QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY GOALTIDEIAS.COM | [email protected] QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Q1. Consider the following statements. 1. The concept of Ways & Means Advances (WMA) in India introduced after LPG reforms. 2. WMA is the only way through which RBI provides additional financial resources required by states. 3. WMA attract an interest rate. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 3 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 1 and 2 only d. 2 and 3 only Solution: a Explanation: To help the states tide over such shortfalls in revenue and to meet their expenditure, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) provides financial accommodation to the States. This is done in the form of Ways & Means Advances (WMA). Section 17(5) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934 governs the facilitation of WMA by RBI to the states. First statement is incorrect: WMA was introduced in 1937. WMA is of two types:
• Normal WMA also referred to as clean advance (started in 1937) • Special WMA started in 1953, which is now referred to as Special Drawing Facility (SDF) since 2014. Second statement is incorrect. In case the States require additional financial resources beyond WMA, there is a provision Overdraft Facility (ODF) and Special Drawing Facility (SDF). Special Drawing Facility (SDF): Apart from WMA, the State Governments are further provided the option of Special Drawing Facility (SDF). This facility was in place since 1953 and is provided against the collateral of their investments in marketable securities issued by the Government of India. While a limit was set earlier, the IAC has decided to allow the states to draw freely against their holdings of GoI securities since 1999. Overdraft Facility (OD): The States can borrow money from RBI beyond WMA & SDF, to adjust the fiscal position, but are required to pay back immediately. When advances to State Governments exceed their SDF and WMA limits, an OD facility is provided. The regulations and limits on the usage of ODF have evolved over the period of time. As per the current norms, States governments are allowed to run on OD for up to 14 consecutive days.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 1
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Third statement is correct. All the advances granted to the State governments i.e., WMA, SDF & OD attract interest on the outstanding amount.
Q2. With respect to Leatherback turtles (LBT), consider the following statements. 1. The leatherback is the only sea turtle that lacks a bony shell and has a leather-like, flexible upper cell. 2. The most important nesting habitat for LBT is Andaman and Nicobar Island. 3. LBT are endemic to India Ocean. Select the correct code. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 2 and 3 only Solution: a Explanation: The leatherback is the only sea turtle that lacks a bony shell and has a leather-like, flexible carapace; that is what gives it its name. The leatherback is the largest of all living turtles, among the largest of all reptiles. First statement is correct. Leatherbacks sometimes grow over six feet in length, making them much larger than the average human. They could weigh up to one tonne (1000 kg), and they achieve this impressive weight on a diet of jellyfish. Leatherbacks are found in every ocean except the Arctic and Antarctic, and they are great travellers. Third statement is incorrect. Andaman and Nicobar is the largest nesting habitats for LBT. Second statement is correct.
Q3. Consider the following statements.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 2
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
1. Right to be Forgotten is recognized as part of the right to life under Article 21. 2. Personal Data Protection Bill 2019 recognised this right. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: c Explanation: First statement is correct: In its landmark judgment in the case of Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v. Union of India (AIR 2017 SC 4161) the Supreme Court granted definitive recognition to the right to be forgotten as part of the right to life under Article 21. Second statement is correct: In India, there is no law that specifically provides for the right to be forgotten. However, the Personal Data Protection Bill 2019 recognised this right. Section 20 of the Bill gave an individual the right to restrict or prevent the continuing disclosure of their personal data when such data (1) has served the purpose for which It was collected, or is no longer necessary for said purpose; (2) was made with the consent of individual, which consent has since been withdrawn; or (3) was made contrary to the PDP Bill or any law in force.
Q4. What will be the major function of newly created ‘Ministry of Co-operation’? 1. It will help to streamline processes for ‘Ease of doing businesses for co-operatives. 2. It will provide framework for strengthening the cooperative movement in the country. 3. It will help development of Multi-State Co-operatives (MSCS). Select the correct code. a. 1 and 2 only
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 3
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: d Explanation:
Q5. Which of the following state/UTs doesn’t share boundary with China? 1. Ladakh 2. Jammu and Kashmir 3. Punjab 4. Uttarakhand Select the correct code. a. 3 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 2, 3 and 4 Solution: b Explanation: See map clearly.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 4
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Q6. Consider the following statements regarding Indian Coast Guard.
1. It is a statutory body under Ministry of Home Affairs. 2. The preservation and protection of marine environment and control of marine pollution is the function of the Indian Coast Guard. Select the correct code.
a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: b
Explanation:
We did not make question tough, but you will read below Paragraph.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 5
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
The Indian Coast Guard was formally established on 18 August 1978 by the Coast Guard Act, 1978 of the Parliament of India as an independent Armed force of India.
It operates under the Ministry of Defence.
Q7. Consider the following statements regarding National Food Security Act, 2013.
1. Pregnant woman and lactating mother are entitled to get free meal shall be entitled during pregnancy and six months after the childbirth. 2. State Food Commission is set up for the purpose of monitoring and review of implementation of this Act. 3. Both rural and urban population are considered to be eligible households under this Act. Select the correct code.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 6
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: d
Explanation:
Q8. Consider the following.
1. A new system of justice was established with each district was to have two courts – a criminal court and civil court. 2. Maulvis and Hindu pandits interpreted Indian laws for the European district collectors who presided over civil courts. 3. A new Supreme Court along with the court of appeal was set up. The above changes in Justice system was under which Governor General?
a. Lord Cornwallis b. Warren Hastings c. Lord Hardinge d. Lord Dalhousie. Solution: b
Explanation:
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 7
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
We know most of you know this answer, but you have to read the entire paragraph below.
Q9. Samyakdarshana, Samyakjnana, Samyakcharita" are doctrines related to which religion?
a. Hinduism b. Buddhism c. Sikhism d. Jainism
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 8
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Solution: d
Explanation:
Q10. Which among the following are the possible outcomes of printing more money to monetize government debt?
1. Increase in inflation 2. Increase in economic output 3. Devaluation of currency Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 9
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Solution: b
Explanation:
Printing more money does not increase economic output – it only increases the amount of cash circulating in the economy. If more money is printed, consumers can demand more goods, but if firms have still the same amount of goods, they will respond by putting up prices. In such a scenario, printing money just causes inflation. So, statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is not correct.
By printing money, they devalue the currency in three ways.
a. Firstly, printing money tends to be inflationary. Higher inflation makes a country less competitive, leading to relatively lower demand for the country’s exports and hence its currency. b. Secondly, increasing the money supply enables the Central Bank to buy more foreign currency, which drives down the value of the domestic currency. c. Thirdly, by promising to print money and keep currency low, it discourages speculators from buying that currency as it is less likely to be a good bet. So, statement 3 is correct.
Q11. Consider the following statements. 1. Around 90 percent groundwater water extraction in India is primarily for drinking & domestic as well as industrial uses. 2. Exporting more quantity of oilseeds and importing rice and wheat can help countries to balance their increasing water demand. 3. Currently, Agriculture sector is exempted from obtaining No Objection Certificate for ground water extraction. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: c Explanation: First statement is incorrect: As per the PIB, Ground water extraction in India is primarily for irrigation in agricultural activities, accounting for nearly 228 BCM (Billion Cubic Meter), which amounts to 90% of the annual ground water extraction. The remaining 10% of extraction (25 BCM) is for drinking &
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 10
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2 domestic as well as industrial uses. Industrial use is estimated to account for only about 5% of the annual ground water extraction in the country. Second statement is correct. Oil seeds are less water intensive crops and paddy is more. Importing water-intensive crops and products enables countries to balance their increasing water demand while exporting less water-intensive commodities. Third statement is correct.
Q12. Consider the following statements. 1. Use of copper in energy systems helps reduce carbon dioxide emissions. 2. Copper can also be recycled completely many times over without any loss in performance. 3. The hot magmatic fluid inside the mantle consists of copper. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: d Explanation: Wind and solar energy as well as batteries offer renewable and clean alternatives. But these clean energy technologies need new material demands. Copper is an excellent conductor of thermal and electrical energy; the power systems that utilize this metal generate and transmit energy with high efficiency and with minimum environmental impacts. Use of copper in energy systems, therefore, helps reduce carbon dioxide emissions. It can also be recycled completely many times over without any loss in performance.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 11
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
The region of the Earth’s crust where the tectonic plates meet is called the subduction zone. Porphyry copper systems, the most viable source of economic copper, occur along magmatic belts derived in subduction zones. The hot magmatic fluid inside the mantle has copper, which, after millions of years of further plate movement, moves closer to the surface and can be extracted.
Q13. Consider the following pairs.
Places in news location 1. Lake Turkana Sudan 2. Aral Sea Tajikistan and Kazakhstan
Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: d Explanation:
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 12
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Q14. Consider The following statements. 1. According to the Constitution, the powers, privileges and immunities of Parliament and MPs are to be defined by Parliament. 2. The Constitution has given power to speaker of either accept or reject the privilege motion. 3. The Speaker can also refer motion to a parliamentary committee. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 1 only d. 2 and 3 only Solution: b Explanation: A brief introduction. Members of Parliament (MPs) enjoy certain parliamentary privileges which are bestowed on them collectively and individually so that they can discharge their duties and functions effectively. In the case that any of these immunities or rights are disregarded by any MP, the act is regarded as a ‘breach of privilege’ and is a punishable offence under Laws of Parliament. When a breach of privilege is found, then an MP can move a privilege motion against those being held guilty of breach. Both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha reserve the right to punish any action of contempt (not necessarily breach of privilege) which is against its authority and dignity. First statement is correct.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 13
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Are these parliamentary privileges defined under law? According to the Constitution, the powers, privileges and immunities of Parliament and MPs are to be defined by Parliament. No law has so far been enacted in this respect. In the absence of any such law, it continues to be governed by British Parliamentary conventions.
