Analysis of Hands Jan 11th 2021 Bd 1: A Dlr: North A852 Optimum Vul: None NS 3N+1; +430 AK4 AQ1092 North 109843 W E Q52 KJ3 e a Q104 863 s 1 s J952 84 t t K65 South KJ76 21 N 976 4 3 4 2 4 4 8 N Q107 S 4 3 3 2 4 7 - - - - - E J73 I hope you all opened 1C on the North hand and nothing else. It is not a 2C or 2NT opening. Bidding should be 1C (N) -1S (S) - 2H *(N) – 2NT (S) with a D stop and 3NT by North. Note the 2H* bid is a Reverse bid and should be 17+ (or good 16) –This bid is unlimited and 100% forcing. South only bids 2NT as the S hand is minimum and North raises to 3NT. Note if North has only 16 he would pass 2NT. If you open 2C and after 2D response you bid 3C and have shown no hearts. What I have outlined above has 5clubs and 4 hearts shown by the time we reach 2H. IT IS NOT A 2C OPENING (A Lebensohl 2NT system can be used with reverse bids too, but I have not covered that in my Lebensohl handout) Bd 2: QJ54 Dlr: East -- Optimum Vul: N/S EW 4Hx,W 4Cx; +500 A1065432 74 North 93 W E K1082 A92 e a K10543 K87 s 2 s Q K6532 t t Q108 South A76 N 7 N - 4 - 2 2 QJ876 10 10 S - 4 - 2 3 J9 13 E - - 1 - - AJ9 W 1 - 1 - - This is extremely difficult to bid unless you are playing a strong NT system. Firstly, East should not open 1H. It is a poor 10 count as 2 of the 10 points are in a singleton Queen. 1H (S) – 1S(N) and South could raise to 2S, but if he was playing a strong NT could rebid 1NT. Playing a weak NT you miss the D fit because you cannot bid 3D over 2S. There is a system of “Checkbacks” where a 2C Checkback bid in response to 1NT rebid demands 2D which you could then pass, but you would have to be playing that specific system and also a strong NT opening for this hand and your 1NT rebid = 12/14. (I play a weak NT). Bd 3: 964 Dlr: South AK6 Optimum Vul: E/W NS 4Hx,NS 4Cx; -100 94 AQ843 North AQJ105 W E 872 Q98 e a 54 Q107 s 3 s AJ8653 109 t t K7 South K3 N 13 N 3 - 3 - - J10732 11 8 S 3 - 3 - - K2 8 E - 3 - 3 - J652 W - 3 - 3 1 If you do not open 1S as West and N opens 1C or 1NT N/S will get in to 2H. However, when it comes around in 2H,West in the passout position, should then bid 2S. E/W can make 9 tricks in Spades and if N/S do not take their tricks one trick disappears. Bd 5: KQJ3 Dlr: North 9 Optimum Vul: N/S EW 4H; -420 106542 1096 North A654 W E 987 J863 e a K7542 9 s 5 s AQJ8 AKJ5 t t 3 South 102 N 6 N - - - - - AQ10 13 10 S - - - - - K73 11 E - 1 4 2 2 Q8742 W - - 4 2 2 I suspect that those who stopped in 3H did so not knowing that their honour cards were all in the wrong place. Turn the CK into the SK, and have the same distribution and 4H is cold. Just note it is wasted having CAKJ opposite a singleton. It is far better to have the K in a suit where you have small cards in the suit in the other hand. Mind you if you finesse the CJ you can discard the two losing spades and you can make 4H. It is difficult but You should be in 4H. Bd 10: KQJ87 Dlr: East A108 Optimum Vul: All NS 4H+1; +650 654 A7 North 9432 W E A105 J65 e a 943 AJ872 s 10 s KQ109 8 t t 954 South 6 N 14 N 5 - 5 1 1 KQ72 6 9 S 5 - 5 1 1 3 11 E - 1 - - - KQJ10632 W - 1 - - - Obviously 5C is the spot and not 3NT with no D stopper. I would suggest 1C(S) – 1S (N) – 2C(S) – 2D(N) (New Minor Suit is 100% forcing and shows diamonds but is trying to get more information and implies at least 5 spades. North is stuck to make a bid here as 2H would always show 4 hearts)- South bids 3C showing 6 or 7 and North now knows it has to be played in Clubs and should bid 5C. Bd 11: 86 Dlr: South K8 Optimum