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Final Exam-Key DAPE 731, Periodontology Year III

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Final Exam-Key DAPE 731, Periodontology Year III Exam 1-A NAME: _ _______________________________ Seat #: _________________________________ Exam # _________ Final Exam-key DAPE 731, Periodontology Year III Elio Reyes, D.D.S., M.S.D. Dwight E. McLeod, D.D.S., M.S. December 14, 2011 USE Pencil and follow the instructions: Use your Scantron for the multiple choice questions. Write the fill-in questions on your booklet. 52 questions = 100% 3 bonus questions = +3 points. 1. Which surfaces are considered sterile when the periodontal surgical set-up is correctly utilized? a. The outside surface of the glove paper envelope. b. The top surface of the counter after proper spray-wipe-spray process. c. The anesthetic cartridges after thorough alcohol wiping. d. The foil wrapping the lamp handles. e. All of the above. 2. Which of the following is the least important question when considering crown lengthening surgery? a. Is the tooth restorable? b. Is the root trunk long enough? c. Is the tooth treated endodontically? d. Is the tooth too close to the adjacent? e. Has the patient agreed to the treatment? 3. From a periodontal standpoint, the main concern from leaving a temporary restoration for too long before a crown lengthening procedure is: a. Loss of vertical dimension. b. Recurrent caries at the margin. c. Plaque accumulation. d. Root fracture. e. All of the above. 4. Surgical crown lengthening is the only predictable way to achieve adequate crown length for restoration of a tooth with subgingival caries and inadequate retention. a. True b. False 5. Even without the presence of plaque, chronic gingival inflammation and localized periodontitis will occur on teeth with subgingival margins when: a. the margin is encroaching on the biologic width space. b. there is insufficient keratinized gingiva. c. there is secondary occlusal trauma. d. a and b only. e. All of the above. 6. In terms of plaque control and ease for cleaning, what furcation classification has a better prognosis? a. Glickman’s class III b. Glickman’s class IV c. Hamp’s class III d. a and c e. None of the above 7. A patient with a Grade I furcation involvement may benefit most from which of the following therapies? a. Vertical grooving b. Open flap debridement c. Scaling and root planning d. Application of tetracycline 8. The periodontal osseous defects with the best chance for bone regeneration are classified as: . a. broad two-wall intrabony. b. narrow two-wall intrabony. c. broad three-wall intrabony. d. narrow three-wall intrabony. 9. All of the following are true regarding a mandibular molar with a Grade II furcation involvement except that: a. It has a poor prognosis. b. It may be treated by scaling and root planning only. c. It may require the use of guided tissue regeneration. d. It may require the removal of tooth structure. 10. A Nabers probe is used for the assessment of Hamp’s classification of furcation involvement. The markings on the probe represent 5 mm increments. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true and the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false and the second statement is true. 11. The most reliable way to diagnose the presence of a furcation involvement is with vertical bitewing radiographs. Periapical radiographs are helpful in diagnosing maxillary furcations only. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true and the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false and the second statement is true. 12. A valid treatment option for a molar with Grade III furcation involvement is extraction and placement of an implant. Grade III furcation involvement may also be treated by a tunnel procedure. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true and the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false and the second statement is true. 13. Due to its cost and versatility, the surgical blade most commonly used in periodontal surgery is: a. # 12 D b. # 15 C c. # 15 d. # 10 14. Which of the following instruments is specifically designed to perform the syndesmotomy (surgical division of a ligament), when performing an atraumatic tooth extraction? a. Periosteal elevator b. Forceps c. Periotome d. Surgical blade e. Periodontal curette 15. The biological concept of Guided Tissue Regeneration involves: A. Exclusion of the epithelium to allow for regeneration. B. Exclusion of the epithelium and connective tissue to allow for regeneration. C. Favoring repopulation of the alveolar bone, connective tissue and periodontal ligament into the wound. D. Favoring repopulation of the alveolar bone and periodontal ligament into the wound. E. Favoring repopulation of the alveolar bone into the wound. a. A and C b. B and C c. A and D d. B and D e. A and E 16. During osseous surgery in combination with bone grafting, the most adequate step after the flap has been reflected and the granulomatous tissue has been debrided is? a. Bone conditioning with tetracycline. b. Thorough scaling and root planning. c. Placement of an occlusive membrane. d. Bone decortication and placement of the bone graft. 