Second statement is incorrect. Where do these rules find mention? The rules governing privilege motion are mentioned as Rule 222 in Chapter 20 of the Lok Sabha Rule Book and as Rule 187 in Chapter 16 of the Rajya Sabha Rule Book. Not Constitution. Below, we are pasting rules for the Lok Sabha. Similar is for Rajya Sabha.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 14
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Third statement is correct. In the Lok Sabha, the Speaker nominates a committee of privileges which consists of 15 members proportionate to the strengths of various political parties in the Lower House of Parliament. They prepare a report which is then presented before the House for its consideration. The Speaker may allow a half-an-hour debate on the report before she/he passed the final orders. The Speaker can also direct that the report be tabled before the House and a resolution may be unanimously passed on the breach of privilege.
Q15. Consider the following statements. 1. MSP is determined for the country as a whole and not region or state-specific. 2. The implied cost of family labour is included in the calculation of cost of production while determining MSP. 3. If MSP for paddy is fix at 1000 per quintal, the profit will be same for the farmer in Punjab and Maharashtra. Which of the above statement sis/are correct? a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 only c. 1 and 3 only
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 15
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: a Explanation: Second statement is correct. How are Minimum Support Prices determined? The Commission for Agricultural Costs & Prices (CACP) considers various factors such as the cost of cultivation and production, productivity of crops, and market prices for the determination of MSPs. The National Commission on Farmers (Chair: Prof. M. S. Swaminathan) in 2006 had recommended that MSPs must be at least 50% more than the cost of production. It was implemented by the government. The CACP calculates cost of production at three levels: (i) A2, which includes cost of inputs such as seeds, fertilizer, labour; (ii) A2+FL, which includes the implied cost of family labour (FL); and (iii) C2, which includes the implied rent on land and interest on capital assets over and above A2+FL. First statement is correct. MSP is determined for the country as a whole and not region or state-specific. The MSP fixed for each crop is uniform for the entire country. Third statement is incorrect. However, the production cost of crops varies across states. For example, production cost for paddy at the A2+FL level is Rs 702/quintal in Punjab and Rs 2,102/quintal in Maharashtra. Due to this differentiation, while the MSP of Rs 1,750/quintal of paddy will result in a profit of 149% to a farmer in Punjab, it will result in a loss of 17% to a farmer in Maharashtra. Similarly, at the C2 level, the production cost for paddy is Rs 1,174/quintal in Punjab and Rs 2,481/quintal in Maharashtra. In this scenario, a farmer in Punjab may get 49% return, while his counterpart in Maharashtra may make a loss of 29%. Q16. Consider the following statements regarding Monetary Policy Committee. 1. The committee sets the policy rates and inflation targets to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth. 2. As per the RBI Act, 1934, Reserve Bank of India is vested with the responsibility of conducting monetary policy. 3. There is also a provision of quorum for the meeting of the MPC. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 16
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Solution: c Explanation: First statement is incorrect. Inflation targets is not set by Committee.
Second statement is correct. The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) constituted by the Central Government under Section 45ZB determines the policy interest rate required to achieve the inflation target.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is vested with the responsibility of conducting monetary policy. This responsibility is explicitly mandated under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
Third statement is correct.
Link: https://www.rbi.org.in/scripts/FS_Overview.aspx?fn=2752
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 17
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Q17. Which of the following expenditures are charged on the Consolidated fund of India? 1. Salaries and pensions of the judges of the High Court and Supreme Court. 2. Salary, allowances and pension for the President. 3. Salaries and pensions of Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the House of People. 4. Interest and other debt related charges of the Government. Select the correct answer from the code given below: a. 1, 2 and 3 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 2, 3 and 4 only d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Solution: c Explanation:
Statement 1 is wrong. The Salaries and pensions of the judges of the Supreme Court and pensions (not salaries) of the judges of the High Court are charged expenditure.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 18
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Q18. Consider the following statements: 1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only. 2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of one- third of the States of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: d Explanation: An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated by introduction of a bill in either house of the Parliament.
If the bill seeks to amends the Federal provisions of the Constitution, it must also be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 19
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Q19. Consider the following statements. 1. The introduction of Goods and Services Tax in 2017 has resulted in elimination of all cesses levied, no more cess is levied now. 2. There is mention of cess in our Constitution. 3. The revenue collected from cess is not necessarily shared with the states. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 and 3 only b. 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 2 only Solution: c Explanation: First statement is incorrect: The introduction of Goods and Services Tax (GST) in 2017 has resulted in most of the cesses being done away with. However, the following Cesses are still levied:
• Cess on Exports • Cess on Crude Oil • Health & Education Cess • Road & Infrastructure Cess • Other Construction Workers Welfare Cess • GST Compensation Cess • Health Cess Second statement is correct: The term ‘Cess’ finds reference in two separate articles of the Constitution. Article 270 (1) & 277. In the latter i.e., Article 277, the reference is to the continuation of taxes, fees, cess, etc. which are already levied prior to the Indian constitution coming into effect. Article 270 (1) on the other hand mentions that various taxes form part of the divisible pool, whose proceeds are distributed between Union & States. It further highlights that any ‘cess’ levied for ‘specific purposes’ under any law passed by the Parliament is an exception i.e., they are not part of the divisible pool.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 20
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Note: The term ‘specific purpose’ is considered as the key to the idea of imposing any cess. Third statement is correct:
Q20. As per the latest report, which of the following is the most extremely fire prone state in India? a. Mizoram. b. Uttarakhand c. Karnataka d. Tamil Nadu Solution: a Explanation: As per the latest Forest Survey Report,
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 21
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Q21. Consider the following statements. 1. India’s per capita electricity consumption has increased consistently for last 5 years. 2. Currently, India's installed offshore wind power capacity is more than 30 GW. 3. Offshore wind farms have a higher capacity utilization factor (CUF) than onshore wind farms. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 3 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 2 only d. 1 and 3 only Solution: d
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 22
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Explanation: Now, you are new and you don’t have much idea about this question. But you should definitely know: a. India has yet to develop its offshore wind energy. It is zero now. b. What is offshore wind?
Offshore wind energy refers to the deployment of wind farms inside the water bodies. They utilize the sea winds to generate electricity. These wind farms either use fixed- foundation turbines or floating wind turbines.
If India has yet to develop offshore wind energy, then second statement is incorrect. Option b and c will be eliminated. Now, left with option a and d. Third is in both options, so your future now depends on first statement. Abhi ghar ghar Bijli phucha diya h Modiji ne, so power consumption badhega hi. You can think in this way and reach answer d. So, third statement was very difficult but, in this question, capacity utilization factor (CUF) ki koi value ni.
A wind turbine's capacity utilization factor (CUF) is equal to the average output power divided by the maximum power capabilities. Offshore wind farms have a higher CUF than onshore wind farms.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 23
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Q22. Consider the following statements. 1. Ratification of one-half of state legislatures is required for an amendment which makes changes to an entry in the state list. 2. 97th CAA (Co-operatives) was amended after ratification by states. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: a Explanation: First statement is correct. As per Article 368(2), ratification of one-half of state legislatures is required for an amendment which makes changes to an entry in the state list.
Second statement is incorrect. Since co-operative societies was a state subject as per Entry 32 in List II of the Seventh Schedule, the amendment introducing Part IX B required ratification as per Article 368(2). BUT it was passed without the ratification of one-half of the state legislatures as mandated by Article 368(2) of the Constitution. And that’s why,
SC RULED: "There can be no doubt that our Constitution has been described as quasi-federal in that, so far as legislative powers are concerned, though there is a tilt in favour of the
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 24
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Centre vis-à-vis the States given the federal supremacy principle...yet within their own sphere, the States have exclusive power to legislate on topics reserved exclusively to them.
Q23. Which of the following countries have Amazon rainforest region? 1. Brazil 2. Peru 3. Bolivia 4. Chile 5. Venezuela Select the correct code. a. 1, 2 and 3 only b. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only c. 2, 4 and 5 only d. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Solution: b Explanation:
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 25
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Q24. Consider the following statements. 1. Steel is a deregulated sector wherein steel companies can select and acquire the technologies based on their techno-economic parameters. 2. Commercial decisions such as exports are taken by the steel companies. 3. India export of steel is less than import for year 2020-21. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 only c. 2 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: a
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 26
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Explanation:
Also, commercial decisions such as exports are taken by the steel companies. Third is incorrect.
Q25. Consider the following.
