpitation”, feeling of dull kicks in heart region, dyspnea, fear and irritation B. * Sudden strong palpitation, anginous pain, dizziness, faint, tick-tack heart rrhythm (embriocardia) C. faint, absence of pulse and blood pressure as well as heart sounds, pupillas become dilated, a patient develops convulsions, uncontrolled urination and defecation D. sudden dizziness and convulsions E. intensive pressing chest pain, intensive feeling of air hunger and sudden death 575. Clinical manifestation of pulmonary artery thromboembolism: A. sudden “discoordinated palpitation”, feeling of dull kicks in heart region, dyspnea, fear and irritation B. Sudden strong palpitation, anginous pain, dizziness, faint, tick-tack heart rrhythm (embriocardia) C. faint, absence of pulse and blood pressure as well as heart sounds, pupillas become dilated, uncontrolled urination and defecation D. sudden dizziness and convulsions E. * intensive pressing chest pain, intensive feeling of air hunger and hemopthysis 576. Clinical manifestation of ventricular fibrillation: A. sudden “discoordinated palpitation”, feeling of dull kicks in heart region, dyspnea, fear and irritation B. Sudden strong palpitation, anginous pain, dizziness, faint, tick-tack heart rrhythm (embriocardia) C. * faint, absence of pulse and blood pressure as well as heart sounds, pupills become dilated D. sudden dizziness and convulsions E. intensive pressing chest pain, intensive feeling of air hunger and sudden death 577. Dopplercardiography is used for: A. * recognition of pathological blood flow B. Recording of the movements of heart apex during contractions C. Administration of roentgen-contrast agent into the right of left coronary artery with special catheters D. the method of image of a heart and large vessels with usage of ultrasound E. investigation of heart contours pulsation with usage of special photoelectric cell 578. ECG signs of atrial extrasystole: A. absence of Р wave and deformation of ventricular complex; B. * Р wave form is changed, it is present before QRS complex, QRS complex is not changed; C. biphasic Р wave; D. Р wave presence and lack of ventricular complex; E. Р wave after ventricular complex. 579. ECG signs of ventricular extrasystole: A. Р wave is present, ventricular complex is not changed; B. Unbroadened Р wave, altered ventricular complex; C. * Missed Р wave and broadened disfigured ventricular complex; D. Р wave present and ventricular complex is missed; E. Presence of negative Р wave before altered QRS. 580. ECG-sign of atrial fibrillation? A. * different duration of RR intervals B. heart rrhythm is always accelerated C. P wave appears after QRS D. QRS complex is disfigured E. P wave is absent, large waves F are recorded instead of P 581. ECG-sign of atrial flutter? A. different duration of RR intervals B. heart rate is less than 40 per min C. P wave appears after QRS D. QRS complex is disfigured E. * P wave is absent, large waves F are recorded instead of P 582. ECG-signs of paroxysmal atrial tachycardia? A. Heart rrhythm is regular, heart rate is 40-60 per min, ECG waves are not changed B. Heart rrhythm is regular, heart rate is 90-160 per min, ECG waves are not changed C. * Heart rrhythm is regular, heart rate is 160-210 per min, ECG waves are not changed D. Heart rrhythm is regular, heart rate is 160-210 per min, P wave is absent, QRS is disfigured E. Heart rrhythm is irregular, heart rate is 60-90 per min, ECG waves are not changed 583. ECG-signs of paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia? A. Heart rrhythm is regular, heart rate is 40-60 per min, ECG waves are not changed B. Heart rrhythm is regular, heart rate is 90-160 per min, ECG waves are not changed C. Heart rrhythm is regular, heart rate is 160-210 per min, ECG waves are not changed D. * Heart rrhythm is regular, heart rate is 160-210 per min, P wave is absent, QRS is disfigured E. Heart rrhythm is irregular, heart rate is 60-90 per min, ECG waves are not changed 584. ECG-signs of sinual bradicardia? A. * Heart rrhythm is regular, heart rate is 40-60 per min, ECG waves are not changed B. Heart rrhythm is regular, heart rate is 90-160 per min, ECG waves are not changed C. Heart rrhythm is regular, heart rate is 160-210 per min, ECG waves are not changed D. Heart rrhythm is regular, heart rate is 160-210 per min, P wave is absent, QRS is disfigured E. Heart rrhythm is irregular, heart rate is 60-90 per min, ECG waves are not changed 585. ECG-signs of sinual respiratory arrhythmia? A. Heart rrhythm is regular, heart rate is 40-60 per min, ECG waves are not changed B. Heart rrhythm is regular, heart rate is 90-160 per min, ECG waves are not changed C. Heart rrhythm is regular, heart rate is 160-210 per min, ECG waves are not changed D. Heart rrhythm is regular, heart rate is 160-210 per min, P wave is absent, QRS is disfigured E. * Heart rrhythm is irregular, heart rate is 60-90 per min, ECG waves are not changed 586. ECG-signs of sinual tachycardia? A. Heart rrhythm is regular, heart rate is 40-60 per min, ECG waves are not changed B. * Heart rrhythm is regular, heart rate is 90-160 per min, ECG waves are not changed C. Heart rrhythm is regular, heart rate is 160-210 per min, ECG waves are not changed D. Heart rrhythm is regular, heart rate is 160-210 per min, P wave is absent, QRS is disfigured E. Heart rrhythm is irregular, heart rate is 60-90 per min, ECG waves are not changed 587. ECG-signs of ventricular fibrillation? A. different duration of RR intervals B. * zero line with oscillations, waves and complexes on ECG is not able to recognize C. P wave appears after QRS D. sinusoid line, waves and complexes on ECG is not able to recognize E. P wave is absent, large waves F are recorded instead of P 588. ECG-signs of ventricular flutter? A. different duration of RR intervals B. heart rrhythm is always accelerated C. P wave appears after QRS D. * sinusoid line, waves and complexes on ECG is not able to recognize E. P wave is absent, large waves F are recorded instead of P 589. Echocardiography: this is … A. * the method of imaging of a heart and large vessels with usage of ultrasound B. Administration of roentgen-contrast agent into the right of left coronary artery with special catheters C. Recording of the movements of heart apex during contractions D. investigation of heart contours pulsation with usage of special photoelectric cell E. registration of sounds which occur in a heart during its contraction 590. Electrocardiographic signs of incomplete atrioventricular block of degree I : A. periodic missing of all cardiac cycle; B. change of shape of P wave without changes of ventricular complex; C. * interval P-Q is permanent and equal to 0,20 second, without changes of QRS; D. absence of connection between wave P(in 2-3 once more frequent) and ventricular complex; E. negative wave P after complex QRS, frequency of cardiac excitations is 52 per 1 minute. 591. Electrocardiographic signs of complete atrioventricular block: A. Periodical missing of cardiac cycle and regular appearance of atrial complexes; B. Gradual enlargement of P-Q interval; C. P-Q interval gradually increases, until one ventricle complexes is missed; D. *There isn’t relation between waves Р appearane (75 per minute ) and QRS complexes (3 - 40 permin), E. Wave Р is negative, it is recorded after complex QRS. 592. Electrocardiographic signs of incomplete atrioventricular block of II-nd degree Mobitz I type: A. enlarged interval P-Q; B. * gradual increase of P-Q and periodical missing of one ventricular complex; C. duration of P-Q is permanent, periodic fall of ventricle complex; D. absence of connection between atrial(in 2-3 once more frequent) and ventricnlar complexes; E. negative P after complex QRS, frequency of cardiac excitations is 52 per 1 minute. 593. Electrokymography: this is A. Recording of the movements of heart apex during contractions B. Administration of roentgen-contrast agent into the right of left coronary artery with special catheters C. the method of image of a heart and large vessels with usage of ultrasound D. investigation of heart chambers and large vessels after administration roentgen-contrast agent inside of them E. * investigation of heart contours pulsation with usage of special photoelectric cell 594. Electrostimulation is not used in: A. * sinus tachycardia B. Paroxysmal tachycardia C. Sinoatrial block and Morgagni-Adams-Stocks syndrome D. asystoly E. Severe bradicardia 595. II heart sound appears on PCG in the following interval after Q wave: A. 0.01-,02 sec; B. 0,03-0,06 sec C. * 0,03-0,06 sec D. 0,02-0,08 sec. E. 0,01-0,06 sec; 596. In which arrhythmia pulse is irregular in the form of periodical early appearance of pulse wave? A. Sinus tachicardia; B. Sinus bradicardia; C. Sinus arrhythmia; D. * Extrasystolic arrhythmia; E. Atrial flutter. 597. The first heart sound on the phonocardiogram begins in the following period after the beginning of Q wave on ECG: A. 0.01-0.02 seconds, B. 0.03-0.04 seconds, C. * 0.03-0.06 seconds, D. 0.01-0,06 seconds, E. 0.02-0.08 seconds. 598. The second heart sound on the phonocardiogram begins: A. In 0.03 sec before the beginning of T wave, B. * In 0.02 sec before the beginning of T wave, C. In 0.01 sec before the beginning of T wave, D. In 0.06 sec before the beginning of T wave, E. Simultaneously with the beginning of T wave. 599. What ECG-signs of right atrial hyperthrophy do you know? A. * Rising of amplitude of wave P. B. Rising of amplitude of wave R. C. Decreasing of amplitude of wave R. D. Duration of wave P is not changed. E. Appearance of byphase P wave. 600. What from the following is typical for paroxysmal tachycardia? A. Premature appearance of cardiac complex on ECG B. Complete compensatory pause C. * Abrupt beginning and finish D. Prolongation of PQ interval E. Displacement of ST segment fron isoelectric line 601. What is normal value of ejection fraction? A. * more than 55 % B. more than 34 %; C. more than 45% D. more than 62% E. more than 80% 602. Which energy is necessary for cardiac electrostimulation? A. less than 50 Joule B. * Up to 4000 Joule C. 50-100 Joule D. 1000 Joule E. more than 100 Joule 603. Which characteristics are typical for pain pattern in chronic hepatitis? A. Located in epigastrium, appears on empty stomach B. Night pain in epigastrium C. Girdling pain in 1-2 hours after meal D. Located in left hypochondrium, occurs in physical load E. *Location in right hypochondrium, occurs in physical load 604. A patient has peptic ulcer and pylorostenosis. Which character of vomiting masses will be in this case? A. Vomit with admixtions of bile B. Vomit with admixtions of blood C. Mucus and pus in vomiting masses D. Undigested food in vomiting masses E. * Vomiting with food used a day before 605. Which data among the follofing indicate on decreased liver detoxication function?: A. hyperbilirubinemia, hypoproteinemia, hypoazotemia B. hyperbilirubinemia, hypoproteinemia, hypophenolemia C. * hyperazotemia, hyperphenolemia, increased potassium concentration in the blood D. hypoazotemia, hyperphenolemia, decreased potassium concentration in the blood E. hypoazotemia, hypophenolemia, hyperammonemia 606. Accumulation of liquid in abdominal cavity is called: A. * Ascites B. Hydrothorax C. Pneumothorax D. Hydropericardium E. Exsudate 607. Which data among the follofing indicate on decreased synthetic function of a liver? A. * Hypoalbuminemia, decreased levels of fibrinogenum and prothrombin B. Hyperbilirubinemia, decreased levels of fibrinogenum and prothrombin C. Hypoalbuminemia, hypercholesterolemia, hyperazotemia D. Hyperbilirubinemia, hypercholesterolemia, hyperazotemia E. Hyperalbuminemia, decreased levels of fibrinogenum and prothrombin 608. Cholelithiasis is a violation of metabolism: A. Cholesterol B. Bilirubin C. Bile acids D. * All of the above E. Everything is wrong 609. Cholestasis is important in the development of: A. * Cholelithiasis B. Urolithiasis C. Gastric ulcer D. Obesity E. Carditis 610. Chronic cholecystocholangitis is the chronic inflammation of: A. Stomach and duodenum B. Stomach and gall bladder C. * A gallbladder and bile ducts D. A gallbladder and pancreas E. Stomach and bile ducts 611. Dilatation of anterior abdominal wall veins are typical for: A. Bile ducts dyskinesia B. * Cholecystocholangitis C. Gastritis D. Duodenitis E. Colitis 612. Enlargement of a liver is typical for: A. Bile ducts dyskinesia B. *Cholecystocholangitis C. Gastritis D. Pancreatitis E. Colitis 613. Factors contributing to the development of gallstone disease A. Genetic predisposition B. Metabolic changes C. bBle ducts dysfunction D. Cholestasis E. * All of the above 614. Factors contributing to the development of gallstone disease: A. Viral diseases B. * Obesity C. Prolonged hypothermia D. Insolation E. All of the above 615. What is typical for cholelythiasis? A. * Intensive, paroxysmal pain in right subcostal area B. Distension , permanent pain in the mesogastrium C. Dull, aching pain in right subcostal area D. Pain in right subcostal area on empty stomach E. Intensive, paroxysmal pain in left subcostal area 616. The next symptoms are typical for chronic cholecystitis: A. *Pain in the right hypochondrium after intake of fatty or fried food B. Pain in a stomach after the physical loading C. Pain in the right hypochondrium after asleep D. Pain in the right hypochondrium during urination E. Pain in the right hypochondrium before asleep 617. The next symptoms are typical for chronic hepatitis: A. * Pain in the right hypochondrium, hepatosplenomegaly B. Pain in the left hypochondrium C. Diarrhea, intoxication D. Splenomegaly, jaundice E. Pain in the stomach 618. What is typical for dyspepsic syndrome in diseases of a gallbladder? A. Diarrhea after the use of milk B. Diarrhea is frequent, profuse C. No changes D. * Periodical constipation E. Diarrhea before the use of milk 619. Gallstones are divided on: A. * Pigment and cholesterol B. Bilirubin and phosphorous C. Calcium and cholesterol D. Pigment and magnesium E. All of the above 620. How is the method of inspection of large colon mucosa is named? A. Gastroduodenoscopy B. * Colonoscopy C. Rectoromanoscopy D. Cystoscopy E. Laparoscopy 621. How many cantimeters is liver size on the midline (obtained by percussion by Kurlov’s method)? A. 10±1 сm B. 9±1 сm C. * 8± 1 сm D. 7±1 сm E. 6± 1 сm 622. How many cantimeters is liver size on the right midclavicular line (obtained by percussion by Kurlov’s method)? A. 11±1 сm B. 10± 1 сm C. * 9± 1 сm D. 8± 1 сm E. 7± 1 сm 623. What pain pattern is typical for billiary colick? A. Discomfort in right subcostal area B. Epigastric pain on hunger or at night C. * Intensive, paroxysmal pain in right subcostal area D. Distension pain in the mesogastrium E. Discomfort in left subcostal area 624. What pain pattern is typical for chronic hepatitis? A. * Dull-boring or mild pressing pain in right subcostal area B. Epigastric pain on hunger or at night C. Intensive, paroxysmal pain in right subcostal area D. Distension pain in the mesogastrium E. Discomfort in left subcostal area 625. In diseases of a liver and gallbladder pain may develop due to all reasons except of: A. Distension of Glisson’s capsule B. Spastic contractions of a gallbladder C. Inflammation of Glisson’s capsule D. Inflammation and distension of gallbladder walls E. * Destruction of hepatocites 626. Select the proper appearance of xanthomas: A. They look like angiomas elevated above the skin B. * They look like yellow plaques C. They look like excoriations D. They look like hemorrhagic rash E. They look like nettle rash 627. Inflammatory diseases of the liver include: A. Wilson disease B. * Hepatitis C. Gilbert syndrome D. Hydatid disease of the liver E. Agenesis of the liver 628. Irrigography – this is the method: A. Of endoscopic examination of the colon B. Of endoscopic examination of rectum and sygmoid colon C. X-ray examination of the large intestine with administration of barium sulfate solution per os D. * X-ray examination of the large intestine with administration of barium sulfate solution with enema E. Plain X-rays of abdominal organs 629. Itching of the skin in liver diseases indicates on: A. Presence of duodenogastric reflux B. * Increased content of bile acids due to cholestasis C. Affected proteins production by a liver D. Deranged process of bilirubin conjugation E. Increase of detoxication function of a liver 630. Laboratory examination of feces for scant blood may be positive: A. In microbleeding from the ulcer of a stomach or intestine B. In microbleeding from a tumour of gastrointestinal tract C. In nonspecific ulcerous colitis D. In intake of meet during meals E. * All mentioned above 631. Markers of chronic hepatitis B are: A. * HBe Ag, HBs Ag, HBV-DNA, anti-HBe Ig G, anti-HBs Ig G B. HAV-RNA, anti-HAV Ig M, anti-HAV Ig G C. HСV-RNA, anti-HСV Ig M D. HBs Ag, HDV-RNA, anti-HDV Ig M, anti-HBe Ig M E. HGV-RNA, anti-E2 HGV 632. Markers of chronic hepatitis D are: A. HBe Ag, HBs Ag, HBV-DNA, anti-HBe Ig G, anti-HBs Ig G B. HAV-RNA, anti-HAV Ig M, anti-HAV Ig G C. HСV-RNA, anti-HСV Ig M D. * HBs Ag, HDV-RNA, anti-HDV Ig M, anti-HBe Ig M E. HGV-RNA, anti-E2 HGV 633. Markers of chronic hepatitis G are: A. HBe Ag, HBs Ag, HBV-DNA, anti-HBe Ig G, anti-HBs Ig G B. HAV-RNA, anti-HAV Ig M, anti-HAV Ig G C. HСV-RNA, anti-HСV Ig M D. HBs Ag, HDV-RNA, anti-HDV Ig M, anti-HBe Ig M E. * HGV-RNA, anti-E2 HGV 634. Markers of chronic hepatitis С are: A. HBe Ag, HBs Ag, HBV-DNA, anti-HBe Ig G, anti-HBs Ig G B. HAV-RNA, anti-HAV Ig M, anti-HAV Ig G C. * HСV-RNA, anti-HСV Ig M D. HBs Ag, HDV-RNA, anti-HDV Ig M, anti-HBe Ig M E. HGV-RNA, anti-E2 HGV 635. Name basic clinical signs of cholestasis syndrome: A. * Jaundice, skin itching B. Jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly C. Pallor, jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly D. Stomach-aches, jaundice E. Pallor, skin itching 636. Name character of pain in perforation of stomach ulcer: A. Boring B. Burning C. Pressing D. * “Knife-like” E. Belting 637. Name typical signs of stomach cancer: A. Loss of appetite (disgust for meat) B. Marked loss of body weight for short period of time C. Pain in the upper andomen (sometimes very intensive) D. Periodical “unexplained” diarrhea E. * All mentioned 638. Normal sizes of a liver by Kurlov’s method are: A. * 9 ±1 сm, 8±1 сm 7±1 сm B. 12±1 сm, 11±1 сm, 10±1 сm C. 10±1 сm, 8±1 сm, 6±1 сm D. 8±1 сm, 7±1 сm, 6±1 сm E. 11±1 сm, 10±1 сm, 8±1 сm 639. Pain in the inguinal area relates to: A. Presence of gastritis B. Presence of duodenitis C. * Presence of spastic colitis D. Presence of pancreatitis E. Normal finding 640. Positive Ortner’s sign is characteristic for: A. Gastritis B. Pancreatitis C. * Cholecystocholangitis, hepatitis D. Duodenitis E. Colitis 641. Positive thymol test is characteristic for: A. Gastritis B. Pancreatitis C. * Cholecystocholangitis, hepatitis D. Duodenitis E. Colitis 642. Presence of asterixis is characteristic for: A. Gastritis B. Duodenitis C. * Hepatic insufficiency D. Bile ducts dyskinesia E. Colitis 643. Superficial palpation of an abdomen (when a patient does not complains of any pain) should be started from: A. Epigastrium B. Left hypochondrial region C. Right hypochondrium D. * Left iliac region E. Pubical region 644. The lover edge of normal liver is palpated at: A. Parasternal line B. * Midclavicular line C. Anterior axillary line D. Mid axillary line E. Midline 645. The main ethiologic factor of chronic hepatitis is: A. Bacteria B. Parasites C. * Virus D. Fungi E. Bile 646. The syndrome of "cholestasis" includes the increased levels of: A. * АsАТ, АlАТ, total bilirubin B. Cholesterol, direct bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase C. Cholesterol, indirect bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase D. General bilirubin, remaining nitrogen E. General bilirubin, АsАТ, АlАТ 647. The syndrome of "cytolysis" includes: A. * Increase of the АsАТ level, АlАТ, LDG, bilirubin B. Increase level of cholesterol, iron, LDG C. Decrease level of proteins, cholesterol, bilirubin, СRP D. Decrease level of СRP, remaining nitrogen, АsАТ, АlАТ E. Decrease of the АsАТ level, АlАТ, LDG, bilirubin 648. To the obvious biochemical researches for patients with the diseases of hepatobiliary system belong the folloving: A. General albumen, CRP, seromucoid, bilirubin B. * General protein and fractions, transaminases, bilirubin, cholesterol C. General protein and fractions, urea, creatinin, cholesterol D. General protein and fractions, CRP, seromucoid, urea E. General protein and fractions, CRP, cholesterol 649. What do cholesterol stones consist of? A. Bilirubin B. Proteins C. Lecithin D. Bile acids E. * All of the above 650. What are the signs of bile lithogenicity in biochemical blood analysis? A. Lower cholesterol, bilirubin, increased concentration of bile acids B. * Increased levels of cholesterol, bilirubin, reducing the concentration of bile acids C. Increased cholesterol levels, lower bilirubin, an increased concentration of bile acids D. Lower cholesterol, bilirubin, reducing the concentration of bile acids E. Everything is wrong 651. What are the signs of bile lithogenicity on microscopic examination of bile samples? A. Bacteria B. * Cholesterol crystals in large quantities C. Mucus D. All of the above E. Everything is wrong 652. What color of feces in case of viral hepatitis? A. Bright-yellow B. Dark-brown C. * Clays color D. Mud-color E. Black 653. What complex of investigations is needed for patients with the diseases of hepatobiliary system? A. РH-metry, ultrasonography, duodenal probing B. РH-metry, esophagogastroduodenoscopy, ultrasonography C. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy, ultrasonography, laparoscopy D. * cholecystography, ultrasonography, duodenal probing E. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy, laparoscopy 654. What does not belong for methods of preparation for gastroduodenoscopy? A. Psychological preparation B. Supper a day before at 18 o’clock C. * Cleansing enema on previous day at 20 o’clock D. Instruction of a patient to be on the fasten stomach in the morning E. Irrigation of a throat with 1-2 % dicaine solution ( 3-5 min before investigation) 655. What examination method is used for early diagnostics of cholelithiasis before formation of gallstones? A. Gallbladder ultrasound B. Cholecystography C. * Microscopy and biochemical study of bile D. Coprogram E. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy 656. What is necessary for investigation of stomach secretory function? A. A tray, a bottle B. 30-50 ml of 33 % magnesium sulfate solution C. Syringies 2,0 and 20,0 ml capacity D. 1 ml of 1% dimedrol solution E. * 0,1% histamine solution 657. What is normal location of liver lower border on anterior median line revealed by percussion? A. At costal arch B. * between the upper and medial thirds of the distance between the navel and xyphois process C. between the lower and medial thirds of the distance between the navel and xyphois process D. At the navel E. At costal arch 658. What is normal location of liver lower border on midclavicular line revealed by percussion? A. * At costal arch B. 1 сm upper from the costal arch C. 2 сm upper from the costal arch D. 3 сm upper from the costal arch E. 1 сm lower from the costal arch 659. What is normal location of liver upper border on midclavicular line revealed by percussion? A. at 4 rib B. at 5 rib C. * at 6 rib D. at 7 rib E. at 8 rib 660. What is normal sickness of gallbladder wall according to data of ultrasound examination? A. 0.9-1,2 mm B. 1,2-1,5 mm C. 1,5-1,9 mm D. * 2-3 mm E. 3-4,5 mm 661. What is normal time of excretion of «А» portion of bile during fractional duodenal probing? A. 1-2 min B. * 3-6 min C. 7-8 min D. 9-11 min E. 12-14 min 662. What is not allowed to do before X-ray examination of duodenum? A. Exclude from patient’s nutrition products which conduct meteorism B. Supper 1 day before the procedure at 18 o’clock C. In the evening at 20 o’clock – purgitative enema D. In the morning of examination at 7 o’clock – purgitative enema E. * Stomach cleansing 663. What is not necessary to prepare for abdominal puncture? A. Troacar with a stylet, a acalpel, a pincet B. Syringes, needles, surgical gur, a plaster C. Sterile peaces of gause, tubes D. 0,5 % novocaine solution , 5 % iodinum solution E. * Bobrov’s apparatus 664. What stimulator is it necessary to prepare for duodenal probing? A. Breakfast B. Sterile thin rubber probe with olive C. A tray, rack with tubes D. Rack with a vial 20 ml capacity E. * 30-50 ml of 33 % magnesium sulfate solution (temperature 40-50 degree of Сelsium) 665. What is the length of the 3rd (oblique) size of a liver? A. 10± 1 сm B. 9± 1 сm C. 8± 1 сm D. * 7±1 сm E. 6±1 сm 666. What is the sequence of palpation of intestine? A. Sigmoid, caecum, terminal part of ileum, transverse colon, ascendind colon, decendind colon B. Terminal part of ileum, sigmopid, ascendind colon, transverse colon, decendind colon, caecum C. Sigmoid, caecum, terminal part of ileum, ascendind colon, transverse colon, decendind colon D. Terminal part of ileum, ascendind colon, decendind colon, sigmoid, caecum, transverse colon E. * Sigmoid, caecum, terminal part of ileum, ascendind colon, decendind colon, transverse colon 667. What is the size of the liver on the anterior median line? A. 10-12 сm B. 12-13 сm C. 8-11 сm D. * 7-9 сm E. 13-14 сm 668. What is the size of the liver on the right midclavicular line? A. 10-12 сm B. 12-13 сm C. * 8-10 сm D. 7-8 сm E. 13-14 сm 669. How is jaundice with occlusion of the common bile duct called? A. Physiological B. Hemolytic C. * Mechanical D. Parenchymatous E. Combined 670. What portion of bile in the duodenal contents is investigated in case of cholelithiasis? A. A. B. * B. C. C. D. D. E. E. 671. Where are formed gallstones? A. In the hepatic bile ducts B. In the common bile duct C. In the gall bladder D. * All of the above E. Everything is wrong 672. Where pain in a hepatic colic is conducted? A. In the left hypochondrium B. Epigastric C. * In the right hypochondrium D. In the right iliac region E. In the left iliac region 673. Where pain in the attack of biliary colic is conducted? A. To the right shoulder B. To the neck C. Under the right scapula D. * All of the above E. Everything is wrong 674. Which changes in coprogram are typical for chronic pancreatitis? A. Semiliquid feces with unpleasant smell B. Steatorrhea C. Creatorrhea D. Amylorrhea E. * All mentioned above 675. Which indexes of debit-hour of hydrochloric acid of basal stomach secretion are normal? A. 5,5 – 6,5 mmol/l B. * 1,5 – 5,5 mmol/l C. 0 – 1,0 mmol/l D. 6,5 – 7,5 mmol/l E. 7,5 – 8,5 mmol/l 676. Which indexes of debit-hour of hydrochloric acid of stimulated stomach secretion are normal? A. 1,5 – 5,5 mmol/l B. 5,5 – 6,5 mmol/l C. * 6,5 – 12,0 mmol/l D. 12,5 – 16,5 mmol/l E. 16,5 – 18,0 mmol/l 677. Which laboratory test is informative in diagnostics of chronic pancreatitis exacerbation? A. Complete blood count B. *Investigation of amylase, lipase, tripsin leves and their inhibitors C. Investigation of serum proteins D. Coprogram E. Duodenal probing 678. Which method is the most informative in differentiation of peptic ulcer and stomach cancer? A. * Esophagogastroduodenoscopy with biopsy B. Roentgenoscopy of the stomach C. Roentgenography of the stomach D. Examination of feces for scant blood E. Е. Investigation of stomach secretion 679. Which method of investigation of stomach lower border is the most informative? A. percussion B. Auscultation C. * Deep sliding palpation D. Percutory palpation (determination of splashing sound) E. Superficial palpation 680. Which pain is typical for chronic enteritis? A. Diffuse pain in all abdominal region B. In the left iliac region C. * In paraumbilical region D. In epigastrium E. in lower parts of abdomen 681. Which pathological condition should you suspect in the patient if he has disgust to meat? A. Peptic ulcer B. Chronic gastritis C. Hemorrhoids D. * Cancer of the intestine E. Enteritis 682. Which prevalence of fractional duodenal probing opposite to simple one? A. Thin probe may be easily swallowed B. It is more convenient to swallow a probe one time than twice C. * Investigation of stomach secretion in dynamics (its timing) D. Usage of probing breakfast E. In vomiting reflex it is possible to insert a probe through the nose 683. Which radiopaque preparation is necessary for X-ray examination of stomach and intestine? A. Cholevid B. * Barium sulphate C. Bilignost D. Iopagnost E. Urotrast 684. Which sound is heard above the abdomen during its percussion? A. Bundbox B. Dull sound C. * Thympatic sound D. Dull-to-thympany sound E. All mentioned 685. Which stimulator of stomach secretion now is in wide usage? A. Insulin B. 5% alcohol solution C. * Pentagastrin D. Cabbage juice E. Meat soup 686. Which symptom is characteristic for hepatitis? A. Chvostek’s sign B. * Murphy’s sign C. Obraztsov’s sign D. Mayo-Robson‘s sign E. Troisier's sign 687. Yellow colour of skin and mucosa are caused by: A. Increased level of serum hemoglobin B. *Increased level of serum bilirubin C. Increased level of serum cholesterol D. Increased level of serum creatinin E. Increased level of serum urea 688. Skin itching in jaundice is caused by: A. Increased concentration of hemoglobin B. Increased concentration of bilirubin C. Increased concentration of cholesterol D. Increased concentration of creatinine E. * Increased concentration of bile acids 689. What are the signs of bile lithogenicity on microscopic examination of bile samples? A. Bacteria B. Mucus C. * Bilirubinate calcium salts and precipitates D. All of the above E. Everything is wrong 690. What color of feces in mechanical jaundice? A. Bright-yellow B. Dark-brown C. Clays color D. * Grey E. Black 691. What is necessary for duodenal probing? A. A tray, a bottle B. * 30-50 ml of 33 % magnesium sulfate solution C. Syringies 2,0 and 20,0 ml capacity D. 1 ml of 1% dimedrol solution E. 0,1% histamine solution 692. What are the signs of bile lithogenicity on microscopic examination of bile samples? A. Bacteria B. Mucus C. * Bilirubinate calcium salts and precipitates D. All of the above E. Everything is wrong 693. What color of feces in mechanical jaundice? A. Bright-yellow B. Dark-brown C. Clays color D. * Grey E. Black 694. What is necessary for duodenal probing? A. A tray, a bottle B. * 30-50 ml of 33 % magnesium sulfate solution C. Syringies 2,0 and 20,0 ml capacity D. 1 ml of 1% dimedrol solution E. 0,1% histamine solution 695. A fever at pernicious anemia is caused by: A. Massive disintegration of leukocytes; B. *Disintegration of red cells; C. Infectious complications; D. General intoxication; E. Hyperglobulinemia. 696. A hemorrhagic syndrome arises up as a result of all of reasons, except of: A. Decreasing of thrombocytes amount B. Functional deficiency of thrombocytes C. Deficit of coagulation factors in plasma D. Damage of vascular wall of immune character E. * Decreasing of erythrocytes amount and level of hemoglobin 697. During auscultation of a heart in patients with anemia it is heard: A. Rhythm of quail B. Bradycardia C. Intensification of I heart sound on apex D. Aggravation of II heart sound above aorta E. *Systolic murmur at apex 698. Excretion of which metabolites causes hypercreatininemia? A. * Proteins metabolites B. Carbohydrates metabolites C. Fats metabolites D. All mentioned E. Uric acid salts 699. For which disease alveolar pyorrhea is typical: A. Pernicious anemia; B. *Iron-deficiency; C. Hemolytic anemia; D. Acute leukosis; E. Erythremia. 700. Hemorrhages in the form of small dots are named: A. *petechia B. purpura C. ecchympses D. roseola E. papula 701. How is pain called caused by kidney block with a stone? A. * Urocolick B. Biliary colick C. Intestinal colick D. Spasmodic pain E. Dull boring pain 702. In a patient with disease of kidney pericardial friction sound is heard. Which condition is it typical for? A. Myocarditis B. Rheumatic attack C. * chronic renal failure D. Ischemic hereart disease E. hypertension 703. In development of chronic pyelonephritis the most important provoking factor is: A. Inflammation B. * Overcooling C. Immune disorders D. Disorders of hemostasis E. Liver disease 704. In patient’s urianalyses there were found leukocyturia, bacteriuria and proteinuria. Which disease is this typical for? A. Paranephritis B. Acute glomerulonephritis C. * pyelonephritis D. Amyloidosis E. Kidney cancer 705. In which disease nicturia may be present? A. Acute nephritis B. Diabetes mellitus C. * Chronic renal failure D. Chronic liver failure E. Diencephalic syndrome 706. In which kidney disease may be convulsions? A. Urocolick attack B. * Renal eclampsia C. Kidney tuberculosis D. Tumor of a kidney E. Glomerulonephritis 707. In which parts of digestive system the main part of iron is absorbed? A. In a stomach B. *In a duodenum and initial part of thin colon C. In a sigmoid colon D. In a caecum E. Along the whole length of digestive tract 708. Main laboratory sign of pyelonephritis: A. Large amount of casts B. Lipiduria C. * Prevalence of leukocyturia against of erythrocyturia D. Prevalence of erythrocyturia against of leukocyturia E. Proteinuria more than 2 g per day 709. Pathogenesis of arterial hypertension in kidney diseases is the following: A. * increased production of renin B. transformation of angiotensinogen in angiotensin II C. decreased production of prostaglandin D. replacement of natrium ions inside cells E. increased production of renin 710. Patient M. experiensed pyelonephritis. What laboratory sign is the most characteristic for this pathology? A. * active leukocytes in urine; B. considerable proteinuria; C. uraturia; D. oxalaturia; E. glucosuria. 711. Patient A., 38 years old, developed acute nephritis. What color of urine may be observed? A. red; B. * color of «meat wastes»; C. color of beer; D. sulphur E. straw-yellow. 712. Primary urine appears for a healthy man: A. * in glomerulis; B. in the proximal department of tubulis; C. in a diatal department; D. in the loop of Genle; E. in glomerulis and proximal department of tubulis. 713. Provoking factors of pyelonephritis: A. * severe bacterial infections B. Focuses of infection in the organism C. Immune deficiency state D. Acute cystitis E. All mentioned 714. Reberg’s test is performed with the purpose: A. to reveal which part of urinary system is the source of hematuria or leukocyturia, B. * estimation of kidney concentration function C. for calculation of formed elements (red cells, leukocytes, casts) in urine with the method of Kakovsky-Addis D. for determination of diuresis E. for determination of the amount of albumen in urine. 715. Select the method of assessment of urine outflow disorders in pyelonephritis of pregnant women: A. Excretory urography B. Chromocystoscopy C. Ultrasound D. * Ultrasound, chromocystoscopy E. Radioisotopic renography 716. Select the most informative method of diagnostics of acute secondary pyelonephritis: A. Chromocystoscopy B. Radioisotopic renography C. Ultrasound D. Laboratory tests E. * X- ray and ultrasound 717. Patient O., 39 years old, complains of nicturia. What pathology is this symptom typical for? A. acute nephritis; B. diabetes mellitus; C. * chronic kidney insufficiency; D. chronic cardiac insufficiency; E. diencephalic syndrome. 718. Signs of deficit of iron: A. Psilosis B. Fragility of nails C. Distortion of taste D. Koylonychia E. * All above mentioned 719. The most typical symptoms in acute pyelonephritis: A. Proteinuria B. Bacteriuria C. Erythrocituria D. * Leukocyturia, bacteriuria E. Sternmaiber-Malbin’s cells 720. The patient’s face with Adison-Birmer anemia looks like: A. Pale, diffusely edematic; B. *«waxen doll»; C. Cyanotic, edematic; D. Pale, exhausted; E. Moonlike. 721. The plane X-ray of kidney allows to define: A. condition of the pyelocaliceal system; B. position of ureters; C. * sizes of kidneys; D. condition of glomerular apparatus of kidneys; E. presence of a tumor. 722. Tongue in patient with Adison-Birmer anemia looks like: A. *Geographical; B. Raspberry color; C. Coated with white fur; D. Edemtic; E. Clean. 723. Typical peculiarities of renal edema: A. Appear in the evening B. First appear on legs C. First appear on arms D. * Appearance on face in the morning E. Early appearance of anasarca 724. Urinary syndrome was found out in a patient. What amount of albumen in urine is it typical for urinary syndrome? A. * till 3,5 g/day; B. till 4,5 g/day; C. till 5,5 g/day; D. till 6,5 g/day; E. till 9,5 g/day. 725. What amount of urine is excreted by kidneys of a healthy individual? A. * 1-2 l/day; B. 2,5 l/day; C. 3,5 l/day; D. 5,0 l/day; E. 7,0 l/day; 726. What are casts? A. Mucus, which changed its consistency in acid urine B. * Protein molds from renal canaliculi C. Accumulation of bacteria D. Thrombocytes pressed together E. Salt corks 727. What can not be assessed on plane X-ray of kidneys? A. Form of kidneys B. Size of kidneys C. Location of kidneys D. Presence of concrements E. * Presence of crystals of salts 728. What can not be the reason of edema in kidney diseases? A. * Increased level of albumin in blood B. Increase of permeability of capillary wall C. Diminishing of oncotic pressure of blood plasma D. Accumulation of sodium ions in blood and tissues E. Acute delay of selection of urine by lidneys 729. What day's requirement of the grown man in iron is needed for the erythrocytes synthesis? A. 20-25 mg B. 30-35 mg C. *10-18 mg D. 5-10 mg E. 1-2 g 730. What does belong to contrast X-ray examination of kidneys? A. * Excretory urography B. Radionuclide renogram C. Scintigraphy D. Radiocistography E. All mentioned above 731. What does not belong to radionuclide diagnostics of kidney diseases? A. * Excretory urography B. Radionuclide renogram C. Scintigraphy D. Radiocystography E. All mentioned above 732. What edema are characteristic for kidney patients? A. edema on lower limbs. B. edema on the lumbar region C. * edema below eyes D. accumulation of liquid in abdominal cavity (hydroperitoneum) E. edema on upper extremities. 733. What is ishuria: A. absence of urination because of affection of kidney excretory function B. * absence of urination because of impossibility to discharge urine from the bladder C. increase of amount of urine more than 2 litres per day D. decrease of amount of urine less than 1 litre per day E. amount of urine excreted per day is 0-30 ml per day because of affection of kidney excretory function 734. What is «pica chlorotica»? A. Inacidity and achilia for patients with iron-deficiency anaemia B. * Patients with iron-deficiency anaemia have inverted taste C. No correct answer D. Burning sensations on a tongue E. Pallor with a greenish tint in patients with chronic iron-deficiency anaemia 735. What is anuria: A. absence of urination because of affection of kidney excretory function B. absence of urination because of impossibility to discharge urine from the bladder C. increase of amount of urine more than 2 litres per day D. decrease of amount of urine less than 1 litre per day E. * amount of urine excreted per day is 0-30 ml per day because of affection of kidney excretory function 736. What may be found out during the inspection of oral cavity in a patient with acute leukosis? A. * Ulcerative and necrotic tonsillitis B. Gingival bleeding C. Multiple chronic focuses of infection D. Ulcerative and necrotic stomatitis E. *All mentioned 737. What is koilonychia? A. Transversal lines of nails B. Nails as watch glasses C. * Spoon-shaped (concave) form of nails D. Fragility of nails E. Discoloration of nails 738. What is location of edema in initial stages of kidney affection? A. * Below eyes B. On lower limbs C. On upper limbs D. In lumbar region E. In abdominal cavity 739. What is not typical for a patient with iron-deficiency anemia? A. Dryness and shelling of skin B. Hair fragility C. Concavity of nail plates D. * Slight yellow color of skin and mucous membranes E. Parodontosis, darkening of teeth 740. What is oliguria: A. frequent urination B. increase of amount of urine more than 2 litres per day C. * decrease of amount of urine less than 1 litre per day D. increase of specific gravity of urine E. lowering of specific gravity of urine 741. Select the proper volume of urine in oliguria: A. excretion less than 20 ml of urine per day B. absence of urine C. * excretion of 300-500 ml of urine per day D. excretion to 1000-1500 ml per day E. excretion of more than 2000 ml per day. 742. What is Pasternatsky’s symptom? A. Pain in palpation of lumbar region in the area of projection of kidneys B. Appearance of pain in lumbar region in rotation of a trunk C. * Appearance of pain at tapping of lumbar region in the area of kidneys D. Appearance of pain in the lumbar area at coughing E. Appearance of pain in the projection of ureter at passing of stone from a kidney 743. What is pathogenesis of kidney eclampsia? A. * Brain edema B. Affection of peripheral nerves C. Brain stroke D. Increased nerve irritation E. All mentioned 744. What is pathological mechanism of urocolick? A. * Obstruction of urine outflow from the kidney B. Inflammaltion of kidney parenchyma C. Inflammaltion of kidney calicies D. Inflammaltion of paranephral tissues E. No correct answer 745. What is pollakiuria: A. urination 3-4 times per day B. urination 4-7 times per day. C. * urination 8-11 times per day and more D. absence of urination E. urination 1-2 times per day. 746. What is polyuria: A. frequent urination B. * increase of amount of urine more than 2 litres per day C. decrease of amount of urine less than 1 litre per day D. increase of specific gravity of urine E. lowering of specific gravity of urine. 