Vul: None EW 4S+1; -450 K10432 6542 North KQJ32 W E A1097 752 e a AQ63 875 s 11 s AQJ9 108 t t Q South 54 N 6 N 2 - - - - J1094 6 19 S 2 - - - - 6 9 E - 3 3 5 1 AKJ973 W - 3 3 5 1 I notice a number of Souths overcalled 2C on a 9 count (so much for me saying it should be an opening bid to overcall at the two level??? It is not totally wrong because of the 6/4 shape). North will raise to 3C. If that happens East will now double showing a strong hand and short in clubs. West can jump now to 4S as he has good 5 card suit and knows partner can tolerate any suit and is 17+. 11 tricks are available. If South passes it should go 1D (E) – 1S (W) – 4C(E) (Splinter showing four spades and singleton club and game going hand.) – 4S (W) because he is minimum, and has nothing to cue bid. (No outside K or A or other singleton). Bd 12: KQJ7 Dlr: West K1083 Optimum Vul: N/S EW 7Dx; +1400 J A1095 North 1096 W E 853 74 e a QJ952 AKQ106 s 12 s 8753 632 t t 8 South A42 N 14 N 6 - 2 6 2 A6 9 3 S 6 - 2 6 2 942 14 E - 1 - - - KQJ74 W - 1 - - - If you are playing Inverted minors it is really the only way to easily bid this. 1C(N) – 2C(S) (This shows 10+ hcp and at least 5 clubs). Now North can jump to 3D(splinter) as he does hold 4 clubs and now shows a singleton diamond. This is great news for South as he now knows North’s values are in the suits where he wants them, and he can ruff his two losing diamonds in the North hand. He can check for Aces in clubs and all he wants is an Ace and a KQ and a K for 6C to make. That is only a 12 count in the North hand and North has jumped in diamonds to show a good hand in Clubs. Note: South’s initial 2C bid usually denies a Major and shows at least 5 clubs as most players are playing 5 card Majors and play a short club with only two or three guaranteed. In Inverted Minor responses a response of 3C is weak showing at least 5 clubs and 5/6/9hcp. I notice the printout says top spot is 7DX- 6 for -1400. Why would you sacrifice in 7D when 6D is sufficient and which now costs you 1100 as against -1370? Bd 13: 1073 Dlr: North QJ105 Optimum Vul: All EW 2D+2; -130 65 KQ95 North KQ65 W E 842 -- e a K9763 K109732 s 13 s AQ4 642 t t 83 South AJ9 N 8 N 1 - 1 - 1 A842 8 9 S 2 - 1 - 1 J8 15 E - 4 - 1 - AJ107 W - 4 - 1 - No reason to be in 4H with 15 opposite 8 even allowing one extra for the doubleton diamond. 1C (S) – 1D (W) -1H (N) – 2D (E) – 2H (S) – 3D (W ) (as he is 6/4). South will probably compete to 3H but West can make 4D Bd 14: 8654 Dlr: East J Optimum Vul: None EW 4H+1; -450 KQ84 A1065 North A10732 W E Q KQ643 e a A9852 3 s 14 s AJ752 84 t t Q3 South KJ9 N 10 N - - - - - 107 9 13 S - - - - - 1096 8 E - 1 5 1 1 KJ972 W - 1 5 1 1 No way should you be in 6H. South should lead his best suit and straight away two tricks are taken. Why would you be in a slam with minimum opening opposite minimum opening? No reason whatsoever. West has 9hcp but with the extras is worth 12hcp. Bd 15: QJ986 Dlr: South 6 Optimum Vul: N/S EW 2C+2; -130 AQ8764 5 North K W E 5432 A8 e a K32 KJ1095 s 15 s 32 Q10982 t t AK63 South A107 N 9 N - 1 1 1 - QJ109754 13 10 S - 1 1 1 - -- 8 E 4 - - - 1 J74 W 4 - - - 1 Should be playing in 3H one off or might even make. No reason for any bidding by E/W. Bd 18: KJ106432 Dlr: East K8 Optimum Vul: N/S EW 1N+1; -120 Q43 J North AQ85 W E 9 3 e a Q107652 AKJ7 s 18 s 1086 AK93 t t 1074 South 7 N 10 N - - - 1 - AJ94 21 2 S - - - 1 - 952 7 E 2 2 2 - 2 Q8652 W 2 2 2 - 2 West should open 1C, N will bid 1S and back to West who should really bid 1NT showing 18/20.