1. Djibouti 2. Yemen 3. Qatar 4. Bahrain Arrange the above nations from North to South
a. 3-4-1-2 b. 4-3-1-2 c. 4-3-2-1 d. 3-4-2-1 Solution: c
Bahrain-Qatar-Yemen-Djibouti
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 27
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Q26. With reference to an organization known as ‘Birdlife International’ which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a Global Partnership of Conservation Organizations which believes in local-to- global approach for conservation. 2. The concept of ‘biodiversity hotspots’ originated from this organization. 3. It identifies the sites known/referred to as ‘Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas’. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: c Explanation: First statement is also correct. BirdLife International is a global partnership of conservation organizations (NGOs) that strives to conserve birds, their habitats and global biodiversity, working with people towards sustainability in the use of natural resources. Together we are over 100 BirdLife Partners worldwide – one per country or territory – and growing. They are driven by our belief that local people, working for nature in their own places but connected nationally and internationally through our global Partnership, are the key to sustaining all life on this planet. This unique local-to-global approach delivers high impact and long-term conservation for the benefit of nature and people. Second statement is wrong.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 28
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
From where concept came is different story:
Third statement is also correct. BirdLife’s Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA) concept initially identified only for terrestrial and freshwater environments, but over the past decade, the IBA process and method has been adapted and applied in the marine realm. Q27. Panna Tiger Reserve is: 1. Situated at Aravalli Mountain range 2. River Ken flows through it Select the correct code. a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: B Explanation: Situated in the Vindhyan mountain range in the northern part of Madhya Pradesh, Panna Tiger Reserve is spread over the Panna and Chhatarpur districts. The terrain here consists of extensive plateaus and gorges. This reserve contains the last remaining tiger habitat of North Madhya Pradesh. River Ken flows through it.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 29
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Q28. Consider the following statements regarding Code on Social Security 2020. 1. Under this code, Gig workers and unorganized workers made eligible for welfare measures. 2. Aadhaar number is made mandatory for availing benefits and services under the Code. 3. The Code empowers the Central Government to defer the provisions of the Code in the event of a national disaster or pandemic. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: d Explanation: The Code on Social Security, 2020 consolidates nine different central laws: a. The Employees Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 b. The Employees State Insurance Act, 1948 c. The Maternity Benefit Act,1961 d. The building and other Construction Workers Cess Act e. The Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 f. The Employees Exchange (Compulsory Notification of Vacancies) Act, 1959
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 30
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
g. The Cine Workers Welfare Fund Act, 1981 h. The Unorganized Workers' Social Security Act, 2008 i. Employees Compensation Act, 1923 j. The Code repeals the above enactments. The Code repeals the above enactments. A striking feature of this code is: Gig workers, Platform workers, unorganized workers made eligible for welfare measures. First Statement is correct.
Second statement is correct: Application of Aadhaar: Aadhaar number is made mandatory for availing benefits and services under the Code.
Third statement is correct: Power to defer application of the Code in the event of disaster, pandemic: The Code empowers the Central Government to defer the application of the provisions of the Code for a period of three months in the event of a national disaster, pandemic or endemic.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 31
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
No one will explain you like this. It helps you to remember topics and you will never forget. Just follow us regularly. Q29. Consider the following.
1. The Constitution provides for the term of Rajya Sabha Member is 6 years. 2. It is mandatory to nominate 12 persons in Rajya Sabha having special knowledge or practical experience in Literature, science, art and social service. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: b
Explanation:
The constitution has not fixed the term of Rajya Sabha members and left it to the Parliament. Therefore, Parliament enacted Representation of the people Act (1951). So, according to Representation of the people Act (1951), term of office of a member shall be six years. It is not mentioned in the Constitution.
Second statement is correct. As per the Article 80, it is mandatory to nominate 12 persons in Rajya Sabha having special knowledge or practical experience in Literature, science, art and social service.
Q30. Who published the first English translation of the Bhagavad Gita in 1785 with the patronage of the then Governor-General of India, Warren Hasting? a. Charles Wilkins
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 32
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
b. William jones c. William Hawkins d. Charles Hawkins Solution: a
Explanation:
Charles Wilkins who published the first English translation of the Bhagavad Gita in 1785 with the patronage of the then Governor-General of India, Warren Hastings.
Q31. Contact Group on Economic and Trade Issues (CGETI) is platform for: a. ASEAM b. QUAD c. BRICS d. European Union Solution: c Explanation: The Contact Group on Economic and Trade Issues (CGETI) is a key platform for BRICS Members to exchange views on a range of economic, trade and investment related issues. The exchange of policy perspectives and priorities lays an essential basis for enhanced coordination and cooperation among the BRICS Members on these issues. Q32. Which of the following food or Agri residues are used as a feedstock for textiles industry? 1. Bamboo 2. corn husk 3. aloe vera 4. sugarcane 5. milk 6. fish scales Select the correct code. a. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only b. 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only c. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6 only d. All of the above Solution: d Explanation:
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 33
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Bamboo, corn husk, orange peels, pineapples, soya beans, eucalyptus, lotus stems, betel nut husks, nettle, hemp, aloe vera, rose petals, sugarcane, milk and even fish scales are no longer food or Agri residues discarded as waste. Fibres and textiles made from Agro-waste are a sustainable alternative to energy intensive oil-based fibres. Biodegradability, waste management and water conservation are its key benefits. Link: https://india.mongabay.com/2021/07/from-agri-waste-to-eco-textiles-crop-residue- finds-a-place-in-fashion/
Q33. Consider the following statements. 1. India has formulated National Policy for Rare Diseases, 2021. 2. The Policy envisages a crowd funding mechanism in which corporates and individuals will extend financial support through a robust IT platform for treatment of rare diseases. 3. Gaucher disease is a rare disease. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: d Explanation: India has approved the “National Policy for Rare Diseases 2021” on 30th March 2021. Saliently, a ‘rare disease’ has been categorised into three groups. Diseases in the first group would be eligible for a one-time treatment cost of up to ₹20 lakh provided the beneficiaries conformed to definition of the Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana and were treated in government tertiary care hospital. For Group 2 diseases, States could “consider” supporting patients of such rare diseases that could be managed with special diets or hormonal supplements. And Group 3 patients, who require lifelong treatment support. Besides, the Policy also envisages a crowd funding mechanism in which corporates and individuals will be encouraged to extend financial support through a robust IT platform for treatment of rare diseases. Gaucher disease is a rare disease. Q34. ‘Equator Initiative’ is led by: a. WEF b. UNEP
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 34
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
c. UNDP d. World Bank Silution: c Explanation: The Equator Initiative is a UNDP-led partnership that brings together the UN, governments, civil society, businesses and grassroots organizations to advance local sustainable development solutions for people, nature and resilient communities. Q35. A horizontal line drawn across Delhi will cross which of the following states? 1. Punjab 2. Haryana 3. Uttar Pradesh 4. Bihar 5. Arunachal Pradesh Select the correct code. a. 1, 2, 3, 4 only b. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 2, 3, and 5 only Solution: d Explanation:
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 35
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Q36. Consider the following statements. 1. The post is deputy Prime Minister is not mentioned in the Constitution or any Act enacted by Parliament. 2. The first deputy prime minister of India was Sardar Vallabhai Patel 3. Description of any Minister in the Council of Ministers as Deputy Chief Minister confers the person with powers of the Chief Minister. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 2 only d. 3 only Solution: A Explanation: First statement is correct. The post of Deputy Prime Minister is not mentioned in the Constitution. Article 74 (1) lays down, “There shall be a council of ministers, with the prime minister at the head, to aid and advise the President.” The Salaries and Allowances of Ministers Act, 1952, makes a mention of the prime minister, cabinet minister, minister of state and deputy minister, NOT DEPUTY PRIME MINISTER OR CHEIF MINISTER. At the state level, ‘prime minister’ is substituted with ‘chief minister’. Thus, nowhere in the Constitution or any other Act, do the terms ‘deputy prime minister’ or ‘deputy chief minister’ find mention.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 36
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Second statement is correct: The first deputy PM of India was Sardar Vallabhai Patel, followed by Morarji Desai, Charan Singh, Jagjivan Ram and Yashwantrao Chavan. All of them were administered the oath of office and secrecy as ministers and later designated as deputy PM through a presidential order. Third statement is incorrect: The judiciary has reiterated in many verdicts: Description of any Minister in the Council of Ministers as Deputy Chief Minister does not confer the person concerned with any powers of the Chief Minister and does not result in any unconstitutionality.’ Q37. With reference to Rajya Sabha, consider the following statements: 1. The representatives of states in the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected as well as the nominated members of state legislative assemblies. 2. The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and union territories. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: b Explanation: The representatives of states in the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of state legislative assemblies. NOT NOMINATED. The election is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. The seats are allotted to the states in the Rajya Sabha on the basis of population. Hence, the number of representatives varies from state to state. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 37
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and union territories. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Q38. Consider the following pairs.
Organizations Positions held
1. Hind Mazdoor Sabha R.S. Ruikar, first President
2. Constituent Assembly Suresh Chandra Majumdar, Member
3. Ghadar Party Sohan Singh Bhakna, President
Which of the above pairs is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: d
Explanation:
Hind Mazdoor Sabha was asked in UPSC PRELIMS 2018.
Hind Mazdoor Sabha: R.S. Ruikar as the first President, Com. Ashok Mehta as the General Secretary and Com. G.G. Mehta and V.S. Mathur as Secretaries. Ms. Maniben Kara and Com. T.S. Ramanujam were elected as Vice-Presidents of HMS and Com. R.A. Khedgikar as the Treasurer
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 38
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
S C Majumdar was the member of Constituent Assembly.