747. What is stranguria: A. urination 3-4 times per day B. * painful urination . C. urination 8-11 times per day D. absence of urination E. urination 1-2 times per day. 748. What is the cause of ostealgia in patients with chronic leukosis? A. Secondary infection B. * Hyperplasia of myeloid tissue C. Intoxication syndrome D. Increased production of lymphocites in bone marrow E. Systemis enlargement of lymphatic nodes 749. What is the origin of destroyed erythrocites in urianalyses? A. * Acute glomerulonephritis B. Urolithiasis C. Paranephritis D. Acute cystitis E. pyelonephritis 750. What is the purpose of Nechyporenko’s test execution? A. to reveal which part of urinary system is the source of hematuria or leukocyturia, B. estimation of kidney concentration function C. * for calculation of formed elements (red cells, leukocytes, casts) in urine D. for determination of diuresis E. for determination of the amount of albumen in urine. 751. What is the purpose of Tompson’s test (tree-glass test)? A. * to reveal which part of urinary system is the source of hematuria or leukocyturia, B. estimation of kidney concentration function C. for calculation of formed elements (red cells, leukocytes, casts) in urine D. for determination of diuresis E. for determination of the amount of albumen in urine. 752. What is the sourse of leukocyturia if leukocites are mainly present in I portion of urine in Thompson’s test? A. * Urethra B. Kidney C. A bladder D. Urethers E. rectum 753. What is the sourse of leukocyturia if leukocites are mainly present in II portion of urine in Thompson’s test? A. Urethra B. * Kidney C. A bladder D. Urethers E. rectum 754. What is the sourse of leukocyturia if leukocites are mainly present in III portion of urine in Thompson’s test? A. Urethra B. Kidney C. * A bladder D. Urethers E. rectum 755. What is typical for nephritic syndrome? A. Gross proteinuria B. Hypoproteinemia C. Hyperlipidemia D. No correct answer E. * All enumerated 756. Which level of albumin in urine is characteristic for nephrotic syndrome? A. * more than 3,5 gr. per day B. 4,1 gr. per day C. 5,0 gr. per day D. 2,0 gr. per day E. 0,33 gr. per day 757. What may be revealed in urinalyses of patient with acute pyelonephritis within first 48 hours of the disease? A. * Bacteriuria, proteinuria B. No changes C. Pyuria, erythrocyturia D. Casts E. Hematuria, proteinuria 758. What may be the consequence of gross prolonged loss of protein with urine? A. Development of uric syndrome B. Development of nephritic syndrome C. Development of hematuric syndrome D. * Development of nephrotic syndrome E. Development of hypertensive syndrome 759. What mechanisms of formation of urine does take place at the level of kidney tubuli? A. filtration; B. filtration and reabsorption; C. * reabsorption and secretion; D. filtration and secretion; E. reabsorption. 760. What pains are characteristic for nephrocolic: A. dull, aching pain in lumbar region B. intensive permanent pain in lumbar region C. * intensive sharp attack-like pain in lumbar region on one side irradiating downward to the internal surface of the thighs and perineum. D. intensive sharp attack-like pain in lumbar region from the right side irradiating upward to the right shoulder and scapula. E. pain at the bottom of a stomach 761. What pathology of kidney is cramping paintypical for? A. *In the attack of nephrocolic B. In kidney eclampsia C. Tuberculosis of kidneys D. Tumour of kidneys E. Glomerulonephritis 762. What pathology of urinary system is manifested with sudden sharp pain in lumbar region from one side? A. Paranephritis B. Nephroptosis C. Acute pyelonephritis D. Acute glomerulonephritis E. * Renal colick. 763. What position does patient with urocolick assume? A. On affected side with legs bended in hip and knee joints and by the leg pressed to the stomach from the side of affection B. Semirecumbent position with lowered legs (orthopnoe) C. Lying on a sick side D. * Restless E. Sitting, bending forward. 764. What results of Zimnitsky’s test do testify about violation of concentration function of kidneys? A. prevalence of night diuresis above daily one B. Increased specific gravity of urine in separate portions. C. relative gravity is below 1010 at lest in one portion of urine D. *monotonous low specific gravity of urine is in all of portions. E. an increase of amount of albumen is in urine. 765. What sign may be found during inspection of a patient with chronic lympholeukosis? A. Systemic increase of peripheral lymphatic nodes, they are painless and not connected with skin B. Enlargement of a spleen C. Mild enlargement of a liver D. Appearance of violet-blue nodes on the skin ( leukaemides). E. * All above mentioned 766. What syndrome are the following signs typical for: edema, marked proteinuria, hypoproteinemia, dysproteinemia, hypercholesterolemia? A. Uric syndrome B. Nephritic one C. * Nephrotic syndrome D. Hypertensive syndrome E. Renal eclampsia. 767. What type of a disease is acute glomerulonephritis? A. * Immunoallergic B. Allergic C. Authoimmune D. Infectious E. Dysthrophic 768. What type of a disease is acute pyelonephritis? A. Immunoallergic B. Allergic C. Authoimmune D. * Infectious E. Dysthrophic 769. When does deformation of calicies and thin renal parenchyma of kidneys appear on excretory urogram? A. * In chronic diffuse nephritis B. In the case of polycystosis C. Norm. D. In uncomplicated urolithiasis E. In hydronephrosis. 770. When does the displacement of one kidney appear on plane X-ray? A. In diffuse nephritis B. In the case of polycystosis C. In chronic kidney insufficiency of the II stage. D. * In nephroptosis E. In hydronephrosis. 771. When does the enlargement of one kidney appear on plane X-ray? A. In diffuse nephritis B. In the case of polycystosis C. In chronic kidney insufficiency of the II stage. D. In uncomplicated urolithiasis E. * In hydronephrosis. 772. When does the enlargement of both kidneys appear on plane X-ray? A. In nephritis B. In the case of hypertrophy C. In the case of diabetic nephropathia D. * In the case of polycystosis E. In chronic kidney insufficiency 773. Where do lymphocites develop? A. * In lymphatic nodes and in all lymphoid organs. B. In red bone marrow C. In a thymus D. In a spleen E. In kidneys 774. Where do red cells develop? A. In lymphatic nodes B. In a spleen C. In thymus D. * In red bone marrow E. In a liver 775. Which cells do not belong to the reticular stroma of bone marrow? A. Fibroblasts B. Erythroblasts C. Fatty cells D. Osteoblasts E. Endothelial cells 776. Which changes in biochemical blood study are possible if the patient suffers from chronic pyelonephritis for 10 years? A. Hypoproteinemia B. Hyperpliporoteinemia C. Hyperbilirubinemia D. * hypercreatininemia E. Dysproteinemia 777. Which changes in complete blood count are the most often presented in acute pyelonephritis? A. Decreased ESR B. Leukopoenia C. Decreased hemoglobin content D. Thrombocytopenia E. * Shift on the left 778. Which changes of kidney concentration function are typical for chronic pyelonephritis? A. * hypoisosthenuria B. isosthenuria C. hypersthenuria D. hyposthenuria E. oliguria 779. Which cnahges in urianalyses are typical for chronic glomerulonephritis? A. Active leukocytes B. Protein in urine less than 1 % C. Leukocytes cover all vision field D. * Erythrocytes till 30 in one vision field E. Bacteria till 100 in one vision field 780. Which data of urianalyses are typical for acute glomerulonephritis? A. * increased protein, erythrocytes and hyaline and wax casts B. increased protein, and hyaline casts C. leukocyturia, granular casts D. Crystals of uric acid salts in urine E. No correct answer 781. Which data of urianalyses are typical for acute pyelonephritis ? A. increased protein, erythrocytes and hyaline and wax casts B. * protein in low concentration, leukocyturia, bacteriuria C. leukocyturia, granular casts D. Crystals of uric acid salts in urine E. No correct answer 782. Which degree of nephroptosis is present if it is possible to palpate the lower kidney pole, it is not displaceble? A. * I; B. II; C. III; D. IV; E. total nephroptosis. 783. Which degree of nephroptosis is present if it is possible to palpate all the kidney in iliac region, it is easly displaceble, move to the opposite side of the body? A. I; B. II; C. * III; D. IV; E. total nephroptosis. 784. Which degree of nephroptosis is present if it is possible to palpate all the kidney, it is easly displaceble, but does not move to the opposite side of the body? A. I; B. * II; C. III; D. IV; E. total nephroptosis. 785. Which examination should you prescribe for a patient if you revealed erythrocytes, protein and casts in his urine? A. Renography B. Chest X-ray C. * Ultrasound examination of kidneys D. Renal scintigraphy E. Duodenal probing 786. Which from objective symptoms are typical for anemia? A. *Paleness of skin and mucous membranes B. Petechias C. Cyanosis D. Edema E. Rash 787. Which iron absorbs the best? A. Those which is the component of plants B. Those which is the component of albumens which contain haem (veal) C. Those which is the component of dietary sorts of meat (rabbit, chicken) D. Those which is received with groats E. Any iron is absorbed inspite of valency and amount 788. Which irradiation is typical for urocolick? A. * Downward to internal surface of thighs and perineum B. Upward to the right scapula C. Toward the neck D. Toward the navel E. No irradiation 789. Which laboratory test is useful for assessment of kidney concentration function? A. Complete blood count; B. ECG; C. Nechiporenko’s test; D. * Zimnitsky’s test E. determination of daily proteinuria. 790. Which laboratory test is useful for assessment of kidney filtration function? A. Complete blood count; B. Nechyporenko’s test; C. Canalicular reabsorption D. * Clearance by endogenous creatinine (glomerular filtration) E. determination of daily proteinuria. 791. Which laboratory test is useful for assessment kidney concentration function? A. Complete blood count; B. Nechyporenko’s test; C. * Canalicular reabsorption D. Clearance by endogenous creatinine (glomerular filtration) E. determination of daily proteinuria. 792. Which level of protein in urine is typical for acute glomerulonephritis? A. 0,03 g/l B. 0,03-1 g/l C. 1-2 g/l D. 2-3 g/l E. * More than 3 g/l 793. Which level of protein in urine is typical for acute pyelonephritis? A. No protein in urine B. * 0,03-1 g/l C. 1-2 g/l D. 2-3 g/l E. More than 3 g/l 794. Which main sign of chronic renal failure is the main criterion of its severity? A. Hypertension B. * Serum creatinin C. Degree of anemia D. Proteinuria E. Heart failure 795. Which organ does product erythropoietin? A. Lymphatic nodes and all lymphoid organs. B. Red bone marrow C. Thymus D. A spleen E. * Kidneys 796. Which organs do not belong to haemopoetic system (does not participte in productio of blood formed elements)? A. Bone marrow B. *Thymus C. Spleen D. Lymph nodes E. Liver 797. Which results of ultrasound examination should be expected in chronic right-sided pyelonephritis? A. Thin kidney parenchyma because of sclerosis on both sides symmetrically B. * Thin kidney parenchyma because of sclerosis on right side C. Stones in calicies D. Ellarged calicies E. Swelling of kidney parenchyma 798. Which results of ultrasound examination should be expected in acute glomerulonephritis? A. Thin kidney parenchyma because of sclerosis on both sides symmetrically B. Thin kidney parenchyma because of sclerosis on one side C. Stones in calicies D. Enlarged calicies E. *Swelling of kidney parenchyma on both sides symmetrically 799. Which symptoms arise up in patients with acute leukosis? A. General weakness B. Pain in joints and muscles C. High body temperature D. Frequent pain during swallowing E. * All above 800. Which syndrome is marked loss of albumin with urine typical for? A. Urinary syndrome B. Nephritic syndrome C. Hematuria D. * Nephrotic syndrome E. Hypertension. 801. Which syndrome is not typical for pyelonephritis A. Uric B. * Nephrotic C. Pain D. Intoxication E. Dysuric 802. Which changes in complete blood count are the most often presented in acute pyelonephritis? A. Decreased ESR B. *Leukocytosis C. Decreased hemoglobin content D. Thrombocytopenia E. Shift on the right F. 803. Acute febrile form of the rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by: A. * an evanescent salmon-pink macular rashes,; B. chronic pain and swelling of many joints in a symmetric fashion. C. chronic asymmetric arthritis of large joints, D. purpuric skin rashes, E. hemarthroses. 804. Acute febrile form of the rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by: A. * hepatosplenomegaly; B. Involvement of large and small joints C. mild or painless synoviitis. D. colicky abdominal pain, E. massive bleeding after traumas. 805. Acute febrile form of the rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by: A. * polyserositis, B. rheumatoid nodules, C. Uncommon systemic features. D. nephritis; E. massive bleeding after teeth extraction 806. Acute febrile form of the rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by: A. * leukocytosis; B. chronic pain and swelling of many joints; C. asymptomatic iridocyclitis; D. purpuric skin rashes, E. massive bleeding after operations 807. In complete blood count of a patient with B12 deficiency anemia all the signs are determined except of: A. decreasing hemoglobin and erythrocytes amount B. macrocytosis C. increasing of CI more than 1,1 D. * decreasing of CI less then 0.8 E. Zholly’s bodies, Kebot’s rings in erythrocytes 808. For what disease color index is more than 1,05? A. Iron-deficiency anemia B. Posthemorrhagic anemia C. *B12 deficiency anemia D. Hemolytic anemia E. Acute leukosis 809. For what disease color index is more than 1,05? A. Iron-deficiency anemia B. Posthemorrhagic anemia C. * Folic acid deficiency anemia D. Hemolytic anemia E. Acute leukosis 810. How is it needed to take away blood for determination of thrombocytes? A. Inflict the drop of iodine into the place of puncture B. Inflict the drop of alcohol into the place of puncture C. Inflict a drop of manganese potassium into the place of puncture D. * Inflict the drop of 14 % magnesium sulfate solution into the place of puncture E. Inflict the drop of 25 % magnesium sulfate solution into the place of puncture 811. How many classes of haemopoetic cells there are? A. *6 B. 4 C. 7 D. 5 E. 3 812. How many levels of thrombotest are determined? A. * 7 B. 6 C. 4 D. 8 E. 5 813. How the I-st phase of blood coagulation activity is determined? A. * By determination of time of plasma recalcification and test of prothrombin consumption. B. By determination of prothrombin index C. By determination of fibrinogen concentration D. By a thrombotest level E. By determination of plasma tolerance to the heparin 814. Patient was prescribed determination of blood haematocrite. Specify, what level of haematocrite is normal for a male? A. 29-36 B. 36-42 C. *40-48 D. 48-54 E. more than 54 815. Polyarticular form of the rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by: A. * symmetric involvement of large and small joints. B. macular rashes, C. systemic features; D. nephritis; E. massive bleeding after traumas. 816. Polyarticular form of the rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by: A. * rheumatoid nodules, B. hepatosplenomegaly, C. asymmetric arthritis of large joints, D. migratory polyarthritis; E. massive bleeding after teeth extraction. 817. Signs of deficit of iron: A. Psilosis B. Fragility of nails C. Distortion of taste D. Koilonychia E. *All above mentioned 818. Specify which indexes of leukocytes in blood are normal? A. 2,0-5,0 · 109/l B. *4,0-9,0 · 109/l C. 9,0-11,0 · 109/l D. 11,0-13,0 · 109/l E. 13,0-14,0 · 109/l 819. Tongue in patient with long-term Adison-Birmer anemia looks like: A. *Smooth; B. Raspberry; C. Coated with white fur; D. Edemtic; E. Clean. 820. What is anisocytosis: A. erythrocytes of different size B. appearance of red corpuscles of different form C. appearance of leukocytes of different form D. appearance of leukocytes of different size E. appearance of thrombocytes of different size 821. What is coagulation time by Lee-White? A. *5-10 min B. 3-5 min C. 6-12 min D. 1-3 min E. 12-13 min 822. What is displacement of leukocyte formula to the left? A. Appearance in blood of increased amount of lymphocytes B. Appearance in blood of increased amount of leukocytes C. Appearance in blood of increased amount of monocytes D. Appearance in blood of increased amount of erythrocytes E. *Appearance in blood of increased amount of stab neutrophil and juvenile neutrophils 823. What is displacement of leukocyte formula to the right? A. Appearance in blood of increased amount of lymphocytes B. Appearance in blood of increased amount of leukocytes C. Appearance in blood of increased amount of monocytes D. Appearance in blood of increased amount of erythrocytes E. * Decreased amount of immatured neutrophils in perypheric blood 824. What is not typical for a patient with iron-deficiency anemia? A. Dryness and shelling of skin B. Hair fragility C. Concavity of nail plates D. Subicteritiousness of skin and mucous membrane E. Parodontosis, darkening of teeth 825. What is poikilocytosis: A. * appearance of red corpuscles of different size B. appearance of red corpuscles of different form C. appearance of leukocytes of different form D. appearance of leukocytes of different size E. appearance of thrombocytes of different form 826. What is polyuria: A. frequent urination B. *the increase of amount of urine more than 2 l/day C. the increase of amount of urine more than 1 l/day D. increase of specific gravity of urine E. lowering of specific gravity of urine. 827. What type of fever may be found out in a patient with acute leukosis? A. Intermittant or remittant fever B. *Hectic fever C. Irregular fever D. Permanent fever E. Undulating fever 828. Which sign does confirm the diagnosis of thrombocytopenic purpura? A. *Diminishing in peripheral blood amount of thrombocytes B. Negative symptom of pinching and tapping C. Prolonged bleeding time by Lee-White D. Incresedd concentraion of fibrinogen in blood serum E. All mentioned 829. Where do lymphocites become matured? A. In lymphatic nodes. B. In red marrow C. *In thymus D. In a spleen E. In buds 830. Which indexes characterizes the II phase of blood coagulation? A. time of plasma recalcification B. *prothrombin index C. fibrinogen concentration D. thrombotest level E. Beeding tine by Lee-White 831. Which indexes characterizes the II phase of blood coagulation? A. determination of time of plasma recalcification B. * determination of prothrombin index C. determination of fibrinogen concentration D. a thrombotest level E. determination of plasma tolerance to the heparin 832. Which levels of thrombotest correspond to hypocoagulation? A. III-IV B. *-III C. IV-V D. VI-VII E. II-I 833. Patient was prescribed determination of blood haematocrite. Specify, what level of haematocrite is normal for a female? A. 29-36 B. *-36-42 C. 40-48 D. 48-54 E. more than 54 834. Which indexes characterizes the II phase of blood coagulation? A. time of plasma recalcification B. Beeding tine by Lee-White C. fibrinogen concentration D. thrombotest level E. *plasma tolerance to the heparin 835. Data of percussion of patient’s heart are as follows: the absolute heart dullness is absent. What may be a reason of these changes? A. Retrocardial tumour B. Left-sided pleural effusion C. Right-sided pleural effusion D. * Acute pulmonary emphysema E. Normal data 836. A student is examining patient’s pulse. The normal frequency of pulse is equall to (per minute): A. 50-80 B. 60-70 C. 60-100 D. 50-90 E. * 60-90 837. A student is examining patient’s pulse. What parameter should he start from to assess pulse properties? A. Rrhythm B. Filling C. Frequency D. Tension E. * Similarity on both radial arteries 838. A student should assess patient’s facial expression. Which pathological condition is “Corvizar’s face” is typical fo? A. Kidney diseases B. Infectious diseases C. * Hheart failure D. Anaemia E. Peritonitis 839. A student should perform inspection of a patient. He found edema on patient's legs. Such a type of edema is typical for: A. * ongenital heart disease B. Rachitis C. Respiratory pathology D. Syphilis E. Brucellosis 840. Alternated pulse is typical for: A. Incompetence of aortal valve B. Stenosis of aortal valve C. Heart block D. Atrial flutter E. * Heavy myocardial affections 841. By inspection of a patient with heavy cardiac insufficiency it is possible to discover: A. Pale and puffy face B. * Cachexy or anasarca C. Edema on the legs without elevation of skin under the pressure D. Fingers as “drumsticks” E. Jaundice 842. By palpation patient’s pulse is dull. In what disease is dull pulse observed? A. Myocarditis B. Pericarditis C. Mitral defects D. * Hypertension E. Heart insufficiency 843. By palpation patient’s pulse is low and slow. “Pulsus parvus and tardus” is observed in: A. Mirtal incompletence B. Mitral stenosis C. Aortal incompletence D. * Atenosis of ostium of aorta E. Hypertension 844. By palpation patient’s pulse is quick and high. “Pulsus celler et altus” is observed in: A. mirtal incompletence B. mitral stenosis C. * aortal incompletence D. stenosis of aortal valve E. hypertension 845. Acrocyanosis in heart insufficiency occurs due to such patological mechanisms as follows: A. Reduction of quantity of restored hemoglobin B. Slowing of blood flow C. * Diminution of oxygen utilisation by tissues D. Reduction of hemoglobin oxygenation in lungs E. Decreasing of arterial blood pressure 846. Diastolic blood pressure level depends on: A. Blood viscosity B. * General perypheric resistance of vessels C. Volume of circulating blood D. Cardiac output E. Heart rate 847. Diastolic thrill at heart apex is the equivalent of: A. Respiratory movements B. Contraction of the left ventricle C. Contraction of the right ventricle D. Systolic murmur in aortal stenosis E. * Diastolic murmur of mitral stenosis 848. Dicrotic pulse is obcerved in: A. Incompetence of aortal valve B. Heart block C. Atrial flutter (electrical disfunction of atriums) D. Constrictive periocarditis E. * Decreased arterial tonus 849. Displacement of borders of relative heart dullness leftwards is typical for: A. hypetrophy of the right atrium B. hypetrophy of the left atrium C. hypetrophy of both atriums D. hypetrophy of left or right ventricle E. * hypetrophy of the left ventricle 850. Displacement of the left border of relative cardiac dullness is possible in: A. “Pulmonary” heart B. Dilatation of right cardiac borders C. In sickness of intraventricular septum D. * In dilatation and hypertrophy of the left ventricle E. In exaggerated dilatation of the left atrium 851. During examination of patient’s pulse a student revealed bradycardia. Rare pulse is observed in the case of: A. Increased body temperature B. Heart insufficiency C. * Complete atrioventricular block D. Myocarditis E. Thyrotoxicosis 852. During examination of patient’s pulse a student has revealed tachycardia. Tachycarida is observed in the case of: A. Narrowing of aortic aperture B. Hunger C. Brain tumour D. * Fever E. Jaundice 853. Dyspnea in heart insufficiency occurs due to the following cause: A. Decrease of blood pressure B. Slowing of blood flow C. * Irritation of the respiratory centre by carbonic acid D. Reduction of oxygen utilisation by tissues E. Increase of restored hemoglobin concentration 854. Epigastric pulsation which intensifies at inspiration is caused by: A. True liver pulsation B. Conducted liver pulsation C. Pulsation of abdominal part of aorta D. Pulsation of the left liver E. * Contractions of the right ventricle 855. Function of arterioli are as follows: A. Change with metabolites between blood and tissues B. * Maintainance of proper pressure in arterial bed C. Act as a shunts D. Accumulate blood in heart failure E. Gas exchange between blood and alveolar air 856. How apex beat will be changed in pericardial adhesions? A. Absent B. High C. * Negative D. Diffuse E. Resistant 857. Select a proper patient’s behaivior during attack of angina pectoris: A. The patient is “restless” B. The patient is restless, with locomotory and speech excitation C. The patient is sitting upright (orthopnea) D. The patient is staying upright E. * The patient is “stiffing in one position” – staying in the same position from the beginning of the attack till its finish 858. How the square of absolute cardiac dullness will change in large mediastinal tumour? A. The square of absolute cardiac dullness will not change B. * The square of absolute cardiac dullness will increases C. The square of absolute cardiac dullness will decreases D. The square of absolute cardiac dullness first decreases and then turns to be normal E. The square of absolute cardiac dullness first increases anf than markedly increases 859. If apex beat is determined in V intercostal space on 1,5 сm medially from the left midclavicular line, it is necessary to suspect… A. Left ventricular hyperthrophy B. * Normal location of apex beat C. Right-side pneumothorax D. Pleurisy with effusion on the right side E. Pulmonary emphysema 860. If apex beat is located in VI interspace – it may be due to: A. Mitral stenosis B. Tricuspid valvular stenosis C. Low position of diaphragm D. Pleuropericardial adhesions E. * Stenosis of aortal orifice 861. If the left border of relative cardiac dullness is located in the VІ interspace on the left midclavicular line – it may be due to: A. * Left ventricular dilatation B. Left side pneumothorax C. Low position of diaphragm D. Normal position of the border E. Sclerosis of the right lung 862. If the right border of relative cardiac dullness is located at the right sternal border – it means … A. compensatory emphysema of the right lung B. hyperthrophy of the right ventricle C. right ventricular dilatation D. left atrial dilatation E. * normal location of the border 863. If the upper border of relative cardiac dullness is located at the ІIІ interspace on the left parasternal line – it may be due to: A. Atelectasis of the right lung B. Hyperthrophyt of the left atrium C. Dilatation of the left ventricle D. Dilatation of aorta E. * Normal position 864. If the upper border of relative cardiac dullness is located at the ІІ interspace on the left parasternal line – it may be due to: A. Atelectasis of the right lung B. * Hyperthrophyt of the left atrium C. Dilatation of the left ventricle D. Dilatation of aorta E. Narrow pulmonary artery 865. If the width of cardiac vascular bundle is equal to 8 cm – it may be due to: A. * Dilatation of the left atrium B. Enlargement of the right atrium C. Normal size D. Mediastinal tumour E. Pleurisy with effusion 866. In the patient M. dull pulse was determined. What changes of blood pressure it is possible to reveal? A. Low systolic and diastolic B. * High systolic and diastolic C. High systolic and low diastolic D. Low systolic and high diastolic E. No changes 867. In which case displacement of the right border of relative cardiac dullness is possible? A. In dilatation of vascular bundle B. * In dilatation of the right atrium and right ventricle C. In dilatation of left atrium D. In dilatation of the left ventricle E. In hypertrophy of the left ventricle 868. Limits for diastolic blood pressure are: A. 50-80 mm of Hg B. 50-90 mm of Hg C. * 60-90 mm of Hg D. 60-95 mm of Hg E. 70-95 mm of Hg 869. Limits for normal systolic blood pressure are: A. 90-120 mm of Hg B. * 100-140 mm of Hg C. 100-160 mm of Hg D. 105-160 mm of Hg E. 110-160 mm of Hg 870. Negative apex beat is the sign of: A. Pericardiitis with effusion B. Hyperthrophy of the left ventricle C. Left ventricular dilatation D. * Adhesions between both pericardial layers and a chest wall E. Hyperthrophy of the right ventricle 871. Non-synchronous (different) pulse is typical for A. Incompetence of aortal valve B. Stenosis of aortal valve C. Incompetence of mitral valve D. Stenosis of mitral valve E. * Mitral valvular stenosis 872. Pathological decrease of the square of absolute heart dullness is typical for: A. Sclerosis of anterior parts of the lungs B. Exudative pericarditis C. * Lung emphysema D. Big tumour of posterior mediastinum E. Aortic valvular defects 873. Pathological enlargement of the square of absolute heart dullness is typical for: A. * Large tumour of posterior mediastinum B. Lung emphysema C. Left-sided pneumothorax D. Pneumopericarditis E. Attack of bronchial asthma 874. Positive venous pulse is observed in A. Incompetence of aortal valve B. Stenosis of aortal valve C. Incompetence of mitral valve D. Stenosis of mitral valve E. * Tricuspid valve incompetence 875. Pulse deficiency is typical for: A. incompetence of aortal valve B. Stenosis of aortal valve C. * Atrial fibrillation (electrical disfunction of atriums) D. Sharp decreasing of vascular tonus E. Severe myocardial lesion 876. Pulse filling characterises the following: A. Level of maximal arterial blood pressure B. Cardiac output C. * Amplitude of dilatation of arteries in systole D. Speed of myocardial contractions E. Width of vascular bundle 877. Pulse tension characterises the following: A. * Level of maximal arterial blood pressure B. Volume of circulating blood C. Cardiac output D. Speed of myocardial contractions E. Degree of dilatation of arteries 878. Quick pulse is typical for: A. Incompetence of aortal valve B. Stenosis of aortal valve C. All cases of bradicardia D. * All cases of tachycardia E. Stenosis of mitral valve 879. Reduced apical beat occurs in the following case: A. * Mitral stenosis B. Aortic stenosis C. Hypetrophy and dilatation of the left ventricle D. Aortic incompletence E. Hypertension 880. Systolic blood pressure level depends on: A. Blood viscosity B. General perypheric resistance of vessels C. Volume of circulating blood D. * Cardiac output E. Heart rate 881. The difference of blood pressure in norm should not exceed: A. * 5 mm of Hg B. 10 mm of Hg C. 22 mm of Hg D. 30 mm of Hg E. 40 mm of Hg 882. The necessary condirtion for rising of diastolic blood pressure is the following: A. * Elevation of general perypheric resistance of vessels B. Elevation of blood viscosity C. Increased volume of circulating blood D. Increased minute volume of blood E. Increased cardiac output 883. The sequence of determination of cardiac dullness borders by percussion is the following: A. Right, left and upper borders of relative dullness + heart transverse diameter B. Right, left and upper borders of relative dullness + right, left and upper borders of absolute dullness C. * Right, left and upper borders of relative dullness + heart transverse diameter + right, left and upper borders of absolute dullness D. Right, left and upper borders of relative dullness + right, left and upper borders of absolute dullness E. Right, left and upper borders of absolute dullness + right, left and upper borders of relative dullness 884. The square of normal apex beat is equal to A. * 1-2 cm square B. 3-4 cm square C. 5-6 cm square D. 0,2-0,5 cm square E. 0,5 -1 cm square 885. True liver pulsation is the sign of: A. Congestion in the larger circulation B. Cardial liver cirrhosis C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Aortal valve incompetence E. * Tricuspid valve incompetence 886. What are “vessels of resistance”? A. Arterial part of vascular bed B. Artery of medial caliber C. * arterioli D. capillary E. Corinary arteries 887. What characteristics of pain in the case of the attack of angina pectoris do you know? A. Burning, lasts by hours, days B. Dull, diffuse ache, irradiates to the left hand C. Pressing, burning, irradiates to the left hand, does not disappears after taking of validol or nitroglycerin D. * Retrosternal, burning paine, irradiates to the left hand, disappears after taking of validol or nitroglycerin E. Aching pain in one point of precordium, does not irradiate 888. What colour do pronounced cardiac edema have? A. Red B. Green C. White D. * Dark-blue E. Brown 889. What contents of restored hemoglobin is present in blood of patients with perypheric cyanosis? (parameters in gram/liter): A. 10-20 B. 10-20 C. 50-60 D. * 70-80 E. 90-100 890. What hemodynamic parameter is pulse filling equval to? A. Minute volume of blood B. The common resistance of periferic vessels C. Combination of minute blood volume and common resistance of periferic vessels D. * Cardiac output E. Viscosity of blood 891. What hemodynamic parameter pulse tension is equal to? A. Minute volume of blood B. * The common resistance of perypheric vessels C. Combination of minute blood volume and common resistance of periferic vessels D. Viscosity of blood E. Cardiac output 892. What is the cause of aortal heart configuration? A. Dilatation of the right ventricle B. Dilatation of the right atrium C. * Dilatation of the left ventricle D. Dilatation of the left atrium E. sickness of intraventricular septum 893. What is duration of pain in the case of attack of angina pectoris? A. For 1-2 minutes B. * For 5-10 minutes C. For 10-30 minutes D. From several seconds till 20-30 minutes E. For hours, days 894. What is the cause of mitral heart configuration? A. Dilatation of the right ventricle B. Dilatation of the right atrium C. Dilatation of the left ventricle D. * Dilatation of the left atrium E. sickness of intraventricular septum 895. What is necessary to find out before determination of the right border of relative dullness? A. Blood pressure and pulse of a patient B. Degree of severity of the disease C. * The heght of the diaphragm on the right side D. Resiliance of the chest E. The square and location of cardiac beat 896. What is normal location of the left border of absolute cardiac dullness? A. At the left midclavicular line B. * 2сm medially from the relative one C. 1,5-2 сm outside of left midclavicular line D. 3-4 сm outside of right border of absolute cardiac dullness E. 0,5-1 сm outside of the right border of absolute cardiac dullness 897. What is normal location of the left border of relative cardiac dullness? A. 0,5 сm outside from the right sternal border B. * 1-1,5 сm medially from the left midclavicular line C. At the left sternal border D. At medial line E. 1-1,5 см medially from medial line 898. What is normal location of the right border of absolute cardiac dullness? A. At the right sternal edge B. At medial line C. * At the left sternal edge D. 0,5 сm outside from the left sternal edge E. 1 сm outside from the left sternal edge 899. What is normal location of the right border of relative cardiac dullness? A. * 1-1,5 сm laterally from the right sternal border B. 1-1,5 сm inside from the left midclavicular line C. At the left sternal border D. At medial line E. 1-1,5 см medially from midline 900. What is normal location of the upper border of absolute cardiac dullness? A. 3rd interspace B. * Level of 4th rib C. 4th interspace on the left side D. Upper side of the 5 rib E. The lower edge of 5 rib 901. What is normal location of the upper border of relative cardiac dullness? A. The upper edge of 4th rib B. The upper edge of 3rd rib C. * The lower edge of 3rd rib D. In 3rd interspace E. The upper edge of 2nd rib 902. What is the width of heart vascular bundle equal to in norm: A. 1-2 cm B. 4-5 cm C. * 5-6 cm D. 11-13 cm E. 13-16 cm 903. What should be the strength of percutory stroke in determination of absolute cardiac dullness borders? A. Strong B. Moderate C. * Weak D. Loud E. Weak and moderate 904. What should be the strength of percutory stroke in determination of relative cardiac dullness borders? A. Strong B. * Moderate C. Weak D. Loud E. Weak and moderate 905. What the heart transverse diameter is equal to in norm: A. 8-9 cm B. 4-6 cm C. 12-15 cm D. * 11-13 cm E. 13-16 cm. 906. When will absolute cardiac dullness decrease? A. In hypertension B. * In pulmonary emphysema C. In rheumatіc fever D. In peptic ulcer E. . In chronic hepatitis 907. When will absolute cardiac dullness decrease? A. In rheumatіc fever B. * In low position of diaphragm C. In chronic nephritis D. In nettle rash E. In rheumatoid arthritis 908. Which complaints of patients with heart diseases are caused by increased blood pressure in pulmonary circulation? A. Dizziness, headache B. Pain in the heart area, palpitation C. Palpitation, edema on legs D. * Dyspnea, cough, asthma, blood spitting E. Nausea, vomiting 909. Which method is better for percussion of a heart? A. Immediate percussion B. * Mediate percussion finger by finger C. Mediate percussion through clothes D. Mediate percussion with iron pleximeter E. Combined percussion 910. Which square of cardiac dullness and in which way will change in inspiration? A. Will not change B. * Slightly increase absolute cardiac dullness C. Slightly decrease absolute cardiac dullness D. Slightly increase relative cardiac dullness E. Slightly decrease relative cardiac dullness 911. Which disease is Musse’s sign typical for? A. Hypertension B. Ischemic heart disease C. * Aortal valve incompetence D. Rheumatic heart disease E. Chronic pyelonephritis 912. Which disease is pulsation of carotic arteries typical for? A. Heart failure B. Septic endocarditis C. * Aortal valvular disease D. Tricuspid incompetence E. Hypertension 913. Which disease is pulsation of jugular veins typical for? A. Heart failure B. Septic endocarditis C. Mitral incompetence D. * Tricuspid incompetence E. Hypertension 914. Displacement of borders of relative heart dullness leftwards is typical for: A. Ascites B. Splanchnoptosis C. Left sided hydrothorax D. All mentioned E. * No correct answer 915. Displacement of borders of relative heart dullness leftwards is typical for: A. Left ventricular failure B. Splanchnoptosis C. Left sided hydrothorax D. All mentioned E. * No correct answer 916. Cyanosis is typical for: A. Fever B. *Heart failure C. Hepatitis D. Nephritis E. Bacterial endocarditis 917. Cyanosis is typical for: A. Fever B. *respiratory failure C. Hepatitis D. Nephritis E. Bacterial endocarditis 918. Hypersthenic type of constitution is characterized by: A. Logitudinal body dymensions prevail in comparation with normosthenics (patients are slim and tall) B. Transwersal body dymensions prevail in comparation with normosthenics (patient’s parts of body are broad and short) C. Slightly decreased blood pressure D. Epigastric angle is 90 degrees E. Hypofunction of adrenal and sex glands 919. Asthenic type of constitution is characterized by: A. Logitudinal body dymensions prevail in comparation with normosthenics (patients are slim and tall) B. Transwersal body dymensions prevail in comparation with normosthenics (patient’s parts of body are broad and short) C. Bilirubin concentration is increased in blood D. Blood pressure is increased E. Hyperfunction of adrenal glands 920. Hypersthenic type of constitution is characterized by: A. Logitudinal body dymensions prevail in comparation with normosthenics (patients are slim and tall) B. Epigastric angle ismorge than 90 degrees C. Slightly decreased blood pressure D. Epigastric angle is 90 degrees E. Hypofunction of adrenal and sex glands 921. Hypersthenic type of constitution is characterized by: A. Logitudinal body dymensions prevail in comparation with normosthenics (patients are slim and tall) B. Epigastric angle is less than 90 degrees C. *Slightly increased blood pressure D. Epigastric angle is 90 degrees E. Hypofunction of adrenal and sex glands 922. Hypersthenic type of constitution is characterized by: A. Logitudinal body dymensions prevail in comparation with normosthenics (patients are slim and tall) B. Epigastric angle is less than 90 degrees C. Slightly decreased blood pressure D. Epigastric angle is 90 degrees E. *Hyperfunction of adrenal and sex glands 923. Hypersthenic type of constitution is characterized by: A. Logitudinal body dymensions prevail in comparation with normosthenics (patients are slim and tall) B. Epigastric angle is less than 90 degrees C. Slightly decreased blood pressure D. Epigastric angle is 90 degrees E. *Cholesterol concentration is increased in blood 924. Asthenic type of constitution is characterized by: A. Epigastric angle is less than 90 degrees B. Transwersal body dymensions prevail in comparation with normosthenics (patient’s parts of body are broad and short) C. Cholesterol concentration is increased in blood D. Blood pressure is increased E. Hyperfunction of adrenal glands 925. Asthenic type of constitution is characterized by: A. Epigastric angle is more than 90 degrees B. Transwersal body dymensions prevail in comparation with normosthenics (patient’s parts of body are broad and short) C. Cholesterol concentration is decreased in blood D. Blood pressure is increased E. Hyperfunction of adrenal glands 926. Asthenic type of constitution is characterized by: A. Epigastric angle is more than 90 degrees B. Transwersal body dymensions prevail in comparation with normosthenics (patient’s parts of body are broad and short) C. Cholesterol concentration is increased in blood D. Blood pressure is decreased E. Hyperfunction of adrenal glands 927. Asthenic type of constitution is characterized by: A. Epigastric angle is more than 90 degrees B. Transwersal body dymensions prevail in comparation with normosthenics (patient’s parts of body are broad and short) C. Cholesterol concentration is increased in blood D. Blood pressure is increased E. *Hypofunction of adrenal glands 928. Morning cough is typical for: A. *Chronic bronchitis B. Laryngitis C. Pneumonia D. Dry pleurisy E. Lung cancer 929. Morning cough is typical for: A. *Smokers B. Laryngitis C. Pneumonia D. Dry pleurisy E. Lung cancer 930. What is it possible to reveal during inspection of a neck? A. *Pulsations of carotic arteries B. Edema C. Deformation D. No any changes E. Hyperemia 931. What is it possible to reveal during inspection of a neck? A. *Pulsations of jugular veins B. Edema C. Deformation D. No any changes E. Hyperemia 932. What is it possible to reveal during inspection of a neck? A. Swelling of jugular veins B. Edema C. Deformation D. any changes E. Hyperemia 933. What is it possible to reveal during inspection of a neck? A. *Thyroid gland enlargement B. Edema C. Deformation D. No any changes E. Hyperemia 934. What should be paid attention on during inspection of a neck? A. Pulsations of carotic arteries B. Pulsations of jugular veins C. Swelling of jugular veins D. Thyroid gland enlargement E. *All mentioned 935. Which of enumerated conditions is cyanosis typical for? A. Anaemia B. Renal failure C. Respiratory failure D. Hypertermia E. Hypertension 936. Skin itching is typical for: A. Allergic reaction B. Jaundice C. Scab D. Renal failure E. All mentioned 937. You have to collect patient’s anamnesis. What should you ask a patient about if you obtain history of his present illness? A. Detalization of main complaints; B. Patient’s habits; C. *Treatment in the past till the moment of present examination; D. Allergies; E. Diseases in the past. 938. You have to collect patient’s anamnesis. What should you ask a patient about if you obtain history of his present illness? A. Detalization of main complaints; B. Patient’s habits; C. *Results of previous examinations; D. Allergies; E. Diseases in the past.