October 4, 2009 ANPS 19 Practice Exam #2 Disclaimer: I do my best to write questions that are representative of the exam but I cannot make any guarantees. Also, I have not included any images, whereas anatomical identification represents a relatively significant portion of the exam. Questions 41-68 are therefore more of a learning exercise. Enjoy! -Steele Lecture #1: Bone Structure and Development 1. The basic functional units of compact bone are: A. Trabeculae B. Osteons C. Circumferential Lamellae D. Canaliculi

2. The following cells share a common lineage except: A. Osteoclasts B. Osteoblasts C. Osteocytes D. Osteoprogenitors

3. Which of the following statements is true with regard to periosteum? A. Periosteum is avascular B. Periosteum ensheaths the entire surface of a bone C. Periosteum contains osteoprogenitor cells D. Periosteum is a type of epithelial tissue E. All of the above are true

4. Osteocytes are situated in ___ and have cytoplasmic extensions that travel through_____ . A. Canaliculi; Gap Junctions B. Lacunae; Canaliculi C. Central Canals ; Perforating Canals D. Periosteum; Perforating Fibers

5. The condition where periosteum breaks free and calcifies regions of muscle is known as: A. Myositis ossificans B. Osteoporosis C. Osteoarthritis D. Osteogenesis Imperfecta

6. During childhood, long bones increase in length via______, and increase in width via_____. A. Intramembranous Ossification; Appositional Growth B. Endochondral Ossification; Appositional Growth C. Endochondral Ossification; Intramembranous Ossification D. Appositional Growth; Endochondral Ossification

7. During appositional bone growth, periosteal blood vessels are entrapped by bony tissue. As the bone tissue undergoes subsequent remodeling, the blood vessel ultimately becomes a: A. Marrow Cavity B. Canaliculi C. Circumferential Lamellae D. Central Canal

8. Intramembranous ossification is initiated when A. Hypertrophied chondrocytes autolyse, with subsequent calcification of the connective tissue matrix

1 October 4, 2009 ANPS 19 Practice Exam #2 B. Blood vessels penetrate the perichondrium, causing the cells to differentiate to osteoblasts C. Mesenchymal cells cluster, differentiate, and secrete bone matrix within loose connective tissue D. Blood vessels penetrate the epiphyses at both ends of a long bone

9. All of the following are a function of bone tissue except: A. Protection of major organs B. Storage of Lipids C. Blood Cell Production D. Synovial Fluid Production E. Actually all of the above are true

10. Following a bone fracture, the osteoblasts that will initiate repair originate from the: A. Periosteum B. Endosteum C. Marrow Cavity D. Lacunae Lectures #2-3: Anatomical Terminology and Skeletal Anatomy 11. In anatomical position, the first metarcarpal is ______to the fifth metacarpal A. Lateral B. Distal C. Medial D. Proximal

12. The heart is ______to the ribcage A. Superior B. Cranial C. Posterior D. Deep

13. The thoracic and abdominopelivic cavities are separated via the: A. Vertebral Column B. Pelvic Floor C. Mediastinum D. Diaphragm

14. When you shake your head “no” (lateral rotation of head @ atlas-axis joint), your skull moves in which plane? A. Negativity B. Horizontal / Transverse C. Sagittal D. Frontal / Coronal

15. If you strike your tibia on the anterior surface and ½ way between the knee and ankle, you would experience pain in the______region. A. Crural B. Sural C. Femoral D. Tarsal

16. The spinal cord enters the cranial cavity via the______, which is a feature of the _____bone. A. Vertebral Foramen; Thoracic Vertebrae

2 October 4, 2009 ANPS 19 Practice Exam #2 B. Vertebral Foramen; Axis C. Foramen Magnum; Occipital D. Foramen Magnum; Parietal

3 October 4, 2009 ANPS 19 Practice Exam #2 17. The lumbar vertebrae are ______to the thoracic vertebrae. A. Cranial B. Caudal C. Dorsal D. Posterior

18. In the 9-region system, the spleen is located in the most superior and lateral region. Records might indicate that a patient with an inflamed spleen is experiencing severe ______pain. A. Left Hypochondriac B. Left Epigastric C. Left Lumbar D. Left Abdominal