Q39. Rekhapida, Pidhadeul and Khakra are the architectural features of temples of which state?
a. West Bengal b. Odisha c. Tamil Nadu d. Assam Solution: b
Explanation:
Assam is Ahom Style
WEST Bengal is Pala style.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 39
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Q40. Famous terracotta and stone sculptures such as the Yakshini from Didarganj and Yaksha from Parkham belong to: a. Pre-Mauryan period b. Mauryan period c. Gupta period d. Kushana period
Solution: b Explanation:
During the Mauryan period, apart from the court art or royal patronage, cave-architecture, sculpture, and pottery took the expressions of art by individual effort. Two of the most famous sculptures of the Mauryan period are those of Yaksha and Yakshi. They were objects of worship related to all three religions – Jainism, Hinduism, and Buddhism. The earliest mention of Yakshi can be found in Silappadikaram, a Tamil text. The torso of the nude male figure found at Lohanipur at Patna. Didargunj Yakshi was found at Didargunj village at Patna Q41. With respect to Agar trees, consider the following statements. 1. The agarwood tree is native to Western Ghats. 2. Karnataka has recently launched Agar Wood Policy 2021. 3. Low input for management and growth and intercropping adaptation makes Agar important crop. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 3 only b. 1 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: a Explanation: Tripura government has launched a draft named Tripura Agar Wood Policy 2021. In India, it is found in North Eastern States viz Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Manipur, Tripura, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim and also in West Bengal. Agar is a precious floral wealth of North East India and has been identified as a potential aromatic plant. The low input for management and growth, lack of site specificity and intercropping adaptation could make Agar a preferred cash crop.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 40
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Moreover, because of the relative scarcity and high cost of agarwood, this species is considered as potentially threatened species and accordingly the primary source i.e., Agar (Aquilaria malaccensis), has been listed in Appendix II (Potentially threatened species) by the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES) of Wild Fauna and Flora.
Q42. With respect to ‘conditional licensing framework for proprietary food’, consider the following statements. 1. The framework was recently proposed by NITI Aayog. 2. Proprietary food means an article of food that are utilized as protein foods and are mainly recommended for children. 3. The concept of Conditional Licensing is intended to regulate products where composition is diluted/diverted to avoid compliance with standardised food products. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 and 2 only b. 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 2 and 3 only Solution: b Explanation: A conditional licensing framework for proprietary food products has been proposed by The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI). First statement is incorrect. Section 22 of the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 defines “Proprietary Food” as an article of food for which standards have not been specified but is not unsafe, provided that such food does not contain any of the foods and ingredients prohibited under this Act and regulations made thereunder. Second statement is incorrect. Further, the Food Safety and Standards (Food Products Standards and Food Additives Regulations), 2011, under its sub-regulation 2.12 defines ‘Proprietary Foods’ as follows: (1) Proprietary food means an article of food that has not been standardised under these regulations, but does not include novel foods, foods for special dietary uses, foods for special medical purposes, functional foods, nutraceuticals, health supplements and such other food articles which the Central Government may notify in this behalf. Third statement is correct.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 41
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Q43. Consider the following statements regarding contribution to Electoral Bonds. 1. Political parties need not report to ECI the donations received through electoral bonds. 2. Contribution can be made only to the extent of 7.5% of net average profit of three preceding financial years. 3. Companies should declare their political contributions in their profit and loss accounts. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: c Explanation: The Finance Act 2017 introduced amendments in Reserve Bank of India Act, Companies Act, Income Tax Act, Representation of Peoples Act and Foreign Contributions Regulations Act to make way for electoral bonds. By virtue of the 2017 amendment made to Section 29C of the Representation of Peoples Act 1951(RPA), political parties need not report to ECI the donations received through electoral bonds. The ECI has described this a "retrograde step as far as transparency of donations is concerned" and called for withdrawal of the amendment. The amendments made to Companies Act 2013 were also flagged by the ECI. The amendment to Section 182 of the Act took away the restriction that contribution can be made only to the extent of 7.5% of net average profit of three preceding financial years, enabling even newly incorporated companies to donate via electoral bonds. Also, the amendment to Section 182(3) abolished the provision that companies should declare their political contributions in their profit and loss accounts. Q44. Consider the following statements. 1. India is the largest emitter of greenhouse gases in world. 2. India ranked first globally in installed renewable power capacity in 2020.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 42
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: d Explanation: India is currently the world's third largest emitter of greenhouse gases after China and the US. India is world's 3rd largest consumer of electricity and world's 3rd largest renewable energy producer with 38% (136 GW out of 373 GW) of total installed energy capacity in 2020 from renewable sources. Q45. Consider the following seas.
1. Aegean Sea 2. Black Sea 3. Adriatic Sea Arrange the above seas from West to East.
a. 2-3-1 b. 3-2-1 c. 3-1-2 d. 2-1-3 Solution: c
Explanation:
Adriatic Sea was already asked in Prelims 2019.
Correct order from West to East is:
Adriatic- Aegean- Black
See the map now.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 43
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Q46. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by
a. anyone residing in India. b. a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested. c. any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency. d. any citizen of India. Solution: c
Explanation:
Q47. Which among the following schools of philosophy believed in the existence of God?
1. Samkhya 2. Charvaaks 3. Yoga Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: c
Explanation:
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 44
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Read all three images given below:
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 45
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Q48. Consider the following statements with regard to Grants in the Lok Sabha: 1. Vote of Credit is like a blank cheque given to the Executive by the Lok Sabha. 2. Supplementary Grant is granted when money has been spent on any service during a financial year in excess of the amount granted for that service. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: a Explanation: Vote of Credit: It is granted for meeting an unexpected demand upon the resources of India when on account of the magnitude or the indefinite character of the service, the demand cannot be stated with the details ordinarily given in a Budget. Hence, it is like a blank cheque given to the Executive by the Lok Sabha. So, statement 1 is correct
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 46
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Supplementary Grant: It is granted when the amount authorized by the Parliament through the Appropriation Act for a particular service for the current financial year is found to be insufficient for that year. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a). Q49. Which of the following statements best describes the term ‘Bio-prospecting’? 1. Exploring an area to measure its diversity richness 2. Conservation of biodiversity using cryo methods 3. Extinction of a species due to the extinction of its prey 4. Exploring molecular, genetic and species-level diversity for products of economic importance Solution: d Explanation: Bioprospecting is the process of discovery and commercialization of new products based on biological resources. These resources or compounds can be important for and useful in many fields, including pharmaceuticals, agriculture, bioremediation, and nanotechnology, among others. Bioprospecting may involve bio-piracy, the exploitative appropriation of indigenous forms of knowledge by commercial actors and can include the patenting of already widely used natural resources, such as plant varieties, by commercial entities. Therefore, the correct answer is (d). Q50. Proper design and effective implementation of UN-REDD+ Programme can significantly contribute to: 1. protection of biodiversity 2. resilience of forest ecosystems 3. poverty reduction GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 47
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Select the correct answer using the code given below. a. 1 and 2 only b. 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: d Explanation: First two statements, you should have no doubt. Poverty reduction is nowhere mentioned in the REDD+. But the question is not asking for specific details. It is like, “UN-REDD+ Programme can significantly contribute to?” Conservation, sustainable management of forests and enhancement of forest carbon stocks in developing countries will certainly contribute to employment opportunities and help in poverty reduction. FAO also says the same “REDD+ can also contribute to achieving other SDGs – including those which address poverty reduction, health and well-being, hunger alleviation, and improving institutions”.
Q51. Which of the following industry rank lowest based on wastewater generated? a. Chemical
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 48
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
b. Sugar c. Paper and Pulp d. Food, Dairy & Beverage Solution: d Explanation: According to the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB). Sugar mills rank third after pulp / paper and chemicals factories, based on wastewater generated. Lowest is Food, Dairy & Beverage.
Q52. Consider the following statements. 1. Assam has the highest number of national parks in India. 2. Behali Reserve Forest is located on the border of Assam and Arunachal Pradesh. 3. Both Central and State government can declare National Parks. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: b Explanation: Assam’s national park count to seven, making it the Indian state with the second-highest number of national parks, just behind Madhya Pradesh which has nine. First statement is incorrect. Second statement is correct.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 49
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Third is also correct.
Q53. With reference to India’s Energy Subsidies, consider the following statements. 1. Subsidy support for renewable energy has increased 4- fold and it has decreased for non-renewable sectors. 2. Electric Vehicles subsidies have more than doubled since FY 2019. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: b Explanation: This question has been taken from recent released Mapping India’s Energy Subsidies 2021 report. See the link below. Such questions will really help you in elimination in exam. Please follow them regularly.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 50
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Link: https://www.iisd.org/system/files/2021-07/mapping-india-energy-subsidies-2021.pdf Q54. Consider the following statements regarding Mangroves. 1. They reduce high tides and waves and help prevent soil erosion. 2. So far, none of the mangrove species has been included in the Red List of the International Union for Conservation of Nature. 3. As per the latest State of Forest Report, Mangrove cover has increased. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 51
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: d Explanation: Mangroves are an intermediate vegetation between land and sea that grow in oxygen deficient waterlogged soils which have Hydrogen Sulfide (H2S). They perform important ecological functions like nutrient cycling, hydrological regime, coastal protection, fish-fauna production, etc. Mangroves act as shock absorbers. They reduce high tides and waves and help prevent soil erosion. They also provide livelihood opportunities to coastal communities. So far, none of the mangrove species has been included in the Red List of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). A scientific study reported that 100 per cent of mangrove species, 92 per cent of mangrove associates, 60.8 per cent of algae, 23.8 per cent of invertebrates and 21.1 per cent of fish are under threat. Mangrove cover has increased overall. Mangrove cover in the country has increased by 54 sq km (1.10%) as compared to the previous assessment.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 52
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Q55. Which of the above Harapan sites located near the coast?
a. Chanhudaro b. Balakot c. Banawali d. Rakhigarhi Solution: b
Explanation:
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 53
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Q56. Consider the following regarding Special Drawing Right (SDR). 1. The value of the SDR is directly determined by supply and demand in the market. 2. The weightage of currencies in SDR is same for every country. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: d Explanation: The Special Drawing Right (SDR) is an interest-bearing international reserve asset created by the IMF in 1969 to supplement other reserve assets of member countries.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 54
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
The value of the SDR is not directly determined by supply and demand in the market, but is set daily by the IMF on the basis of market exchange rates between the currencies included in the SDR basket. It can be held and used by member countries, the IMF, and certain designated official entities called “prescribed holders”—but it cannot be held, for example, by private entities or individuals. Its status as a reserve asset derives from the commitments of members to hold, accept, and honor obligations denominated in SDR. The SDR also serves as the unit of account of the IMF and some other international organizations.