</p><p>Situations real-life 1. Patient А.,70 years old, is on long-standing treatment in cardiological department because of ischemic heart disease. Data of inspection: the face is puffy, pale and yellow with bluish tint, mouth is opened, eyeleads are sticky. Patient’s face expresses tideness. This facial expression is called: A. Facies Basedovica B. Facies Hippocraticа C. *Corvisar's face D. Facies febrilis E. No any answer is correct 2. A patient appeals to the doctor with complaints on marked pains in the gastrocnemicus muscles which disappear in rest. During walking after some time they arise up againThat is why the patient is forced periodically to stop and rest. How is such violation of step named? A. * Claudicatio intermittens B. Doll walking C. Duck walking D. Atactic walking E. Hemyplegic walking 3. A patient complained of dyspnea at insignificant physical loading, edema of feet and palpitation. During inspection a doctor has revealed in him marked local cyanopsis of skin in the area of the nose, lips, earlobes and and finger-tips. How is local cyanosis' of skin named in these areas? A. Emphysema B. * Acrocyanosis C. Asphyxia D. Hyperemia E. Rubeosis 4. A patient was admitted to a clinic for inspection and treatment in a therapeutic department. He complains of somnolence, sensitiveness to cold, edema of all body, increase of body mass. A doctor suspected pathology of thyroid gland. What information will be value in patient’s passport information? A. Patient’s age B. Patient’s profession C. * Living in endemic region (poor with iodinum) D. Admission date E. Referal institution 5. A patient was hospitalized by ambulance in a very severe condition. The patient did not react on external irritations, was lying passively, eyes were closed, respiration was arrythmic. Verbal contact was impossible. Smell of rotten apples was felt from the mouth. Which questions should the doctor put to patient’s relatives in first line? A. *Did the patient suffer from diabetes mellitus? B. Did the patient suffer from kidney disease? C. Did the patient suffer from hypertension? D. Did the patient suffer from disease of a heart? E. Did they observe the same conditions in the past? 6. A patient was hospitalized by ambulance in a very severe condition. The patient did not react on external irritations, was lying passively, eyes were closed, respiration was arrythmic. Verbal contact was impossible. Smell of rotten apples was felt from the mouth. Which condition was present? A. Alcohol coma B. * Diabetic coma C. Cerebral coma D. Hypoglycaemic coma E. Bronchial asthma attack 7. A patient was transported to the admissious department of a hospital by an ambulance with acute appendicitis. His condition is severe. At inspection of the patient a doctor paid attention to specific features of his face: pointed face features especially its nose, strained and dry skin on a forehead, hollow squeals and eyes, his look was uncalm but fixed at one point, the skin was pale, especially nose and lips. How is such facial expression named? A. *Risus sardonicus B. Corvisar’s face C. Face in thyrotoxicosis D. Face in myxoedema E. * Hippocrate’s face 8. A patient was transported to the admissious department of a hospital by an ambulance. His condition is severe. At inspection of the patient a doctor paid attention to specific features of his face: face muscles are stretched, eyes are opened, there are convulsive contractions of jaw muscles, deep wrinkles on forehead (as in suddness), the mouth is stretched as in smile. How is such facial expression named? A. * face in cholera B. Corvisar’s face C. face in thyrotoxicosis D. face in myxoedema E. Hippocrate’s face 9. A patient with ostheoarthrosis appealed to the doctor with complaints on the expressed pains in small joints of wrists, elbow and knee joints. During inspection a doctor revealed the presence of nodes in the area of distal interphalangeal joints. How named such nodes in pathient with ostheoarthrosis? A. *Heberden’s nodes B. All mentioned C. Fibromatous nodes D. Rheumatic nodes E. Fibrous nodes 10. A student should assess patient’s facial expression. The patient’s face is amimic, edematous, external parts of eyebroves are lost. Which pathological condition is this facial expression typical for? A. Toxic goitre B. *Hypothyreosis C. Lepra D. Cushing’s syndrome E. Peritonitis 11. Data od inspection of patient S. 48 y.o.: the face is mask-like, amimic, skin is wax-like, strained, brilliant, may be hardly taken into a fold, eyes are half-opened, lips are refined, a mouth slit is narrowed, surrounded with wrinkles as a tobacco pouch. Such kind of face is characteristic for: A. Thyrotroxicosis B. Hypothyreosis C. Acromegaly D. * Systemic scleroderma E. Tetanus 12. Patient A.was transported into the clinic from the street by a passer-by. Patient’s consciousness is absent, smell of alcohol is felt from his mouth. What kind of consciousness disorder is present? A. Apoplexic coma B. Hypoglycaemic coma C. *Alcohol coma D. hepatic coma E. Uremic coma 13. Patient M. was admitted to a hospital with poisoning. The patient is unconscious. How is the complete unconscious condition called? A. Delirium B. *Coma C. Stupor D. Sopor E. Hallucinations 14. Patient S. was admitted to a hospital with meningitis. At the moment of examination he looks sleepy. He does not answer for questions. How is this disorder of consciousness called? A. Delirium B. Coma C. Stupor D. *Sopor E. Hallucinations 15. Patient A., 25 years old, was admitted to a hospital with cranial-cerebral trauma. The patient is desoriented in environment, time and his own person. He is inhibited, but verbal contact with him is possible. It is necessary to repeate twice for complete understanding of it by the patient. Reaction on pain is active. What type of consciousness disorder is present? A. Consciousness is clear B. Sopor C. *Stupor D. Coma E. Delirium 16. Patient A.,70 years old, is on stationary treatment in cardiologic department because of ischemic heart disease. Data of inspection: face is edematous with cyanotic tint, the mouth is half-open, lips are cyanotic, eyeleads stick together. Such face is called: A. Facies mitralis B. Facies hyppocratica C. * Corvisar’s face D. Facies febrilis E. No any answer is correct 17. Patient B. is seeking for medical advice because of increase of body temperatute up to 39 °C, pain in the left part of the chest. The disease has begun sharply. The data of inspection: skin is red, eyes are lustrous. How is skin reddness called? A. * Hyperaemia B. Pallness C. Jaundice D. Cyanosis E. Rash 18. Patient B. is seeking for medical advice because of increase body temperatute up to 39 °C, pain in the left part of the chest. The disease has begun sharply. The data of inspection: skin hyperemia, eyes are lustrous. What pathological condition do such signs testify about? A. Internal hemorrhage B. *Inflammation C. Angina pectoris D. Pneumothorax E. Bronchial obstruction 19. Patient C. 26 y.o., complains of morning edema located on his face (eyeleads). Which sytem may be affected in this case? A. Cardiovascular B. Nervous C. *Urinary D. All mentioned E. No any answer is correct 20. Patient C. 40 y.o. is on long-standing treatment in endocrinologic department of a hospital. During inspection it was revealed puffy amimic face, eye slits were narrowed, hairs absent on external parts of eyebrows, nose and lips were enlarged, skin was pale. Such kind of face is characteristic for: A. Thyrotroxicosis B. Quinckes’s edema C. * Hypothyreosis D. Acromegaly E. Systemic scleroderma 21. Patient C., 55 y.o. is in coma. From information done by relatives it was established that he sufers of hypertension for years. Before development of coma the patient complainted of nausea, vomiting, elevation of BP up to 180/130 mm of Hg. Which ethiological type of coma is in this case? A. * Apoplectic B. Alcoholic C. Hypoglycaemic D. Hepatargia E. Hyperglycaemic 22. Patient D. is seeking for medical advice because of severe dyspnea. Data of inspection: skin is of blue colour. How is this colour of skin called? A. Hyperemia B. Pallness C. Jaundice D. *Cyanosis E. Rash 23. Patient D., 70 years old, is in therapeutic department on long-standing treatment because of ischemic heart disease. He tends to sit with the lowered legs because when he lies down dyspnea becomes more severe. How can you characterise patient's position? A. Passive B. Active C. Forced passive D. *Otrhopnoe E. Horizontal 24. Patient D., aged 21, was hospitalized to the infectious department of a hospital with fever and thore throat. What should you ask him when you obtain inforlation about AIDS-risk factors? A. Eating of spoiled food B. *Invasive manipulatios (operations, hemotransfusions, injectios etc) C. Chemotherapy D. Contact with a person ill with thore throat E. Handshake of a person ill with AIDS 25. Patient D., aged 47, was hospitalized to the therapeutic department of a hospital with stomach ulcer. What system should you start from when you obtain patient’s past medical history? A. *Affected B. Cardiovascular C. Respiratory D. Whatever E. Non-affected 26. Patient E. has liver cirrhosis. By physical examination it was revealed accumulation of liquid in his abdominal cavity. Accumulation of liquid in abdominal cavity is called: A. Angina pectoris B. Heart attack C. *Ascites D. Myocarditis E. Anasarca 27. Patient E. has renal failure. By physical examination it was revealed swelling of subcutaneous tissue of whole the body. Accumulation of liquid in subcutaneous fat tissue on whole the body is called: A. Ascites B. *Anasarca C. Hives D. Pleurisy E. Pericarditis 28. Patient E. suffers with heart failure. He is on the bed mode on the long-standing treatment in a hospital. If the patient is on the bed mode edema will be located: A. *On the lumbar region B. On feet C. Under the eyes D. On hands E. Edema are abcent 29. Patient H., a young girl aged 17, is seeking care for pain in low parts of abdomen which is conducted to perineal region. How is this quality of pain called? A. Character B. Intensity C. Timing D. Location E. *Irradiation 30. Patient I., 23 years old, is tall, his face is narrow, the neck is thin and long, thorax is narrow and flat. Epigastric angle is near 80 degrees. What type of constitution is in this case? A. Normosthenic B. *Asthenic C. Hypersthenic D. Mixed E. No any answer is correct 31. Patient L., 46 years old, a woman, is inspected by a doctor. Data of inspection: the face is of intensive red color, round (like Moon), hair growth is present on patient's chins and under the upper lip. Which disease is this facial expression typical for? A. *Itsenko-Cushing's syndrome B. Thyrotoxicosis C. Mixedema D. Sclerodermia E. No any answer is correct 32. Patient L.,24 y.o., complains of appearance of vesicles with diameter about 0,5 cm. Some days before these elements contained transparent liquid which than turned to turbid. The rash has developed 3 days ago and was followed with elevation of body temperature up to 38,4 °C. What type of rash takes place in this case? A. Erythema B. Nettle rash C. Roseola D. * Herpes E. No any answer is correct 33. Patient M. 40 y.o. was admitted to a hospital with complaints on rash of red color, sharply marked off from healthy tissues which insignificantly rise above a healthy skin and appeared after the protracted stay in the sunshine. What is it? A. Roseola B. * Erythema C. Nettle rash D. Hemorrhages E. No any answer is correct 34. Patient M., aged 40, was hospitalized with hypertonic crisis. Which skin color is possible to reveale in this condition more often? A. White B. Blue C. Jellow D. Brown E. *Red 35. Patient M., aged 40, was hospitalized with severe form of hypertension. The patient is in critical condition now, blood pressure is 250/130 mm of Hg. How will you provide his inquiry? A. Completely ask him all the information about identifying data; complaints; history of present illness, review of systems life history; perform inspection in full volume B. Ask him about identifying data; complaints; history of present illness C. *Ask him only necessary information about complaints and previous treatment and start emergency care, perform inspection in the volume necessary for the diagnostics D. Ask the patient about history of present illness, review of systems, life history; perform inspection in full volume E. Ask him about identifying data and start emergency care 36. Patient M.,22 y.o. Data of inspection: a chest is prolonged, oblate, asymmetric, its front- back diameter considerably yields to transversal. Clavicules are well expressed, at different level, super- and infraclavicular fossa are deep. Shoulder-blades considerably fall behind from a thorax. Ribs are directed obliquely downward. Epigastric angle is acute. What type of the chest does take place in this case? A. Rachitic B. Foveated C. Emphysematous D. * Paralitic E. No any answer is correct 37. Patient P, a woman, complains of dizziness, faintness, dyspnea. Data of inspection: skin is pale with yellow tint. What data will prove diagnosis “anemia”? A. Paleness of the tongue B. Increased skin moistness C. Reddness of conjuntive D. *Paleness of conjuntiva E. Pulsation of carotide arteries 38. Patient P. is admitted to a hospital by ambulance. At inspection: patient’s pupils are narroved. How is this symptom called? A. *Myosis B. Midriasis C. Xantomas D. Ceratitis E. Myolisis 39. Patient P. is admitted to a hospital by an ambulance. Data of inspection: patient’s consciousness is abcent, face skin is cyanotic, pupils are mydriatic, breathing is superficial (hypopnoe), reflxes are absent, strong odor of alcohol is felt from his mouth. What kind of consciousness disorder is present in this case? A. Stupor B. Sopor C. Alcohol delirium D. *Alcohol coma E. Toxic shock 40. Patient R. can’t sleep at night because of severe dyspnea, which make him to sit in a bed. Data of inspection: patient is sitting, exaggerate skin cyanosis is present, as well as edema on the legs. How is such position of the patient called? A. Dyspnoe B. *Ortopnoe C. Tachypnoe D. Eupnoe E. Bradypnoe 41. Patient R., 40 years old, was admitted to a hospital with complaints on the rash of red color with distinct borders and uneven shape, which apperaed after administration of penicillin, it was located on his limbs and slightly elevated under the skin. What is the kind of rash? A. Rozeola B. *Erythema C. Nettle rash D. Petechiae E. Echymoses 42. Patient R., aged 47, has been troubled by severe dyspnea, cough, sweating, weakness for about recent 5 years. She explanes this disorders as a result of his work in a coal mine. What factors should you find out in his past medical history to prove the role of industrial hazard in the genesis of this patological condition? A. Noise B. *Coal dust in the air C. High ambient temperature D. Low ambient temperature E. Cintact with infections 43. Patient R., aged 47, has been troubled with dry cough and sweating for about recent 5 years. Sweating especially is present at night, so all patient's pillow becomes wet till the morning and smels as rotten hay. Which disease is this symptom typical for? A. *Tuberculosis B. Bronchial asthma C. Angina pectoris D. Hepatitis E. Pyelonephritis 44. Patient S. 25 y.o., appealed to the doctor with complaints on rash of oval form and of light-red color, that appeared after the use of oranges. The erruptio elements look like red spots elevating above the skin and resemble nettle burn. How is this rash called? A. Roseola B. Erythema C. * Urticaria (nettle rash) D. Hemorrhages E. No any answer is correct 45. Patient S., 50 years old, is in intensive care unit. The patient is unconscious. What position in a bed can he assume? A. *Passive B. Active C. Forced D. Ortopnoe E. Upright 46. Patient S., 66 years old, is in coma now. According to relatives' report the patient developed nausea and vomiting, complained of difficulty in movements of limbs, disorders of vision, before he completelly had lost conscioussness, blood pressure was 220/140 mm of Hg. During examination a doctor revealed neurologic disorders due to brain stroke. What is the reason (etiology) of this type of coma? A. Alcohol abuse B. Hypoglycaemia C. hepatargia D. *Apoplexy E. Hyperglycaemia 47. Patient S., is 2 hours after accident. Reactions on external irritants are absent. Eyes are not opened on pain. Corneal and pupil reflexes are absent. This condition is called: A. * Coma B. Stupor C. Sopor D. Clear conscioussness E. No any answer is correct 48. Patient T., 61years old, is on the long-standing treatment in a therapeutic department for 10 days . He can sit in a bed independently as well as to change his position, walk, wash his face. How can you characterise position of the patient? A. Passive B. *Active C. Forced D. Ortopnoe E. Horizontal 49. Patient V.45 y.o. entered a clinic with complaints on palpitation, trembling of hands fingers. Data of inspection: watchful, frightened face, extended eyes slits, protruded and brilliant eyes (exophthalmos). How to charaterise such a face? A. Facies mitralis B. Facies Hypocratica C. * Facies Basedovica D. Facies febrilis E. No any answer is correct 50. Patient А. 43 y.o., is on stationary treatment in a rheumatological department. Data of inspection of his face: periorbital edema and red-violet erythema. Which disease are these findings typical for: A. Thyrotroxicosis B. Systemic scleroderma C. Hypothyreosis D. * Dermatomyositis E. No any answer is correct 51. Patient В.45 years old, a woman, was admitted to a hospital with complaints on palpitation, tremor of her hands. Data of examination: expression of fair on patient's face, eye sleats are widened, eyes are protruded. Which facial expression is observed in the patient? A. Facies mitralis B. Facies Hippocraticа C. Facies Basedovica D. *Facies febrilis E. No any answer is correct 52. Patient М., 42 y.o. was admitted to a clinic with visual hallucinations. He is irritated, nervous, disoriented in environment and his person. The patient has developed: A. Coma B. Stupor C. Sopor D. * Delirium E. No any answer is correct 53. Patient С. 26 y.o. was admitted to a hospital with fever (39,5 °С). Data of inspection: face is excited, face skin is red, eyes are brilliant. What is facial expression? A. . Facies Hypocratica B. * Facies febrilis C. Facies mitralis D. No any answer is correct E. Corvisars face 54. Patient Т. 30 years old, is on long-standing treatment in rheumatlolgical department of a hospital because of rheumatic heart disease. Data of inspection: cyanosis of lips and tip of the nose, red flash on cheeks, , sclera are slightly yellowish. Which facial expression is observed in the patient? A. Facies Hippocraticа B. Facies febrilis C. *Facies mitralis D. Facies Basedovica E. No any answer is correct 55. Patient’s S. body temperature is 40 degree of Celsium. The patient I restless, permanently moves in his bed, speaks to somebody abcent in the room, doesn’t answer for the questions of medical stuff. How is this disorder of consciousness called? A. *Delirium B. Coma C. Stupor D. Sopor E. Clear conscioussness 56. Patient's skin colour is light-broun, it resembles coffee with milk. Which disease can you suspect in the patient? A. Cholelithiasis B. *Septic endocarditis C. Mitralincompetence D. Tricuspid valve incompetence E. Hypertension 57. Patient's С. data of inspection: fase resembles a mask, amimic, the skin is wax-like, stretched, lustrous, it is dificult to make a skin fold because of skin rigidity. Patient's lips are thin, mouth is narroved and resembles a vallet. This facial expression is typical for: A. Thyrotoxicosis B. Hypothyreosis C. Acromegalia D. *Scleroderma E. No any answer is correct 58. Presence of which contageous disease in the patient’s past medical history is it important to ask about before his admission to a hospital? A. Pancreatitis B. Nephritis C. *Viral hepatitis D. Measles in childchood E. Viral enteritis 2 years before 59. The patient is treated in a therapeutic department concerning acute bronchitis. At inspection a doctor revealed marked hyperemia of cheeks, dryness of skin, presence of bulous rash in the area of lips. Which from the transferred states of patient reddish color of skin is characteristic for? A. Aanaemia B. Renal failure C. Hypotension D. heart failure E. * Hypertermia 60. What violation of consciousness of a patient is present, when reactions on external irritants are abcent, eyes on pain are not opened, pupil and corneal reflexes are absent? A. * Coma B. Stupor C. Sopor D. Clear conscioussness E. No any answer is correct 61. Which consciousness disordes is present in a patient if verbal contact with him is impossible, the patient does not perform simplest commands, reflexes are preserved? A. Coma B. Stupor C. * Sopor D. Clear conscioussness E. No any answer is correct F. 62. Рatient’s S. body temperature is 39 degrees of Celsium. The patient answers for questions with delay, simply, sometimes with movements only, looks to be inhibited. How is this disorder of consciousness called? A. Delirium B. Coma C. Stupor D. *Sopor E. Hallucinations 63. Unknown person was found on the street unconscious and hospitalized. During examiation a doctor feels alcohol smell from patient’s mouth. Which type of coma is present? A. Apoplectic B. Hypoglycaemic C. Hepatic D. * Alcohol E. Uremic 64. During inquiry of a patient R. 18 y.o., it was revealed that the patient has rachitis in the past. Which shape of the chest may be found in the patient? A. Barrel-shaped B. Paralytic C. * Pigeon chest D. Foveated chest E. Kyphoscoliosis 65. Patient R. is on long-standing treatment because of pleurisy with effusion. Typical complaint in this disease on the stage of stabilization of exudation is: A. Pain in the chest at inspiration B. Chocking over in swallowing C. * Feeling of heaviness and tension in lower part of the chest on the affected side D. Dry cough E. Hemopthysis 66. Patient R. is on long-standing treatment because of lung disease. In the morning he usually develop cough with expectoration for about 200 ml of purulent sputum. Which pathological condition is it typical for? A. Tuberculosis B. * Bronchiectatic disease C. Focal pneumonia D. Empyema pleurae E. Bronchial asthma 67. Patient K., 20 y.o., after overcooling developed chills, pain in the right part of the chest, general weakness. In the evening of the same day his body temperature rose up to 40 ºC, cough with expectoration of small amount of sputum developed. Present data of examination: condition of the patient is of moderate severity, skin pallor, sweat. Respiratory rate 24 per min. Retardation of the right part of the chest in respiration, by percussion – dull sound below of scapular angle on the same side. Which pathological mechanism lies in the basis of this condition? A. * Inflammatory consolidation of pulmonary tissue B. Obstruction of fine bronchi C. Bronchial tumour D. All mentioned E. No any of them 68. A patient, 37 y.o., complains of dyspnea, cough with expectoration of small amount of sputum. Several times she developed attacks of suffocation, these attacks disaper after expectoration of sputum. The patient suffers of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease for 5 years. During the last 2 month she noticed aggravation of her condition after grippe. Present examination data: during percussion hyperresonant sound is heard over all the lungs. Lower lungs borders mobility is decreased. Which changes are possible to find above lungs apexes? A. Bilateral diminishing B. Unilateral diminishing C. * Bilateral enlargement D. Unilateral enlargement E. No changes 69. A patient, 42 y.o., suffers of bronchial asthma for years. Now she is urgently transported to a clinics with prolonged asthma attack. Data of examination: condition is severe. The patient is excited, skin is pale-grey, moist. Respiration is frequent, superficiall. By auscultation a doctor cannot hear any respiratory sounds. What is the cause of this condition? A. * Gross spasm of fine bronchi with following ineffective pulmonary ventilation B. Pleural effusion C. Pulmonary tissue consoldation D. Block of the trachea E. No any answer is correct 70. A patient, 28 y.o., complains of dyspnea in rest, dull pain in the right part of the chest, dry cough, fever 38,5 ºC, weakness, sweating. He is ill for the last weak. Received treatment because of grippe. 1 day ago the patient developed pain in the right chest, dry painful cough and dyspnea. Data of examination: general condition is of moderate severity, acrocyanosis, respiratory rate 36 per min, the right part of the chest retardation in respiration. Data of percussion: from the middle of the right scapula and downwards dull percussion sound is heard which shifts to complete dullness. Which pathological condition is possible to supect? A. * Croupous pneumonia located in the right lower lung lobe B. Right-sided pleurisy with effusion C. Tumour of the right lung D. Echinococcus cyst of the lung E. Tuberculosis 71. A patient applies to a doctor with complaints on pain in the right part of the chest in deep inspiration, dry cough, general weakness. A doctor after examination suspected dry pleurisy in him. Which data of objective examination wil be helpful in diagnostics of this disease? A. Low grade fever B. Dull-to-thympany sound below the right scapula C. * Pleural friction sound in the right part of the chest below the scapula in inspiration and expiration D. Decreased lower lung border mobility on the right side E. External signs of dyspnea 72. A patient applies to a doctor with complaints on pain in the right part of the chest in deep inspiration, dry cough, general weakness. A doctor after examination suspected pleurisy with effusion in him.Which character of pain is typical for this disease? A. Cutting and permanent B. Stubbing, appears in inspiration, cough C. * Feeling of heaviness and tension on the affected side D. Pressing, occurs in physical load E. Pain is absent 73. A patient applies to a doctor with complaints on pain in the right part of the chest in deep inspiration, dry cough, general weakness. A doctor after examination suspected pleurisy with effusion on the right side of the chest in him.Which changes of topographic percussion should be expected? A. Decreased lower lung border mobility on the opposite side B. Bilateral decrease of lower lung border mobility C. * The zone of transition of clear pulmonary (resonant) sound to the dull one is located above the expected normal position of the left lower lung border D. Widened Kroenig’s area E. No changes 74. A patient applies to a doctor with complaints on pain in the right part of the chest in deep inspiration, dry cough, general weakness. A doctor after examination suspected right-sided dry pleurisy in him. What is the character of pain in this case? A. Cutting permanent B. * Stubbing, appears in inspiration or cough C. Feeling of heaviness and tension on the affected side D. Pressing, occurs in physical load E. Pain is absent 75. In patient T., 42 y.o., who is ill with right-sided dry pleurisy, on the 4th day of the disease pain in the chest had decreased, but the patient developed heaviness in the right part of the chest, progressive dyspnea, general weakness and fever about 37,8 ºC. A doctor suspect pleurisy with effusion in him. Which changes will be in objective examination? A. In dynamic inspection of the chest there will be retardation of affected part in respiration B. Enlargement of the right part of the chest C. Weakened vocal fremitus on the right side D. Dullness above the lower part of the right side of the chest with oblique upper border E. * All mentioned 76. A patient applies to a doctor with complaints on pain in the right part of the chest in deep inspiration, dry cough, general weakness. A doctor after examination suspected right-sided pleurisy with effusion in him. Which changes of topographic percussion should be expected? A. Bilateral decrease of lower lung border mobility B. The zone of transition of clear pulmonary (resonant) sound to the dull one is displaced downwards C. The zone of transition of clear pulmonary (resonant) sound to the dull one is displaced upwards D. * Widened Kroenig’s area E. No changes 77. A patient of 45 y.o. complains of paroxysmal attacks of expiratory dyspnea, severe dry cough. He is ill for 5 years. Attacks occur mostly at night, suddenly, last for 2-3 hours, than the patient start to expectorate viscous mucous sputum and an attack disappear. Data of examination: forced position – sitting, supporting on a table with hands. Participation of adventitious respiratory muscles in breathing. Respiration is shallow, with whistling sounds. The chest is widened, lower lungs borders are displaced downward. Which changes of lung apexes is it possible to find out? A. Bilateral decrease of heighth of lungs apexes B. Unilatreral decrease of heighth of lungs apexes C. * Bilateral increase of heighth of lungs apexes D. Unilatreral inecrease of heighth of lungs apexes E. No changes 78. A patient of 45 y.o. complains of attack of expiratory dyspnea, severe dry cough. He is ill for 5 years. Attacks occur mostly at night, suddenly, last for 203 hours, than the patient start to expectorate viscous mucous sputum and an attack disappear. Data of examination: forced position – sitting, supporting on a table with hands. Participation of adventitious respiratory muscles in breathing. Respiration is shallow, with whistlings, borders are displaced downward. The chest is widened. Which disease is it possible to diagnose? A. Pleurisy with effusion B. Exacerbation of non-obstructive chronic bronchitis C. * Bronchial asthma D. Bronchiectatic disease E. Croupous pneumonia 79. Patient A. complains of dry cough followed by pain in the right part of the chest, fever 39-40° C, sweating, dyspnea. During objective examination croupous pneumonia was diagnosed. Which provoking factor of this disease do you know? A. Viral infection B. Tobacco dust inhalation C. * Overcooling D. Overheating E. Eating of spoiled food 80. Patient A. complains of dry cough followed by pain in the right part of the chest in deep breathing and cough, fever 39-40 ºC, sweating, dyspnea. During objective examination croupous pneumonia was diagnosed. Which anatomical structure affection causes cough in this disease? A. Tracheal mucous membrane B. Bronchial mucous membrane C. Lungs parenchyma D. * Pleura E. Lymph nodes 81. Patient B. was hospitalized in pulmonological department with pneumonia of the right lower lung lobe. Data of examination: retardation of affected side of the chest in breathing, by palpation – decreased elasticity of the chest on affected side. Which percutorial sound is it possible to listen to in this area? A. Clear pulmonary (resonant) B. Tympanic C. * Dull D. Bandbox E. Dull-to-thymppany 82. 