19. The sacrum articulates with all of the following bones except: A. Paired Ileum Bones B. Coccyx Bone C. L5 D. Paired Ischium Bones

20. Which of the following is a function of sinuses: A. Decrease the weight of the skull B. Create resonance chambers for vocalized sounds C. Protect entrances to the upper respiratory tracts D. All of the above

21. The only bone(s) lacking an articulation with another bone is/are: A. The Patellar Bones B. The Hyoid Bone C. The Floating Ribs D. The Mandible

22. As you move caudally along the vertebral column, the size of the vertebral bodies______, while the diameter of the vertebral foramen______. A. Increases; Increases B. Increases; Decreases C. Decreases; Decreases D. Decreases; Increases

23. The dens is a process of the ______that allows for the ______to move in the transverse plane. A. Atlas; Axis B. Acetabulum; Thigh C. Atlas; Occipital Bone D. Axis; Skull

24. Lordosis is an exaggeration of which type of curvature? A. Lumbar B. Thoracic C. Cervical D. Sacral

25. Which of the following is a passage that forms as you stack vertebrae on top of one another? A. Vertebral Foramen B. Transverse Foramen C. Intervertebral Foramen D. Foramen Magnum

4 October 4, 2009 ANPS 19 Practice Exam #2 26. If you were handed a cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae from the same cadaver, what would you look for to distinguish the thoracic vertebrae? A. Transverse foramen should be present B. Costal facets should be present C. It should have the largest vertebral body D. The transverse processes should point perpendicular to the spinous process

27. The upper extremity interfaces with the axial skeleton at the ______joint; the lower extremity interfaces with the axial skeleton at the ______joint. A. Sterno-Clavicular; Sacro-Iliac B. Gleno-Humaral; Coxal C. Elbow; Knee D. Radio-Carpal; Tibial-Tarsal

28. Which bone is coined as the “sitting bone”? A. Ilium B. Sacrum C. Pubic D. Ischium

29. ____ fractures are common in children and infants during childbirth; _____fractures are common in the elderly. A. Fontanelle; Osteoporotic B. Clavicular; Hip C. Humeral; Femoral D. Radial; Fibular

30. When comparing the upper and lower extremity, the following similarities exists except. A. Both the big toe and thumb have two phalanges while the rest of the digits have three. B. They both have multiple bones forming a girdle that connects the limbs to the axial skeleton. C. They both have a single long bone in the proximal limb joined to a girdle. D. They both have two long bones in the distal limb that have significant movement relative to one another. Lecture#4: Joints and Movement 31. Articular Cartilage differs from the hyaline costal cartilage in the ribcage because: A. Articular cartilage does not have a perichondrium B. Articular cartilage is a type of fibrous cartilage C. Articular cartilage is vascularized D. Articular cartilage is a type of elastic cartilage

32. Which of the following structures is contained within the synovial/articular capsule of the knee? A. Medial Collateral Ligament B. Posterior Cruciate Ligament C. Popliteal Ligament D. Patellar Ligament

33. What type of bone growth occurs normally in adults, especially in response to weight bearing exercise? A. Endochondral B. Intramembranous C. Appositional D. Osteoporotic

5 October 4, 2009 ANPS 19 Practice Exam #2 34. As stability at a joint______, mobility of the joint tends to______. A. Increases, Increase B. Increases, Decrease C. Decreases, Decrease

35. An example of a amphiarthrotic joint would be: A. The Gleno-Humerol Joint B. The Pubic Symphysis Joint C. The Patellar – Femoral Joint D. The Occipital – Parietal Joint

36. Shoulder pain that results from the tendon of the supraspinatus muscle rubbing over the coraco-acromial ligament and the deltoid muscle might be classified as a type of: A. Bursitis B. Sprain C. Subluxation D. Osteoarthritis

37. Which of the following has direct connectivity with the transverse acetabular ligament? A. The femoral head B. The ligament of the femoral head C. The pubofemoral ligament D. The ischiofemoral ligament

38. Which of the following is a ball and socket joint? A. The ulnar – humeral joint B. The atlas axis joint C. The coxal joint D. The tibia – tarsal joint