Q57. Consider the following statements regarding the Attorney General of India: 1. He must be a person qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the High Court as well as the Supreme Court. 2. In the performance of his duties, he has the right of audience take part and right to vote in all Courts. 3. He receives salary as provided in second schedule of Indian Constitution. Which of the Statements given above is/are incorrect? a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: d Explanation: First Statement is incorrect.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 55
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Second statement is incorrect. They are not entitled to vote.
Third statement is incorrect: First of all, he doesn’t receive salary, he receives remuneration. Second is, no mention of Attorney General in Second Schedule.
Q58. Consider the following statements regarding Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.
1. CAG shall only be removed from office in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court. 2. The duties and Powers are CAG are mentioned in the Constitution. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: a
Explanation:
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 56
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Article 148 states there shall be a Comptroller and Auditor-General of India who shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal and shall only be removed from office in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
The Constitution has given authority to Parliament to frame power and duties of CAG.
So, Parliament enacted the comptroller and auditor general's (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Amendment ACT, 1971.
Q59. Consider the following statements regarding Sustainable Development Goals. 1. They were adopted at the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development in Rio de Janeiro in 2012 (Rio+20). 2. The SDG Goals are universal and apply to all countries, whereas the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) were intended for action in developing countries only. 3. The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) are not legally binding. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: B Explanation: The Invest India and the United Nations Development Programme has recently launched the sustainable development goal investor map for India. First statement is incorrect.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 57
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were born at the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development in Rio de Janeiro in 2012. The objective was to produce a set of universal goals that meet the urgent environmental, political and economic challenges facing our world. BUT NOT ADOPTED.
So, when adopted? In January 2015, the General Assembly began the negotiation process on the post-2015 development agenda. The process culminated in the subsequent adoption of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development, with 17 SDGs at its core, at the UN Sustainable Development Summit in September 2015. The SDGs coincided with another historic agreement reached in 2015 at the COP21 Paris Climate Conference. Together with the Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction, signed in Japan in March 2015, these agreements provide a set of common standards and achievable targets to reduce carbon emissions, manage the risks of climate change and natural disasters, and to build back better after a crisis. Second statement is correct.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 58
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Third statement is correct,
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 59
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Q60. In context of Indian National Movement, Consider the following pairs.
Personality Leading Salt Satyagraha in 1. C. Rajagopalachari Tamil Nadu 2. Gopabandhu Choudhury Odisha 3. Ambika Kant Sinha West Bengal
Which of the above options is/are correct?
a. 1 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 2 only d. 3 only Solution: c
Explanation:
Person Leading Salt Satyagraha in C. Rajagopalachari Tamil Nadu Gopabandhu Choudhury Odisha Ambika Kant Sinha Bihar
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 60
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Q61. With respect to world’s first Space Sustainability Rating (SSR) recently developed, consider the following statements. 1. It has been developed by World Economic Forum. 2. It will reduce the risk of collisions and debris generation as well as help ensure that missions launched into Earth orbit are sustainable. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: c Explanation: The world’s first Space Sustainability Rating (SSR) has been developed to reduce space debris and ensure that rapidly increasing space missions launched worldwide are managed safely and sustainably. The SSR concept was developed by the World Economic Forum’s Global Future Council on Space Technologies. Link: https://www.weforum.org/our-impact/world-s-first-space-sustainability-rating- launched/
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 61
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Q62. Consider the following statements. 1. Central Pollution Control Board was constituted under the Environment Protection Act, 1986. 2. CPCB monitors the water quality of rivers and other water bodies across the country under the National Water Quality Monitoring Programme. 3. CPCB is also responsible for the enforcement of noise pollution control measures. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 and 2 only b. 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: c Explanation: First statement is incorrect: The Central Pollution Control Board of India is a statutory organisations under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. It was established in 1974 under the Water Act, 1974. Second statement is correct. CPCB, in association with Pollution Control Boards / committees in different states / Union territories, have been monitoring the water quality of rivers and other water bodies across the country through a network of monitoring stations under the National Water Quality Monitoring Programme. Third statement is also correct. Noise pollution and its sources are regulated under the Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000. Under this:
This authority is authorized by Central Government. Q63. With respect to suspension of MP from houses in Parliament, consider the following statements. GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 62
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
1. It is mandatory to pass a motion to suspend members of Parliament in both the Houses. 2. Speaker in Lok Sabha is empowered to terminate the suspension of a member. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: d Explanation: First statement is incorrect: As both houses are involved, we will discuss both.
Suspension is a serious matter and, for both Houses of Parliament, may be triggered by the same set of circumstances. According to rules 256 and 374, respectively, in the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business for Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha, the presiding officer is permitted to, upon deeming it necessary, “name a member who disregards the authority of the Chair or abuses the rules… by persistently and willfully obstructing the business thereof”. Unlike the Speaker, however, the Rajya Sabha Chairman does not have the power to suspend a member. A motion is adopted and passed in Rajya Sabha. There is an additional provision in the Lok Sabha rules — which does not exist for Rajya Sabha — that allows the Speaker to suspend a member without the need for a motion in that regard being brought in the House. In Lok Sabha: Automatically suspended.
Note: 374A is extra power to Lok Sabha to suspend member without motion being passed, in grave situations. In simple situations, it follows same as Rajya Sabha (by passing motions). Proof of this is in Rule 374. See below.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 63
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Second statement is incorrect. For both Houses, the rules provide that such suspension can stand terminated if that House, passes a motion to that effect. Speaker is not empowered. House is empowered. Q64. Which of the following temples are included under UNESCO Heritage List? 1. Rudreshwara (Ramappa) Temple 2. Group of Monuments at Pattadakal 3. Sun Temple, Konark 4. ISKCON Vrindavan Select the correct code. a. 1, 2 and 3 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 2 and 4 only Solution: a Explanation: Rudreshwara (Ramappa) Temple recently added. Except ISKCON, everyone is there.
Link: https://whc.unesco.org/en/statesparties/in Q65. Tropic of Capricorn passes through: a. Kalahari Desert b. Rocky Mountain c. Sahara Desert d. Gobi Desert Solution: a GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 64
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Explanation: You should know: a. Where are these deserts? b. Tropic of CAPRICORN Answer is Kalahari Desert. Rocky is in US, Sahara in North Africa, Gobi in China. Tropic of Capricorn passes through southern part of Africa, you can easily eliminate all.
Q66. In the context of Medieval History, the term ziyarat refers to:
a. a form of pilgrimage associate with Sufi saints
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 65
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
b. land tax associated to non-Muslims c. purdah system adopted during Aurangzeb and other Mughal rulers d. tax associated to non-Muslims to visit mosques Solution: a
Explanation:
Now I will get calls, sir where to study such questions. Dear Sir/Ma’am, its NCERT.
Q67Consider the following statements.
1. Appointment and Promotion of district judge in any state is made by Governor in consultation with High Court of that State. 2. President has been authorized to extend and exclude the jurisdiction of a High Court from any Union Territory. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
Explanation:
We will see here two articles: 230 and 233.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 66
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
First statement is correct.
Q68. Consider the following statements.
1. Registration of political parties is governed by the provisions of the Representation of the People Act, 1950. 2. Right to form association is a Fundamental Right under article 21. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A Explanation:
If mistake in this question means you guys are still not reading questions properly. Please don’t run.
Registration of political parties is governed by the provisions of Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. See below image.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 67
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Right to Form Association is a fundamental Right given in the Constitution of India under Article 19(1)(c). It Proclaims that all citizens shall have the freedom to form associations or unions for a lawful purpose.
Q69. Sculpture of Buddhist goddess Marichi, an example of the process of integration of different religious and practices, who symbolizes aspects of the sun can be found at:
a. Kushinagar. Uttar Pradesh b. Bodh Gaya, Bihar c. Sarnath, Uttar Pradesh d. Dhauli, Odisha Solution: b
Explanation:
It can be found in Bodh Gaya, Bihar. Again, from NCERT
Q70. Which of the following statement is/are correct about Earth’s Internal structure?
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 68
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
1. The crust accounts for largest volume of Earth’s surface. 2. Earth’s Lithosphere includes crust and upper liquid part of mantle. Select the correct code. a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d
Explanations:
Crust accounts for only 1.14% of earth’s volume. Mantle occupies 82.54% of earth’s volume. Core accounts for 16.32% of earth’s volume.
So correct order is: Mantle> Core> Crust
Earth’s Lithosphere includes crust and upper solid(rigid) part of mantle.
Q71. With respect to Black Carbon (BC), consider the following statements.