26. Patient Z. complains of permanent pain in the chest, cough with expectoration of bloody sputum, diffusely mixed with mucus. Sputum looks like strawberry jelly. Which disease is it typical for? A. Bronchial asthma B. Chronic bronchitis C. Pulmonary tuberculosis D. Pneumonia E. * Lung cancer 83. A patient is ill with acute bronchitis. He complains of cough with easy expectoration of small amount of white transparent sputum, easly diacharged. How is this sputum called? A. Serous B. * Mucous C. Mucopurulent D. Purulent E. Glass-like 84. A patient is ill with croupous pneumonia. He complains of chills, general weakness, dryness in the mouth, headache, sweating, pain in muscles. Body temperature is 39,2 ºC. Which syndrome do these data indicate on? A. Mucociliary insufficierncy B. * Endogenous intoxication C. Respiratory failure D. Pulmonary tissue consolidation E. Bronchial obstruction 85. A patient with chronic bronchitis complains of dry cough, pierching sensations behind the sternum at the moments when the patient leaves warm room and goes to the cold as well as when he breathes with tobacco dust. Which anatopmical system affection does cause this sensation? A. Pharynx B. * Mucosa of trachea and large bronchi C. Lung parenchyma D. Pleura E. Lymph nodes 86. Patient E. 48 y.o., 3 days ago was undergone resection of one lung because of destructive tuberculosis. Which data of inspection will be? A. Barrel-shaped chest B. Pigeon chest C. * In dynamic inspection of the chest there will be retardation of affected part in respiration D. Collapse of the affected part of the chest E. Wide intercostal spaces on the affected side 87. Patient P. is hospitalized with diagnosis “bronchial asthma, severe exacerbation. Pulmonary emphysema, respiratory failure of II degree”. Which position of lower lung border will be in this case? A. Displaced downward on one side B. Displaced upward on one side C. * Displaced downward on both sides D. Displaced upward on both sides E. No changes 88. Patient complains of periodical attacks of expiratory dyspnea which occur after contact with animal’s foeter. They may be stopped with salbutamol inhalations and finish with expectoration of sputum. Which sputum is it typical for this diseas? A. Serous B. Mucous C. * Glass-like mucous D. Mucopurulent E. Purulent 89. Patient P. is hospitalized with diagnosis “bronchial asthma, severe exacerbation. Pulmonary emphysema, respiratory failure of II degree”. How will mobility of lungs lower borders will change in this case? A. Decrease on one side B. Increase on one side C. * Decrease on both sides D. Increase on both sides E. No changes 90. A patient complains of dyspnea in rest, heaviness in the head and deranged sleep. Data of examinations: diffuse cyanosis, respiratory rate is 34 per min. Which syndrome are these data typical for? A. Mucociliary insufficiency B. Bronchial obstruction C. * Respiratory failure D. Pulmonary tissue consolidation E. Pulmonary tissue hyperpneumatization 91. A patient complains of acute intensive pain in the right part of the chest. The pain has occurred suddenly 30 min ago. By percussion on the anterior side of the chest on the level of 3-5 ribs tympanic sound is heard. Which syndrome are these data typical for? A. Mucociliary insufficiency B. Bronchial obstruction C. * Presence of air in pleural cavity D. Pulmonary tissue consolidation E. Pulmonary tissue hyperpneumatization 92. A patient with bronchial asthma suffers from periodical attacks (1-2 times per day) which may be released with salbutamol inhalations. Between attacks he feel himself quite well, physical activity is not restricted. How to evaluate patient’s condition? A. Satisfactory B. * Moderate severity C. Severe D. Very severe E. Agony 93. A patient of 26 y.o. developed a disease suddenly 2 days ago. The disease started sharply with headache, weakness, cough whith “rusty” sputum. Data of examinations: face is hyperemic, respiratory rate 36 per min. By percussion above the lungs – dull sound is heard rightward from the right scapula angle, vocal fremitus is absent there. Boby temperature is 38 ºC Which preliminary diagnosis is the most probable? A. Pulmonary tuberculosis B. Bronchiectatic disease C. Acute bronchitis D. Pleurisy with effusion E. * Pneumonia 94. A patient of 38 y.o. developed a disease 2 weeks ago when he felt cough, weakness, body temperature elevation up to 38 ºC. His condition sharply worsened till the end of 1st week, when he developed chills, excess sweating, fever 39 ºC. 2 days before hospitalization during cough the patient expectorated 600 ml of bed smelling sputum and then patient’s condition benefited. Now respiratory rate is 20 per min, temperature – 37,6 ºC. In which disease is possible to discharge sputum in such a way? A. Spontaneous pneumothorax B. * Lung abscess C. Pulmonary infarction D. Pneumonia E. Pleurisy with effusion 95. A patient 38 y.o. complains of attack-like cough with expectoration of small amount of “rusty" sputum, pain in the right side in deep breathing and cough. Onset of the disease was acute after overcooling. Data of examination: body temperature 39,2 C, respiratory rate 22 per min. Skin is moist, hyperemia of cheeks. Which diagnosis is the most probable? A. Pleurisy with effusion B. Bronchiectatic disease C. Pulmonary tuberculosis D. Acute bronchitis E. * Pneumonia 96. A patient of 40 y.o. complains of attack-like cough with brownish sputum, pain in the right side in deep breathing, sweating. He is ill for 6 days after overcooling. Data of examination: body temperature 39,6 C, respiratory rate 26 per min. By percussion in lower parts of right lung – dull sound, by palpation – vocal fremitus is absent. Which disease is the most probable? A. * Fibrinous pleurisy B. Lung abscess C. Empyema pleurae D. Spontaneous pneumothorax E. Lung athelectasis 97. In a patient of 48 y.o. during examination in admissious department pneumonia was diagnosed. The inflammatory focus is located in the lower lobe of the right lung. Which data of inspection of the chest will be? A. Barrel-shaped chest B. Paralytic chest C. * In dynamic inspection of the chest there will be retardation of affected part in respiration D. Collapse of the affectedt part of the chest E. Thoracic type of breathing 98. A patient of 40 y.o. complains of attack-like cough with brownish sputum, pain in the right side in deep breathing, sweating. He is ill for 6 days after overcooling. Data of examination: body temperature 39,6 ºC, respiratory rate is 26 per min. During percussion in lower parts of right lung dull sound is heard. Which changes of vocal fremitus will be? A. Intensified above the upper part of affected lung B. Decreased upper part of affected lung C. * Absent on affected side D. Not changed E. No any answer is correct 99. A patient of 60 y.o. complains of dyspnea with difficult expiration, which intensifies in physical load, on cough with expectoration of small amount of mucopurulent sputum, especially in the morning. He suffers from COPD for years. What is the mechanism of dyspnea in this disease? A. Hypercapnia B. *Bronchial obstruction (at the level of fine and median bronchi) C. Bronchospasm D. Obstruction of upper airways E. Accumulation of sputum 100. A patient of 64 y.o. was a worker in the staliness factory in the past. He was ill with chronic bronchitis for years. Now he is hospitalized with complaints on acute pain in the right part of the chest and dyspneawhich developed suddenly 2 hors beore. Data of examination: cyanosis, swelling of neck veins. Respiratory rate is 2 per min. One part of the chest is enlarged. During percussion tympanic sound on the right side of the chest is heard. Which pathological condition is it possible to suspect? A. Intercostal neuralgy B. Dry pleurisy C. Exacerbation of bronchitis D. Pneumonia E. * Sponrtaneous pneumothorax 101. A patient for several days complains of cough with expectoration of sputum, on voise hoarsness and general weakness. He leaves near earth-flax mine. Data of examination: enlarged lymph nodes above the right clavicle and in axillary region. Data of examination of otolaryngologist: paresis of the right vocal fold. Which pathological condition is it necessary to suspect? A. * Cancer of the right lung B. Right-sided pneumonia C. Chronic bronchitis D. Syphilis E. Pulmonary tuberculosis 102. In a patient of 48 y.o. during examination in admissious department pneumonia was diagnosed in the middle lobe of the right lung. Which data of palpation will be? A. Barrel-shaped chest B. Paralytic chest C. Pain in one interspace D. * Increased resistance of the affected part of the chest E. Thoracic type of breathing 103. Patient A. 63 y.o., is on long-standing treatment because of thrombophlebitis of the lower limbs veins. Suddenly he has developed sharp pain in the right part of the chest. It intensifies in inspiration, is followed with cough and expectoration of bloody sputum. Besides the patient has marked dyspnea, severe wekness, dizziness. In examination geleral condition is severe. Skin pallor, cyanosis of the face and neck. Respiratory rate is 36 per min. Which disease should you suspect? A. Croupous pneumonia B. * Pulmonary thrombembolism C. Lung cancer D. Exacerbation of bronchiectatic disease E. Rupture of pulmonary abscess into a bronchus 104. Patient H. is diagnosed acute catarrhal bronchitis. The patient suffers of shills, cough with expectoration of mucous sputum. Which data of percussion should be expected ower the chest? A. Bandbox sound B. Dull sound C. Dull-to-thympany sound D. * Clear pulmonary (resonant) sound E. Slight dullness 105. A patient complains of fever, dry cough, progressing inspiratory dyspnea. Data of auscultation and percussion lets to attending doctor to suspect pleurisy with effusion. Which forced position is typical for such patients? A. Sitting B. * Lying on the affected side C. Lying on healthy side D. The patient is sitting, declining forward, supporting with hands on the window-steel E. The patient is restless 106. Patient V. on 4th day after operation because of ovarial cystoma had developed sharp pain in the right part of the chest and expectoration of pink sputum, dyspnea. Percussion of lungs showed dullness in the lower parts of both lungs. Which complication is possible? A. Lung abscess B. Pneumonia C. * Lung infarction (pulmonary artery thrombembolism) D. Pleurisy with effusion E. Pneumothorax 107. A patient with pleural exudation was undergone pleurocentesis and 1 liter of fluid was obtained. In the same time ultrasound examination showed that there were 2 litres of fluid in the pleural cavity. How data of percussion will change after the puncture? A. The sound will become tympanic B. The sound will stay dull C. The sound will become bandbox D. The sound will become resonant E. * The intensity and square of dullness will decrease 108. Data of inspection of a chest: the lover part of its sternum is depressed into the chest, the chest is narrow, costoarticular junctions are enlarged and resemble beads. What type of a chest is present in this patient? A. Paralytic B. * Rachitic C. Lordosis D. Emphysematous E. Normal 109. Data of inspection of a chest of a patient with tuberculosis: its anterior-posterior diameter is decreased, the chest is not symmetrical, scapulas are separated from it like wings, intercostal spaces, supra- and subclavicular fossa are elevated. What type of a chest is present in this patient? A. * Paralytic B. Rachitic C. Lodosis D. Emphysematous E. Normal 110. During inspection of a chest it was revealed that spinal cord is curved backward and rightward in its thoracic part. How is this deformation called? A. Kyphosis B. Scoliosis C. Lordosis D. * Kyphoscoliosis E. Kypholordosis 111. During inspection of a chest it was revealed that spinal cord is curved backwards in its thoracic part more than in norm. How is this deformation called? A. * Kyphosis B. Scoliosis C. Lordosis D. Kyphoscoliosis E. Kypholordosis 112. During inspection of a chest it was revealed that spinal cord is curved leftwards in its thoracic part more than in norm. How is this deformation called? A. Kyphosis B. * Scoliosis C. Lordosis D. Kyphoscoliosis E. Kypholordosis 113. During inspection of the patient’s chest the last one is revealed to be diminished in anterio-posterior and lateral diameters, the chest is narrow and flat. Epigastric angle is less than 90 degrees. What is the type of the chest? A. * Asthenic B. Normosthenic C. Hypersthenic D. Emphysematous E. Foveated 114. During prophylactic examination of adolescent person it was revealed by percussion that the lungs apexes rise above the clavicles up to 3 cm. How to assess revealed signs? A. Pulmonary emphysema B. Bronchial obstruction C. Consolidation of pulmonary tissue D. * Norm E. Right-sided hydrothorax 115. In the patient ill with croupous pneumonia in the stage of hepatization of pulmonary tissue cough will be … and vocal fremitus will be … A. * Moist cough, intensified vocal fremitus B. Dry cough, weakened vocal fremitus C. Moist cough, weakened vocal fremitus D. Moist cough, absent vocal fremitus E. Cough is absent, weakened vocal fremitus 116. A patient developed sufficient intensification of vocal fremitus in the lower part of the right lung. Which percussion sound should you expect in the patient? A. Resonant B. Tympanic C. * Dull D. Bandbox E. Flat 117. Patient B. is seeking for medical advice becаuse of increased body temperatute up to 38 ? C, sweating, dry cough and general weakness. Bronchopneumonia was diagnosed in the patient. What onset is typical for bronchopneumonia? A. Sharp B. Acute C. Prolonged D. * Gradual E. Dilated 118. Patient B. is seeking for medical advice becаuse of increased body temperatute up to 39 ºC, pain in the left part of the chest. Pleuroneumonia was diagnosed in the patient. What onset is typical for pleuropneumonia? A. Sharp B. * Acute C. Prolonged D. Gradual E. Dilated 119. Patient D. complains of dry cough, hoarseness, general weakness, sweating, increase of body temperature up to 37,5 ºС. Data of physical examination: vocal fremitus is not changed, above the lungs resonant pulmonary sound is heard. What these data testify about? A. Pulmonary emphysema B. * Acute catarrhal bronchitis C. Pneumonia D. Norma E. Hydrothorax 120. Patient H. complains of acute pain in the right part of the chest, which gains more severe intensity at cough, deep breathing. What is the mechanism of development of the pain? A. Distension of pleura B. * Irritation of pleura because of its ruffness C. Irritation of bronchial mucosa D. Irritation of lung parenchyma E. Pressing on the heart 121. Patient J. complains of dyspnea, cough, night sweating. The lung apex height on the right side is equal to 1-1,5 cm, Krenig’s area is reduced. What the revealed signs specify about? A. Pulmonary emphysema B. * Pneumofibrosis of the apex C. Pneumothorax D. Norma E. Right-sided hydrothorax 122. Patient R. can’t sleep at night because of severe dyspnea, which make him to sit in a bed. How does such position of the patient in the bed is called? A. Dyspnoe B. * Ortopnoe C. Tachypnoe D. Eupnoe E. Bradypnoe 123. Patient R. complaints of feeling of air hunger and difficulties in expiration. Data of inspection: patient is staying and leaning against window-still. Respiratory rate is 28 per min, wheezes are heard on the distance What revealed signs testify about? A. * Bronchial obstruction B. Inflammation of pulmonary tissue C. Air in the thoracic cavity D. Hydrothorax E. Asphyxia 124. Patient R., aged 47, complains of severe dyspnea, cough, sweating, weakness for about recent 5 years. She explanes this disorders as a result of inhalation of dust for years. Which disease may develop in prolonged inhalation of dust? A. Pneumonia B. * Chronic bronchitis C. Acute bronchitis D. Pleurisy E. Laringtis 125. Patient S. suffers with morning cough with expectoration of large volume of greenish sputum. The sputum is better expelled in a certain position of patient’s body. Occureing of a such kind of cough is typical for: A. * Bronchiectatic disease B. Laryngitis C. Pneumonia D. Dry pleurisy E. Lung cancer 126. Patient T. complains of painful pierching sensations behind the sterrnum during coughing as well as on dry cough.This type of pain is typical for: A. Bronchitis B. Bronchiectatic disease, C. * Tracheitis D. Dry pleurisy E. Exudative pleurisy 127. Patient T. complains of sharp pain in the right part of his chest at deep breathing and cough. Such a pain is typical for: A. Bronchitis B. Bronchiectatic disease C. Diffuse bronchitis D. * Dry pleurisy E. Exudative pleurisy 128. Patient T. complains of sharp pain in the throat especially in swallowing. This type of pain is typical for: A. Bronchitis B. * Pharyngitis C. Diffuse bronchitis D. Dry pleurisy E. Exudative pleurisy 129. Patient with partial obstruction of a main bronchus by a tumour devepoted not complete atelectasis. Which percutorial sound may be obtained above the affected zone? A. Resonant B. Bandbox C. Tympanic D. * Dull E. Dull-to-thympany 130. Patient Y. was hospitalized with complaints on dry cough, chills and pain in the chest. In a hospital he started to expectorate rusty sputum. What should a doctor suppose in the patient? A. Diffuse catarrhal bronchitis B. Bronchiolitis C. Bronchiectatic disease D. Focal pneumonia E. * Pleuropneumonia 131. Patient А. Suffers of liver cirrhosis for 10 years. Now he complains of general weakness, reduction of body weight, feeling of heaviness in the left and right hypohondriums. No any pathology of thoracic cavity organs was revealed by physical examination, no liquid in abdominal cavity. The left and the right lower lungs borders are displaced upwards. What may be the cause of these findings? A. Pulmonary emphysema B. Pneumothorax C. Norma D. Bilateral hydrothorax E. * High level of diaphragm, because of enlargement of the liver and spleen 132. Patient А. complaints on cоugh with attacks of expiratory dyspnea. By palpation weakened vocal fremitus was revealled while bandbox sound was heard during percussion. What these signs indicate on? A. * Pulmonary emphysema B. Consolidation of pulmonary tissue C. Cavity in the lungs D. Liquid in the pleural cavity E. Air in the pleural cavity 133. Patient К. complains of increase of body temperature up to 37,8 ºС, pain in the chest on the right side as well as of dyspnea and cough. Vocal fremitus is amplified on the right side. By percussion dull sound is revealed. Which pathological process is present in the patient? A. Pulmonary emphysema B. Bronchial obstruction C. * Consolidation of pulmonary tissue D. Air in the pleural cavity E. Hydrothorax 134. Patient К. complains of expiratory dyspnea, general weakness. By percussion above the lungs bandbox sound is revealed, enlargement of the Krenig’s area, descendence of the lower lungs borders on both sides. How to assess revealed signs? A. * Pulmonary emphysema B. Bronchial obstruction C. Consolidation of pulmonary tissue D. Norma E. Right-sided hydrothorax 135. Patient К. is suffering from cоugh, fever up to 38,2 ºС, dyspnea. Intesified vocal fremitus was revealed by palpation of his chest while during percussion dull percussion sound was heard leftwards from the ІV to the VІ pibs. What these signs suggest about? A. Pulmonary emphysema B. * Consolidation of pulmonary tissue C. Bronchial obstruction D. Cavity in the lungs E. Liquid in the pleural cavity 136. The patient C. complaints on dyspnea. The disease has began after overcooling. At physical examination such symptoms were revealed as dyspnea, vocal fremitus above the lower part of the right lung is absent; the chest is resistent on the right side. By percussion in the lower part of the right lung dull percussion sound is revealed as well as displacement of the lower lung border on posterior axillary line up to VІ rib. What the revealed signs testify about? A. Pulmonary emphysema B. Bronchial obstruction C. * Consolidation of pulmonary tissue D. Air in the pleural cavity E. Right-sided hydrothorax 137. The patient complains of expiratory dyspnea, cough with difficult expectoration of viscous mucous sputum. He assumes forced position. Which actually position is typical for this pathological condition? A. * Orthopnoe B. Tachipnoe C. Bradipnoe D. Eupnoe E. Polypnoe 138. The patient G. complains of dyspnea and dry cough. By percussion bandbox sound is heard. The mobility of the lower lungs border is limited. How to assess revealed signs? A. * Pulmonary emphysema B. Pneumofibrosis of the apex C. Pneumothorax D. Norma E. Right-sided hydrothorax 139. Patient P., 54 years old, suffers from bronchial asthma for 10 years. At inspection of his chest its anterior-posterior diameter is enlarged, the chest is of barrel shape. What type of a chest is present in this patient? A. Paralytic B. Rachitic C. Lordosis D. * Emphysematous E. Normal 140. Patient K., 56 y.o., is on long-standing treatment in therapeutic department because of heart disease. He is on bed regimen. Where is edema located in such cases most often? A. * Lumbar region B. Feets C. Below eyes D. On hands E. On legs 141. During examination of patient E, 20 years old, it was revealed elevation of the lower part of his sternum. What is the type of the chest? A. Rachitic B. *Foveated C. Emphysematous D. Paralytic E. No any answer is correct 142. During examination of patient A, 16 years old, it was revealed protrusion of the sternum forward. The chest resembles those in birds. What is the type of the chest? A. *Rachitic B. Foveated C. Emphysematous D. Paralytic E. No any answer is correct 143. Morning cough is typical for: A. *Chronic bronchitis B. Laryngitis C. Pneumonia D. Dry pleurisy E. Lung cancer 144. Morning cough is typical for: A. *Smokers B. Laryngitis C. Pneumonia D. Dry pleurisy E. Lung cancer 145. Patient P, a woman, complains of dyspnea. Patient feels that it is difficult both to inhale and exhale air. How is this type of dyspnea called? A. Expiratory B. Inspiratory C. *Mixed D. Objective E. Subjective 146. Patient P, a woman, complains on dizziness, faintness, dyspnea. Patient feels that it is difficult to inhale air. How is this type of dyspnea called? A. Expiratory B. *Inspiratory C. Mixed D. Objective E. Subjective 147. Patient P, 54 years old, suffers with bronchial asthma for 10 years. By inspection of his chest it was revealed that its anterior-posterior diameter is enlarged, the chest is of barrel shape. What type of chest is present in this patient? A. Paralytic B. Rachitic C. Lodosis D. *Emphysematous E. Normal 148. Patient C.,19 y.o. Data of inspection of the chest: sternum is protruded forward as a comb. What type of the chest does take place in this case? A. * Rachitic B. Foveated C. Emphysematous D. Paralytic E. No any answer is correct 149. Patient R. is on long-standing treatment because of lung disease. 1 hour ago he occasionally has expectorated up for about 200 ml of purulent sputum in one coughing act. Which disease is it typical for? A. Tuberculosis B. * Lung abscess C. Focal pneumonia D. Empyema pleurae E. Bronchial asthma 150. Patient R. is on long-standing treatment because of lung disease. 1 hour ago he occasionally has caughed up about 200 ml of purulent sputum. Caughing with large amount of sputum (with full mouth) in the morning is typical for: A. Tuberculosis B. * Bronchiectatic disease C. Focal pneumonia D. Empyema pleurae E. Bronchial asthma 151. Patient A.,20 y.o., was fallen ill 2 days before. The onset was acute with chills, t-38 °С, paint in the throat, dry cough accompanied with pierching sensations behind the sternum. Objective data: general condition is close to satisfactory, body temperature is normal, during auscultation vesicular breathing is heard in the lungs, respiratory rate is 20 per min. Which disease may be suspected? A. Focal pneumonia B. Acute bronchitis C. * Laryngotracheitis D. Acute respiratory viral infection E. Pulmonary tuberculosis 152. Patient A.,20 y.o., has developed a disease 2 days before. The onset was acute with chills, t-38 ?С, paint in abdominal region, nausea, dry cough. The same symptoms were 3 weeks before. Objective data: dull percussion sound and moist fine rales above the lower right part of the chest are heard. Which adventitious examinations are necessary to prove diagnosis? A. * Chest X-ray B. Examination of stomach content C. Duodenal probing D. Analysis of feces for helmints ova E. Immunological examination of blood serum 153. Patient B., 42 y.o., complains of cough with expectoration of mucopurulent sputum, dyspnea, fever, headache, general weakness. He was fallen ill 3 days before after overcooling. Objective data: above the lungs bandbox percussion sound is heard, during auscultation- harsh breathing, diffuse dry whistling rales. Data of complete blood count: leuk. – 9,8х10л12/l, ESR – 18 mm per hr. Which adventitious examinations are necessary to prove diagnosis? A. Ultrasound examination B. * Pneumotachymetry C. Plan chest X-ray D. Contrast chest X-ray E. Computer tomography 154. During auscultation of an adolescent person intensified vesicular breathing above all parts of lungs was revealed after the patient has performed physical exercises. What is probably cause of such a finding? A. Appearence of consolidation foci in the deep layers of pulmonary tissue B. Lung emphysema C. Thin chest wall D. Physical loading E. * Normal finding 155. A patient aged 30 y.o. complains of low grade fever, dry cough, nasal excretions and headache. The onset was acute 2 days before. Objective data: general condition is close to satisfactory, harsh breathing is heard in the lungs. Pointed lung pattern on X-ray. Which disease may be suspected? A. * Acute bronchitis B. Focal pneumonia C. Acute respiratory viral infection D. Pulmonary emphysema E. Bronchial asthma 156. Patient S., 42 y.o., complains of pain and sensation of heaviness and overfilling in the right part of the chest, dyspnea, cough with hemopthysis, marked general weakness. He has lost 10 kg of body weight for the last 2 months. During objective and X-ray examination pleural fluid was revealed. During procedure of pleurocentesis the hemorrhagic pleural content was obtained. Which disease should be suspected? A. Myocardial infarction B. * Malignant tumour of pleura C. Rupture of pleural vessels because of pneumothorax D. Pulmonary tuberculosis E. Bronchiectatic disease 157. A patient complains of mixed expiratory dyspnea. Objective data: barrel chest, bandbox percussion sound, weakened vesicular breathing in auscultation. Which syndrome are these data typical for? A. Mucociliary insufficiency B. Bronchial obstruction C. Respiratory failure D. Pulmonary tissue consolidation E. * Pulmonary tissue hyperpneumatization (pulmonary emphysema) 158. A patient developed complete atelectasis of the whole lung lobe. Which data of auscultation will be in the patient? A. * Bronchial breathing above the whole affected zone B. Amphoric breathing at the affected zone C. Vesicular breathing all over the chest D. Bronchovesicular breathing at the affected zone E. Vesicular breathing is absent 159. A patient developed dry pleurisy. Which data of auscultation will be in the patient? A. Bronchial breathing above the affected zone B. Amphoric breathing at the affected zone C. * Vesicular breathing all over the chest D. Bronchovesicular breathing at the affected zone E. Vesicular breathing is absent 160. A patient developed lobar pneumonia of the right lover lung lobe. Which data of auscultation will be above affected part of the lung in I stage of the disease? A. Bronchial breathing B. Amphoric breathing at the affected side C. Vesicular breathing D. Bronchovesicular breathing E. * Weakened vesicular breathing 161. A patient developed lobar pneumonia of the right lover lung lobe. Which data of auscultation will be above affected part of the lung in II stage of the disease? A. * Bronchial breathing B. Amphoric breathing at the affected side C. Vesicular breathing D. Bronchovesicular breathing E. Weakened vesicular breathing 162. A patient developed pleurisy with accumulation of a large volume of liquid. Which data of auscultation will be at the zone of collapsed lung just above the liquid? A. * Bronchial breathing B. Amphoric breathing C. Vesicular breathing D. Bronchovesicular breathing E. Metallic respiration 163. A patient developed pleurisy with effusion. Which data of auscultation will be at the projection of accumulated liquid? A. Bronchial breathing B. Amphoric breathing at the affected side C. Vesicular breathing D. Bronchovesicular breathing E. * Weakened vesicular breathing of even absent depending on the volume of fluid 164. A patient developed syndrome of air accumulation in pleural cavity. How will main respiratory sounds change in this case? A. Bronchial breathing above the whole affected side B. Amphoric breathing at the affected side C. Vesicular breathing D. Bronchovesicular breathing E. * Vesicular breathing is weakened or even absent 165. A patient with bronchiectatic disease developed decompencation of chronic pulmonary heart. Which method is the most informative in verification of this pathological condition? A. X-ray of the chest B. * Ultrasoud examination of a heart C. Bronchoscopy D. Bronchigraphy E. ECG 166. A patient with chronic dyspnea and hemopthysis is suspected to have central lung cancer. Which method is the most effective in verification of this syndrome? A. X-ray of the chest B. Ultrasound exaination C. * Bronchoscopy D. Bronchigraphy E. ECG 167. A patient with chronic pain in the chest and hemopthysis is suspected to have peripheral lung cancer. Which method is the most effective in verification of this syndrome? A. X-ray of the chest B. * Computer tomography C. Bronchoscopy D. Bronchigraphy E. ECG 168. A patient with cough and pain in the chest is suspected to develop pneumonia. Which method is necessary to prescribe for verification of this disease? A. * Plan chest X-ray B. Computer tomography C. Bronchoscopy D. Bronchigraphy E. ECG 169. A patient with pneumonia developed dry pleurisy. Which data of auscultation is to be expected above affected part of the lung? A. Dry whistling rales B. Dry buzzing rales C. Moist rales D. Crepitation E. * Pleural friction 170. A patient with tuberculosis experienced a large cavern in the right upper lung lobe. Which data of auscultation is to be expected at affected part of the lung? A. Bronchial breathing B. * Amphoric breathing at the affected side C. Vesicular breathing D. Bronchovesicular breathing E. Weakened vesicular breathing 171. A patient with tuberculosis developed pneumothorax. Which data of auscultation is to be expected above affected side of the chest? A. Bronchial breathing B. Amphoric breathing at the affected side C. Vesicular breathing D. Bronchovesicular breathing E. * Absent respiratory sounds, possible metallic respiration 172. A young boy was examined by military commission and the conclusion was made that he is healthy. Which data of auscultation of lungs are to be expected? A. Bronchial breathing B. Vesicular breathing C. * Vesicular breathing over lung parenchyma and bronchial breathing in intrascapular region D. Amphoric breathing E. Bronchovesicular breathing 173. At examination of patient X. the following findings were obtained as: complaints on fever, cough, nightly sweating; at objective examination: thin chest wall; vocal fremitus is not changed, tympanic percussion sound is heard at the right subscapular region, while by auscultation amphoric breathing is heard in the same region. Which pathological condition do these signs indicate on? A. Consolidation focus in pulmonary tissue B. Lung emphysema C. Thin chest wall D. * Cavity in the lung E. Norm 174. Data of chest X-ray of a patient indicate on cavity in the lungs. Which actually changes will be on X-ray? A. * Ring-like reserved shade with horizontal level B. Increased transparency of the lungs, depressed diafragm C. Pointed lung pattern D. Intensive homogenous darkening with oblique upper edge E. Homogenous reserved shade of high density 175. Data of chest X-ray of a patient indicate on diffuse pneumofibrosis. Which actually changes will be on X-ray? A. Pulmonary tissue infiltration B. Increased transparency of the lungs, depressed diafragm C. * Pointed lung pattern D. Intensive homogenous darkening with oblique upper edge E. Diffuse small focci in lower parts of the lungsm enlarged paratracheal lymph nodes. 176. Data of chest X-ray of a patient indicate on tuberculosis. Which actually changes will be on X-ray? A. Pulmonary tissue infiltration B. Increased transparency of the lungs, depressed diafragm C. Pointed lung pattern D. Intensive homogenous darkening with oblique upper edge E. * Diffuse small focci in lower parts of the lungs, enlarged paratracheal lymph nodes. 177. Data of chest X-ray of a patient indicate on pleurisy with effusion. Which actually changes will be on X-ray? A. Pulmonary tissue infiltration B. Increased transparency of the lungs, depressed diafragm C. Pointed lung pattern D. * Intensive homogenous darkening with oblique upper edge E. Diffuse small focci in lower parts of the lungsm enlarged paratracheal lymph nodes 178. Data of chest X-ray of a patient indicate on pneumonia. Which actually changes will be on X-ray? A. * Pulmonary tissue infiltration B. Increased transparency of the lungs, depressed diafragm C. Pointed lung pattern D. Intensive homogenous darkening with oblique upper edge E. Diffuse small focci in lower parts of the lungsm enlarged paratracheal lymph nodes 179. Data of chest X-ray of a patient indicate on pulmonary emphysema. Which actually changes will be on X-ray? A. Pulmonary tissue infiltration B. * Increased transparency of the lungs, depressed diafragm C. Pointed lung pattern D. Intensive homogenous darkening with oblique upper edge E. Diffuse small focci in lower parts of the lungsm enlarged paratracheal lymph nodes 180. During auscultation of patient P., 60 years old, who experienced COPD, dry whistling rales above all parts of the lungs were heared as well as weakened vesicular breathing. What is the mechanism of such auscultatory phenomena origin? A. * Accumulation of viscous mucus in bronchi B. Induration of pulmonary tissue (pneumonia) C. In lung emphysema D. Accumulation of liquid in the pleural cavity E. Attack of bronchial asthma 181. During auscultation of a patient with croupous pneumonia a doctor found bronchial breathing above the medial lobe of the right lung. Which changes of vocal fremitus, bronchophonia and percussion sound should you expect? A. Weakened vocal fremitus, bandbox percussion sound and intensified bronchophonia B. Weakened vocal fremitus, bandbox percussion sound, weakened bronchophonia C. * Intensified vocal fremitus, dull percussion sound, intensified bronchophonia D. Intensified vocal fremitus, tympanic percussion sound, weakened bronchophonia E. Intensified vocal fremitus, dull percussion sound, weakened bronchophonia 182. During auscultation of a patient a doctor found in him pulmonary emphysema. Which changes of vocal fremitus, bronchophony and percussion sound should be expected in this case? A. Vocal fremitus will be intensified, percussion sound will be dull, bronchophony will be intensified B. Vocal fremitus will be weakened, percussion sound will be dull, bronchophony will be weakened. C. * Vocal fremitus will be weakened, percussion sound will be bandbox (hyperresonant), bronchophony will be weakened D. Vocal fremitus will not be changed, percussion sound will be resonant, bronchophony will not be changed . E. Vocal fremitus will be intensified, percussion sound will be tympanic, bronchophony will be intensified. 183. During auscultation of a young boy with fever a doctor found in him pulmonary tissue consolidation syndrome. Which changes of vocal fremitus, bronchophony and percussion sound should be expected in this case? A. * Vocal fremitus will be intensified, percussion sound will be dull, bronchophony will be intensified B. Vocal fremitus will be weakened, percussion sound will be dull, bronchophony will be weakened. C. Vocal fremitus will be weakened, percussion sound will be dull-to-thympany, bronchophony will be weakened D. Vocal fremitus will not be changed, percussion sound will be resonant, bronchophony will not be changed . E. Vocal fremitus will be intensified, percussion sound will be tympanic, bronchophony will be intensified. 184. During auscultation of a young female with long-term low grade body temperature a doctor revealed a focus of amphoric breathing in her lungs. Which pathological condition is it necessary to suspect in the patient? A. * Tuberculosis with cavern in the lungs B. Pleurisy with effusion C. Pneumothorax D. Dry pleurisy E. Pneumonia 185. For patient X. with bronchial asthma and emphysema X-ray was made. Which changes may be revealed? A. Pulmonary tissue infiltration B. * Poor lung pattern, plan diafragm C. Multiple small focci in the lungs D. Cavity in the lung E. Norm 186. For patient X. with chronic bronchitis X-ray was made. Which changes may be revealed? A. Pulmonary tissue infiltration B. Lung emphysema C. Multiple small focci in the lungs D. Cavity in the lung E. * Pointed lung pattern 187. For patient X. with lobar pneumonia X-ray was made. Which changes may be revealed? A. * Pulmonary tissue infiltration B. Lung emphysema C. Pultiple smll focuses in the lungs D. Cavity in the lung E. Norm 188. For patient X. with tuberculosis X-ray was made. Which changes may be revealed in millaty form of the disease? A. Pulmonary tissue infiltration B. Lung emphysema C. * Multiple small focci in the lungs D. Cavity in the lung E. Norm 189. Forced expiratory volume for the 1st second (FEV1) was measured in a patient. Which index of FEV1 corresponds to norm? A. * >80 %, deviation B. >80 %, deviation \=20-30 % C. . 60-80 % , deviation >30 % D. 60 %, deviation > 30 % E. 55 %, deviation \= 25 % 190. In a patient with tuberculosis X-ray was recorded. It was revealed numerous pathological focci in upper lung lobes of both lungs. Which data of auscultation is to be expected? A. Bronchial breathing B. Amphoric breathing at the affected side C. Vesicular breathing D. * Bronchovesicular breathing E. Weakened vesicular breathing 191. In a patient with pneumonia X-ray was recorded. It was revealed fluid in pleural cavity. Which data of auscultation is to be expected? A. Bronchial breathing B. Amphoric breathing at the affected side C. Vesicular breathing D. Bronchovesicular breathing E. * Weakened vesicular breathing of even absent over affected side 192. In sputum of patient Ya., 42 years old, atypical cells were found. Which disease these elements indicate on? A. Croupous pneumonia B. Chronic obstructive bronchitis C. Bronchial asthma D. Lung abscess E. * Lung cancer 193. In sputum of patient Ya., 42 years old, elastic fibers were found. Which disease these elements indicate on? A. Croupous pneumonia B. Chronic obstructive bronchitis C. Bronchial asthma D. * Lung abscess E. Chronic non-obstructive bronchitis 194. In sputum of patient Ya., 42 years old, the following elements are present: eosinophils, Charcot-Leyden crystals, Curshman’s spirals. Which disease these elements indicate on? A. Croupous pneumonia B. Chronic obstructive bronchitis C. * Bronchial asthma D. Acute bronchitis E. Chronic non-obstructive bronchitis 195. Patient B. is seeking for medical advice because of increased body temperatute up to 39 °C, cough. Bronchopneumonia was diagnosed in the patient. What onset is typical for bronchopneumonia? A. Sharp B. Acute C. Prolonged D. * Gradual E. Dilated 196. Patient B. is seeking for medical advice because of increased body temperatute up to 39 °C, cough. Bronchopneumonia was diagnosed in the patient. What provoking factor is the most often in bronchopneumonia? A. Overeating B. Overcooling C. * Viral or bacterial bronchitis D. Physical overload E. All mentioned 197. Patient B. is seeking for medical advice because of increased body temperatute up to 39 °C, cough. Pleuropneumonia was diagnosed in the patient. What provoking factor is the most often in pleuropneumonia? A. Overeating B. * Overcooling C. Viral or bacterial bronchitis D. Physical overload E. All mentioned 198. Patient B. is seeking for medical advice becаuse of increased body temperatute up to 39 ≥C, pain in the left part of the chest. Pleuroneumonia was diagnosed in the patient. What onset is typical for pleuropneumonia? A. Sharp B. * Acute C. Prolonged D. Gradual E. Dilated 199. Patient M., 46 years old, suffers with bronchiectatic disease for 20 years. Which method of diagnostics is the most informative in verification of diagnosis? A. Bronchoscopy B. Fluorography C. Ultrasound examination of pleural cavities D. * Computer tomography E. Bronchigraphy 200. Patient N. developed trauma of the chest in accident 2 hours before. He complains of progressing inspiratory dyspnea and pain in the chest. Tympanic percussion sound and absent vesicular breathing are revealed over the right part of the chest during physical examination. Which pathological condition these signs testify about? A. Consolidation of pulmonary tissue B. Lung emphysema C. Accumulation of fluid in pleural cavity D. * Accumulation of air in pleural cavity E. Norm 201. Patient N. is suffering from expiratory dyspnea. Bandbox percussion sound and weakened vesicular breathing were revealed. Which pathological condition these signs testify about? A. Consolidation of pulmonary tissue B. * Lung emphysema C. Thin chest wall D. Physical loading E. Norm 202. Patient N. is suffering from progressing inspiratory dyspnea. Dull percussion sound and absent vesicular breathing were revealed over the lower part of the right lung. Which pathological condition these signs testify about? A. Consolidation of pulmonary tissue B. Lung emphysema C. * Accumulation of fluid in pleural cavity D. Accumulation of air in pleural cavity E. Norm 203. Patient N. is suffering from cough, fever, dyspnea. Retardation of the left half of the chest during breathing was revealed as well as dull percussion sound and weakened vesicular breathing at the zone located downward from the VІ intercostal space. Which pathological condition these signs testify about? A. * Consolidation of pulmonary tissue B. Lung emphysema C. Thin chest wall D. Physical loading E. Norm 204. Patient P., 40 years old, was admitted to the hospital with complaints on cough with expectoration of sputum. Data of examination: dull percussion sound in the lower parts of the lungs. By auscultation bronchial breathing and adventitious crucking sound was heard. How to recognise this adventitious sound (is it crepitation of fine moist rales)? Select the proper characteristics. A. * Crepitation is heard only on the top of inspiration while moist rales are heard in both respiratory phases B. Moist rales are heard only on the top of inspiration while crepitation is heard in both respiratory phases C. During coughing rales are not changed D. Crepitation intensifies when to press phonendoscope to the chest E. Crepitation will change after coughing 205. Patient S. has experienced acute bronchitis. Which findings may be revealed during auscultation of his chest? A. Bronchial breathing all over the lungs B. Amphoric breathing on both sides of the chest C. Vesicular breathing D. * Harsh breathing E. Weakened vesicular breathing with prolonged expiration 206. Patient А. is ill for 20 years with chronic bronchitis. Now he complains of cough with difficult expectoration of viscous sputum especially in the morning. Wery often it he has prolonged attacks of cough with difficulty before expectoration of sputum. Which syndrome are such symptoms typical for? A. * Mucociliary insufficiency B. Bronchial obstruction C. Respiratory failure D. Pulmonary tissue consolidation E. Pulmonary tissue hyperpneumatization 207. Patient В. for a long time complains of subfebrine fever and general weaknes. In patient’s sputum atypical cells are found. What does it indicate on? A. Chronic bronchitis in exacerbation B. Pulmonary tuberculosis C. * Lung cancer D. Pulmonary tissue destruction E. Bronchial asthma 208. Patient Н. complains of low grade fever for last week as well as on moist cough. No data of respiratory disease in the past. In patient’s sputum there were found alveolar macrophages, leukocytes, coccal microflora. What does it indicate on? A. * Pneumonia B. Pulmonary tuberculosis C. Lung cancer D. Chronic bronchitis in exacerbation E. Bronchial asthma 209. Patient Х was treated because of acute respiratory infection for the last 4 days. Following examination of this patient revealed crepitation in the lower lobe of the left lung. Which pathological process do this phenomenon indicate on? A. Accumulation of viscous mucus in bronchi B. * Inflammation of pulmonary tissue (pneumonia) C. Lung emphysema D. Accumulation of liquid in the pleural cavity E. Attack of bronchial asthma 210. Which disease are presented below data of pleural fluid examination typical for: specific gravity - 1020, protein - 50 g/l, Rivolt’s test is positive (++), leuk. - 2-4 in v.f., erythrocites 50 in v.f., atypical cells: A. Pleurisy in tuberculosis B. Pleural empyema C. Pleurisy in pneumonia D. * Pleurisy in malignant tumour of pleura or lung tissue E. Congestive heart failure 211. Which disease are presented below data of pleural fluid examination typical for: specific gravity - 1020, protein - 35 g/l, Rivolt’s test is positive, leuk. - 15-20 in v.f., prevalence of neutrophils; erythrocites 1-2 in v.f., atypical cells are absent: A. Pleurisy in tuberculosis B. Pleural empyema C. * Pleurisy in pneumonia D. Pleurisy in malignant tumour of pleura or lung tissue E. Congestive heart failure 212. Which disease are presented below data of pleural fluid examination typical for: red color, smell is absent, viscous