17. On which type of furcation defect is Guided-Tissue Regeneration most effective? a. Class one furcation defect on maxillary molars. b. Class two furcation defect on maxillary molars. c. Class two furcation defect on mandibular molars. d. Class three furcation defect on maxillary molars. e. B and C. 18. Positive bone architecture cannot be achieved by ostectomy only. Osteoplasty is necessary to remove supporting bone. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true and the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false and the second statement is true. 19. The main difference between an osteoinductive and an osteoconductive bone graft material is that the osteoinductive graft has the collagen links. Scaffolding is an important property of an osteoconductive bone graft. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true and the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false and the second statement is true. 20. Xenografts may be obtained from animals, plants or humans. The use of autografts is limited due to the severe immunologic reaction that they elicit. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true and the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false and the second statement is true. 21. In the absence of the third molar, isolated periodontal pockets distal of the second molar can be a frequent finding. Identify the surgical procedures that are commonly used to treat the periodontal pocket distal of the second molars. a. Laser curettage b. Proximal wedge c. Gingivectomy d. A, B, C e. B, C 22. Which procedure is performed apical to the crestal bone? a. Gingivectomy b. Modified Widman Flap c. Apically positioned Flap d. Regenerative surgery e. All of the above 23. Which procedure involves surgical intervention below the junctional epithelium, but not affecting the crestal bone? a. S/RP b. ENAP c. Osseous Surgery d. Undisplaced Flap e. A and D 24. When doing a gingivectomy procedure, the scapel is placed at: a. 90 degrees to the root and gingiva. b. 120 degrees to the root and gingiva. c. 70 degrees to the root and gingiva. d. 45 degree to the root and gingiva. 25. Which one of the following is true of the papilla preservation technique? a. Papilla can be retained on both buccal and lingual flaps. b. The primary object is for S/RP and osseous recontouring. c. The collar of the flap is discarded to encourage regeneration. d. A, B e. A, B, C 26. Which statement is incorrect regarding the apically positioned flap (APF)? a. The APF is used during resective surgical procedures. b. The APF can be utilized to increase the band of keratinized gingiva. c. The APF surgery heals by secondary intention. d. The APF is easier to perform on the palate because the abundance of gingiva. 27. A partial thickness flaps can be utilized: a. when there is thin facial bone. b. whenever there is a need for periosteal suturing. c. during most mucogingival surgeries. d. A, B e. A, B, C 28. This specific surgical procedure utilizes only intrasulcular incisions, mucoperiosteal flaps, and suturing technique that supports coronally positioning of the flap to gain primary closure. Identify the procedure below. a. ENAP b. MWF c. Undisplaced Flap d. Conventional Flap e. LPF 29. Taking into consideration the most minimal keratinized gingiva that is necessary for health, when would you not perform a gingival graft surgery? a. When there is no gingival recession, and 1 mm of attached gingiva. b. When there is no gingival recession, and 1 mm of unattached gingiva. c. When there is no gingival recession, and 2 mm of unattached gingiva. d. When there is no gingival recession, and 5 mm of attached gingiva. 30. Which one of the following has no bearing on the outcome of mucogingival surgery? a. The Miller Classification b. The depth of the vestibule c. The vascular supply d. The quality of the facial bone e. None of the above 31. Which one of the following flaps is not used as a surgical approach to treat periodontitis? a. APF b. Modified Widman Flap c. ENAP d. Semilunar flap e. APF and ENAP 32. When is a root coverage surgical procedure indicated? a. Root sensitivity b. Progression of gingival recession c. Esthetics, but not functional needs d. A, B e. A, B, C 33.
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