1. Black carbon is a short-lived climate pollutant with a lifetime of only days to weeks after release in the atmosphere 2. As per the study BC particles provided temporary habitat to viruses and led to a rapid increase in COVID-19 cases.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 69
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
3. Black carbon warming impact on climate is weaker than CO2 per unit of mass.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3
Solution: a
Explanation:
Recent study conducted by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology located in Pune. Second statement is correct.
First statement is correct.
Black carbon is a short-lived climate pollutant with a lifetime of only days to weeks after release in the atmosphere. During this short period of time, black carbon can have significant direct and indirect impacts on the climate, the cryosphere (snow and ice), agriculture and human health.
Third statement is incorrect.
Q72. Global Acceleration Plan for Gender Equality by 2026 recently launched is an outcome of:
a. UN Economic and Social Council resolution b. UN Conference of Women Commission 2021 c. Davos Summit of World Economic Forum d. Generation Equality Forum
Solution: d
Explanation:
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 70
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
The Generation Equality Forum Paris concluded recently with the announcement of bold gender equality commitments and launch of a global 5-year action journey to accelerate gender equality by 2026.
The Forum launched a Global Acceleration Plan for Gender Equality designed by six Action Coalitions – multi-stakeholder partnerships that have identified the most critical actions required to achieve gender equality in areas from gender-based violence and technology to economic and climate justice.
Link: https://forum.generationequality.org/news/generation-equality-forum-concludes-paris- announcement-revolutionary-commitments-and-global
Q73. Consider the following statements.
1. Palm Oil is the most land-use efficient oil plant as its productivity is more than other oil crops. 2. Oil palm is a tropical plant species. 3. Consumption of Palm oil is low in developed nations because it usage is restricted to food only, not used as a fuel or any industrial applications.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 71
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3
Solution: a
Explanation:
First is correct.
Palm Oil is the most land-use efficient oil plant producing about 3-4 tonnes per hectare, whereas other oil crops yield less than one tonne per hectare of land.
Palm oil is a very productive crop; as we will see later, it produces 36% of the world’s oil, but uses less than 9% of croplands devoted to oil production. It has therefore been a natural choice to meet this demand.
Second is correct.
Oil palm is a tropical plant species. It thrives on high rainfall, adequate sunlight and humid conditions – this means the best growing areas are along a narrow band around the equator.4 Palm oil is therefore grown in many countries across Africa, South America, and Southeast Asia. In the map we see the distribution of production across the world.
Third is incorrect.
Q74. The visit of foreigners in India to see the various places/events in the country, amounts to which of the following in terms of economy:
a. Production b. Consumption c. Import d. Export
Solution: d
Explanation:
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 72
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Exports means produced within the country and sold to foreigners (or non-residents). If a foreigner is coming to India and then purchasing goods and services, then it is a case of exports.
In the same way, if a foreigner is coming to India for medical treatment or tourism then the foreigner is basically purchasing medical and tourism services produced in our country.
So, the best possible answer is exports.
Q75. Consider the following.
1. Little Andaman 2. South Andaman 3. Port Blair 4. Duncan Passage Arrange the above places from North to South.
a. 1-3-4-2 b. 1-4-3-2 c. 3-1-2-4 d. 2-3-4-1 Solution: d
Explanation:
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 73
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Q76. Consider the following Committees of the Lok Sabha.
1. Committee on Private Members’ Bills and Resolutions. 2. Rules Committee 3. General Purposes Committee Which of the above committees does Speaker has its ex-officio chairman?
a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: c
Explanation:
Q77. Consider the following statements regarding National Greene Tribunal. 1. It provides relief and compensation to the victims of pollution and other environmental damage. GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 74
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
2. Any person aggrieved by the decision of Tribunal can file an appeal to Supreme Court. 3. The Tribunal shall be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice. 4. The Chairperson of the tribunal is appointed by the Government who has been expert in the field of environment and public affairs. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1, 2 and 3 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 2, 3 and 4 only d. 1 and 4 only Solution: b Explanation: First statement is correct. Section 15 and 16 of the Act states that: Provide relief and compensation to the victims of pollution and other environmental damage arising under the environmental acts, and Hear appeal from any person aggrieved by any order or decision related to environmental matters.
Statement 2 is correct:
Statement 3 is incorrect:
Statement 4 is incorrect:
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 75
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Q78. Consider the following statements. 1. CBI to obtain the consent of the state government before conducting investigation in a particular state thereby limiting its jurisdiction. 2. CBI is a statutory body. 3. Prime Minister, Speaker of Lok Sabha and CJI are the members of appointment committee to appoint a director of CBI. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 and 2 only b. 3 only c. 1 only d. 1 and 3 only Solution: c Explanation: Section 6 of the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act 1946 requires the CBI to obtain the consent of the state government before conducting investigation in a particular state thereby limiting its jurisdiction.
What is the concept of “General Consent”? In case of 'general consent' the CBI does not have to obtain the prior permission of the state government before investigation. When a state withdraws general consent, CBI officers lose the powers to conduct investigation in the concerned state. In order to register a new case, the agency has to seek specific consent from the State government. As a result, it stalls registration of new cases. And over the years, general consent has been used as a tool of political rivalry between the centre and state. Second Statements is incorrect: Origins of CBI can be traced back to the Special Police Establishment (SPE) set up in 1941 in order to cases of bribery and corruption in War & Supply Department of India during World War II.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 76
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
The need of a Central Government agency to investigate cases of bribery and corruption was felt even after the end of World War II. So, DSPE (Delhi Special Police Establishment) Act, 1946 was brought that gave legal power of investigating cases to CBI. CBI is not a statutory body as it is not established by an Act of the Parliament. Third Statement is incorrect: Members are: a. Prime Minister of India b. Leader of Opposition c. CJI.
Q79. What happens to human life after death” is a theme used in:
a. Warli Paintings b. Madhubani Paintings. c. Paitkar Paintings d. Manjusha Paintings
Solution: c
Explanations:
Practiced by the tribal people of Jharkhand, Paitkar paintings are considered one of the ancient paintings in the country. The common theme of this painting is “What happens to human life after death”.
Q80. Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of 'Office of Profit'. 2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times. 3. The term 'Office of Profit' is well defined in the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only b. 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: a
Explanation:
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 77
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
This question is dedicated to freshers.
No explanation here. Just understand the pattern.
How many students have left this question, please mention in the comment section? Now, this question was asked in Prelims 2019.
Why we took this question? Understand here.
First two statements nobody have any idea. What students know is only third option. You can easily eliminate third option. After eliminating third option, you are left with only one option that is 1.
So, even if you don’t know first two statements, you can solve question. This is what we are teaching you through daily quiz.
One more thing here, what you can observe here, UPSC has asked these eliminated two statements in beginning. Easy statement is last statement. They know after reading first two statements, students will skip this question. So please…….
Q81. President of India may summon a session of the Houses of Parliament on the recommendation of 1. Prime Minister 2. Union Cabinet 3. Union Minister for Parliamentary Affairs Select the correct code.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 78
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
a. 1 or 2 only b. 2 or 3 only c. 1 or 3 only d. 1 only Solution: a Explanation:
Q82. With reference to Asian Development Bank, consider the following statements. 1. ADB has more than 60 member nations. 2. India is the largest shareholder in AIB after US. 3. ADB has members from Asia, Europe and North America. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 3 only d. 1 only Solution: b Explanation: First and third statements are correct.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 79
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
The ADB is an alliance of states of currently 67 countries from almost all regions worldwide.
All member states comprise a total area of 58.14 million km² and about 5.10 billion people. This is 38.5% of the habitable area around the world and 66% of the world population. With an economic output of 71,744.52 tn US dollars annually, they represent around 82 percent of the global economy.
Second statement is incorrect: As of 31 December 2020, Japan and the United States each holds the largest proportion of shares at 15.571%. China holds 6.429%, India holds 6.317%, and Australia holds 5.773%. Q83. With respect to Five Star Villages Scheme in India, consider the following statements. 1. It has been launched by NITI Aayog. 2. It aims to give 5-star certification to villages for comprehensive implementation of all criteria of Swachh Bharat Abhiyan- Rural with incentives to Gram Panchayats. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: d Explanation: The Department of Posts has launched a scheme called Five Star Villages, to ensure universal coverage of flagship postal schemes in rural areas of the country. The scheme seeks to bridge the gaps in public awareness and reach of postal products and services, especially in interior villages. All postal products and services will be made available and marketed and publicized at village level, under the Five Star Villages
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 80
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2 scheme. Branch offices will function as one-stop shop to cater all post office - related needs of villagers. The schemes covered under the Five Star scheme include: i) Savings Bank accounts, Recurrent Deposit Accounts, NSC / KVP certificates, ii) Sukanya Samridhi Accounts/ PPF Accounts, iii) Funded Post Office Savings Account linked India Post Payments Bank Accounts, iv) Postal Life Insurance Policy/Rural Postal Life Insurance Policy and v) Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana Account / Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana Account. If a village attains universal coverage for four schemes from the above list, then that village gets four-star status; if a village completes three schemes, then that village get three-star status and so on.
Q84. Consider the following statements regarding the current "Wholesale Price Index (WPI)" series with base year 2011-12: 1. The weights of the commodities in WPI basket are fixed till the revision/change in base year 2. The weights of the commodities in WPI basket are determined based on domestic production plus net of exports. 3. "Manufactured Products" have the highest weight in WPI basket Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: c Explanation: When DPIIT started the new series of WPI with base year 2011-12, then it measured/calculated the "Net traded value" of the 697 different items.