consistency, leuk. - 6-8 in v.f., erythrocytes 20-30 in v.f., mycobacteria are absent, moderate amount of atypical cells, elastic fibers 20-30 in v.f.: A. Focal pneumonia B. Chronic bronchitis C. Croupous pneumonia D. Lung abscess E. * Lung cancer 213. Which disease are presented below data of pleural fluid examination typical for: rusty color, smell is absent, viscous consistency, leuk. - 50-60 in v.f., erythrocites 3-5 in v.f., coccal mycroflora, macrophages 3-5 in v.f., mycobacteria and atypical cells are absent: A. Focal pneumonia B. Chronic bronchitis C. * Croupous pneumonia D. Lung abscess E. Lung cancer 214. Which disease are presented below data of pleural fluid examination typical for: specific gravity - 1035, protein - 14 g/l, Rivolt’s test is negative, leuk. – cove all vision field, erythrocytes 0-1 in v.f., atypical cells re absent: A. Pleurisy in tuberculosis B. * Pleural empyema C. Pleurisy in pneumonia D. Pleurisy in malignant tumour of pleura or lung tissue E. Congestive heart failure 215. Patient A. complaint of dyspnea. Vocal fremitus is weakened on the left side. By percussion the area of dullness on the left scapular line from the level of VІth rib downwards was revealed. It is necessary to carry out pleural puncture to this patient. Which indications to this procedute do you know? A. Bronchiectatic disease, complicated by emphysema of the lungs B. About high level of diaphragm, because of enlargement of the liver and spleen C. Acute bronchitis D. Pneumonia of the lower part of the right lung E. * Hydrothorax 216. A patient developed syndrome of air accumulation in pleural cavity. Which specific sound may be heard at the zone of air accumulation? A. Bronchial breathing above the whole affected side B. Amphoric breathing at the affected side C. Vesicular breathing D. Bronchovesicular breathing E. * Metallic respiration 217. A student during inspection of a patient with heart failure has found edema on patient's legs. Such edema in initial stage of heart failure occur: A. * In the evening B. In the morning C. At night D. Are persisting E. Are not typical 218. A student during inspection of a patient with 1st stage of heart failure has found edema. What is typical location of edema in initial stage of heart failure? A. * On legs B. Below eyes C. On arms D. All ower the body E. Are not typical 219. A student during inspection of a patient with heart failure revealed edema. The patient was on the bed mode for long time. In this case edema will be located: A. On legs B. Below eyes C. On arms D. All ower the body E. * On lumbar region 220. A student should perform inspection of a patient with final stage of heart failure and anasarca. In this case edema will be located: A. On legs B. Below eyes C. On arms D. * All ower the body E. Lumbar region 221. By palpation patient’s pulse is dull. In which case is it possible? A. Myocarditis B. Pericarditis C. Mitral defects D. * Atherocsclerotic induration of arteril wall E. Heart insufficiency 222. By palpation patient’s pulse is high and quick. How is this called in Latine? A. Pulsus parvus and tardus B. * Pulsus celler et altus C. Pulsus alternans D. Pulsus dicroticus E. Pulsus mollis 223. By palpation patient’s pulse is high and quick. Which heart valvular defect is it typical for? A. * Aortal incompetence B. Aortal stenosis C. Mitral incompetence D. Mitral stenosis E. Tricuspid incompetence 224. By palpation patient’s pulse is low and slow. How is this called in Latine? A. * Pulsus parvus and tardus B. Pulsus celler et altus C. Pulsus alternans D. Pulsus dicroticus E. Pulsus mollis 225. By palpation patient’s pulse is low and slow. Which heart valvular defect is it typical for? A. Aortal incompetence B. * Aortal stenosis C. Mitral incompetence D. Mitral stenosis E. Tricuspid incompetence 226. During examination of patient’s pulse a student revealed bradycardia. Rare pulse is observed in the case of: A. Increased body temperature B. Heart failure C. * Brain affections D. Myocarditis E. Thyrotoxicosis 227. During examination of patient’s pulse a student revealed bradycardia. Rare pulse is observed in the case of: A. Increased body temperature B. Heart insufficiency C. * Hypothyreosis D. Myocarditis E. Thyrotoxicosis 228. During examination of patient’s pulse a student revealed tachycardia. Tachycarida is observed in the case of: A. Narrowing of aortic aperture B. Hunger C. Brain affection D. * Fever E. Jaundice 229. During examination of patient’s pulse a student revealed tachycardia. Tachycarida is observed in the case of: A. Narrowing of aortic aperture B. Hunger C. Brain affection D. * Thyrotoxicosis E. Jaundice 230. During examination of patient’s pulse a student revealed tachycardia. Tachycarida is observed in the case of: A. Narrowing of aortic aperture B. Hunger C. Brain affection D. * Decompensation of heart failure E. Jaundice 231. How apex beat will be changed in aortal valve defects? A. Low B. Reduced C. Negative D. * Diffuse E. Not changed 232. How apex beat will be changed in arterial hypertension? A. Low B. Reduced C. Negative D. Not changed E. * Diffuse 233. How apex beat will be changed in chronic left ventricular heart failure? A. Low B. Reduced C. Negative D. Not changed E. * Resistant 234. How apex beat will be changed in mitral stenosis? A. Not changed B. * Reduced C. Negative D. Diffuse E. Resistant 235. How the square of absolute cardiac dullness will change in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease with pulmonary emphysema? A. The square of absolute cardiac dullness will not change B. The square of absolute cardiac dullness will increase C. * The square of absolute cardiac dullness will decrease D. The square of absolute cardiac dullness decrease and then turns to be normal E. Not changed 236. How the square of absolute cardiac dullness will change in bronchial asthma attack in patient with mild course of the disease ? A. The square of absolute cardiac dullness will not change B. The square of absolute cardiac dullness will increase C. The square of absolute cardiac dullness will decrease D. * The square of absolute cardiac dullness decreases during attack and normalises aftr finish of attack E. Not changed 237. If the left border of relative cardiac dullness is located on 2 cm laterally from the left midclavicular line – it means … A. Compensatory emphysema of the right lung B. Hyperthrophy of the right ventricle C. Enlargement of the left atrium D. Normal location of the border E. * Enlargement of the left ventricle 238. If the right border of relative cardiac dullness is located on 3 cm laterally from the right sternal border – it means … A. Compensatory emphysema of the right lung B. Hyperthrophy of the right ventricle C. * Enlargement of the right ventricle D. Enlargement of the left atrium E. Normal location of the border 239. In which disease apex beat may be found in IV interspace 3 cm medially from left midclavicular line? A. Cardioneurosis B. Angina pectoris C. Arterial hypertension D. * Mitral stenosis E. No correct answer 240. In which disease apex beat may be found in VI interspace on anterior axillary line? A. Cardioneurosis B. Angina pectoris C. * Arterial hypertension D. Mitral stenosis E. No correct answer 241. In which disease apex beat may be found in VI interspace on anterior axillary line? A. Cardioneurosis B. Angina pectoris C. * Aortal stenosis D. Mitral stenosis E. No correct answer 242. In which disease apex beat may be found in VI interspace on anterior axillary line? A. Cardioneurosis B. Angina pectoris C. * Heart failure D. Mitral stenosis E. No correct answer 243. Pulse of different filling on both arms is typical for: A. Incompetence of aortal valve B. Stenosis of aortal valve C. * Incompetence of mitral valve with dilataion of the left atrium D. Combined aortal defect E. No correct answer 244. What characteristics of pain in the case of cardioneurosis? A. Burning, lasts by hours, days B. Intensive pain irradiating to spinal cord and along aorta C. * Pressing, burning pain at heart apex, disappears after taking of validol or nitroglycerin D. Retrosternal, burning paine, irradiates to the left hand, disappears after taking of Validol or nitroglycerin E. Stubbing pain in precordium, does not irradiate 245. What characteristics of pain in the case of dissecting aortal aneurism? A. Burning, lasts by hours, days B. * Intensive pain irradiating to spinal cord and along aorta C. Pressing, burning pain at heart apex, disappears after taking of validol or nitroglycerin D. Retrosternal, burning paine, irradiates to the left hand, disappears after taking of validol or other sedatives E. Stubbing pain in precordium, does not irradiate 246. What characteristics of pain in the case of myocardial infarction? A. Burning, lasts by hours, days B. Dull, diffuse ache, irradiates to the left hand C. * Pressing, burning, irradiates to the left hand, does not disappear after taking of Validol or nitroglycerin, lasts for some days D. Retrosternal, burning paine, irradiates to the left hand, disappears after taking of validol or nitroglycerin, lasts for 15 minutes E. Stubbing pain in precordium, does not irradiate 247. What characteristics of pain in the case of myocarditis? A. * Permament dull boring pain,which intensifies in physical load B. Dull, diffuse ache, irradiates to the left hand C. Pressing, burning, irradiates to the left hand, does not disappears after taking of validol or nitroglycerin D. Retrosternal, burning paine, irradiates to the left hand, disappears after taking of validol or nitroglycerin E. Stubbing pain in precordium, does not irradiate 248. What characteristics of pain in the case of pericarditis? A. Burning, lasts by hours, days B. Dull, diffuse ache, irradiates to the left hand C. Pressing, burning, irradiates to the left hand, does not disappears after taking of validol or nitroglycerin D. Retrosternal, burning paine, irradiates to the left hand, disappears after taking of validol or nitroglycerin E. * Stubbing pain in precordium, synchronous with heart contractions, does not irradiate 249. What characteristics of pain in the case of angina pectoris attack? A. Burning, lasts by hours, days B. Dull, diffuse ache, irradiates to the left hand C. Pressing, burning, irradiates to the left hand, does not disappears after taking of validol or nitroglycerin D. * Retrosternal, burning paine, irradiates to the left hand, disappears after taking of validol or nitroglycerin E. Aching pain in one point of precordium, does not irradiate 250. Which complaints of patients with heart diseases are caused by increased blood pressure in systemic circulation? A. dizziness, headache B. flickering before eyes, hum in ears C. * all mentioned D. dyspnea, cough, asthma, blood spitting E. nausea, vomiting 251. In a healthy person, 25 years old, blood pressure was found 120/80 mm Hg on the brachial artery. What data of blood pressure should you expect on the legs? A. 100-120/70-80 B. 120-140/80-90 C. * 140-150/90-100 D. 150-160/100-110 E. 160-180/110-120 252. Data of percussion of patient’s heart: the borders of relative heart dullness: the right is 2,5 cm laterally from the right edge of the sternum, the left one is on 1.5 cm medially from midclavicular line, the upper one is at the upper edge of the III rib. The borders of absolute heart dullness are as follows: the right is at the left edge of the sternum, the left one is 1 cm medially from the relative one, the upper one is on the level of the IV rib. Which pathological condition are these signs typical for? A. Enlargement of the left ventricle B. * Enlargement of the right ventricle C. Enlargement of the left atrium D. Norm E. All answers are wrong 253. Data of percussion of patient’s heart: the borders of relative heart dullness: the right is on 1 cm laterally from the right edge of the sternum, the left one is on 0.5 cm laterally from midclavicular line, the upper one is at the upper edge of the III rib. The borders of absolute heart dullness are as follows: the right is at the left edge of the sternum, the left one is 1 cm medially from the relative one, the upper one is on the level of the IV rib. Which these signs are typical for? A. * Enlargement of the left ventricle B. Enlargement of the right ventricle C. Enlargement of the left atrium D. Enlargement of the right atrium E. Norm 254. Data of percussion of patient’s heart: the borders of relative heart dullness: the right is on 1 cm laterally from the right edge of the sternum, the left one is on 1.5 cm medially from midclavicular line, the upper one is at the upper edge of the II rib. The borders of absolute heart dullness are as follows: the right is at the left edge of the sternum, the left one is on the left midclavicular line, the upper one is on the level of the IV rib. Which these signs are typical for? A. Enlargement of the left ventricle B. Enlargement of the right ventricle C. * Enlargement of the left atrium D. Enlargement of the right atrium E. Norm 255. During general inspection of a patient the specific cyanotic color of his lips, as well as skin pallor with yellowish tint and flash on the cheeks were revealed. What pathological condition are thеse signs typical for? A. * Mitral stenosis B. Aortal stenosis C. Septic endocarditis D. Rheumatic fever E. Hypertonic crisis 256. During general inspection of patient К. a doctor had noticed specific light-brown colouring of patient’s skin (“coffee with milk”). Petechial hemorrhagic rash is observed on conjunctivas and skin of the trunk (Lukin’s symptom). What pathological condition are these data typical for? A. Angina pectoris B. Myocardial infarction C. * Septic endocarditis D. Rheumatic fever E. Hypertonic crisis 257. Patient A., a woman of 67 years old, complains of attacks of retrosternal pain, dyspnea in physical load and in rest. Data of examination: the face is pale, cyanosis of lips, edema on the legs. The absolute heart dullness borders are as follows: the right – at the right edge of the sternum, the left –2 cm laterally from midclavisular line in VI intercostal space, the upper – at the cartilage of the IV rib on the right parasternal line. What is the probably reason for the pain? A. Ischemic heart disease B. * Left ventricular hyperthrophy and relative coronary insufficiency C. Pneumonia D. Pneumothorax E. No any of mentioned above 258. Patient L., 75 years old, suffers with atherosclerosis. Aortic valve stenosis was diagnosed. What change of pulse filling is typical for this pathology? A. Increased B. * Decreased C. Different D. Not changed E. All mentilned above 259. Patient L., 75 years old, suffers with atherosclerosis. Atrial fibrillation was diagnosed. What change of pulse filling is typical for this pathology? A. Increased B. Decreased C. * Different D. Not changed E. All mentilned above 260. Patient L., 75 years, suffers with atherosclerosis. The aortic valve incompletence was diagnosed. What change of pulse filling is typical for this pathology? A. * Increased B. Decreased C. Different D. Not changed E. All mentilned above 261. Patient M., 22 years old, suffers with rheumatic heart disease since childhood. By inspection it was revealed movements of his head in anterioposterior direction synchronous with cardiac beats, the skin is pallid. Pulsation of carotic arteries is present on the neck. How is this phenomenon called? A. norm B. * ”Carotic shudder” C. Kurvuazie’s sign D. Koher’s sign E. any answer is correct 262. Patient P. is sufferind with hypertension of І stage (blood pressure -140/90 mm Hg). After intramuscular injection of medicamentous preparation suddenly abrupt skin paleness appeard, and the patient had lost consciousness. Data of inspection: blood pressure is 90/50 mm of Hg, tachycardia. What patological condition has developed? A. * Collapse B. Shock C. Hypertonic crisis D. Heart attack E. Bronchospasm 263. Patient S. with heart failure developed edema. Why cardiac edema is always located on the lower parts of patient’s body? A. Due to decrease of oncotic pressure of the blood B. Due to decrease of hydrostatic pressure in the vascular bed C. * Due to increase of hydrostatic pressure in the leg veins, slowing of blood flow, especially in the lower parts of patient’s body D. Due to increase concentration of antidiuretic hormone E. Due to increase concentration of aldosterone 264. Patient D., 70 years old, is on long-standing treatment in therapeutic department because of ischemic heart disease. He tends to sit with the lowered legs. What position does take place in this case? A. Passive B. Active C. Forced passive D. * Ortopnoe E. Horizontal 265. Patient К., 37 years old, is occupying a forced posture: he is sitting, and bending forward. Data of general inspection: cyanosis, edema on the face, hands and neck, as well as swelling of jugular veins (Stock’s symptom). What pathological condition are these signs typical for? A. Mitral stenosis B. * Exudative pericarditis C. Septic endocarditis D. Rheumatic fever E. Hypertonic crisis 266. Patient К. was hospitalised to the therapeutic department of a clinic with disease of a heart. His pulse is irregular and of different filling and tension, pulse waves come after each othe in absolutelly different periods of time. What kind of arhythmia is such a pulse typical for? A. Sinus arrhythmia B. * Atrial fibrillation C. Ventricular fibrillation D. AV block E. Normal findings 267. The patient’s condition is severe. During general inspection marked acrocyanosis as well as swelling of crues, feet were revealed. Swelling of neck veins is observed. The liver is enlarged, symptom of “drum-type rodes”,. “the watch glasses” are present. What syndrome are these symptoms typical for? A. Syndrome of the left ventricular failure B. * Syndrome of the right ventricular failure C. Syndrome heart rrhythm disorders D. Acute coronary syndrome E. Syndrome of vascular insufficiency 268. The borders of patient’s absolute heart dullness show its enlargement: the right border is at mediane line, the left one is 1 cm medially of the left midclavicular line, the upper one is on the level of the V rib. What may be a reason of these changes? A. * Retrocardial tumour B. Left-sided pleural effuion C. Right-sided pleural effuion D. Acute pulmonary emphysema E. Normal data 269. During examination of patient S. aortal stenosis was revealed. The patient complains of headache, periodical dizziness. Skin palenes is visible as well as carotic arteries pulsation. How the heart borders may change? A. Displacement of right border of relative cardiac dullness rightward B. * Displacement of the left heart border of relative cardiac dullness leftward C. Displacement of the upper heart border of relative cardiac dullness upward D. Displacement of the left heart border of relative cardiac dullness leftward, the right border – rightward and the upper one – upward E. Displacement of the right heart border of relative cardiac dullness rightward and the upper one – upward 270. During general inspection of a patient the specific face appearance was revealed with sticky eyes, opened mouth and expression of suffer and tiredeness (Corvisar’s face). What pathological condition are thеse signs typical for? A. * Chronic heart failure B. Acute left ventricular heart failure C. Septic endocarditis D. Rheumatic fever E. Hypertonic crisis 271. During general inspection of a patient the specific face appearance was revealed with sticky eyes, opened mouth and expression of suffer and tiredeness. How is this facial expression called? A. * Corvisar’s face B. Mitral face C. Basedovic face D. Myxedematous face E. Hippocratic face 272. During general inspection of patient К. a doctor had noticed specific light-brown colouring of patient’s skin (“coffee with milk”). Septic endocarditis was diagnosed. Which skin rash is possible to reveal in this disease? A. * Petechial hemorrhagic rash on conjunctivas and skin of the trunk B. Erythema annulare C. Erythema nodosum D. Nettle rash E. No rash 273. During general inspection of patient К. petechial hemorrhagic rash on conjunctivas and skin of the trunk was revealed. Which skin color is it possible to reveal in this disease? A. * Light-brown (like “coffee with milk”) B. Erythema C. Cyanosis D. Yellow E. Pink 274. During general inspection of patient К. with rheumatic fever a doctor revealed specific rash on his skin. Whish type of rash is typical for rheumatic fever? A. Petechial hemorrhagic rash on conjunctivas and skin of the trunk. B. * Erythema annulare C. Papulas D. Nettle rash E. No rash 275. Patient D., 70 years old, is on long-standing treatment in therapeutic department because of rheumatic fever with pericardial effusion. What forced position is typical in this case? A. Tends to sit with the lowered legs B. * Tends to sit bending forward C. Horizontal position D. On the left side E. Forced position is not typical 276. Patient M., 22 years old, suffers with rheumatic heart disease since childhood. By inspection there were revealed movements of his head in anterioposterior direction. How is this sign called? A. ”Carotic shudder” B. *Musse’s sign C. Koher’s sign D. Durosier’s sign E. Botkin-Erb’s sign 277. Patient M., 72 years old, suffers with atherosclerosis. He complains of headache and periodical dizziness. By inspection it was revealed movements of his head in anterioposterior direction and pulsation of carotic arteries. Heart valvular defect is diagnosed by auscultation and ultrasound examination. Which skin color is it possible to expect in this patient? A. * Paleness B. Hyperemia C. Cyanosis D. Yellow E. Pink 278. Patient К. was hospitalised ito the therapeutic department of a clinic with disease of a heart. His pulse is irregular. Each second wave is of decreased filling. How is this pulse called? A. Dull pulse B. * Pulsus alternans C. Thready pulse D. Mild pulse E. Dictotic pulse 279. During general inspection edema on patient’s legs was revealed. Edema occurs in the evening, skin above it is cyanotic, cold and dense. Which pathology is this edema typical for? A. Liver cirrhosis B. Hypopropeinaemia on fasting C. Renal failure D. * Heart failure E. Normal finding 280. A patient suffers from heart failure. What is the typical characteristics of cyanosis in cardiovascular system disturbances? A. Central cyanosis is typical for these disturbances B. * It is located on distal parts of patient’s body (acrocyanosis) C. Cyanosis of the affected part of patient’s body D. Cyanosis on limbs which occurs in cold E. All mentioned above 281. A patient with rheumatic fever developed pericarditis. A doctor during auscultation has found murmur in precordial region located leftwards in the third - fourth intercostal spaces between medioclavicular and anterior axillary lines, it is heard very close to the ear of the examiner. The examiner supposed pleuropericardial friction murmur in the patient. Select typical sign of pleuropericardial friction murmur: A. * Corresponds to respiration and heart rate B. Intensifies if the patient declines forward C. Intensifies if to press the bell of the stethoscope tightly the chest wall D. Intensifies if the patient rises his hands up E. Intensifies if the patient performes some excersises 282. At inspection of patient R., 29 years old, paleness of the skin and mucosa, capillary “carotide shudder” were revealed. Data of auscultation: the I sound at the apex and the 2nd sound at the aorta are weakened, protodiastolic murmur. The examiner supposes aortal incompetence in the patient. Which maneur may help in recognition of the disease? A. To ask the patient to breath deeply, to inhale and stop breathing B. To ask the patient to decline forward or to press the bell of the stethoscope tightly the chest wall C. * To ask the patient to rise his hands up D. To ask the patient to perform some excersises E. No any maneur is used 283. Data of auscultation of a heart: near the left edge of the sternum in third - fourth intercostal spaces the changeble murmur is listened. The murmur is synchronous with heart contractions. The examiner supposes pericardial friction sound in the patient. Which maneur may help in recognition of the murmur? A. To ask the patient to breath deeply, to inhale and stop breathing B. * To ask the patient to decline forward C. To ask the patient to rise his hands up D. To ask the patient to perform some excersises E. No any maneur is used 284. Data of auscultation of a heart: near the left edge of the sternum in third - fourth intercostal spaces the changeble murmur is listened. The murmur is synchronous with heart contractions. The examiner supposes pleuropericardial friction sound in the patient. Which maneur may help in recognition of the murmur? A. * To ask the patient to breath deeply or to inhale and stop breathing B. To ask the patient to decline forward or to press the bell of the stethoscope tightly the chest wall C. To ask the patient to rise his hands up D. To ask the patient to perform some excersises E. No any maneur is used 285. During examination of patient’s heart a student has felt diastolic thrill at heart apex. Diastolic thrill at heart apex is the equivalent of: A. Respiratory movements B. Contraction of the left ventricle C. Contraction of the right ventricle D. Systolic murmur in aortal stenosis E. * Diastolic murmur of mitral stenosis 286. During examination of a patient with mitral stenosis slupping Ist heart sound is heard as well as acentuation of II sound and its split at pulmonary artery, opening snup sound, diastolic murmur. Which among presented fenomena belong to tripple rrhythm? A. * Slupping I sound, acentuation of II sound at pulmonary artery, opening snup sound. B. Slupping I sound, opening snup sound, diastolic murmur C. Acentuation of II sound pulmonary artery, opening snup sound D. Slupping I sound, opening snup sound E. Slupping I sound, II sound split at pulmonary artery, opening snup sound 287. During examination of patient S. aortal incompetence was revealed. The patient complains of headache, periodical dizziness. Skin palenes is visible as well as pulsation of carotic arteries. Which auscultaroty penomenon may be heard on femoral arteries? A. * Double Traube’s sound B. Systolic murmur C. Diastolic murmur D. Musse’s sign E. Tripple rrhythm 288. During examination of patient S. aortal incompetence was revealed. The patient complains of headache, periodical dizziness, skin palenes is visible as well as carotic arteries pulsation. A doctor is listening to patient’s femoral arteries by presing femoral artery with phonendoscope. Which auscultaroty penomenon is he cheking for? A. * Durosier’s murmur B. Systolic murmur C. Diastolic murmur D. Musse’s sign E. Tripple rrhythm 289. During inspection, palpation, percussion and auscultation of a patient the congestion in his lungs is revealed, which is caused by severe left ventricular failure. Which adventitious heart sounds may be auscultated at the apex of the patient’s heart? A. I heart sound, B. II heart sound C. Opening snup sound, D. Pericardial click E. * III heart sound 290. In a patient who is being on long-standing treatment because of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, enlargement of the right ventricle and pulmonary hypertension are revealed by ultrasound examiation of a heart. What auscultation data is it possible to expect? A. Intensification of 1st heart sound at the apex. B. * Accentuation of the II sound at the pulmonary artery. C. Systolic murmur at Botkin-Erb’s point. D. Diastolic murmur at the xyphoid process. E. Systolic murmur at the 2nd intercostal space rightwards of the sternum. 291. In patient C. mitral valvular incompetence and left ventricular hypertrophy were diagnosed. Indicate, please, expected changes of the heart borders position. A. Displacement of right border of relative cardiac dullness rightward, B. Displacement of the left heart border of relative cardiac dullness leftward C. Displacement of the upper heart border of relative cardiac dullness upward, D. * Displacement of the left heart border of relative cardiac dullness leftward, the upper heart border of relative cardiac dullness upward E. Displacement of the right heart border of relative cardiac dullness rightward and the upper one – upward. 292. In patient C. mitral valvular incompetence with right ventricular failure was diagnosed. Indicate, please, expected changes of the heart borders position. A. Displacement of right border of relative cardiac dullness rightward, B. Displacement of the left heart border of relative cardiac dullness leftward C. Displacement of the upper heart border of relative cardiac dullness upward, D. * Displacement of the left heart border of relative cardiac dullness leftward, the upper heart border of relative cardiac dullness upward, the right heart border of relative cardiac dullness rightward E. Displacement of the right heart border of relative cardiac dullness rightward and the upper one – upward. 293. In patient C. with aortal heart defect systolic thrill in the ІІ intercostal space of the right chest was determined by palpation while diastolic murmur – by auscultation. Indicate, please, data of auscultation of femoral artery. A. * Flint’s murmur, doble Traube’s sound. B. Kumb's murmur C. Systolic murmur. D. Intermittent pulse. E. Paradoxic pulse. 294. In patient S. whith mitral heart defect intensified І sound above the heart apex is heard. Signs of right ventricular failure are present in the patient (edema on lower limbs, hepatomegaly, jugular veins swelling). Which finding is it possible to hear over pulmonary artery? A. Systolic murmur B. Diastolic murmur C. Slapping I sound D. Weakened I sound E. * Accentuation of ІІ heart sound or (an) its split 295. The changeable murmur is auscultated leftwards in the third - fourth intercostal spaces between medioclavicular and anterior axillary lines, it is heard very close to the ear of the examiner. The murmur intensifies at deep inspiration, corresponds to respiration and heart rate. What is this murmur? A. Systolic murmur B. Diastolic murmur C. Pericardial friction murmur D. * Pleuropericardial friction murmur E. No any of them 296. 48-aged patient has chronic obstructive bronchitis, lung emphysema, diffuse pneumosclerosis. ECG investigation showed in him: Рп.ш is more than 2,5 mm; in V1 and V2 QRS is of qR-type (large R wave); interval S-T is displaced downwards to 1-2 mm and negative, QRS in v5.6 is of RS shape. What that ECG changes indicate on? A. Hypertrophy of the left ventricle, B. Hypertrophy of the right ventricle, C. Hypertrophy of the left atrium, D. Hypertrophy of the left atrium, E. * Hypertrophy of the right ventricle and atrium 297. Data of auscultation of a heart: near the left edge of the sternum in third - fourth intercostal spaces the changeable murmur is listened which is heard very close to the ear of the examiner, strengthens at inclination of the patient’s trunk forward and if to press the bell of the stethoscope to the chest wall. The murmur is synchronous with heart contractions. What kind of murmur is present? A. Systolic murmur B. Diastolic murmur C. * Pericardial friction murmur D. Pleuropericardial friction murmur E. No any of them 298. Data of ECG: rrythm is sinus, regular, heart rate is 60 per min. Voltage is decreased. Electrical axis is vertical. What is the angle ά in this case? A. 0-30 degree B. 30-70 degree C. * 71-90 degree D. 91-180 degree E. 0-(-30) degree 299. Data of ultrasound examination of a heart: widening of aortic rout, sickness and calcification of its walls. What pathological condition is present in the patient? A. Aortitis B. * Atherosclerotic affection of aortoa C. Myocarditis D. Syphilitic mesaortitis E. Calcinosis 300. During analysis of ECG a student has made conclusion that electrical heart axis is deviated leftwards. What signs are necessary to find out in ECG standard leads to make such a conclusion? A. * In the I standard lead wave R is the highest while in the III the – wave S is the deepest. B. In the III standard lead wave R is the highest while in the I the – wave S is the deepest. C. Wave R is the highest in the I standard lead. D. Wave R is the highest in the II standard lead E. Wave R is the highest in the III standard lead 301. During examination of a patient with mitral stenosis the following auscultation picture was revealed: the heart sounds are weakened, tachycardia, specific rrhythm is heard at the apex which is better auscultated when the patient is lying on the left side. How such a rhythm is called? A. Presystolic gallop rrhythm, B. Protodiastolic gallop rrhythm C. Mezodiastolic gallop rrhythm D. Pendulum rrhythm E. * Tripple rrhythm 302. During examination of a patient’s heart the following auscultation picture was revealed: the heart sounds are weakened, tachycardia, tripple rrhythm is heard at the apex which is better auscultated when the patient is lying on the left side. In which pathology does it occur? A. * Stenosis of mitral orifice B. Stenosis of aortic orifice C. Aortic incompetence D. Stenosis of pulmonary artery E. Tricuspid valve incompetence 303. During inspection, palpation, percussion and auscultation of a patient the congestion in his lungs is revealed, which is caused by severe left ventricular failure. Which adventitious heart sound may be auscultated at the apex of the patient’s heart? A. I heart sound, B. II heart sound C. Opening snup sound, D. Pericardial click E. * IV heart sound 304. During inspection, palpation, percussion and auscultation of a patient the congestion in his lungs is revealed, which is caused by severe left ventricular failure. Which adventitious heart sound may be auscultated at the apex of the patient’s heart? A. I heart sound B. II heart sound C. * III and IV heart sounds D. Opening snup sound E. Pericardial click 305. Evaluate such correlation of the waves: Wave P is present before each complex QRS, it is maximal in II standart leads, diffenetce of RR intervals is not more than 0,10 - 0,15 sec; heart rate is 60-90 per minute. A. Hypertrophy of the left ventricle, B. Hypertrophy of the right ventricle, C. Ectopic rrhythm, D. Heart block, E. * Normal sinus rrhythm 306. Evaluate such correlation of the waves: Wave P is present before each complex QRS, it is maximal in I standart lead, diffenetce of RR intervals is less than 0,10 - 0,15 sec; heart rate is 60- 90 per minute. A. * Hypertrophy of the left ventricle, B. Hypertrophy of the right ventricle, C. Ectopic rrhythm, D. Heart block, E. Normal sinus rrhythm. 307. In a patient weakened first and second heart sounds are recorded, rasping systolic murmur is auscultated in the second intercostal space rightwards from the sternum which is conducted to arotic and subclavial arteries. What heart defect are conduction of the murmur typical for? A. Stenosis of mitral orifice B. * Stenosis of aortic orifice C. Pulmonary trunk valve incompetence; D. Stenosis of pulmonary artery; E. Tricuspid valve incompetence 308. In patient C. with aortal incompetence systolic thrill in the ІІ intercostal space of the right chest was determined. Indicate, please, expected changes of his blood pressure. A. Low systolic and diastolic B. High systolic and diastolic C. High systolic and low diastolic D. * Low systolic and high diastolic E. No changes. 309. In patient C. with aortal stenosis systolic thrill in the ІІ intercostal space of the right chest was determined. Indicate, please, expected changes of his pulse. A. * Low and slow B. Quick and high C. Irregular D. Of different filling and tension E. Without changes. 310. In patient C. with aortal stenosis systolic thrill in the ІІ intercostal space of the right chest was determined. Indicate, please, expected changes of the heart borders position. A. Displacement of right border of relative cardiac dullness rightward, B. * Displacement of the left heart border of relative cardiac dullness leftward C. Displacement of the upper heart border of relative cardiac dullness upward, D. Displacement of the left heart border of relative cardiac dullness leftward, the right border – rightward, E. Displacement of the right heart border of relative cardiac dullness rightward and the upper one – upward. 311. In patient S. the slapping І sound above the heart apex is heard as well as opening snup sound and slapping ІІ heart sound above pulmonary artery. Pulse deficiency is 15 per minute. What kind of disease is it possible to reveal in that case? A. Mirtal incompletence B. * Mitral stenosis C. Aortal incompletence D. Stenosis of ostium of aorta E. Hypertension 312. In patient S. the slapping І sound above the heart apex is heard as well as a slapping and reduplicated ІІ heart sound above the pulmonary artery. Pulse deficiency is 15 per minute. Mitral stenosis was diagnosed. What cardiac murmur is it possible to reveal by auscultation? A. Systolic at aortal valve, B. Diastolic at Botkin-Erb’s point C. Systolic at heart apex D. Diastolic at aortal valve E. * Diastolic at heart apex 313. One the phonocardiogram of a patient with acquired valvular heart disease the diamond- shaped systolic murmur is registered with maximal amplitude in II interspace rightward of the sternum. Which heart valvular defect this murmur is typical for? A. Aortal incompetence, B. Mitral incompetence, C. * Aortal stenosis D. Mitral stenosis, E. Tricuspidal stenosis. 314. In patient A., 32 y.o., eho suffers fromsevere anemia, attending doctor has revealed relative heart murmur during auscultation. Organic systolic murmur differs from the relative one because it: A. Depends on a phase of respiration B. Is blowing, mild and low in pitch C. Varies at exertion D. * Is conducted to other parts of a body E. Is heard at all points of auscultation 315. Patient O., 40 years old, was admitted to the clinic because of hypertension of the II stage. Data of ECG: R1>RII>RIII. RV6>RV5>RV4, SIII>SII>SI. What do these data testify about? A. Hypertrophy of the right ventricle B. * Hypertrophy of the left ventricle C. Block of the right bundlebranch of Hiss D. Block of the left bundlebranch of Hiss E. Subepicardial ischemia 316. Patient O.,40 years old, complains of faints and frequent attacks of dizziness. From patient’s anamnesis: she had attack of rheumatic fever 20 years ago. The signs of aortic stenosis are revealed by examination. What kind of murmur is typical for this disease? A. * Systolic. B. Presystolic. C. Mesodiastolic. D. Protodiastolic. E. Holodiastolic. 317. The patient’s heart is extended leftward, upwards and rightwards; slapping I sound is heard at the apex as well as II sound and adventitious heart sound that together create triple rrhythm. What obvious component of triple rrhythm was not named? A. I heart sound, B. II heart sound C. III heart sound D. * Opening snup sound E. Pericardial click 318. The patient L., 75 years old, suffers from atherosclerosis. The aortic valve incompletence was diagnosed. What auscultatory phenomenon is it possible to listen to on the femoral artery? A. Systolic sound, B. Diastolic sound, C. * Double Traube’s sound D. Opening snup sound, E. No any sounds 319. The patient L., 75 years, suffers from atherosclerosis. The aortic valve incompletence was diagnosed. What murmur is it possible to listen to on the femoral artery? A. Systolic B. Diastolic C. * Double Durozier’s murmur D. Nunt’s murmur, E. No any murmur. 320. The patient L., 75 years old, suffers from rheumathic heart disease. The mitral stenosis was diagnosed. What adventitious heart sound is it possible to listen to by auscultation of his heart? A. III heart sound, B. IV heart sound, C. Pericardial click sound D. * Opening snup sound E. No any sounds 321. The patient with diagnosis “arterial hypertension” is 64 years old. His ECG data are the following: increased wave R in leads V5-6 and deep wave S v1v2, segment ST is displaced downward in left leads. What that ECG changes indicate on? A. * Hypertrophy of the left ventricle B. Hypertrophy of the right ventricle, C. Hypertrophy of the left atrium, D. Hypertrophy of the left atrium, E. Hypertrophy of the right ventricle and atrium. 322. Data of auscultation of a heart: near the left edge of the sternum in third - fourth intercostal spaces the changeble murmur is listened. The murmur is synchronous with heart contractions. The examiner supposes pericardial friction sound in the patient. Which maneur may help in recognition of the murmur? A. To ask the patient to breath deeply, to inhale and stop breathing B. * To press the bell of the stethoscope tightly patient’s chest wall C. To ask the patient to rise his hands up D. To ask the patient to perform some excersises E. No any maneur is used 323. During examination of patient’s heart a student has felt systolic thrill at the basis of patient’s heart. Systolic thrill is the equivalent of: A. Respiratory movements B. Contraction of the left ventricle C. Contraction of the right ventricle D. * Systolic murmur in aortal stenosis E. Diastolic murmur of mitral stenosis 324. During examination of patient S. aortal incompetence was revealed. The patient complains of headache, periodical dizziness. Skin palenes is visible as well as pulsation of carotic arteries. Which auscultaroty penomenon may be heard on femoral arteries? A. * Double Durozier’s murmur B. Systolic murmur C. Diastolic murmur D. Musse’s sign E. Tripple rrhythm 325. In patient C. aortal incompetence was determined. Indicate, please, expected changes of his blood pressure. A. Low systolic and diastolic B. High systolic and diastolic C. * High systolic and low diastolic D. Low systolic and high diastolic E. No changes. 326. In patient C. aortal incompetence was determined. Indicate, please, expected changes of his pulse. A. Low and slow B. * Quick and high C. Irregular D. Of different filling and tension E. Without changes. 327. In patient S. weakened І sound above the heart apex is heard. Mitral incompetence was diagnosed. What cardiac murmur is it possible to reveal by auscultation? A. Systolic at aortal valve, B. Diastolic at Botkin-Erb’s point C. * Systolic at heart apex D. Diastolic at aortal valve E. Diastolic at heart apex 328. In patient S. weakened I and II heart sounds are heard as well as murmur in II intercostal space rightward of the sternum. Aortal stenosis was diagnosed. What cardiac murmur is it possible to reveal by auscultation? A. * Systolic at aortal valve, B. Diastolic at Botkin-Erb’s point C. Systolic at heart apex D. Diastolic at aortal valve E. Diastolic at heart apex 329. In patient S. weakened I and II heart sounds are heard as well as murmur in Botkin-Erb’s point. Aortal incompetence was diagnosed. What cardiac murmur is it possible to reveal by auscultation? A. Systolic at aortal valve, B. *Diastolic at Botkin-Erb’s point C. Systolic at heart apex D. Diastolic at aortal valve E. Diastolic at heart apex 330. Assess the following data of stomach probing: basal secretion: total acidity - 10 mmol/l; free НСІ - 5 mmol/l; combined НСІ - 1 mmol/l; debit-hour – 0,5 mmol/l. It is typical for: A. * Hypoacidity B. Hyperacidity C. Norm D. Achilia E. No any answer is correct 331. A doctor has performed deep sliding palpation of patient’s intestine. In the norm the length of sigmoid intestine is equal to: A. * 20-25 сm B. 15-20 сm C. 5-10 сm D. 10-15 сm E. 30-40 сm 332. A doctor has performed deep sliding palpation of patient’s intestine. Which part of the intestine is is necessary to examine after caecum? A. Sigmoid intestine B. Descending part of colon C. Transverse part of colon D. Appendix E. * Terminal part of ileum 333. A doctor has performed deep sliding palpation of patient’s stomach. Small stomach curve may be revealed by palpation: A. In norm B. * In gastroptosis C. In enlargement of a stomach D. When stomach is small E. In ematiation 334. A doctor has performed deep sliding palpation of patient’s stomach. In the norm stomach lower border is situated: A. 2-3 сm below the navel B. * 2-3 сm above the navel C. At the level of the navel D. At xyphoid process E. 1-2 сm below the navel 335. A doctor has performed deep sliding palpation of patient’s intestine. Which part of the intestine is is necessary to examine first of all? A. Caecum B. Transverse colon C. * Sigmoid colon D. Ascending colon E. Descending colon 336. A doctor has performed deep sliding palpation of patient’s intestine. What is normal diameter of caecum? A. 1-2 сm B. 2-3 сm C. * 3-4 сm D. 5-6 сm E. 6-7 сm 337. A doctor has performed deep sliding palpation of patient’s intestine. Which part of the intestine is it necessary to examine after caecum? A. Appendix B. terminal part of ileum C. Ascending colon D. * Caecum E. Transverse colon 338. A doctor performs deep sliding palpation of patient’s intestine. Which part of the intestine is examined in the last order? A. Caecum B. Descending colon C. * Transverse colon D. Appendix E. Terminal part of ileum 339. A patient complaints of pain in epigastrium which intensifies after intake of spicy food. Sometimes he develops vomiting with previous nausea. Affection of which part of digestive tract should you suspect? A. Esophagus B. Gallbladder C. *Stomach D. Large intestine E. Liver 340. A patient developed symptomes: loss of appetite, disgust to meat, nausea, loss of body weight, feeling of stomach overdistension after meals, depression. These signs indicate on: A. Chronic gastritis B. Acute gastritis C. * Cancer of the stomach D. Acute pancreatitis E. Stomsch ulcer 341. A patient developed vomiting with undigested food immediatelly after meals without previous nausea. Vomiting usually occurs if the patients decline forward. Affection of which part of digestive tract should you suspect? A. * Esophagus B. Stomach C. Duodenum D. Small intestine E. Large intestine 342. A patient is troubled with nght hunger pain in epigasrium, nausea and heartburn. Which method is the most informative in verification of diagnosis? A. Plane X-ray of abdominal organs B. * Esophagogastroduodenoscopy C. Ultrasound examination D. Colonoscopy E. Rectoromanoscopy 343. A student is determining position of stomach lower border by palpation. He put the right hand 3 cm below xyphoid process revealed by palpation elastic cylinder 2 cm length which is slightly movable and painless, does not produce rumbling sounds. What the organ is this? A. Pylorus B. Duodenum C. * Transverse colon D. Pancreas E. Small stomach curve 344. Assess the following data of stomach probing: basal secretion: total acidity - 50 mmol/l; free НСІ - 30 mmol/l; combined НСІ - 10 mmol/l; debit-hour - 3 mmol/l. It is typical for: A. Hypoacidity B. Hyperacidity C. * Norm D. Achilia E. No any answer is correct 345. Assess the following data of stomach probing: basal secretion: total acidity - 0 mmol/l; free НСІ - 0 mmol/l; combined НСІ - 0 mmol/l; debit-hour – 0 mmol/l. It is typical for: A. Hypoacidity B. Hyperacidity C. Norm D. * Achilia E. No any answer is correct 346. By percussion of a liver by Kurlov’s method the following liver sizes were revealed: 12 х 10 х 9 cm. It may be present in all pathological conditions except of: A. Chronic hepatitis B. Liver cirrhosis C. Liver cancer D. Heart failure E. * Cholecystitis 347. Data of examination of a patient: sclera a slightly yellow, "spider angiomata" on the skin, palmary erytema, laffing off hairs, dilatation of veins of abdominal wall. Affection of which organ may you suspect? A. Gallbladder B. * Liver C. Intestine D. Pancreas E. Spleen 348. Data of rectoromanoscopy: mucosa of proctosigmoid part of the intestine is pink, lustrous, smooth with visible non-dilated vessels. What is your interpretation of these data? A. Chronic proctitis B. Chronic sygmoiditis C. Chronic proctosigmoiditis D. Chronic colitis E. * Norm 349. During deep sliding palpation of parts of intestine a doctor revealed that sigmoid colon diameter is decreased, it is of solid consistence and painful. What these data indicate on? A. Intestinal atonia B. Adhesions between intestine and posterior abdominal wall C. * Spasm of smooth muscles of the intestine because of its inflammation D. Marked accumulation of gas in the intestine E. Coprostasis 350. During examination of a patient dyskinesia of bile ducts was revealed. Which method of examination is informative for verification of diagnosis? A. * Multimoment (fractional) duodenal probing B. Retrograde pancreatocholangiography C. Biohemical blood study D. Plane X-rays of abdominal organs E. Stomach probing 351. During examination of a patient with peptic ulcer it was revealed pain in epigastrium when to percuss with tips of fingers on abdominal wall. This symptom is called: A. Boas’ symptom B. * Mendel’s symptom C. Kehr’s sign D. Otrhner’s symptom E. Vasylenko’s symptom 352. During inquiry it was revealed that a patient complains on general weakness, dizziness and tarry stools. Which pathology chould you suspect? A. * Stomach or intestinal bleeding B. Lung bleeding C. Fissure of the anus D. Hemorrhoids E. Dysentery. 353. During palpation of a liver a doctor revealed it in the right hypochondrium at midclavicular line. Liver lover border is 1 cm lower from the costal arch, its edge is acute, mild, painless. It is typical for: A. Hepatitis B. Cirrhosis C. * Norm D. Congestion in the liver E. Fat hepatosis 354. During percussion splashing sound was revealed rightward from midline. Which symptome is positive in the patient? A. * Vasylenko’s symptom B. Kehr’s symptom C. Mendel’s symptom D. Clark’s symptom E. Merphy’s symptopm 355. During X-ray examination of a stomach “defect of filling” was revealed. Which disease is it typical for? A. * Stomach cancer B. Chronic gastritis C. Peptic ulcer D. Pylorostenosis E. For no any one of them 356. During X-ray examination of a stomach barium sulphate solution was revealed in it 24 hours after intake per os. How to interpret these data? A. Peptic ulcer B. Stomach cancer C. * Pylorostenosis D. Norm E. Stenosis of cardia 357. During X-ray examination of a stomach the “niche symptome” was revealed. Which disease is it typical for? A. Stomach cancer B. * Peptic ulcer C. Chronic gastritis D. Pylorostenosis E. Penetration of an ulcer 358. During inspection of a patient with liver disease “spider angiomata” were revealed. How do they look like? A. * Like dilated arterioli elevated above the skin B. Like yellow plaques C. Like excoriations D. Like hemorrhagic rash E. Like nettle rash 359. Edema on lower limbs in liver cirrhosis indicates on: A. Presence of duodenogastric reflux B. Increased content of bile acids in cholestasis C. * Affected proteins production by a liver D. Deranged process of bilirubin conjugation E. Increase of detoxication function of a liver 360. Fractional stomach probing of patient I. shoves decreased acidity. Which appetite is typical for this condition? A. Preserved B. Increased C. * Decreased D. Deranged E. Disgust for meat 361. Fractional stomach probing of patient I. shoves increased acidity. Which appetite is typical for this condition? A. Preserved B. * Increased C. Decreased D. Deranged E. Disgust for meat 362. Fractional stomach probing of patient I. with stomach cancer shoves achilia. Which appetite is typical for this condition? A. Preserved B. Increased C. Normal D. Deranged E. * Disgust for meat 363. Fractional stomach probing was performed for a patient. It was revealed increased acidity of stomach content. Which stool is typical for these patients? A. Stool with undigested food B. * Constipation C. Diarrhea D. Constipation with following diarrhea E. Normal 364. Fractional stomach probing was performed for a patient with gastritis type A. It was revealed decreased acidity of stomach content. Which stool is typical for these patients? A. Normal B. * Diarrhea C. Constipation D. Constipation with following diarrhea E. Stool with undigested food 365. In a patient splashing sound was revealed by percutory palpation of the abdomen in 1 hour after the last meal. What this sign indicates on? A. * Norm B. Decreased stomach secretion C. Achilia D. Intensified motor and evacuatoty function of the stomach E. Weakened motor and evacuatoty function of the stomach or hypersecretion 366. In a patient splashing sound was revealed by percutory palpation of the abdomen in 8 hours after the last meal. What this sign indicates on? A. Norm B. Achilia C. Decreased stomach secretion D. Intensified motor and evacuatoty function of the stomach E. * Weakened motor and evacuatoty function of the stomach or hypersecretion 367. In patient H. which suffers from peptic ulcer during palpation of abdominal wall it was revealed muscular defence. Abdominal wall is rigid, the patient can not relax muscles by himself, liver dullness is absent. Which possible complication is present in the patient? A. Perivisceritis B. * Perforation C. Bleeding D. Malignization E. Penetration 368. In patient L. chronic gastritis with considerably decreased secretory function of the stomach was diagnosed. Which will be appearance of patient’s tongue? A. Tongue with papillar hyperplasia B. * «Laquer tongue» (due to papillar atrophy) C. Moist, pink and clear tongue D. Dry as a brush E. Smooth tongue with raspberry color. 369. Intragastral pH-metry was performed for a patient. The result is: рН =7,0. What is indicate on? A. Normal acidity B. Slightly increased acidity C. Considerably increased acidity D. Decreased scidity E. * Anacidity 370. Patient applies for medical advice because of pain in paraumbilical region which appears mostly in the morning, it is crumping and is followed with intestinal inflation. Affection of which part of digestive tract should you suspect? A. Stomach B. Esophagus C. Gallbladder D. * Intestine E. Pancreas 371. A patient applies for medical advice with complaints on intensive attack-like crumping pain in the right hypochondrium irradiating to the right shoulder. Affection of which part of digestive tract should you suspect? A. Stomach B. Pancreas C. Intestine D. * Gallbladder E. Liver 372. A patient applies for medical advice with complaints on belting pain after meals which decreases after usage of enzymes. Affection of which part of digestive tract should you suspect? A. Stomach B. * Pancreas C. Intestine D. Gallbladder E. Liver 373. A patient complains of erructation with the smell of “rotten eggs” and on diarrhea. Such complaints are typical for: A. * Decreased acidity of stomach juice B. Increased acidity of stomach juice C. Stomach bleeding D. Normal acidity of stomach juice E. Intestinal bleeding 374. A patient complains of impossibility to swallow, unpleasant sensations behind the sternum during meals. This symptome is named: A. * Dysphagia B. Dyspepsia C. Dystonia D. Anorexia E. Bulimia 375. A patient complains of nausea, vomiting, erructation and heartburn. Which syndrome are these complaints typical for? A. Asthenic B. Intoxication C. * Dyspeptic D. Syndrome of cholestasis E. Syndrome of malabsorption 376. A patient complains of spastic pain in paraumbilical region and abdominal flatulence. The first step in examination of the patient by palpation should be the following: A. * Superficial palpation B. Profound sliding methodical palpation by Obrastsov and Strajecko. C. Penetrating palpation D. Balotting palpation E. Percutory palpation 377. Patient E. complains of heartburn, eructation with acid content. During fractional stomach probing it was revealed high acidity of the ocontent. Which will be appearance of patient’s tongue? A. * Tongue with papillar hyperplasia B. «Laquer tongue» (due to papillar atrophy) C. Moist, pink and clear tongue D. Dry as a brush E. Smooth tongue with raspberry color. 378. Patient F. which often uses alcohol, had viral hepatitis 5 years ago. During inspection "medusa head " was revealed. Which pathological condition is this sign typical for? A. Peptic ulcer B. Intestinal obstruction C. * Liver cirrhosis D. Chronic colitis E. Pancreatitis 379. Patient G. is seeking for medical advise because of periodical crumping pain in the lower parts of abdominar region, pain does not depend on food intake and it arises before defecation. Affection of which part of digestive tract should you suspect? A. Stomach B. Small intestine C. * Large intestine D. Spleen E. Pancreas 380. Patient is troubled with periodical pain in epigastrium, which appears 20-30 min after meals. This pain is called: A. * Early B. Late C. Pain on hunger D. Night pain E. Seasonal pain 381. Patient K. after party, where he used alcohol, had developed unpleasant sensations in epigastrium, general weakness, salivation and nausea. Which pathological condition theses symptoms are typical for? A. Gastroptosis B. Stomach cancer C. * Acute gastritis D. Chronic gastritis E. Peptic ulcer 382. Patient L. complains of pain in epigastrium which occurs mostly at night and disappears after meals. This problem arises in autumn and spring. Which disease this pain pattern is typical for? A. Esophagitis B. * Peptic ulcer C. Colitis D. Enteritis E. Stenosis of esophagus 383. Patient R. complains of increased frequency of defecation till 4-5 times a day within the last weak. Volume of stool and amount of liquid in it are also increased. Which possible cause of this condition do you know? A. Infection B. Intoxication C. Food allergy D. Exposure to radiation E. * All mentioned 384. Peptic ulcer was diagnosed in a patient. Which method is useful in recognition of Helicobacter pylori infection? A. Intragastral рН-metry B. Complete blood count C. Determination of uropepsinogen D. * С-respiration test E. Stomach probing 385. In patient L. chronic gastritis with considerably inecreased secretory function of the stomach was diagnosed. Which will be appearance of patient’s tongue? A. *Tongue with papillar hyperplasia B. «Laquer tongue» (due to papillar atrophy) C. Moist, pink and clear tongue D. Dry as a brush E. Smooth tongue with raspberry color. 386. In patient L. perforation of peptic ulcer was diagnosed complicated with peritonitis. Which will be appearance of patient’s tongue? A. Tongue with papillar hyperplasia B. «Laquer tongue» (due to papillar atrophy) C. Moist, pink and clear tongue D. *Dry and coated with brownish masses E. Smooth tongue with raspberry color. 387. In patient L. chronic hepatitis was diagnosed. Which will be appearance of patient’s tongue? A. Tongue with papillar hyperplasia B. «Laquer tongue» (due to papillar atrophy) C. Moist, pink and clear tongue D. Dry as a brush E. *Smooth tongue with raspberry color. 388. Fractional stomach probing was performed for a patient with gastritis type B. It was revealed increased acidity of stomach content. Which stool is typical for these patients? A. Normal B. Diarrhea C. * Constipation D. Constipation with following diarrhea E. Stool with undigested food 389. In patient L. chronic gastritis with considerably inecreased secretory function of the stomach was diagnosed. Which will be appearance of patient’s tongue? A. *Tongue with papillar hyperplasia B. «Laquer tongue» (due to papillar atrophy) C. Moist, pink and clear tongue D. Dry as a brush E. Smooth tongue with raspberry color. 390. In patient L. perforation of peptic ulcer was diagnosed complicated with peritonitis. Which will be appearance of patient’s tongue? A. Tongue with papillar hyperplasia B. «Laquer tongue» (due to papillar atrophy) C. Moist, pink and clear tongue D. *Dry and coated with brownish masses E. Smooth tongue with raspberry color. 391. In patient L. chronic hepatitis was diagnosed. Which will be appearance of patient’s tongue? A. Tongue with papillar hyperplasia B. «Laquer tongue» (due to papillar atrophy) C. Moist, pink and clear tongue D. Dry as a brush E. *Smooth tongue with raspberry color. 392. Fractional stomach probing was performed for a patient with gastritis type B. It was revealed increased acidity of stomach content. Which stool is typical for these patients? A. Normal B. Diarrhea C. * Constipation D. Constipation with following diarrhea E. Stool with undigested food 393. A 29-year-old woman is critically ill. The illness was manifested by high fever, chills, sweating, aching pain in lumbar area, a discomfort in urination, and frequent voiding. Pasternatsky’s sigh is positive on both sides. On lab exam, WBC of 20.000/mcL; on urinalysis protein of 0.6g/L, leukocyturia, bacteriuria. Which pathological condition is it typical for? A. * Acute pyelonephritis B. Exacerbation pf chronic pyelonephritis C. Acute glomerulonephritis D. Acute cystitis E. Nephrolithiasis 394. A 40-year-old man complained of headache in occipital area. On physical examination, the skin was pale; there was face and hand edema, blood pressure of 170/130 mm Hg. On EchoCG, there was hypertrophy of the left ventricle. Ultrasound examination of the kidneys revealed thinned cortical layer. Urinalysis showed proteinuria of 3.5 g/day. Which pathological condition is it typical for? A. * Chronic glomerulonephritis. B. Essential arterial hypertension. C. Chronic pyelonephritis. D. Polycystic disease of the kidneys. E. No any of them. 395. A blood test was prescribed to a patient with iron-deficiency anemia for determination of iron. Specify, what amount of iron of blood serum is in norm (mk m/l) A. 1,5-3,5 B. 3,5-6,5 C. 7,5-11,7 D. * 12,5-30,4 E. 32,2-35,9 396. Patient E, 42 y.o., who is for 8 years ill with chronic glomerulonephritis, complains of head pains, nausea, vomit, itch of skin. What changes may be expected in blood? A. Increases of bilirubin; B. * increased creatinine; C. decrease of ESR; D. increase of cholesterol E. increase of transaminases. 397. Patient E., 52 y.o., who is ill with chronic pyelonephritis, biochemical blood test is conducted. What changes may be? A. increase of level of glucose in blood; B. increase of bilirubin; C. * increase of creatinine; D. decrease of alfa-amylase E. increase of alkaline phosphatase. 398. In patient F., 30 y.o., urine is taken for analysis. Casts were found out in urine. What is this? A. glanced aside, what had changed the consistency in sour urine; B. * proteine molds of kidney tubulis; C. accumulation of bacteria; D. pressed thrombocytes; E. slat corks. 399. In patient F., 30 years old., urine is taken for analysis. Hyaline casts were found out in urine. What are hyaline casts? A. aside, what had changed the consistency in sour urine; B. * albuminous molds of kidney tubuli; C. accumulation of bacteria; D. pressed thrombocytes; E. Salt corks. 400. In patient M., 37 y.o., it was found out violation of process of urine filtration. What department of nephrone is filtration of urine located in? A. in proximal ductule; B. in the interstitium of kidney; C. in a glomerulus; D. * in the loop of Genle; E. in a distal ductule. 401. Patient M. develops pyelonephritis. What laboratory sign is most characteristic for this pathology? A. * active leukocytes in urine; B. considerable proteinuria; C. uraturia; D. oxalaturia; E. glucosuria. 402. At the blood analysis of patient A. was determined the level of haemoglobin – 92 gr/l. Specify, what level of haemoglobin is normal for women: A. 150-160 B. 140-160 C. 130-150 D. *120-140 E. 100-120 403. During research of patient’s urine the following findings were revealed: 5-6 leukocytes are found in 1 vision field, single fresh red cells in 1 vision field. What research must be appointed to a patient for clarification of diagnosis? A. Complete blood count; B. ECG; C. * Nechiporenko’s test; D. Zimnitsky’s test E. determination of daily proteinuria. 404. During the routine inspection of a teenager blood test was made, in which were foun the following data of leukocytes formula: juvenile neutrophils – 3 %, stab neutrophils – 10 %. Which cells of granulocytic row are normally in the perypheric blood flow? A. juvenile B. *Stab neutrophils C. Myelocytes D. Promielocites E. Metamyelocyte 405. In a patient A., 30 years old, urine was taken for analysis. There was found out a lot of changed red cells in the urine (1/2 of every vision field). What is the possible cause of their origin in the urine? A. * acute glomerulonephritis; B. Uncomplicated urolithiasis; C. acute cystitis; D. paranephritis; E. cancer of urinary bladder. 406. For a patient E., 38 y.o., there are attack-like pains in a counter-clockwise lumbar area, which irradiate downward. Wqhat these data indicate on? A. acute glomerulonephritis; B. * urolithiasis; C. hypernephroma; D. chronic glomerulonephritis; E. heart attack. 407. In patient A. it was found out violation of concentration function of kidneys. What area of nephrone does participate in the concentration of urine? A. glomerulus; B. * distal tubule; C. loop of Genle; D. proximal tubule; E. collapsible tubes. 408. For patient E., 52 years old, who is ill with chronic pyelonephritis for 12 yers, biochemical blood test is conducted. What changes may be found if the patient has renal failure? A. increase of glucose level in blood; B. increase of bilirubin; C. * increase of serum creatinine; D. increase of amylaze E. increase of alkaline phosphatase. 409. For patient I., 54 years old, paranephritis is diagnosed. What position does patient with paranephritis assume? A. * On affected side with legs bended in hip and knee joints and with the leg pressed to the stomach on the side of affection B. Semirecumbent position with lowered legs (orthopnoe) C. Lying on a sick side D. Knee-elbow position E. Sitting, bending forward. 410. For the patient of 43 y.o., in the urinalysis it is found out the changed red cells. What is the cause of appearance red cells in urine? A. * acute nephritis; B. urolithiasis; C. acute cystitis; D. kidney amyloidosis; E. the cancer of urinary bladder. 411. For what purpose Tompson’s test is performed (tree-glass test)? A. * for the exposure of department of the urinary system, which is the source of hematuria or leukocyturia, B. estimation of kidney concentration function C. for calculation of formed elements (red cells, leukocytes, casts) in urine with the method of Kakovsky-Addis D. for determination of diuresis E. for determination of the amount of albumen in urine. 412. In patient T., 30 y.o., it was found iron-deficiency anemia, confirmed by laboratory blood test. Specify the most typical complaints for iron deficiency. A. Loss of tactile sensation B. No any of them C. * Fragility of nails D. Labial fissure E. Anosmia 413. In patient T., 30 y.o., it was found iron-deficiency anemia, confirmed by laboratory blood test. Specify the most typical complaints for iron deficiency A. Loss of tactile sensation B. * Graying of hair C. Labial fissure D. Anosmia E. No any of them 414. In patient T., 30 years old iron-deficiency anemia was found, confirmed by laboratory blood test. Specify the most typical complaints for iron deficiency. A. Incontinence in caughing B. Graying of hair C. Fragility of nails D. Labial fissure E. *All mentioned 415. In the complete blood count of a patient it was found that the concentration of haemoglobin is 92 g/l, color index is 0,8. A patient is undergone treatment because of iron- deficiency anaemia. What changes are characteristic in the complete blood count in this disease? A. Presence of microcytes and megalocites B. Toxic grittiness of leukocytes C. Blast cells D. * anisocytosis, poikilocytosis, microcytosis E. Changes are abcent 416. In urine of the patient of 43 years old, it were found out the changed red cells . What is appearance in urine of the changed red corpuscles related to? A. * acute nephritis; B. urolithiasis; C. acute cystitis; D. kidney amyloidosis; E. cancer of urinary bladder. 417. A patient, 38 y.o., complains on weakness, dizziness, dyspnea, burning sensations in the tongue. During examination there were found signs of folic acid-deficiency anemia. What kind of tongue is typical for this disease? A. Normal B. *Brilliant and smooth C. Coated with grey fur D. Clean E. Swollen 418. A patient, 38 years old, complains on weakness, dizziness, dyspnea, burning sensations in the tongue. During examination there were found the signs of folic acid-deficiency anemia. What kind of tongue does this patient have? A. *Geographical B. Normal C. Coated with grey fur D. Clean E. Swollen 419. A patient, 40 years old, has massive uterine bleeding. During inspection the signs of hypochromic anemia were found. Which research is specific for the assessment of treatment efficiency and regeneration function of the bone marrow? A. ESR B. Blood proteins C. *Reticulocytes account D. Form of erythrocytes E. Serum iron 420. Patient A., 35 years old, is troubled with appearance of sediment in his urine which make the urine cloudy but disappear in an hour. Appearance of what substance in urine can you suspect? A. * Salts; B. protein; C. bilious pigments; D. glucose; E. urinary acid. 421. Patient A., 35 years old, is troubled with appearance of sediment in his urine which make the urine cloudy and don’t disappear in an hour. Appearance of what substance in urine can you suspect? A. Salts; B. * protein; C. bilious pigments; D. glucose; E. urinary acid. 422. Patient A., 35 years old, is troubled with appearance of sediment in his urine which make the urine cloudy but disappear in an hour. Appearance of what matter in urine can you suspect? A. * Salts; B. protein; C. bilious pigments; D. glucose; E. urinary acid. 423. Patient A., 35 years old, is troubled with increased amount of urine excreted per day. During examination is was revealed that urine specific gravity is increased. Appearance of what matter in urine makes its gravity increased? A. Salts; B. protein; C. bilious pigments; D. * glucose; E. urinary acid. 424. Patient A.complains of unpleasant feelings in lumbar region, oedema below eyes in the morning. She was fallen ill sharply 3 days ago. 2 weeks ago he had influenza. What inspection must be conducted? A. ECG; B. Ultrasound of a heart; C. * total blood count; D. determination of cholesterol in blood E. X-ray of thorax. 425. Patient E. 48 years old., is ill with chronic pyelonephritis for 10 years. What changes in biochemical blood test do indicate on kidney insufficiency? A. albuminemia; B. beta-lipoproteinaemia; C. hyperbilirubinemia; D. * creatininemia E. dysproteinemia. 426. Patient E. has renal failure. By physical examination it was revealed swelling of subcutaneous tissue of whole the body. Accumulation of liquid in subcutaneous fat tissue on whole the body is called: A. Ascites B. * Anasarca C. Hives D. Pleurisy E. Pericarditis 427. Patient E., 38 years old, complains of attack-like pains in lumbar area, which irradiate downward. What does can this symptom testify about? A. acute glomerulonephritis; B. * urolithiasis; C. hypernephroma; D. chronic glomerulonephritis; E. heart attack. 428. Patient I. 40 years old, 5 years ago was undergone the resection of stomach because of peptic ulcer complication. The expressed general weakness, shortness of breath, appeared lately. Blood test: er. 3,1x1012/l, Hb 60 gr/l, color index 0,6, leukocytes 4,5x109/l, eosynophiles 2%, stub 3%, segm. neutr. 55%, lymph. 32%, mon. 8%, ESR 5 mm/hour. What laboratory test will help in clarification of diagnosis? A. level of ilirubin B. level of glucose C. * level of serum iron D. level of creatinine E. level of amylase 429. Patient M., 27 years old, is ill for 7 years with chronic glomerulonephritis. Name possible changes of cardiovascular system? A. Systolic murmur on teh apex; B. weakening of II heart sound above an aorta; C. * high blood pressure D. breaking up I heart sound on an apex E. “gun tone of Strazhesko”. 430. Patient M., 52 years old., experienced edema. Acute glomerulonephritis was diagnosed. What is the pattern of edema in this disease? A. appear in the evening; B. first appear on lower extremities; C. first appear on overhead extremities; D. * appear on face in the morning; E. Early development of anasarca. 431. Patient P, a woman, complains of dizziness, faintness, dyspnea. Data of inspection: skin is pale with yellow tint. What data will prove diagnosis “anemia”? A. Paleness of the tongue B. Increased skin moistness C. Reddness of conjuntive D. * Paleness of conjuntive E. Pulsation of carotide arteries 432. Patient A., 38 years old , developed acute nephritis. What color of urine may be found in this patient? A. red; B. * color like «meat wastes»; C. color of beer; D. sulphur E. straw-yellow. 433. The patient with pernicious anemia has suddenly increased temperature to 39,20С. What is the reason of temperature rise? A. Intoxication B. *Disintegration of erythrocytes C. No correct answer D. Joining of hepatitis E. Disintegration of leukocytes 434. Skin paleness in patients with kidney diseases usually is combined with: A. Overfeeling of skin vessels B. Combination of anaemia, vascular spasm and tissue edema C. * Edema of tissues D. Vascular spasm E. Skin is lost of pigment 435. During palpation of a person of asthenic constitution in vertical position a doctor revealed the lower pole of the right kidney. Kidney surface is smooth, painless and solid. The left kidney was nor felt by palpation. What these data testify about? A. Chronic pyelonephritis B. * Variant of norm C. Cancer of the right kidney D. Atrophy of the left kidney E. Chronic glomerulonephritis 436. During palpation of kidneys the following was revealed: it is possible to palpate all the kidney, it is easly displaceble, but does not move to the opposite side of the body. Which degree of nephroptosis is present? A. I B. * II C. III D. IV E. total nephroptosis 437. A patient complains of gingival bleedings, incraesed body temperature till 38`C,marked general weakness.He feels himself sick for the recent 2weeks.Data of objective examination: petechnia on the skin,by palpation enlarged submandibular axillary and femoral lymph nodes.Data of CBC: thrombocytes-120000/l, Le-18,6 .10`9/l, blast cels-80%, ESR-36 mm/hr. Acute leukaemia is diagnosed. Which symptom indicate an intoxication syndrome? A. petechnia, gingival bleeding, low account of thrombocytes B. * general weakness, fever C. enlarged lymph nodes,decreased amount of RBC, thrombocytes,blast cells in CBC D. all mentioned E. no correct answer. 438. A patient complains of gingival bleedings,incraesed body temperature till 38`C,marked general weakness.He feels himself sick for the recent 2weeks.Data of objective examination,petectnia on the skin,by palpation enlarged submandibular axillary and femoral lymph nodes.Data of CBC: thrombocytes-120000/l, Le-18,6 .10`9/l, blast cels-80%, ESR-36 mm/hr. Acute leukaemia is diagnosed. Which symptoms indicate a malignant proliferation? A. petechnia, gingival bleeding, low account of thrombocytes B. general weakness,fever C. * enlarged lymph nodes,decreased amount of RBC,thrombocytes,blast cells in CBC D. all mentioned E. no correct answer. 439. A patient complains of gingival bleedings,incraesed body temperature till 38`C,marked general weakness.He feels himself sick for the recent 2weeks.Data of objective examination,petectnia on the skin,by palpation enlarged submandibular axillary and femoral lymph nodes.Data of CBC: thrombocytes-120000/l, Le-18,6 .10`9/l, blast cels-80%, ESR-36 mm/hr. Acute leukaemia is diagnosed. Which symptoms indicate on hemorrhagic syndrome? A. * petectnia,gingival bleeding,low account of thrombocytes B. general weakness,fever C. enlarged lymph nodes,decreased amount of RBC,thrombocytes,blast cells in CBC D. all mentioned E. no correct answer. 440. A patient suffers of peptic ulcer. The last exacerberation starts 1week ago. Since the last evening the patient has noticed dissappearance of pain. Data of examination:moderate severity,skin is pale and covered with cold sweat. BP is 105/70mm of Hg. PS-105 per min. Which hematologic problem may arise in the patient in 3days? A. * acute posthemorrhagic anaemia B. chronic iron-defficiency anaemia C. chronic vitamin B12-defficiency anaemia D. hemolypic anaemia E. aplastic anaemia 441. A patient suffers of peptic ulcer. The last exacerberation starts 1week ago.Since the last evening the patient has noticed dissappearance of pain. Data of examination:moderate severity,skin is pale and covered with cold sweat. BP is 105/70mm of Hg. PS-105 per min. Which complication of the main disease are thsese signs typical for? A. acute posthemorrhagic anaemia B. * chronic iron-defficiency anaemia C. chronic vitamin B12-defficiency anaemia D. hemolypic anaemia E. .aplastic anaemia 442. A 54-year-old woman complains of increasing fatigue and easy bruising of 3 weeks’ duration. Physical findings included pale, scattered ecchymoses and petechiae and mild hepatosplenomegaly. CBC: RBC – 2.5x1012/L; Hb – 73 g/L; HCT 20%; PLT – 23.000/mcL; and WBC – 162x109/L with 82% of blasts. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. * Acute leukemia B. Chronic leukemia C. Thrombocytopenia D. Hemolytic anemia E. Megaloblastic anemia 443. A 60-year-old man complains of fever, significant weight loss, bone and joint pain, and bleeding gums. On exam, paleness, lymphadenopathy, hepato- and splenomegaly. CBC\: WBC – 270•109/L with 13\% lymphocytes, 1\% monocytes, 21\% basophiles, 29\% neutrophils, 9\% blasts, 12% promyelocytes, 12\% myelocytes, 2\% metamyelocytes, 1\% eosinophils. ESR – 22 mm/h. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. * Acute leukemia B. Chronic leukemia C. Thrombocytopenia D. Hemolytic anemia E. Megaloblastic anemia 444. A patient complains of gingival bleedings,incraesed body temperature till 38`C,marked general weakness.He feels himself sick for the recent 2weeks.Data of objective examination,petectnia on the skin,by palpation enlarged submandibular axillary and femoral lymph nodes.Data of CBC: erythrocythes-2,1.10 9/l,Hb-80g/l, thrombocytes-120000/l, Le-18,6 . 10`9/l, l%,stub-2%,segm-9%, lymph-5%, mon-3%, blast cels-80%, ESR-36mm/hr.Which data of CBC directly proves diagnosis of acute leukaemia? A. erythocytes 2,1.10`12/l B. thrombocytes-120000/l C. leukocytes 18,6.10`9/l D. ESR-36mm/hr E. * blast cells 80% 445. A patient complains of gingival bleedings,incraesed body temperature till 38`C,marked general weakness.He feels himself sick for the recent 2weeks.Data of objective examination,petectnia on the skin,by palpation enlarged submandibular axillary and femoral lymph nodes.Data of CBC: erythrocythes-2,1.10 9/l,Hb-80g/l, thrombocytes-120000/l, Le-18,6 . 10`9/l, l%,stub-2%,segm-9%, lymph-5%, mon-3%, blast cels-80%, ESR-36mm/hr.Which disease has developed in the patient: A. * acute leukaemia B. chronic leukaemia C. hemolytic anaemia D. vitamin B12-deficiency anaemia E. symptom of dysseminated hypercoagulation 446. A patient had stomach resection a year ago. He complains of general weakness, giddiness. Blood count: Er 2,6 g/L, Hb 80 g/L, color index 0.7, L – 3.7 g/L, reticulocytes 1%, segm. neutroph. 56%, lymph. 