• Net traded value = Domestic production plus imports minus exports • Net traded value = Domestic production plus Net imports (second is incorrect) Imports minus Exports is also called Net Imports. Exports minus Imports is also called Net Exports. So, the weights of the 697 different items in the WPI basket is based on "Domestic production of that item plus Net imports" which is also called "Net traded value". And this weight is kept constant. And every month only the price change of 697 different items will be measured in the wholesale mandis/markets and the Index will be calculated. All the 697 items are divided into three groups
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 81
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Primary Articles = overall weight 22.62% Fuel and Power = overall weight 13.15% Manufactured Products = overall weight 64.23% Q85. Vastu-shastra, the science of architecture was codified in: a. Gupta Period b. Mauryan Period c. Mughals Period d. Harsha’s rule Solution: a Explanation:
Q86. Under which of the following situations, the President of India may summon a joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament? 1. One House passes the Bill and the other House rejects the Bill. 2. The Houses finally disagree as to the amendments to the Bill. 3. If the party that enjoys majority in the Lok Sabha does not enjoy majority in Rajya Sabha, and the Government wants to avoid a discussion in Rajya Sabha. 4. One House passes the Bill and the other House does not pass it within six months from the date it received the Bill. Select the correct code. a. 1, 2 and 3 only b. 1, 2 and 4 only c. 1 and 2 only d. All of the above Solution: b Explanation:
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 82
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Q87. During an election to the Office of the Vice President of India, 790 valid votes were cast. What is the minimum number of votes sufficient for the return of a candidate? a. 3956 b. 395 c. 396 d. 3967 Solution: C Explanation: The winning candidate has to secure the required quota of votes to be declared elected, that is 50 percent of valid votes polled +1. For example, if the total number of valid votes polled is 790, then the quota required for getting elected is: 790/2+1 = 396 Q88. Consider the following statements. 1. Recent inclusion of Retail and Wholesale trades as MSME will help them to avail loan under Priority Sector Loans. 2. Priority Sector Loans are given at subsidized rate. 3. Under MSME Act, the term “Enterprise” includes both manufacturing and services enterprises, agriculture is not part of it. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1 only Solution: c Explanation” The economy is divided into three sectors: Agriculture, Industry, Services Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) sector includes Industrial sector and Services sector but not Agriculture sector. It should be noted that under the Act, the term
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 83
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
“Enterprise” includes only manufacturing and services enterprises. Third statement is correct. All the Retail and wholesale trade is part of Services sector but till now they were not included as MSMEs. As per news and the revised guidelines, Retail and Wholesale trades will be included as MSMEs. Since MSMEs are part of the Priority Sector Lending (PSL) Guidelines, so now Retail (it includes the retail shops formal or informal sector like fruit and vegetable sellers etc.) and Wholesale trade will be able to avail loan under PSL. First statement is correct. Priority Sector Loans are given as per market interest rates and are not subsidized. Second statement is incorrect. Q89. First discovery of rock paintings was made in India in 1867–68 by: a. Cockburn Anderson b. Joseph Rodrigue c. Archibold Carlleyle d. James Philips Solution: c Explanation:
Q90. Which of the following can be notified under Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2017? 1. Wetlands designated by the Government of India to the List of Wetlands of International Importance. 2. Paddy fields 3. Human-made waterbodies specifically constructed for aquaculture purposes 4. Wetlands falling within areas covered under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 Select the correct code. a. 1 only b. 1, 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 4 only d. 2 and 3 only Solution: a GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 84
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Explanation: Nearly two and a half years after it had notified the Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2017 for conservation and management of wetlands in the country, the Indian government’s environment ministry has now come out with guidelines to support state governments in the implementation of the rules.
Q91. Consider the following statements.
1. India has greatest number of World Heritage Sites in world. 2. Property representing major stages of earth's history, including geomorphic or physiographic features is of the criterion for inclusion in World Heritage List. 3. Tentative list is formed after advisory body independently evaluate the cultural and natural sites which have been proposed and submit their evaluations to the World Heritage Committee.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 and 3 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 2 only d. 2 only
Solution: d
Explanation:
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 85
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
First statement is incorrect.
Italy (57) has the greatest number of World Heritage Sites followed by China (56) as per UNESCO’s dashboard as of 27 July 2021. India continues to be ranked sixth in the world in terms of the number of heritage sites. Spain, Germany, and France have more than 40 sites each. India had 40 sites inscribed, with the addition of latest Dholavira city, Gujarat.
Second statement is correct.
The latest Operational Guidelines was modified in 2019 during the previous session of the World Heritage Committee.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 86
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Third statement is incorrect:
Preparation of tentative list- The country or ‘State Party’ must prepare a list of the important natural and cultural heritage sites that are located within the country’s boundaries, which can be submitted for inclusion as a World Heritage site. This inventory is called a ‘Tentative list’ and can be
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 87
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2 updated from time to time. Only properties listed in the tentative list will be considered for inscription by the World Heritage Committee. India’s tentative list consists of 46 sites.
Q92. Consider the following statements.
1. As per the latest report, Bihar has the largest reserves of gold ores. 2. The Government of India recently amended the Minerals Evidence of Mineral Contents Rules to allow auction of composite licence at G4 level for deep-seated minerals, including gold. 3. Gold extraction in India is less than 5 percent of the total reserves.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3
Solution: d
Explanation:
As per latest report, the largest reserves of gold ores are located in Bihar (44 per cent), followed by Rajasthan (25 per cent), Karnataka (21 per cent), West Bengal (3 per cent), Andhra Pradesh (3 per cent), Jharkhand (2 per cent).
Recently, Ministry of Mines has amended MMDR Act, 1957 through the MMDR Amendment Act, 2021 which has been notified on 28.03.2021 for giving boost to mineral production, improving ease of doing business in the country and increasing mineral production.
One amendment is for simplification of exploration regime:
a. To ensure seamless transition of the concession from exploration to production b. Mineral Blocks for Composite Licence can be auctioned at G4 level of exploration instead of G3 level as per the earlier standard.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 88
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
c. Mineral Block for surfacial mineral can be auctioned for grant of Mining Lease at G3 level instead of G2 level.
Third statement is correct.
Link: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/mining/india-has-500-million-tonnes-of-gold-ore- reserves-govt-78151
Q93. With reference to insurance to the depositor’s money in banks, consider the following statements.
1. If bank goes bankrupt and if someone has four accounts in Axis each having Rs. 5 lakhs then only he will get only Rs. 5 lakhs in total. 2. Currently, depositors get money only after the completion of the liquidation procedure of the bank. 3. Primary cooperative societies are not insured by the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 89
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Solution: c
Explanation:
First statement is correct.
Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) provides insurance to the depositors’ money in banks. If a bank goes bankrupt then people are insured of Rs. 5 lakh amount (including principal plus interest) per bank. So, if someone has an account with Axis bank with Rs. 20 lakh deposits. he will get only Rs. 5 lakhs. And if someone has four accounts in Axis each having Rs. 5 lakhs then only he will get only Rs. 5 lakhs in total. This limit was increased to Rs. 5 lakhs from Rs. 1 lakh last year.
Second statement is incorrect.
But it used to take a lot of time for depositors generally 8 to 10 years to get their money back only after the completion of the liquidation procedure of the bank.
Now, what Cabinet has approved yesterday is If a bank has not gone bankrupt but is not doing well and RBI has imposed moratorium/restrictions on withdrawal of deposits to improve the condition of the bank then in that case also DICGC will have to pay to depositors Rs. 5 lakhs (maximum, depending on what is in your account) within 90 days. This was a major issue for depositors as in the last few years several banks had cases related to fraud and were not doing well and RBI imposed moratorium/restrictions on public deposit withdrawal.
Third statement is correct:
Q94. World Economic Outlook PUBLISHED BY:
a. World Economic Forum b. International Monetary Fund c. WTO d. World Bank
Solution: b
Explanation:
It is by IMF.
On July 27th the International Monetary Fund has cut India’s GDP growth forecast to 9.5% for the fiscal year 2021-22. Previously, IMF has forecasted 12.5% GDP growth. Q95. Consider the following Pairs. 1. Lake Titicaca: Southern Africa 2. Mt Aconcagua: Africa Region 3. Llanos Grassland: East of Andes GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 90
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Which of the above pairs is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1 and 3 only Solution: b Explanation:
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 91
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Q96. Which of following National Park has the highest tiger density in India?
a. Jim Corbett b. Kaziranga c. Nagarhole d. Orang
Solution: a
Explanation:
Uttarakhand's Jim Corbett National Park has reported the highest tiger density among India's 50 tiger's reserves with 14 tigers per 100 square kilometers, followed by Kaziranga National Park in Assam, Nagarhole and Orang Tigers reserves. Q97. With reference to the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, consider the following statements:
1. It has a provision for establishing a Central Pollution Control Board. 2. Any air pollutant released into the atmosphere by a ship or an aircraft is not covered under the purview of this Act. 3. This Act does include noise as an air pollutant. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: c
Explanation:
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 92
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
The Central Pollution Control Board of India is a statutory organization established in 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act. Though, the CPCB is also entrusted with the powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981. However, it is established under the Water Act. So, the statement (1) is not correct.
One of the significant drawbacks of the Act is that any air pollutant released into the atmosphere by a ship or aircraft does not come under the purview of the Act. So, the statement (2) is correct.
The Act was amended in 1987 to include noise as an air pollutant. So, the statement (3) is not correct.