34%, mon. 6%, ESR 17 mm/hour. Erythrocytes are hypochromic; there are anisocytosis and poikilocytosis. Serum iron 5 mcmol/L. Which pathological condition are these data typical for? A. * Iron-deficiency anemia B. B12-deficiency anemia C. Сhronic myeloleukosis D. Aplastic anemia E. Chronic lymphoid leukosis 447. A patient suffers of peptic mucous disease for more than 5 years. The last exacerberation starts 1week ago.Since the last evening the patient has noticed dissappearance of pain. Data of examination:moderate severity,skin is pale and covered with cold sweat. BP is 105/70mm of Hg. PS-105 per min. Which examination is necessary to prescribe for verification of diagnosis? A. * analysis of faeces for scant/hidden blood B. ionogram C. coagulation D. CBC E. ECG 448. A patient who suffers from postheamorrhagic anemia was treated with tardiferon. Within five weeks. Now erythrocytes and hemoglobin contents correspond to norm. Which criteria of laboratory test are necessary to for control of treatment efficacy? A. erythrocyte count B. hemoglobin content C. CI and ESR D. * serum iron and indexes of its metabolism E. serum bilirubin 449. A patient, 35yrs old, complains of weakness, palpitation, flickering before eyes, dizziness. He has peptic ulcer in anamnesis. Data of examination: skin palor, vesicular breathing in lungs, systolic murmur at heart apex, pulse rate-100/min, BP-100/70 mm of Hg. Data of CBC: erythrocytes-3,2.1012/l, Hb-75g/l CI-0,7. What is probable cause of anemia in this case? A. decreased iron absorption B. * periodical blood loss C. invasion of helmints D. newgrows E. Poor iron content in diet 450. A patient, 35yrs old, complains of weakness, palpitation, flickering before eyes, dizziness. He has peptic ulcer in anamnesis. Data of examination: skin palor, vesicular breathing in lungs, systolic murmur at heart apex, pulse rate-100/min, BP-100/70 mm of Hg. Data of CBC: erythrocytes-3,2.1012/l, Hb-75g/l CI-0,7. Which type of anemia is present? A. posthemorrhagic anemia B. sideroblastic anemia C. thalassemia D. * iron-deficiency anemia E. hyperchromic anemia 451. A patient, 40yrs old, complains of weakness, fragility of nails, loss of hair. He has duodenal ulcer in anamnesis. Data of fibrogastroscopy: duodenal deformation because of scars. Data of CBC: erythrocytes-3,6.1012/l, Hb-90g/l, CI-0,7, serum iron-8,7micmol/l. What is the pathogenesis of anemia in this case? A. increased iron consumption B. increased excretion of iron C. * permanent loss of iron D. deranged transport of iron E. decreased absorption of iron 452. A patient, 48yrs old, suffers from prolonged menses with severe discharge of blood. Last 3months she complained of general weakness, dizziness, attacks of palpitation, flickering before eyes. Data of examinations: skin pallor, fragility of nails. On ECG, extrasystoly is recorded. Data of CBC: erythrocytes-2,8.1012/l, Hb-96g/l, CI-0,7, anisocytosis, poikilocytosis. ESR-4mm/hr. What is the cause of anemia? A. * blood loss B. poor iron consumption in diet C. poor iron absorption D. increased iron excretion with urine E. helminthic invasion 453. A patient, 55yrs old, complains of pain in sternal bone and in ribs. 6 months ago he had pathological fracture of the left shin. Data of lab tests: protein-110g/l, positive M-gradient. The patient is suspected plasma cell myeloma. Which rest is necessary to prescribe? A. CBC B. Biochemical blood study C. * Determination of Bence Jones protein in urine D. X-ray of ribs E. CT of the chest 454. A patient, 60yrs old, complains of general weakness, fatigue, parestesia in limbs. He had resection of stomach 3years ago because of peptic ulcer. Data of examination: the tongue is of raspberry colour and smooth, the patient is not stable in Romberg’s position. Data of CBC: erythrocytes-2,5.1012/l, Hb-88g/l CI-1,3, macrocytosis. What disease is present? A. * vitamin B12 deficiency anemia B. iron-deficiency anemia C. hemolytic anemia D. hypochromic anemia E. hyperchromic anemia 455. A patient, 60yrs old, complains of general weakness, fatigue, parestesia in limbs. He had resection of stomach 3years ago because of peptic ulcer. Data of examination: the tongue is of raspberry colour and smooth, the patient is not stable in Romberg’s position. The patient is diagnosed vitamin B12 deficiency anemia. How do you explain parestesia? A. affection of central nervous system B. * affection of peripheral nervous system C. dystension of skin D. affection of subcutaneous fat E. all mentioned 456. A patient,35yrs old, who suffers of autoimmune gastritis and vitamin B12-deficiency anemia, presents signs of funicular myelosis. Data of CBC: erythrocyte-2,2.1012/l, Hb-80g/l, LC-2,4.109/l, ESR-40mm/hr, direct bilirubin-8,6micmol/l, indirect bilirubin-27micmol/l. What is funicular myelosis? A. * demyelinization of posteriolateral columns of spinal cord B. demyelinization of anterior columns of spinal cord C. affection of brain cortex D. demyelinization of peripheral nerves of lower limbs E. no correct answer 457. A patient,35yrs old, who suffers of autoimmune gastritis and vitamin B12-deficiency anemia, presents signs of funicular myelosis. Data of CBC: erythrocyte-2,2.1012/l, Hb-80g/l, LC-2,4.109/l, ESR-40mm/hr, direct bilirubin-8,6micmol/l, indirect bilirubin-27micmol/l. Which substance is not produced with patient’s gastric mucosa responsible for vitamin B12 absorption in intestine? A. full hydrochloric acid B. combined hydrochloric acid C. pepsin D. * gastromucoprotein E. lactic acid 458. A patient,35yrs old, who suffers of autoimmune gastritis and vitamin B12-deficiency anemia, presents signs of funicular myelosis. Data of CBC: erythrocyte-2,2.1012/l, Hb-80g/l, LC-2,4.109/l, ESR-40mm/hr, direct bilirubin-8,6micmol/l, indirect bilirubin-27micmol/l. What is probable reason of funicular myelosis? A. prolonged hypoxia of nervous system B. increased bilirubin content in blood serum C. * accumulation of propionic and methylmalonic acids n blood serum D. infection contamination due to leukaemia E. malnutrition due to gastritis 459. During assessment of a patient at risk for hematologic problems, the doctor palpates the patient's spleen just below the ribs on the left side. What is correct interpretation of obtained results? A. Norm B. * Splenomegaly C. Decreased sizes of spleen D. This is not spleen but the left kidney E. This is not spleen but descending colon 460. In a patient, 30yrs old, aplastic anemia was diagnosed. What is pathogenesis of anemia? A. membranopathy B. hemoglobinopathy C. autoimmune affection of erythrocytes D. affection of erythrocytes by immune complexes E. * bone marrow affection 461. In patient B 46 y.o who suffers of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease for 15 years, in CBC it was revealed that erythrocytes account is equal to 4,5 .1012/l. there are no other changes in CBC and bone marrow puncture. What is the correct interpretation of obtained results? A. normal RBC level B. absolute erythrocytosis( erythraemia) C. number of RBC is increased, because of increased circulating blood volume. D. * This is relative erythrocytosis for compensation of chronic hypoxia E. All answers are correct 462. In patient B 46 y.o who suffers of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease for 15 years, in CBC it was revealed that erythrocytes account is equal to 4,5 .1012/l. there are no other changes in CBC and bone marrow puncture. Select the main mechanism of erythrocytosis in chronic hypoxia in patients with bronchopulmonary diseases: A. intensified erythropoiesis B. increased hemopoyetic function of kidneys C. increased blood viscosity D. * erythrocytes enter perypheric circulation from depot E. dilution of blood. 463. In patient who suffers from duodenal ulcer complains of general weakness, dyspnoe in insignificant physical load and desire to eat a chalk. Data of objective examination: skin paleness, throphic changes of skin. CBC: erythrocytes 3,3.1012/l Hb 90g/l Ci-0,75, reticulocytes- 2%, serum iron-5,6 micmol/l. Which pathological condition takes place? A. erythremia B. hemolytic anemia C. * iron-deficiency anemia D. aplastic anemia E. vitamin B12 deficiency anemia 464. Patient 38 years old complains on weakness, dizziness, dyspnea, burning sensations in the tongue. During examination were found the signs of folic acid-deficiency anemia. In which diseases usually this type of anemia develops? A. * Chronic liver diseases B. Chronic kidney diseases C. Diseases of a stomach D. Affection of bone marrow E. Infectious diseases 465. Patient 38 years old complains on weakness, dizziness, dyspnea, burning sensations in the tongue. During examination were found the signs of folic acid-deficiency anemia. In which diseases usually this type of anemia develops? A. * Chronic diseases of intestine B. Chronic kidney diseases C. Diseases of a stomach D. Affection of bone marrow E. Infectious diseases 466. Patient V., 40 years old, has massive uterine bleeding. During inspection the signs of hypochromic anemia were found. Which research is specific for diagnostics? A. ESR B. Blood proteins C. Reticulocyte D. Form of erythrocytes E. Serum iron 467. Patient B, 25 years old, complains of weakness, dizziness, hemorrhagic rash on the skin. She is ill for the last month. Data of CBC: erythrocytes- 1,0. 1012/l, Hb-30g/l, CI-0,9, LC- 1,2.109/l, thrombocytes-42.109/l. How to make interpretation of these results? A. depression of red cells stem B. depression of white cells stem C. depression of thrombocytes D. * decreased Hb content in erythrocytes E. depression of all bone marrow stems 468. Patient B, 25 years old, complains of weakness, dizziness, hemorrhagic rash on the skin. She is ill for the last month. Data of CBC: erythrocytes- 1,0. 1012/l, Hb-30g/l, CI-0,9, WBC- 1,2.109/l, thrombocytes-42.109/l. Which examination method is the most informative in verification of diagnosis? A. lymph node biopsy B. * sternal puncture C. biopsy of spleen D. biopsy of liver E. pleurocentesis 469. Patient L., 46 years old, a woman, is inspected by a doctor. Data of inspection\: the face is of intensive red colour, round (like Moon), hair growth is present on patient's chin and under the upper lip. Which disease this facial expressionis typical for? A. * Itsenko-Kushing's syndrome B. Thyrotoxicosis C. Mixedema D. Sclerodermia E. No any answer is correct. 470. Patient L., 46 years old, a woman, is inspected by a doctor. Data of inspection\: the face is of intensive red colour, round (like Moon), hair growth is present on patient's chin and under the upper lip. Which disease this facial expressionis typical for? A. * Itsenko-Kushing's syndrome B. Thyrotoxicosis C. Mixedema D. Sclerodermia E. No any answer is correct. 471. Patient, 62yrs old, is hospitalized with complaints of enlargement of neck, subclavian and axillary lymph nodes, general weakness, increased sweating, subfebrile body temperature within the last 3months. Data of CBC:WBC-64.109/l, lymphocytes-72%. Which examination method is necessary for diagnosis? A. computer tomography B. * myelogram C. Lymphography D. Lymphosintigraphy E. X-ray 472. Patient, 62yrs old, is hospitalized with complaints of enlargement of neck, subclavian and axillary lymph nodes, general weakness, increased sweating, subfebrile body temperature within the last 3months. Data of CBC: WBC-64.109/l, lymphocytes-72%. Blast cells 1-2%. Which disease is possible to suspect? A. vitamin B12-deficiency anemia B. plasma cell myeloma C. * acutre leukaemia D. chronic leukaemia E. mononucleosis 473. Patients P., a female, feels general and muscular weakness,dyspnoe, dizziness, fragidity of hair and nails, desire to eat chalk. She has data about uterine fibromyoma with frequent bleedings in the anamnesis. Data of CBC: 2,8.10`12/l, HB-105g/l, color index-0.78, anisocytosis, poikilocytosis, serum iron-10mmmol/l. Which diagnosis is prescribed? A. talassemia B. aplastic anaemia C. * iron-defficiency anaemia D. vitamin B12-defficiency anaemia E. autoimmune hemolytic anaemia 474. When taking the blood pressure of a patient after a parathyroidectomy, the doctor notes that the patient's hand has gone into flexion contractions. What is the doctor’s interpretation of this observation? A. Hypokalemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hyponatremia D. * Hypocalcemia E. All above mentioned 475. Within the last year, a patient complained of weakness, fatigue, sweating, dry cough. 1month ago, he had severe herpes infection. Data of present examination:enlarged lymph nodes in the neck, in axillary region. The lymph nodes are slightly dense and painless. Data of CBC: leukocytes-4,0.109/l, lymphocytes-80%. Chronic lympholeukosis was diagnosed. Which properties of lymph nodes are typical for this disease? A. mild, elastic, painful B. mild, elastic, painless C. * solid, painful D. solid, painless E. not enlarged 476. Within the last year, a patient complained of weakness, fatigue, sweating, dry cough. 1month ago, he had severe herpes infection. Data of present examination:enlarged lymph nodes in the neck, in axillary region. The lymph nodes are slightly dense and painless. Data of CBC: leukocytes-4,0.109/l, lymphocytes-80%. Which examination should be performed in first line? A. biochemical blood study B. biopsy of enlarged lymph nodes C. blood immunogra D. chest x-ray E. * sternal puncture 477. Data of ECG in a patient 20 years old during period of respiratory viral infection with body temperature enlargement: waves and complexes on ECG are not changed, R-R intervals are shorter than normal, heart rrhythm is regular, heart rate is 106 per min. What these data testify about? A. Sinus bradycardia, B. * Sinus tachycardia, C. Sinus arrhythmia, D. Ectopic arrhythmia, E. AV block. 478. Data of ECG in a patient 22 years old during period of respiratory viral infection with body temperature enlargement: waves and complexes on ECG are not changed, heart rate accelerate in inhalation and becomes faster in expiration. What these data testify about? A. Sinus bradycardia, B. Sinus tachycardia, C. *Sinus arrhythmia, D. Ectopic arrhythmia, E. AV block. 479. Data of ECG in a patient 21 years old: waves and complexes on ECG are not changed, R- R intervals are longer than 0.9 sec, heart rrhythm is regular, heart rate is 56 per min. What these data testify about? A. * Sinus bradycardia, B. Sinus tachycardia, C. Sinus arrhythmia, D. Ectopic arrhythmia, E. AV block. 480. ECG of a patient 78 years who suffers of ischemic heart disease shows heart rate 34 per min. QRS complexes on ECG are disfigured and broad in all leads, number of P waves are more than QRS complexes. P wave appears in different distances from QRS, heart rrhythm is regular. What do these data testify about? A. Sinus bradycardia, B. Sinus tachycardia, C. Sinus arrhythmia, D. Ectopic arrhythmia, E. *Complete AV block. 481. In I standard lead of the electrocardiogram one cardiac complex is changed and appear prematurally, Р wave in it is absent, complex QRS is distorted. Which heart rrhythm disorder is present in the patient? A. Atrioventricular extrasystole; B. Atrial extrasystole; C. Hiss bundlebranch block; D. * Ventricular extrasystole; E. Sinus extrasystole; 482. In patient S., which suffers from rheumatic heart disease, mitral stenosis for 20 years, atrioventricular block was revealed. What are signs of AV block, I degree? A. PQ interval is prolonged in all leads, periodically QRS complex is missed B. Gradual prolongation of PQ interval with periodical QRS complex missing C. Prolongation of PQ interval in all leads with frequent QRS complex missing (more P than QRS), P is fixed to QRS D. * PQ interval is prolonged in all leads, no missing of QRS E. Frequent QRS complex missing, more P than QRS, P appears independently of QRS, heart rate less than 40 per min 483. In patient S., which suffers from rheumatic heart disease, mitral stenosis for 20 years, atrioventricular block was revealed. What are signs of AV block II degree, Mobitz I? A. PQ interval is prolonged in all leads, periodically QRS complex is missed B. * Gradual prolongation of PQ interval with periodical QRS complex missing C. Prolongation of PQ interval in all leads with frequent QRS omplex missing (more P than QRS), P is fixed to QRS D. PQ interval is prolonged in all leads, no missing of QRS E. Frequent QRS complex missing, more P than QRS, P appears independently of QRS, heart rate less than 40 per min 484. In patient S., which suffers from rheumatic heart disease, mitral stenosis for 20 years, atrioventricular block was revealed. What are signs of AV block II degree, Mobitz II? A. * PQ interval is prolonged in all leads, periodically QRS complex is missed B. Gradual prolongation of PQ interval with periodical QRS complex missing C. Prolongation of PQ interval in all leads with frequent QRS omplex missing (more P than QRS), P is fixed to QRS D. PQ interval is prolonged in all leads, no missing of QRS E. Frequent QRS complex missing, more P than QRS, P appears independently of QRS, heart rate less than 40 per min 485. In patient S., which suffers from rheumatic heart disease, mitral stenosis for 20 years, atrioventricular block was revealed. What are signs of AV block II degree, Mobitz III? A. PQ interval is prolonged in all leads, periodically QRS complex is missed B. Gradual prolongation of PQ interval with periodical QRS complex missing C. *Prolongation of PQ interval in all leads with frequent QRS omplex missing (more P than QRS), P is fixed to QRS D. PQ interval is prolonged in all leads, no missing of QRS E. Frequent QRS complex missing, more P than QRS, P appears independently of QRS, heart rate less than 40 per min 486. In patient S., which suffers from rheumatic heart disease, mitral stenosis for 20 years, atrioventricular block was revealed. What are signs of AV block III degree? A. PQ interval is prolonged in all leads, periodically QRS complex is missed B. Gradual prolongation of PQ interval with periodical QRS complex missing C. Prolongation of PQ interval in all leads with frequent QRS omplex missing (more P than QRS), P is fixed to QRS D. PQ interval is prolonged in all leads, no missing of QRS E. * Frequent QRS complex missing, more P than QRS, P appears independently of QRS, heart rate less than 40 per min 487. In patient Н., 37 years old, which suffers from rheumatic heart disease within the recent 10 years, electrocardiogram was recorded. On the ECG - PQ interval is equal to 0,24 seconds in all leads. What disorder of heart rrhythm is present in this case? A. Sinoatrial block, B. Atrial block, C. * Non-complete AV block, I degree D. Complete AV block, E. Non-complete AV block, II degree. 488. In patient Н., 37 years old, which suffers from rheumaticheart disease within the recent 10 years, electrocardiogram was recorded. On the ECG -periodically cardiac complex is missed, R-R interval duration in this case is equal to 2 normal R-R. What disorder of heart rrhythm is present in this case? A. *Sinoatrial block, B. Atrial block, C. Non-complete AV block, I degree D. Complete AV block, E. Non-complete AV block, II degree. 489. In patient Н., 37 years old, which suffers from rheumatic heart disease within the recent 10 years, electrocardiogram was recorded. On the ECG P wave is equal to 0.2 sec in all complexes. What disorder of heart rrhythm is present in this case? A. Sinoatrial block, B. * Intraatrial block, C. Non-complete AV block, I degree D. Complete AV block, E. Non-complete AV block, II degree. 490. In patient Н., 37 years old, which suffers from rheumatic heart disease within the recent 10 years, electrocardiogram was recorded. On the ECG -heart rate is 36 per min, number of P wave more than QRS, P waves appear in different distance from QRS. What disorder of heart rrhythm is present in this case? A. Sinoatrial block, B. Atrial block, C. Non-complete AV block, I degree D. * Complete AV block, E. Non-complete AV block, II degree. 491. In patient Н., 37 years old, which suffers from rheumatic heart disease within the recent 10 years, electrocardiogram was recorded. On the ECG -heart rate is 52 per min, number of P wave more than QRS, atrial rate is 72 per min, P waves appear in 0.36 sec before QRS. What disorder of heart rrhythm is present in this case? A. Sinoatrial block, B. Atrial block, C. * Non-complete AV block, III degree D. Complete AV block, E. Non-complete AV block, II degree. 492. In the II standard lead cardiac complex PQRST periodically appears more early than normal, wave P in this complex is negative, complex QRS is not changed, it appears before P wave. Which heart rrhythm disorder is present in this case? A. Sinus extrasystole B. * Atrial extrasystole C. Atrioventricular extrasystole D. Left ventricular extrasystole; E. Right ventricular extrasystole; 493. In the II standard lead cardiac complex PQRST periodically appears more early than normal, wave P in this complex is superimposed on QRS. Which heart rrhythm disorder is present in this case? A. Sinus extrasystole B. Atrial extrasystole C. * Atrioventricular extrasystole D. Left ventricular extrasystole; E. Right ventricular extrasystole; 494. In which arrhythmia R-R intervals are absolutely of different length, pulse is absolutely irregular? A. Sinus tachicardia; B. Ventricular fibrillation; C. Sinus arrhythmia; D. *Atrial fibrillation; E. Paroxismal tachycardia. 495. In which cardiac rrhythm disorder P waves are absent, small “f” waves are recorded on izoelectrical line and R-R intervals are absolutely different? A. * Atrial flutter; B. Ventricular fibrillation; C. Ventricular flutter; D. Atrial fibrillation; E. Paroxismal tachycardia 496. In which cardiac rrhythm disorder P waves are absent, 2 or 3 “F” waves are recorded before each QRS complex, heart rrhythm is regular? A. Atrial flutter; B. Ventricular fibrillation; C. Ventricular flutter; D. * Atrial fibrillation; E. Paroxismal tachycardia 497. In which cardiac rrhythm disorder P, Q, R, S, T waves are absent, small oscillations are recorded on izoelectrical line? A. Atrial flutter; B. * Ventricular fibrillation; C. Ventricular flutter; D. Atrial fibrillation; E. Paroxismal tachycardia 498. In which cardiac rrhythm disorder P, Q, R, S, T waves are absent, undulant-shaped deviations (sinusoid line) are recoded on izoelectrical line? A. Atrial flutter; B. Ventricular fibrillation; C. * Ventricular flutter; D. Atrial fibrillation; E. Paroxismal tachycardia 499. On the basis of patient’s ECG diagnosis was put “atrial extrasystolic arrhythmia”. ECG signs of atrial extrasystole are the following: A. Absence of Р wave, broadening and disfiguration of ventricular complex, discordant displacement of ST; B. *Р wave form is changed (biphasic), it is present before each QRS complex, QRS complex is not changed; C. Р wave form is changed (biphasic), it is present before each QRS complex, QRS complex is changed; D. Р wave presence and periodical missing of ventricular complex; E. Р wave is recorded after ventricular complex. 500. On the basis of patient’s ECG diagnosis was put “atrioventricular extrasystolic arrhythmia”. ECG signs of atrioventricular extrasystole are the following: A. Absence of Р wave, broadening and disfiguration of ventricular complex, discordant displacement of ST; B. Р wave form is changed (biphasic), it is present before each QRS complex, QRS complex is not changed; C. Р wave form is changed (biphasic), it is present before each QRS complex, QRS complex is changed; D. Р wave presence and periodical missing of ventricular complex; E. * Negative Р wave is recorded after ventricular complex. 501. Patient A., 28 years old, has aortic incompetence. Electrocardiographic examination was prescribed for her. What are ECG-signs of this heart defect? A. Hypertrophy of the right ventricle. B. Hypertrophy of the right atrium. C. * Hypertrophy of the left ventricle. D. Hypertrophy of the left atrium. E. Normogram. 502. Patient A., 28 years old, has aortic stenosis. Electrocardiographic examination was prescribed for her. What are ECG-signs of this heart defect? A. Hypertrophy of the right ventricle. B. Hypertrophy of the right atrium. C. *Hypertrophy of the left ventricle. D. Hypertrophy of the left atrium. E. Normogram. 503. Patient A., 28 years old, has mitral incompetence. Electrocardiographic examination was prescribed for her. What are ECG-signs of this heart defect? A. Hypertrophy of the right ventricle. B. Hypertrophy of the right atrium. C. Hypertrophy of the left ventricle. D. * Hypertrophy of the left atrium and ventricle. E. Normogram. 504. Patient A., 28 years old, has mitral stenosis. Electrocardiographic examination was prescribed for her. What are ECG-signs of this heart defect? A. Hypertrophy of the right ventricle. B. * Hypertrophy of the right atrium. C. Hypertrophy of the left ventricle. D. Hypertrophy of the left atrium. E. Normogram. 505. Patient B. 60 years old, complains of dispnoe, palpitation, oedema of feet. During the last 10 years he sufferes from stenocardia, hypertension. On ECG: there is no P wave before ventricular complex, zero line is wave-shaped, ventricular complexes are registrated in equal time intervals. Which heart rrhythm disorder is present in the patient? A. Atrioventricular block; B. *Atrial flutter; C. Atrial fibrillation; D. Ventricular flutter and fibrillation; E. Ventricular extrasystole 506. Patient H.,36 years old, had attack of rheumatic fever in childhood and since that time aortal incompetence had developed. X-ray examination of the heart shows aortic heart configuration. Select proper sign of this configuration? A. * Left ventricular enlargement with pointed cardiac waist. B. Lef atrial enlargement with smooth cardiac waist. C. Enlargement of the aortic rout. D. Hypertrophy of the right ventricle. E. Hypertrophy of the left ventricle. 507. Patient H.,36 years old, had attack of rheumatic fever in childhood and since that time mitral incompetence had developed. X-ray examination of the heart shows mitral heart configuration. Select proper sign of this configuration? A. Lef ventricular enlargement with pointed cardiac waist. B. * Lef atrial enlargement with smooth cardiac waist. C. Enlargement of the aortic rout. D. Hypertrophy of the right ventricle. E. Hypertrophy of the left ventricle. 508. Patient S. suffers from rheumatic heart disease, has mitral stenosis for 20 years. Atrial fibrillation was revealed in him. What group of heart rrhythm disorders this one belong to? A. Disorders of sinus node automatism; B. Disorders of impulses conduction from atriums to ventricles; C. Presence of multifocal excitation in ventricles; D. *Violation of excitability and conductivity of myocardium. E. No any one 509. Patient S. suffers from rheumatic heart disease, has mitral stenosis for 20 years. Sinus non-respiratory arrhythmia was revealed in him. What group of heart rrhythm disorders does arrhythmia belong to? A. * Disorders of sinus node automatism; B. Disorders of impulses conduction from atriums to ventricles; C. Presence of multifocal excitation in ventricles; D. Violation of excitability and conductivity of myocardium. E. No any one 510. Patient S. suffers from rheumatic heart disease, has mitral stenosis for 20 years. Atrioventricular block was revealed in him. What group of heart rrhythm disorders this one belong to? A. Disorders of sinus node automatism; B. * Disorders of impulses conduction; C. Presence of multifocal excitation in ventricles; D. Violation of excitability and conductivity of myocardium. E. No any one 511. Select arrhythmia dangerous for patient’s life: A. Sinus tachicardia; B. *Ventricular fibrillation; C. Sinus arrhythmia; D. Atrial fibrillation; E. Paroxismal tachycardia 512. A patient suffers with dyspnoe, pain in the heart region, feeling of heart intermissions. On the phonocardiogram Q-to-first sound pause is more then 0,06 seconds. What disease is possible in the patient? A. Aortal incompetence, B. Mitral incompetence, C. Aortal stenosis, D. * Mitral stenosis, E. Tricuspidal stenosis. 513. Data of ECG in a patient 20 years old: at inspiration R-R intervals are shorter, than at expiration. What these data testify about? A. Sinus bradycardia, B. Sinus tachycardia, C. * Sinus arrhythmia, D. Ectopic arrhythmia, E. AV block. 514. Data of ECG in a patient 10 years old: at inspiration R-R intervals are shorter, than at expiration. A. Sinus tachicardia; B. Sinus bradicardia; C. * Sinus respiratory arrhythmia; D. Sinus non-respiratory arrhythmia; E. Norm 515. Data of ECG in a patient 20 years old: at inspiration R-R intervals are shorter, than at expiration. Which cardiac rrhythm disorder is present in the patient? A. * Sinus arrthythmia; B. Sinus tachycardia; C. Paroxismal tachycardia; D. Extrasystoly; E. Norm. 516. Data of ECG in a patient 70 years old shows that P wave is absent, there are 3 waves “F” before each QRS complex. Which arrhythmia is present in the patient? A. * Atrial flutter; B. Ventricular fibrillation; C. Ventricular flutter; D. Atrial fibrillation; E. Paroxismal tachycardia 517. Data of ECG in a patient 70 years old shows that P wave is absent, R-R intervals are different. By auscultation number of heart beats are less than pulse waves. In which arrhythmia is deficiency of pulse present? A. Sinus tachicardia; B. Ventricular fibrillation; C. Sinus arrhythmia; D. *Atrial fibrillation; E. paroxismal tachycardia. 518. Data of ECG in a patient 70 years old: R-R intervals periodically are shorter but sometimes they become longer. All components of ECG are not changed. Change of RR interval duration don’t depend on respiratory phases. Which cardiac rrhythm disorder is present? A. Sinus tachicardia; B. Sinus bradicardia; C. Sinus respiratory arrhythmia; D. * Sinus non-respiratory arrhythmia; E. Norm 519. Data of ECG in a sportsman: QT interval = 0,44 seс, R-R = 1 seс. How will you evaluate these data? A. * Sinus bradycardia, B. Sinus tachycardia, C. Sinus arrhythmia, D. Ectopic arrhythmia, E. AV block. 520. In all of leads of the electrocardiogram after not changed Р wave widened (0,12 second) and distorted complex QRS appears. Which heart rrhythm disorder is present in the patient? A. Atrioventricular block; B. Atrial block; C. * Hiss bundlebranch block; D. Ventricular block; E. Ventricular flutter; 521. In all of leads of the electrocardiogram Р wave is widened, complex QRS is normal and follows wave P. Which heart rrhythm disorder is present in the patient? A. Atrioventricular block; B. * Atrial block; C. Sinus block D. Ventricular block; E. Ventricular flutter; 522. In all the leads of electrocardiogram after Р waves (they are normal) all complexes QRS are widened (0,12 second) and deformed, of different shape in different leads. What disorder of heart rrhythm is present in this case? A. Sinoatrial block, B. Atrial block, C. Non-complete AV block, D. Complete AV block, E. * Hiss bundlebranch block. 523. In one of standard leads cardiac complex PQRST has appeared early than normal, all waves are normal, compensatory pause is absent. Which heart rrhythm disorder is present in this case? A. * Sinus extrasystole B. Atrial extrasystole C. Atrioventricular extrasystole D. Left ventricular extrasystole; E. Right ventricular extrasystole; 524. In one of standard leads cardiac complex PQRST is absent, interval between previous and following R waves are doubled. Other complexes are preserved, intervals between them are equal, there are no changes of P, QRS, T. What this data testify about? A. * Sinoatrial block, B. Atrial block, C. Non-complete AV block, D. Complete AV block, E. Hiss bundlebranch block. 525. On ECG of a patient it was recorded that cardiac complex PQRST periodically appeared early than normal, complex QRS is deformed, P wave is absent. In the I standard and V5, V 6 leads wave S is deep while wave R is small, in V1 was recorded complex with high R wave. Which heart rrhythm disorder is present in this case? A. Sinus extrasystole B. Atrial extrasystole C. Atrioventricular extrasystole D. * Left ventricular extrasystole; E. Right ventricular extrasystole; 526. On ECG of a patient it was recorded that cardiac complex PQRST periodically appeared early than normal, complex QRS is deformed, P wave is absent. In the I standard and V5, V 6 leads wave S is small while wave R is high, in V1 was recorded complex with small R and deep S wave. Which heart rrhythm disorder is present in this case? A. Sinus extrasystole B. Atrial extrasystole C. Atrioventricular extrasystole D. Left ventricular extrasystole; E. * Right ventricular extrasystole; 527. On the basis of patient’s ECG diagnosis was put “atrial extrasystolic arrhythmia”. ECG signs of atrial extrasystole are the following: A. Absence of Р wave and change of ventricular complex; B. * Р wave form is changed (biphasic), it is present before each QRS complex, QRS complex is not changed; C. Р wave form is changed (biphasic), it is present before each QRS complex, QRS complex is changed; D. Р wave presence and periodical missing of ventricular complex; E. Р wave is recorded after ventricular complex. 528. On the electrocardiogram intervals Р-Р are equal to 0,9 seconds, R-R=1,5 seconds. P waves and QRS complexes are recorded independently each of other. What pathology should you think about? A. Sinoatrial block, B. Atrial block, C. Non-complete AV block, D. * Complete AV block, E. Hiss bundlebranch block. 529. One the phonocardiogram of a patient with heart disease the diamond-shaped systolic murmur is registered. The murmur doesn't merge with the 2 heart sound. Which heart valvular defect this murmur is typical for? A. Aortal incompetence, B. Mitral incompetence, C. * Aortal stenosis, D. Mitral stenosis, E. Tricuspidal stenosis. 530. Patient A., 54 years old, suffers from rheumatic attacks within recent 25 years. Displacement of his heart dullness borders upwards and rightwards was revealed by percussion because of hypertrophy of the left atrium and right ventricle. What ECG-signs of left atrial hypertrophy do you know? A. Rising of amplitude of wave P. B. Rising of amplitude of wave R. C. Decreasing of amplitude of wave R. D. Duration of wave P is not changed. E. * Appearance of biphasic P wave. 531. Patient B. 60 years old, complains of dispnoe, palpitation, oedema of feet. During the last 10 years he suffers from stenocardia, hypertension. 15 min before the patient has developed sudden attack of palpitation. On ECG: fast heart rate (175 per min), all the ECG components are preserved. Which heart rrhythm disorder is present in the patient? A. Sinus tachicardia; B. Ventricular fibrillation; C. Sinus arrhythmia; D. Atrial fibrillation; E. * Paroxismal tachycardia 532. Patient H.,36 years old, had attack of rheumatic fever in childhood and since that time aortal incompetence had developed. X-ray examination of the heart has being performed for the patient. What is the main roentgenological sign of this heart defect? A. * Aortic heart configuration. B. Mitral heart configuration. C. Enlargement of the aortic rout. D. Hypertrophy of the right ventricle. E. Hypertrophy of the left ventricle. 533. Patient H.,36 years old, had attack of rheumatic fever in childhood and since that time mitral incompetence developed. X-ray examination of the heart has being performed for the patient. What is the main roentgenological sign of this heart defect? A. Aortic heart configuration. B. * Mitral heart configuration. C. Enlargement of the aortic rout. D. Hypertrophy of the right ventricle. E. Hypertrophy of the left ventricle. 534. Patient O., 40 years old, was admitted to the clinics because of arterial hypertension complicated with hypertonic crisis. Data of ECG: R1>RII>RIII. RV6>RV5>RV4, SIII>SII>SI, SVI,VI – deep. What these data testify about? A. Hypertrophy of the right ventricle B. * hypertrophy of the left ventricle C. Block of the right bundlebranch of Hiss D. Block of the left bundlebranch of Hiss E. Subepicardial ischemia 535. Patient В., 42 years old, suddenly has turned pale and has lost consciousness. Pulse and arterial pressure are not determined, heart sounds aren't heard . A doctor suspected Morgagni- Adams-Stocks syndrome in him. What is this? A. Appearance of AV block 1 degree; B. Transition of AV block 1 degree to AV block II degree; C. Transition of AV block II degree Mobitz I to Mobitz II; D. Transition of AV block II degree Mobitz II to Mobitz III; E. * Transition of AV block II degree Mobitz III to complete AV block 536. Patient В., 42 years old, suddenly has turned pale and has lost consciousness. Pulse and arterial pressure are not determined, heart sounds aren't heard . ECG: a great number of disoderly different waves. Which heart rrhythm disorder is present in the patient? A. Atrioventricular block; B. Atrial flutter; C. Atrial fibrillation; D. * Ventricular flutter and fibrillation; E. Ventricular extrasystole 537. Patient М., 55 years old, periodically feels attacks of angina pectoralis within the recent year. Recently he developed pronounced bradycardia. Frequent attacks of dizzinesses and faints are present for the last 2 month. Pulse rate is 36 per min. Doctors advice for the patient implantation of artificial pacemaker. Which heart rrhythm disorder is present? A. Sinoatrial block, B. Atrial block, C. Non-complete AV block, D. * Complete AV block, E. Hiss bundlebranch block. 538. On the basis of patient’s ECG diagnosis was put “ventricular extrasystolic arrhythmia”. ECG signs of ventricular extrasystole are the following: A. * Absence of Р wave, broadening and disfiguration of ventricular complex, discordant displacement of ST; B. Р wave form is changed (biphasic), it is present before each QRS complex, QRS complex is not changed; C. Р wave form is changed (biphasic), it is present before each QRS complex, QRS complex is changed; D. Р wave presence and periodical missing of ventricular complex; E. Р wave is recorded after ventricular complex. F. 539. A student determined position of stomach lower border by percutory palpation. He put the right hand 3 cm lower downward than with the usage of deep sliding palpation he revealed elastic cylinder 2 cm in length slightly movable and painless without rumbling sounds. What the organ is this? A. Pyorus B. Duodenum C. * Transverse colon D. Pancreas E. Small stomach curve 540. Patient applies for medical advice because of pain in paraumbilical region which appears mostly in the morning, they are crumping and are followed with intestinal inflation. Affection of which part of digestive tract should you suspect? A. stomach B. esophagus C. * gallbladder D. intestine E. pancreas 541. Patient G. is seeking for medical advise because of periodical crumping pain in the lower parts of abdominal region, pain does not depend on food intake and it arises before defecation. Affection of which part of digestive tract should you suspect? A. stomach B. small intestine C. * large intestine D. spleen E. pancreas 542. Patient I., 26 y.o.., entered clinic with complaints on edema below eyes, increase of body temperature to 37,8 degree, discoloration of urine. 2 weeks ago he was ill with quinsy. What research must be conducted? A. ECG; B. * urinalysis; C. Chest X-ray; D. Ultrasound of a heart E. gastroscopy. 543. Patient R. complains of increased frequency of defecation till 4-5 times a day within the last weak. Volume of stool and amount of liquid in it are also increased. Which possible cause of this condition do you know? A. Infection B. Intoxication C. Food allergy D. Exposure to radiation E. * All mentioned 544. Patient М. is seeking for medical advise because of complaints on poor appetite, disgust for meat, considerable loss of body weight during the last year, periodical blood admixtures to the stool. Which pathological condition should you suspect in the patient? A. peptic ulcer B. Chronic gastritis C. hemorrhoids D. * cancer of the intestine E. enteritis 545. Patient P. is admitted to a hospital by ambulance. At inspection: patient’s pupils are wide. How is this symptom called? A. Myosis B. *Midriasis C. Xantomas D. Ceratitis E. Myolisis 546. Patient D., 70 years old, is in therapeutic department on long-standing treatment because of ischemic heart disease. He tends to sit with the lowered legs because when he lies down dyspnea becomes more severe. How can you characterise patient's position? A. Passive B. Active C. Forced passive D. *Forced E. Horizontal 547. Unknown person was found on the street unconscious and hospitalized. Smell of acetone is felt from his mouth. Which type of coma is present? A. Apoplectic B. * Hyperglecaemic C. Hepatic D. Alcohol E. Uremic 548. During inspection of a patient a doctor revealed skin paleness, falling of hears from external part of eyebrows. These signs are typical for: A. Anaemia B. Hypertension C. Rheumatic disease D. * Hypothyreosis E. Diffused toxic goiter 549. A patient was undergone long-term antibiotic therapy. Now he complain of painful sensations in his oral cavity. During inspection of a patient a doctor revealed small white spots on the internal suface of patient’s cheeks. Which pathological codition did develop in him? A. *Fungal infection (stomatitis) B. Measles C. Gingivitis D. Necrosis E. This is a normal findind 550. Data of inspection: patient with bronchial asthma is sitting in a bed and assumes ortopnea position, exaggerate skin cyanosis is present, as well as edema on the legs. A such of position the patient assumes because of: A. Pain B. Edema C. *Dyspnea D. Skin cyanosis E. All mentioned above 551. During inspection of a chest it was revealed that spinal cord is curved forwards in its lumbar region more than in norm. How is this deformation called? A. Kyphosis B. Scoliosis C. * Lordosis D. Kyphoscoliosis E. Kypholordosis 552. Patient D. suffers with bronchiectatic disease for 7 years. Now he is in exacerbation phase and complais of severe cough. After one intensive coughing paroxysm he has developed progressing dyspnea and oain in the chest. Bbandbox sound is obtain with percussion at the right part of the chest while absence of breathing sounds - during auscultation Sudden decrease of vital lung capacity ic recorded on spyrogram. What the presented data may suggest about? A. Lung amyloidosis B. Bronchial obstruction C. Pneumonia D. * Spontaneous pneumothorax E. Empyema pleurae Test tasks to the pictures 1. Which type of a chest is presented on the picture 1? A. A.