Q98. The Panchayati Raj Institutions in India strengthen
a. procedural democracy b. representative democracy c. participative democracy d. consensus democracy Solution: c
Explanation:
Procedural democracy is a democracy that emphasizes the minimal standards of democracy. It is the opposite of substantive democracy and gives a narrow perspective to democracy Ensuring freedom of the press, competitive party system, independent judiciary etc. can be procedural democracy. Hence option (a) is not correct.
In an indirect democracy, the representatives elected by the people exercise the supreme power and thus carry on the government and make the laws. This type of democracy is also known as representative democracy.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 93
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act is a significant landmark in the evolution of grass root democratic institutions in the country. It transforms the representative democracy into participatory democracy. The objective of the Act is to have village governance with participatory democracy as is visible through the gram Sabha. Hence option (b) is not correct and option (c) is correct.
Consensus democracy is one in which decision making occurs through consensus thus taking into full consideration the opinion of the minorities, it is quite the opposite of majoritarian democracy. Hence option (d) is not correct.
Q99. In context of Art and Architecture, "Kulhadar Group" is associated with:
a. Paintings b. Dance c. Puppetry d. Regional song of Rajasthan
Solution: a
Explanation:
Kulhadar group belongs to miniature paintings.
Link: http://ccrtindia.gov.in/miniaturepainting.php Q100. Consider the following statements.
1. The Constitution has given discretion to Parliament to modify the composition of a legislative council in the state legislature. 2. Number of members of Legislative Councils vary from state to state. 3. One-third of the members of the Legislative Council are elected by the members of the Legislative Assembly of the State. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: d
Explanation:
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 94
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
First statement: Yes, Parliament can modify.
Second Statement: When Constitution says, the total number of members in the Legislative Council of a State having such a Council shall not exceed one third of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly of that State, it means, seats will vary from state to state.
Third statement:
Everything will be cleared once you go through few articles below.
Q101. With respect to Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC), consider the following statements.
1. It is the UN body for assessing the science related to climate change. 2. IPCC has a Task Force on National Greenhouse Gas Inventories that develops methodologies for measuring emissions and removals. 3. The objective of the IPCC is to provide governments at all levels with scientific information that they can use to develop climate policies. 4. India is a member of IPCC.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 95
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only b. 2, 3 and 4 only c. 3 and 4 only d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution: d
Explanation:
All statements are correct.
The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) is the UN body for assessing the science related to climate change. It was established by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) in 1988: to provide political leaders with periodic scientific assessments concerning climate change, its implications and risks, as well as to put forward adaptation and mitigation strategies.
The IPCC is an organization of governments that are members of the United Nations or WMO. The IPCC currently has 195 members. India is a member.
Q102. With respect to Pre-Packaged Insolvency Resolution Process (PIRP), consider the following statements.
1. Management of distressed firm passed on to Resolution Professionals in PIRP. 2. A public bidding process happens wherein anyone can submit resolution plan.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d
Explanation:
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 96
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Q103. Consider the following statements regarding Adaptation Fund (AF).
1. It was set up under the Kyoto Protocol of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). 2. NABARD has been accredited as National Implementing Entity (NIE) for Adaptation Fund.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c
Explanation:
The Adaptation Fund (AF) was set up under the Kyoto Protocol of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). It was established in 2001 and officially launched in 2007 at CoP 7 in Marrakech, Morocco.
It aims to finance concrete projects and programmes that help vulnerable communities in developing countries that are Parties to the Kyoto Protocol to adapt to climate change.
NABARD has been accredited as National Implementing Entity (NIE) for Adaptation Fund in July 2012 and is the only NIE for India.
Q104. Consider the following statements regarding Conservation Assured Tiger Standards (CA|TS).
1. It is a set of criteria which allows tiger sites to check if their management will lead to successful tiger conservation. 2. It is an important part of Tx2, the global goal to double wild tiger numbers by the year 2022. 3. No Indian sites have been accredited under CA|TS.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 97
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3
Solution: b
Explanation:
CA|TS is a set of criteria which allows tiger sites to check if their management will lead to successful tiger conservation. CA|TS is organized under seven pillars and 17 elements of critical management activity.
CA|TS was developed by tiger and protected area experts. Officially launched in 2013, CA|TS is an important part of Tx2, the global goal to double wild tiger numbers by the year 2022.
Q105. One can find Great Victorian Desert, Gulf of Carpentaria and MacDonnell Ranges all in which of the following regions:
a. African Continent b. South America c. Australia d. European Union Solution: c
Explanation:
Great Victorian Desert, Gulf of Carpentaria and MacDonnell Ranges all can be seen in Australia.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 98
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Q106. In the context of Indian Constitution, consider the following statements.
1. The discretion has been given to President to extend the jurisdiction of High Court to Union Territories. 2. Parliament by law can establish a common High Court for two or more states. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: b
Explanation:
The discretion has been given to Parliament to extend the jurisdiction to Union Territories.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 99
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
According to Article 231, Parliament may by law establish a common High Court for two or more States or for two or more States and a Union territory.
Q107. Consider the following statements REGARDING Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006.
1. FRA is not applicable to Municipal Areas. 2. FRA is also applicable to National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries and Tiger Reserves. 3. A provision of conversion of forest villages to revenue villages has been mentioned under this Act. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: b
Explanation:
First statement is incorrect.
Second statement is correct:
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 100
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Third statement is correct:
There is a provision for conversion of forest villages to revenue villages in 2019, as stipulated under the provisions of the Forest Rights Act, 2006. Forest villages were villages set up by the British Indian government to settle workers inside forests and procure resources like timber more efficiently. There are around 2,500 forest villages across the country.
Q108. Which of the following are conveyed through the Preamble to the Constitution of India?
1. Source of the authority of the Constitution 2. Nature of the Indian State 3. Objectives of the Constitution 4. Date of adoption of the Constitution Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1, 3 and 4 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 2, 3 and 4 only d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Solution: d
Explanation:
Very simple question.
The Preamble to the Constitution reveals the following information:
1. Source of the authority of the Constitution: The Preamble states that the Constitution derives its authority from the people of India. Hence statement (1) is correct. 2. Nature of Indian State: It declares India to be a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular Democratic and Republican polity. Hence statement (2) is correct. 3. Objectives of the Constitution: It specifies Justice, Liberty, Equality and Fraternity as the objectives. Hence statement (3) is correct. 4. Date of adoption of the Constitution: It stipulates November 26, 1949 as the date of adoption. Hence statement (4) is correct. Q109. Consider the following statements regarding Indus Waters Treaty (IWT).
1. The treaty was signed during priministership of Indira Gandhi. 2. The IWT does not have a unilateral exit clause. 3. India was given control of the water from the other three rivers – Ravi, Beas, and Chenab. Which of the above statement is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 2 only d. 1 and 3 only Solution: c
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 101
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Explanation:
First statement is Incorrect.
On September 19, 1960, the Indus Waters Treaty (IWT) was signed between India and Pakistan to share waters from the Indus rivers system (IRS).
After years of negotiations between representatives from India and Pakistan, which were mediated by the World Bank, Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru went to Karachi, the then capital of Pakistan to sign the Indus Waters Treaty along with the Pakistani head of state, General Ayub Khan. The vice president of the World Bank, W.A.B. Iliff also signed the document.
Second statement is correct:
The IWT does not have a unilateral exit clause. Technically, under the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, there are provisions to sever and withdraw from the treaty. However, the provisions cannot be appropriately used to abrogate the IWT. Even the severance of diplomatic and consular relationships between India and Pakistan cannot terminate the IWT. Even if the IWT gets revoked in some way or the other, there are international conventions, rules and principles which secure the water interests of the lower riparian states.
Third statement is incorrect:
The IWT allocates waters from three western flowing rivers – Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab – to Pakistan barring some limited uses for India in Jammu & Kashmir. India was given control of the entire water from the other three rivers – Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 102
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
Q110. Consider the following statements regarding Ken-Betwa River Linking project.
1. The Ken River is one of the major rivers of the Bundelkhand region of central India. 2. Betwa rises in the Vindhya Range in Madhya Pradesh. 3. Interlinking of the rivers will destroy the Panna Tiger Reserve located in the state of Madhya Pradesh. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only b. 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: d
Explanation:
First statement is correct:
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 103
QUIZ COMPILATIONS – JULY PART 2
The Ken River is one of the major rivers of the Bundelkhand region of central India, and flows through two states, Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh. The river originates in Jabalpur District of M.P. at an altitude of 550m above mean sea level and joins the Yamuna River in UP.
Tributaries of Ken River: The important tributaries of the Ken River are Sonar, Bearma, Kopra, Bewas, Urmil, Mirhasan, Kutni, Kail, Gurne, Patan, Siameri, Chandrawal, Banne, etc., among others. The longest tributary is Sonar which is 227 km in length and lies wholly in M.P.
Second statement is correct.
The Betwa or Betravati is a river in Northern India, and a tributary of the Yamuna. Also known as the Vetravati, the Betwa rises in the Vindhya Range just north of Hoshangabad in Madhya Pradesh and flows north-east through Madhya Pradesh and Orchha to Uttar Pradesh. Nearly half of its course, which is not navigable, runs over the Malwa Plateau. After traversing a distance of 590 km, the river joins the Yamuna River near Hamirpur at an elevation of 106.68 m.
Third statement is also correct:
Interlinking of the rivers will destroy the Panna Tiger Reserve located in the state of Madhya Pradesh.
GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 104