* barrel-like B. B. Rachitic C. C. Kyphoscoliotic D. D. Paralytic E. E. Foveated 2. Which type of a chest is presented on the picture 2? A. * Kyphoscoliotic B. Emphysematous C. Rachitic D. Paralytic E. Funnel 3. Which type of a chest is presented on the picture 3? A. Kyphoscoliotic B. Emphysematous C. Paralytic D. * Funnel E. Pigeone 4. Look at the picture 4. Which disease is this gait typical for? A. * Ankylosing spondylarthritis (Bechterew’s disease) B. Rheumatism C. Pneumonia D. Angina Pectoris E. Peptic ulcer 5. Which disease among the following may be suspected during examination of patient’s face on the picture 6? A. *Diffuse toxic goitre B. Hypothyroidism C. Diabetes mellitus D. Cushing’s disease E. Acromegaly 6. The chest presented on the picture 9 is typical for: A. *Tuberculosis B. Urolithiasis C. Meningitis D. Pneumonia E. All answers are wrong 7. On the picture 9 a patient with tuberculosis is presented. Which shape of the chest does he have? A. Kyphoscolitic B. Emphysematous C. rachitic D. *Paralytic E. Foveated 8. Which type of constitution is presented on the picture 10 under N 1? A. *Asthenic B. Normosthenic C. Hypersthenic D. Hyponormosthenic E. All answers are correct 9. 10. Which type of constitution is presented on the picture 10 under N 2? A. Asthenic B. *Normosthenic C. Hypersthenic D. Hyponormosthenic E. All answers are correct 11. Which type of constitution is presented on the picture 10 under N 3? A. Asthenic B. Normosthenic C. *Hypersthenic D. Hyponormosthenic E. All answers are correct 12. Which topographic line on a chest is it indicated on the picture 12 under the number 1? A. *anterior axillary line B. Parasternal C. Sternal D. Scapular E. Posterior median line 13. Which topographic line on a chest is it indicated on the picture 12 under the number 2? A. Midclavicular B. *Parasternal C. Sternal D. Scapular E. Posterior median line 14. Which topographic line onthe right part of a chest is it indicated on the picture 12 under the number 3 (number 4 is median line) A. Posterior median line B. *Sternal C. Scapular D. Midclavicular E. Parasternal 15. Which topographic line on a chest is it indicated on the picture 12 under the number 4? A. *Anterior median line B. Posterior median line C. Scapular D. Midclavicular E. Parasternal 16. Which topographic line on a chest is it indicated on the picture 12 under the number 5? A. *Anterior axillary line B. Posterior axillary line C. Medial axillary line D. Scapular E. Paravertebral line 17. Which topographic line on a chest is it indicated on the picture 12 under the number 6? A. Anterior axillary line B. Posterior axillary line C. *Medial axillary line D. Scapular E. Paravertebral line 18. Which topographic line on a chest is it indicated on the picture 12 under the number 7? A. Anterior axillary line B. *Posterior axillary line C. Scapular D. Paravertebral line E. No any answer is correct 19. Which type of spinal cord pathological deformation is presented on the picture 13? A. *Scoliosis B. Lordosis C. Kyphosis D. All answers are correct E. All answers are not correct 20. Which type of spinal cord pathological deformation is presented on the picture 14 ? A. Scoliosis B. *Lordosis C. Kyphosis D. All answers are correct E. All answers are not correct 21. Which type of spinal cord pathological deformation is presented on the picture 15? A. Scoliosis B. Lordosis C. *Kyphosis D. All answers are not correct E. All answers are correct 22. Look at the picture 16. Which disease is this facial expression typical for? A. Diabetes mellitus B. Hypothyreosis C. *Acromegaly D. Hyperthyroidism E. Mitral stenosis 23. Which type of a chest is presented on the picture 17? A. *Rachitic B. Kyphoscoliotic C. Funnel D. Emphysematous E. All answers are not correct 24. Which type of a chest is presented on the picture 18? A. Rachitic B. Kyphoscoliotic C. Emphysematous D. All answers are not correct E. *Foveated 25. What is indicated under the number 8 on the picture 19? A. Forced expiratory volume for the 1st second B. Respiratory volume C. Minute oxygen consumption D. Reserve expiratory volume E. *Forced vital lung capacity 26. What is indicated under the number 9 on the picture on the picture 19? A. Minute oxygen consumption B. Vital lung capacity C. *Forced expiratory volume for the 1st second D. Maximal lung ventilation E. Minute respiratory volume 27. Which purulent lung disease is presented on the X-ray film ( picture 21)? A. Gangroene B. *Lung abscess C. Bronchitis D. Bronchial asthma E. Pneumonia 28. Which disease is presented on the picture 22 under the number 2? A. Bronchitis B. *Bronchiectatic disease C. Pneumonia D. Lung cancer E. Bronchiolitis 29. Which disease is presented on the tomogram (picture 23)? A. Pneumonia B. Lung cancer C. *Bronchiectatic disease D. Bronchitis E. Foreign body in main bronchus 30. Look at the picture 24. At which point is it necessary to perform puncture of a chest during pleurocentesis? A. Upper edge of the IV rib B. Upper edge of the V rib C. Upper edge of the III rib D. *Upper edge of the VIII or IX rib E. Upper edge of the XI rib 31. Which method of examination is it presented on the picture 25? A. *Assessment of external respiratory function (ERF) B. Bronchoscopy C. Angiopulmonography D. Roentgenoscopy E. No any answer is correct 32. A patient after supper in a restaurant developed pain in the chest as it is presented on the picture 26. What can you suspect in this case? A. Myocarditis B. Cardioneurosis C. *Angina pectoris D. Pleuricy E. Myositis 33. A patient after supper in a restaurant developed pain in the chest as it is presented on the picture 26. What should the patient do if he is hurried on a train? A. To keep going B. To put on more warm clothes C. To leave luggage on the street D. To stop E. *To relax and take medicines 34. Як називається симптом, зображений на рисунку 27 у хворого з вадою сердця? A. *Акроціаноз B. Рейно C. “барабанних паличок” D. Ортнера E. Мерфі 35. Look at the picture 28. How is this symptom called? A. Koilonychia B. *“Hyppocrates fingers” C. Watch glasses D. Heberden’s nodes E. Bushar’s nodes 36. Look at the picture 29. Which method of blood pressure measurement is presented? A. By Riva_Rocchi B. *By Korotkov C. By Botkin D. By Strajesko E. No any answer is correct 37. What actually the doctor assesses with this method (picture 30)? A. Skin propeties B. Subcutaneous fat tissue development C. *Edema D. Lymphocirculation E. Lower limbs venous system state 38. Look at the picture31. Which pulse property does the student assess? A. rrhythm B. *Symetricity on both arms C. Filling D. Tension E. Pulse rate 39. Look at the picture 32. How is this symptom called? A. Anasarca B. “Caput medusae” C. *Ascites D. Hydropericardoum E. Hydrothorax 40. Look at the picture 33. What does the doctor assesses in this case? A. Heart dullness borders B. Hibbus cardiacus C. Heart vascular bundle D. *Apex beat E. “Systolic cat’s purr” 41. What is it presented on the picture 34? A. Determination of vascular bundle B. *Determination of the right border of relative cardiac dullness C. Determination of the upper border of relative cardiac dullness D. Determination of the right border of absolute cardiac dullness E. Determination of the lower border of the right lung 42. Look at the picture 35. What does the doctor assesses in this case? A. Apex beat B. The lower border of the left lung C. Heart vascular bundle D. *The left border of relative cardiac dullness E. The left border of absolute cardiac dullness 43. Which valve is auscultated at the point 1 on the picture 36? A. *Aortal valve B. Pulmonary trunk valve C. Mitral valve D. Mitral and aortal valves E. Tricuspid valve 44. Which valve is auscultated at the point 8 on the picture 36? A. Aortal valve B. Pulmonary trunk valve C. *Mitral valve D. Mitral and aortal valves E. Tricuspid valve 45. Which valve is auscultated at the point 5 on the picture 36? A. Mitral and aortal valves B. Tricuspid valve C. Mitral valve D. Aortal valve E. *Pulmonary trunk valve 46. Which valve projection of the chest is it presented on the picture 36 (point 7)? A. Aortal valve B. Pulmonary trunk valve C. *Mitral valve D. Mitral and aortal valves E. Tricuspid valve 47. Which valve projection of the chest is it presented on the picture 36 (point 4)? A. Aortal valve B. Pulmonary trunk valve C. Mitral valve D. Mitral and aortal valves E. *Tricuspid valve 48. Which valve projection of the chest is it presented on the picture 36 (point 2)? A. Aortal valve B. *Pulmonary trunk valve C. Mitral valve D. Mitral and aortal valves E. Tricuspid valve 49. Which valve projection of the chest is it presented on the picture 36 (point 6)? A. *Aortal valve B. Pulmonary trunk valve C. Mitral valve D. Mitral and aortal valves E. Tricuspid valve 50. Look at the picture 37. Auscultation of which valve is it executed? A. Mitral and aortal valves B. Pulmonary trunk valve C. Mitral valve D. *Aortal valve E. Tricuspid valve 51. Look at the picture 38. Auscultation of which valve is it executed? A. Mitral and aortal valves B. Pulmonary trunk valve C. Mitral valve D. *Tricuspid valve E. Aortal valve 52. What is it indicated with number 10 on the picture 39? A. Macheim’s fibers B. James’s fascicle C. *Sinus node D. Atrioventricular node E. Brachman’s fascicle 53. What is it indicated with number 1 on the picture 39? A. Macheim’s fibers B. James’s fascicle C. Sinus node D. *Atrioventricular node E. Brachman’s fascicle 54. What is it indicated with number 7 on the picture 39? A. James’s fascicle B. *Right Hiss bundlebranch C. Macheim’s fibers D. Purkinje’s fibers E. Brachman’s fascicle 55. What is it indicated with number 4 on the picture 39? A. James’s fascicle B. Right Hiss bundlebranch C. Macheim’s fibers D. *Purkinje’s fibers E. Brachman’s fascicle 56. Look at the picture 40. This is a device which is used for mediate auscultation. Which scientist inculcated this device? A. P. Piori B. О.L.Miasnikov C. F.G.Yanovsky D. *R. Laennec E. О.О.Оstroumov 57. Look at the picture 41. Which syndrome is present on this ECG? A. Hyperthrophy of the left ventricle B. Hyperthrophy of the left atrium C. *Hyperthrophy of the right atrium D. Hyperthrophy of the left atrium and the right ventricle E. Hyperthrophy of the right atrium and the left ventricle 58. Look at the picture 42. Which syndrome is present on this ECG? A. *Hyperthrophy of the left ventricle B. Hyperthrophy of the left atrium C. Hyperthrophy of the right atrium D. Hyperthrophy of the left atrium and the right ventricle E. Hyperthrophy of the right atrium and the left ventricle 59. Look at the picture 43. Which syndrome is present on this ECG? A. Hyperthrophy of the left ventricle B. *Hyperthrophy of the left atrium C. Hyperthrophy of the right atrium D. Hyperthrophy of the left atrium and the right ventricle E. Hyperthrophy of the right atrium and the left ventricle 60. Look at the picture 44. Which syndrome is present on this ECG? A. Hyperthrophy of the left ventricle B. Hyperthrophy of the left atrium C. Hyperthrophy of the left atrium and the right ventricle D. Hyperthrophy of the right atrium and the left ventricle E. *Hyperthrophy of the right atrium 61. Look at the picture 45. What is presented on the PCG under the number I? A. *First heart sound B. Systolic murmur C. Second heart sound D. Third heart sound E. First heart sound and systolic murmur 62. Look at the picture 45. What is presented on the PCG under the number II? A. First heart sound B. Systolic murmu C. *Second heart sound D. Third heart sound E. Diastolic murmur 63. Look at the picture 45. What is presented on the PCG under the number III? A. *Third heart sound B. First heart sound C. Systolic murmu D. Second heart sound E. Diastolic murmur 64. Look at the picture 45. What is presented on the PCG under the number ІV? A. *Forth heart sound B. First heart sound C. Systolic murmur D. Second heart sound E. Diastolic murmur 65. Look at the ECG on the picture 46. What is direction of electrical heart axis? A. *Deviation of electrical heart axis on the left B. Deviation of electrical heart axis on the right C. Electrical heart axis is not deviated D. It is not possible to reveal E. Vertical position of electrical heart axis 66. Look at the ECG on the picture 46. What can you see about heart rrhythm? A. Not sinus rrhythm B. *Sinus rrhythm C. Atrial rrhythm D. It is not possible to reveal E. Ventricular rrhythm (idioventricular) 67. Look at the ECG on the picture 47. What is presented on the picture? A. Atrial extrasystoly B. Ventricular extrasystoly C. *Extrasystols from atrioventricular junction D. Supraventricular paroxysmal tachycardia E. Atrial fibrillation 68. Look at the ECG on the picture 48. What is presented on the picture? A. Atrial extrasystoly B. Atrioventricular block I degree C. Extrasystols from atrioventricular junction D. *Atrioventricular block II degree E. Atrioventricular block III degree 69. Look at the ECG on the picture 49. What is presented on the picture? A. *Samoiliv-Venkebach’s periods in AV block B. Complete compensatory pause C. Non-complete compensatory pause D. F waves E. f waves 70. What is presented on the picture 50? A. Electrocardiography B. *Coronarography C. Ultrasound examination of a heart D. Phonocardiography E. Echocardiography 71. What is presented on the picture 51? A. Sphygmography B. *Ultrasound examination of a heart C. Coronarography D. Phonocardiography E. Phlebotonometry 72. Look at the ECG on the picture 52. Which changes can you see? A. Atrial extrasystoly B. *Ventricular extrasystoly C. Extrasystols from atrioventricular junction D. Ventricular paroxysmal tachycardia E. Atrial fibrilation 73. Look at the ECG on the picture 53. Which changes can you see? A. Quadrigeminy B. Group extrasystols C. *Polytopic extrasystols D. Trigeminy E. Bigeminy 74. Look at the ECG on the picture 54. Which changes can you see? A. Quadrigeminy B. Group extrasystols C. Polytopic extrasystols D. Trigeminy E. *Bigeminy 75. Look at the ECG on the picture 55. Which changes can you see? A. Quadrigeminy B. *Group extrasystols C. Polytopic extrasystols D. Trigeminy E. Bigeminy 76. Look at the ECG on the picture 56. Which changes can you see? A. *Complete right Hiss bundlebranch block B. Noncomplete right Hiss bundlebranch block C. Ventricular extrasystoly D. Noncomplete left Hiss bundlebranch block E. Complete left Hiss bundlebranch block 77. Look at the ECG on the picture 57. Which changes can you see? A. Atrial extrasystoly B. *Ventricular extrasystoly C. Complete right Hiss bundlebranch block D. Ventricular paroxysmal tachycardia E. Extrasystole from the right ventricular hypertrophy 78. Look at the ECG on the picture 58. Which changes can you see? A. Atrial extrasystole B. *Ventricular extrasystoly C. Complete right Hiss bundlebranch block D. Extrasystole from atrioventricular junction E. Polytopic extrasystoly 79. Look at the ECG on the picture 59. Which changes can you see? A. Extrasystole from the upper parts of atriums B. Ventricular extrasystole C. *Extrasystole from the lower parts of atriums D. Extrasystole from atrioventricular junction E. Extrasystole from the medial parts of atriums 80. Look at the ECG on the picture 60. Which changes can you see? A. Polytopic extrasystoly B. Ventricular extrasystoly C. *Supraventricular paroxysmal tachycardia D. Ventricular paroxysmal extrasystoly E. Atrial fibrillation 81. Look at the ECG on the picture 61. Which changes can you see? A. Extrasystole from the upper parts of atriums B. Extrasystole from atrioventricular junction (simultaneous excitation of atriums and ventricles) C. *Extrasystole from the lower parts of atriums D. Extrasystole from atrioventricular junction (ectopic impulse first reaches ventricles and after that atriums) E. Extrasystole from the medial parts of atriums 82. Look at the ECG on the picture 62. Which changes can you see? A. Extrasystole from the upper parts of atriums B. *Extrasystole from atrioventricular junction (simultaneous excitation of atriums and ventricles) C. Extrasystole from the lower parts of atriums D. Extrasystole from atrioventricular junction (ectopic impulse first reaches ventricles and after that atriums) E. Extrasystole from the medial parts of atriums 83. Look at the ECG on the picture 63. Which changes can you see? A. Extrasystole from the upper parts of atriums B. Extrasystole from atrioventricular junction (simultaneous excitation of atriums and ventricles) C. Extrasystole from the lower parts of atriums D. *Extrasystole from atrioventricular junction (ectopic impulse first reaches ventricles and after that atriums) E. Extrasystole from the medial parts of atriums 84. Look at the ECG on the picture 64. Which changes can you see? A. *Ventricular extrasystoly B. Ventricular flutter C. Ventricular fibrillation D. Asystoly 85. Look at the ECG on the picture 65. Which changes can you see? A. *Normal ECG B. Sinus bradycardia C. Sinus tachycardia D. Sinus arrythmia E. Atrioventricular block 86. Look at the ECG on the picture 67. What is heart rate? A. 70 per min B. 85 per min C. *150 per min D. 100 per min E. 50 per min 87. Look at the ECG on the picture 66. Heart rate is 100 per min.Which changes can you see? A. Normal ECG B. Supraventricular paroxysmal tachycardia C. *Sinus tachycardia D. Sinus arrythmia E. Ventricular paroxysmal tachycardia 88. Look at the ECG on the picture 67. What is heart rate? A. *150 per min B. 145 per min C. 90 per min D. 100 per min E. 120 per min 89. Look at the ECG on the picture 68. Which changes can you see? A. Normal ECG B. *Sinus bradycardia C. Sinus tachycardia D. Sinus arrythmia E. Atrioventricular block 90. Look at the ECG on the picture 69. Which changes can you see? A. Quadrigeminy B. Group extrasystoles C. Polytopic extrasystoles D. Ventricular paroxysmal tachycardia E. *Supraventricular paroxysmal tachycardia 91. Look on the picture 70. With which number is the zone indicated painful in inflammation of small intestine? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. *5 E. 9 92. How are pathological changes called presented on the picture 71? A. *Xanthelasmas B. Papilomas C. Spider angiomata D. Hemorrhagias E. Hematomas 93. Look at the X-ray film on the picture 72. Which X-ray method Зis used to obtain it? A. Fluorography B. Tomography C. *Cholecystography D. irrigography E. Plain X-ray 94. Look at the picture 73. How many santimeters does the size of a liver take (measured by Kurlov’s method) indicated with number 1? A. 6 ± 1cm B. 7 ±1cm C. 8 ± 1cm D. *9 ± 1cm E. 10 ±1cm 95. Look at the picture 73. How many santimeters does the size of a liver take (measured by Kurlov’s method) indicated with number 2? A. 6 ± 1cm B. 7 ±1cm C. *8 ± 1cm D. 9 ± 1cm E. 10 ±1cm 96. Look at the picture 73. How many santimeters does the size of a liver take (measured by Kurlov’s method) indicated with number 3? A. 6 ± 1cm B. *7 ±1cm C. 8 ± 1cm D. 9 ± 1cm E. 10 ±1cm 97. Execution of which intestine is presented on the picture 74? A. Sigmoig B. *Caecum C. Ascending colon D. Descending colon E. Transverse colon 98. Execution of which intestine examination is presented on the picture 75? A. *Sigmoig B. Caecum C. Ascending colon D. Descending colon E. Transverse colon 99. Look at the picture 76. How is this method of examination called? A. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy B. Rectoromanoscopy C. Irrigoscopy D. Laparoscopy E. *Colonoscopy 100. Look at the picture 77. Which organ is palpated by bimanual palpation in this case? A. Pancreas B. Caecum C. *Ascending colon D. Descending colon E. Liver 101. What is the aim of diagnostic manoeuvre execution presented on the picture 78? A. *To reveal free liquid in pleural cavity B. To reveal stomach tumor C. To reveal meteorism D. To reveal nephroptosis E. To assess peculiarities of transverse colon 102. Look at the picture 79. In which disease such changes of mammary glands are possible in a male individuum? A. Peptic ulcer B. *Liver cirrhosis C. Cholelithiasis D. Chronic colitis E. Chronic pancreatitis 103. Execurion of which additional method of examination is presented on the picture 80? A. Cholecystography B. Fibrogastroscopy C. *Duodenal probing D. Irrigography E. Colonoscopy 104. Which changes are presented on the picture 81? A. Varicous dilatation of veins B. Hemorrhages into the skin C. * Slightly pulsating angiomas (spider angiomata) D. Intradermal accumulation of hemosiderin E. Hemorrhagic rash 105. Look at the picture 81. Pathology of which organ these changes of skin indicate on? A. Stomach B. Pancreas C. Gallbladder D. *Liver E. Spleen 106. Execution of which diagnostic procedure is presented on the picture 82? A. * Paracentesis B. Biopsy C. Laparoscopy D. Pleurocentesis E. Bone marrow puncture 107. Execution of which examination method is presented on the picture 83? A. * Computer tomography B. Scintigraphy C. Dopplerography D. Ultrasound examination E. Colonoscopy 108. Palpation of which organ is presented on the picture 84? A. Pancreas B. *Spleen C. Ascending colon D. Descending colon E. Sigmoid intestine 109. Look at the picture 85. Which organ is palpated by bimanual palpation in this case? A. *Right kidney B. Transverse colon C. A gallbladder D. Ascending colon E. Caecum 110. Look at the picture 87. With which number the irradiation of pain in renal colic is indicated? A. 1 B. *2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 111. Look at the picture 87. With which number the irradiation of pain in bile ducts affection is indicated? A. *1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 112. Palpation of which organ does the doctor perform on the picture 88? A. *Right kidney B. Left kidney C. Pancreas D. Spleen E. Stomach 113. Palpation of which organ does the doctor perform on the picture 89? A. Right kidney B. * Left kidney C. Pancreas D. Spleen E. Stomach 114. Which method of examination is presented on the picture 90? A. Computer tomography B. *Ultrasound examination C. Excretory urogram D. Angiography E. Scanography 115. In which chronic purulent diseases such shape of fingers may be revealed like on the picture 91? A. *Chronic purulent diseases of lungs B. Chronic purulent diseases of kidneys C. Chronic purulent diseases in digestive system D. Chronic purulent diseases of a brain E. All answers are wrong 116. Which method of examination is presented on the picture 92? A. Computer tomography B. Ultrasound examination C. Excretory urogram D. *Plain X-ray E. Scanography 117. Which method of examination is presented on the picture 93? A. Computer tomography B. Ultrasound examination C. *Excretory urogram D. Angiography E. Scanography 118. Which method of examination is presented on the picture 94? A. *Computer tomography B. Ultrasound examination C. Excretory urogram D. Angiography E. Scanography 119. Which method of examination is presented on the picture 95? A. Computer tomography B. Ultrasound examination C. Excretory urogram D. *Angiography E. Scanography 120. Assessment of which symptom is presented on the picture 96? A. *Pasternatsky’s symptom B. Murphy’s symptom C. Kehr’s symptom D. Orthner’s symptom E. Vasylenko’s symptom 121. Which method of examination is presented on the picture 97? A. Computer tomography B. Ultrasound examination C. Excretory urogram D. *Cystography E. Scanography 122. Knee joint contracture is presented on the picture 98. In which disease of the blood such a sign is possible to reveal? A. Acute leukemia B. *Hemophilia C. Thrombocytopenia D. Myeloleukosis E. Anaemia 123. Which type of a chest is presented on the picture 1? A. Kyphoscoliotic B. *Emphysematous C. Rachitic D. Funnel E. Foveated 124. Look at the picture 1. Which disease emphysematous chest is typical for? A. *Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease B. Hypertension C. Obesity D. Bronchiectatic disease E. Pleurisy with effusion 125. Choose X-ray signs typival for emphysematous chest (picture 1)? A. * Horizontal direction of ribs, wide intercostal spaces B. Oblique-vertical direction of ribs, narrow intercostal spaces C. Vertical direction of ribs, epigastric angle 90? D. Horizontal direction of ribs on affected side, scoliosis E. Horizontal direction of ribs, kyphoscoliosis 126. Look at the picture 1. Which disease is this type of chest typical for? A. Pneumonia B. *Bronchial asthma C. Chronic non-obstructive bronchitis D. Bronchiectatic disease E. Pleurisy with effusion 127. Which type of a chest is it presented on the picture 2? A. *Kyphoscoliotic B. Emphysematous C. Rachitic D. Paralytic E. Foveated 128. Which disease often develops in presence of chest deformation as on the picture 2? A. *Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease B. Hypertension C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Ischemic heart disease E. Pneumonia 129. Which disease is such a facial expression typical for as on the picture 20? A. Systemic scleroderma B. Hypothyreosis C. Acromegaly D. Cushing’s sundrome E. *Lupus erytematodus 130. Look at the picture 4. Which disease is this bearing typical for? A. *Ankylosing spondylarthritis (Bechterew’s disease) B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease C. Bronchial asthma D. Cushing’s disease E. Acromegaly 131. Which posture of a patient is typical for ankylosing spondylarthritis (picture 4)? A. *Pose of suppliant B. «Proud pose» C. Pose of mohammedan which prays D. Pose of a hunting dog E. Opistotonus 132. How the face of a patient with Cushing’s syndrome called (picture 5)? A. Mitral face B. Hippocrates face C. Korvizar’s face D. *Moon-like face E. Adenoid face 133. Look at patient’s face on the picture 6. Which disease can you suspect in this case? A. *Diffuse toxic goitre B. Mixedema C. Addison’s disease D. Cushing’s syndrome E. Acromegaly 134. Which shape of the chest is typical for body constitution indicated by number 1 on the picture 10? A. *Anterioposterior size of the chest is decreased, intercostal spaces are pulled in, ribs direction is oblique, epigastric angle is less than 90° B. The chest is proportional, intercostal spaces are insignificantly pulled in, epigastric angle is about 90°. C. Anterioposterior size of the chest is wider than in normostenics, intercostal spaces are not elevated, ribs direction is more close to horizontal, epigastric angle is more than 90° D. The chest has elevation in the lower part of the sternum like a funnel E. The sternum is protruded forward and resembles pigeon chest 135. Which shape of the chest is typical for body constitution indicated by number 2 on the picture 10? A. Anterioposterior size of the chest is diminished, intercostal spaces are pulled in, ribs direction is oblique, epigastric angle is less than 90° B. *The chest is proportional, intercostal spaces are insignificantly pulled in, epigastric angle is about 90° C. Anterioposterior size of the chest is wider than in normostenics, intercostal spaces are not elevated, ribs direction is more close to horizontal, epigastric angle is more than 90° D. The chest has elevation in the lower part of the sternum like a funnel E. The sternum is protruded forward and resembles pigeon chest 136. Which shape of the chest is typical for body constitution indicated by number 3 on the picture 10? A. Anterioposterior size of the chest is diminished, intercostal spaces are pulled in, ribs direction is oblique, epigastric angle is less than 90° B. Forented chest C. *Anterioposterior size of the chest is wider than in normostenics, intercostal spaces are not elevated, ribs direction is more close to horizontal, epigastric angle is more than 90° D. The chest has elevation in the lower part of the sternum like a funnel E. The sternum is protruded forward and resembles pigeon chest 137. Which method of examination presented on the picture 23 is useful for diagnostics of bronchiectatic disease? A. Plain X-ray B. *Computer tomography C. Magnetic resonance tomography D. Contrast X-ray examination E. Ultrasound examination 138. Which topographic line on the chest is indicated on the picture 12 under the number 8? A. Anterior axillary B. Posterior axillary C. *Scapular D. Paravertebral E. No any answer is correct 139. Which topographic line on the chest is indicated on the picture 12 under the number 9? A. Anterior axillary B. Posterior axillary C. Scapular D. *Paravertebral E. No any answer is correct 140. Which topographic line on the chest is indicated on the picture 12 under the number 10? A. Anterior axillary B. Posterior axillary C. Scapular D. Paravertebral E. *Posterior median line 141. Choose numbers of lines necessary for determination of lower lung border mobility by percussion (picture 12)? A. 2, 2, 9 B. *1, 6, 8 C. 1, 5, 8 D. 2, 5, 6 E. 5, 6, 7 142. Which method graphic registration is presented on the picture 19? A. Oxyhemography B. Angiopulmonography C. *Spirography D. Bronchigraphy E. Perfusion scintigraphy 143. What is presented on the picture 19 under the number 1: A. Forced expiratory volume for the first second B. *Respiratory volume C. Minute oxygen consumption D. Reserve expiratory volume E. Forced vital lung capacity 144. What is presented on the picture 19 under the number 2: A. Forced expiratory volume for the first second B. Respiratory volume C. *Minute respiratory volume D. Reserve expiratory volume E. Forced vital lung capacity 145. What is presented on the picture 19 under the number 5: A. Forced expiratory volume for the first second B. Respiratory volume C. Minute respiratory volume D. *Reserve inspiratory volume E. Reserve expiratory volume 146. What is presented on the picture 19 under the number 6: A. Forced expiratory volume for the first second B. Respiratory volume C. Minute respiratory volume D. Reserve inspiratory volume E. *Reserve expiratory volume 147. What is presented on the picture 19 under the number 7: A. Respiratory volume B. Minute respiratory volume C. Reserve expiratory volume D. Forced vital lung capacity E. *Vital lung capasity 148. What is presented on the picture 19 under the number 10: A. Forced expiratory volume for the first second B. Respiratory volume C. Minute respiratory volume D. Reserve expiratory volume E. *Maximal lung ventilation 149. Which method of examination of lungs is presented on the picture 22? A. Bronchoscopy B. Angiopulmonography C. *Bronchigraphy D. Tomography E. No any answer is correct 150. Which disease among the following is the indication for the manipulation presented on the picture 24? A. Bronchial asthma B. *Pleuricy with effusion C. Croupous pneumonia D. Chronic bronchitis E. Lung edema 151. What is aim of execution of the manipulation presented on the picture 24? A. For evacuation of pleural fluid from pleural cavity B. For administration of drugs into pleural cavity C. For conduction of artificial pneumothorax in treatment of tuberculosis D. For evacuation of air from pleural cavity E. *All above mentioned 152. What is aim of examination presented on the picture 25? A. Investigation of pulmonary vascular bed B. *Investigation of external respiratory function C. Investigation of sputum D. Investigation of gas composition of blood E. Microscopic examination of pleural fluid 153. A patient after supper in a restaurant developed pain in the chest as it is presented on the picture 26. Which among the presented below risk-factors, on your opinion, is the most value in development of Ischemic heart disease? A. *Smoking B. Alcohol C. Fried food D. Overcooling E. Physical load 154. A patient after supper in a restaurant developed pain in the chest as it is presented on the picture 26. He appealed to the first-aid post medical worker for medical care. Which system is affected in this case? A. *Cardiovascular B. respiratory C. Nervous D. Muscular E. Bones 155. On the picture 27 you can see acrocyanosis of the tips of nails. Which disease is this symptom typical for? A. Pneumonia B. Vegetative system dystonia C. Bronchial asthma D. Liver cirrhosis E. *Heart valvular defects 156. On the picture 27 you can see acrocianosis of the tips of nails. Which disease is this symptom typical for? A. Diseases of respiratory system B. *Diseases of cardiovascular system C. Skin diseases D. Diseases of vessels E. Diseases of a liver 157. During ecxamination of a patient it was revealed symptom of “Hyppocrates fingers” as it is presented on the picture 26. Which disease is this symptom typical for? A. Hepatitis B. *Congenital heart valvular defects C. Vegetative system dystonia D. Neuralgia E. Allergy 158. On the picture 29 you can see how blood pressure is measured. Systolic blood pressure level in the norm should not exceed: A. 110 mm of Hg. B. 120 mm of Hg. C. 130 mm of Hg. D. *140 mm of Hg. E. 150 mm of Hg. 159. On the picture 29 you can see how blood pressure is measured. Diastolic blood pressure level in the norm should not exceed: A. 60 mm of Hg. B. 70 mm of Hg. C. 80 mm of Hg. D. *90 mm of Hg. E. 100 mm of Hg. 160. Look at the picture 32. Which pathological condition this symptom is most typical for? A. Left-ventricular enlargement B. *Right-ventricular enlargement C. Total heart enlagement D. Renal failure E. Vascular insufficiency 161. Which diagnostic method is the most informative in recognition of the syndrome presented on the picture 32? A. *Ultrasound examination B. Percussion C. Auscultation D. Palpation E. X-ray examination 162. What can we assess by the method presented on the picture 33? A. Cardiac humpback B. Heart borders C. Heart transverse diameter D. Systolic «cat’s purr» E. Diastolic «cat’s purr» 163. Determination of the right border of relative heart dullness is presented on the picture 34. What is its location in norm? A. At the right sternal edge B. 0,5 cm rightwards from right sternal edge C. *1 cm rightwards from right sternal edge D. 1,5 cm rightwards from right sternal edge E. 2 cm rightwards from right sternal edge 164. On the picture 31 you can see assessment of pulse rate. What is pulse rate in norm (per min)? A. 80 - 85 B. 70 – 75 C. 60 - 70 D. 70 – 90 E. *60 - 90 165. On the picture 30 you can see assessment of edema. Which disease are such edema typical for? A. Left-ventricular failure B. *Right-ventricular failure C. Total heart failure D. Renal failure E. Vascular insufficiency 166. Look at the picture 26. What can you suspect in the man presented on the picture? A. *Affection of a heart B. Affection of lungs C. Affection of muscles D. Affection of nervous trunks E. Affection of pleura 167. Look at the picture 26. A patient after supper in a restaurant developed pain in the chest when he went to a railway station. Pain rose and didn’t decrease due to usage medicines effective in the same situations before. At the railway station a doctor examined the patient and prescribed such examination as: A. Complete blood count B. Chest plain X-ray C. Ultrasound D. *ECG E. Determination od blood glucose 168. Which radiopaque preparation is used to obtain X-ray film presented on the picture 72? A. *Bilignost B. Barium sulphate suspension C. Verografin D. Cardiotrast E. No any answer is correct 169. On the picture 80 duodenal probing is presented. How to characterize the results of probing if dark-olive liquid is excreted from the probe, What is this? A. *Cystic bile (portion B) B. Stomach content C. Duodenal content (portion A) D. Gastrointestinal bleeding E. Bile from cystic ducts (portion C) 170. Which substance deficiency is present if feces have color presented on the picture 86? A. *Bile B. Pancreatic juice C. Intestinal juice D. Intestinal mucus E. Food cellulose 171. A patient is undergone treatment because of chronic cholecystitis. She was prescribed examination presented on the picture 80. Indicate changes of bile typical for this disease: A. *The bile contains leucocytes, desquamed epithelial cells in portion B B. The bile contains leucocytes, mucus in portion A C. The bile contains erythrocytes, bacteria in portion A D. The bile contains leucocytes, mucus, desquamed epithelial cells in portion C E. The bile contains erythrocytes in portion B 172. A patient was prescribed examination presented on the picture 80. Which conductor of gallbladder contraction is used to obtain bile from the gallbladder (portion B)? A. 7% dry cabbage decoction B. 0,2% caffeine solution C. 5% alcohol solution D. Meat-stock E. *33% magnesium sulphate solution 173. A patient is undergone treatment because of exacerbation of chronic noncalculous cholecystitis. She was prescribed examination presented on the picture 80. In this case we can expect pathological changes on the portion: A. С B. А C. А and С D. С and В E. *В 174. During examination of patient’s abdomen it was revealed positive symptom presented on the picture 78. In which case is it possible? A. In meteorism B. *In ascites C. In obesity D. In edema of anterior abdominal wall E. In pylorostenosis 175. A Patient with liver disease developed pathological changes on his skin as it is presented on the picture 81. What are they caused by? A. * Spider angiomata B. Decrease sensitivity of skin receptors C. Arteriovenous shunting D. Hemorrhages into the skin E. Excoriatiobs 176. The method of examination presented on the picture 76 is contraindicated in: A. Suspicion on tumor of the large intestine B. Inflammation of the large intestine C. Intestinal bleeding D. Foreign bodies in the large intestine E. * Peritonitis 177. The method of examination presented on the picture 76 takes possibility to examine in 80-90% of cases such intestine as: A. Only rectum B. Only rectum and sigmois intestines C. Small intestine D. *All the large intestine E. Both small and large intestine 178. Appearance on eyelids such elements as presented on the picture 71 indicates on: A. Carbohydrates metabolism disorders B. *Lipids metabolism disorders C. Disorders of blood coagulation D. Proteins metabolism disorders E. Polyhypovitaminosis 179. In which disease is it possible to reveal elements look as those presented on the picture 71(xanthomas and xanthelasmas)? A. Chronic pancreatitis B. *Liver billiary cirrhosis C. Peptic ulcer D. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease E. Chronic pyelonephritis 180. In consequent execution of deep sliding palpation of an abdomen The presented on the picture 75 intestine is examined: A. * In first order B. After descending colon C. After ascending colon D. After slpeen E. In the last order 181. In consequent execution of deep sliding palpation of an abdomen The presented on the picture 74 intestine is examined: A. In first order B. *After sigmoid colon C. After terminal part of ileum D. After appendix E. After right kidney 182. On the picture 98 it is presented deformation of knee joint in hemophilia. This deformation is due to: A. Osteoarthrosis B. *Hemarthrosis C. Ankylosis D. Fracture E. Dislocation 183. On the picture 98 it is presented deformation of knee joint in hemophilia. In develops due to: A. Joint fracture B. Joint dislocation C. *Frequent bleedings into the joint cavity D. Metabolic disorders E. No any correct answer 184. Assessment of Pasternatsky’s symptom is presented on the picture 96. In which disease will it be positive? A. *Pyelonephritis B. Cholecystitis C. Pancreatitis D. Peptic ulcer E. Amyloidosis 185. In positive Pasternatsky’s symptom (picture 96) a patient feels: A. Pain in epigastrium B. *Pain in lumbar region C. Pain in the right hypochondrium D. Pain in the left hypochondrium E. Pain in lower parts of abdomen 186. During palpation of a kidney (as it is presented on the picture 88) a doctor revealed nephropthosis of I degree. Which findings will be in this case: A. It is possible to palpate one kidney B. One kidney is dislocated on the opposite side C. *The lower kidney pole is possible to palpate D. It is not possible to palpate the kidney E. No any correct answer 187. During palpation of a kidney (as it is presented on the picture 88) a doctor revealed nephropthosis of II degree. Which findings will be in this case: A. *It is possible to palpate all the kidney B. One kidney is dislocated on the opposite side C. The lower kidney pole is possible to palpate D. It is not possible to palpate the kidney E. No any correct answer 188. Cystography is presented on the picture 97. This is method of examination of: A. Kidneys B. *Bladder C. Sttomach D. Uterus E. Gallbladder 189. Excretory urogram is presented on the picture 93. This method is used for assessment of: A. Sizes of kidneys B. Location of kidneys C. Location of ureters D. Kidney functions E. * All answers are correct 190. With the method of examination presented on the picture 95 we can determine: A. Sizes of kidneys B. *Disorders of vascularization C. Kidney functions D. Location of kidneys E. Stones in ureters 191. With the method of examination presented on the picture 90 we can determine: A. Location of kidneys B. Tumor of a kidney C. Cysts of kidneys D. Shape of kidneys E. *All answers are correct</p>