39. As a consequence of epiphyseal closure, ______joints become ______joints. (some of this terminology is not required for the exam, but still try to arrive at the correct answer via process of elimination) A. Diarthrotic; Synarthrotic B. Amphiarthrotic; Synarthrotic C. Sychondrotic; Synostotic D. Syndesmotic; Sutured

40. The following structure is especially important for the man pictured to the right: A. Dens of the Axis B. Lateral Meniscus Cartilage C. Transverse Acetabular Ligament D. Intrapatellar Bursae

6 October 4, 2009 ANPS 19 Practice Exam #2

Lectures #5-7: Muscles – Actions and Innervation 41. What type of motion increases the angle between articulating bones? A. Extension B. Flexion C. Abduction D. External rotation

42. Which muscle can perform action at three separate joints? A. Deltoid Muscle B. Biceps Brachii C. Rectus Femoris D. Sartorius

43. The following muscle can perform extension at one joint and flexion at another: A. Biceps Brachii B. Rectus Abdominus C. Gastrocnemius D. Rectus Femoris

44. The primary muscles of mastication are: A. Temporalis and Frontalis B. Temporalis and Masseter C. Masseter and Sternocleidomastoid D. Trapezius and Sternocleidomastoid

45. All of the following muscles can perform adduction at a joint except: A. Pectoralis Major B. Pectinius C. Tensor Fasciae Latae D. Latissimus Dorsi

46. Damage to the axillary nerve would result in severely reduced ability to: A. Extend the forearm at the elbow joint B. Abduct the arm at the shoulder joint C. Adduct the arm at the shoulder joint D. Medially/Internally rotate the arm at the shoulder joint

47. Damage to the ulnar nerve would result in severely reduced ability to: A. Extend the forearm at the elbow joint B. Flex the forearm at the elbow joint C. Perform precision tasks with the hands/fingers D. Manipulate the thumb

48. Which of the following pairs of muscles can operate as synergists in one type of action and antagonists at another type of action at the same joint? A. Rectus Femoris and Biceps Femoris B. Gastrocnemius and Soleus C. Teres Major and Teres Minor D. Tibialis Anterior and Fibularis Longus

7 October 4, 2009 ANPS 19 Practice Exam #2 49. Which of the following muscles does not attach at any point to the ribcage? A. Pectoralis Minor B. Iliacus C. Rectus Abdominus D. Serratus Anterior

50. The two actions of the Tibialis Anterior Muscle are: A. Dorsiflexion and Inversion of the Foot B. Plantarflexion and Inversion of the Foor C. Dorsiflexion and Eversion of the Foot D. Plantarflexion and Eversion of the Foot

51. Damage to the musculocutaneous nerve would cause inability to: A. Flex the wrist and digits B. Flex the forearm at the elbow joint C. Flex the arm at the shoulder joint D. Manipulate the thumb

52. What nerve do you find in the femoral triangle? A. Femoral Nerve B. Obturator Nerve C. Sciatic Nerve D. Fibular Nerve

53. The following muscles are innervated by the obturator nerve except: A. Gracilis B. Biceps Femoris C. Pectineus D. Adductor Magnus

54. Depending on the action, the muscles of the deep group of the leg can be synergistic OR antagonistic with with muscle? A. Tibialis Anterior B. Soleus C. Gastrocnemius D. Extensor Hallucis Longus

55. Which of the following is a list of muscles that can all be synergists in a particular action? A. Rectus Femoris; Sartorius; Gluteus Maximus B. Deltoid; Pectoralis Major; Supraspinatus C. Masseter; Sternocleidomastoid; Temporalis D. Soleus; Gastrocnemius; Fibularis Longus

56. All of the following options list two muscles that are superficial/deep to each other. Which of the following does not list the superficial muscle first? A. Deltoid; Supraspinatus B. Semitendinosus; Semimembranosus C. Vastus Intermedius; Rectus Femoris D. Gastrocnemius; Soleus

57. Which of the following is not a part of the hamstring group? A. Rectus Femoris B. Biceps Femoris C. Semitendinosus D. Semimembranosus

8 October 4, 2009 ANPS 19 Practice Exam #2 58. What two muscles share the Ilio-Tibial Tract as a common tendon? A. Gluteus Maxiumus and Gluteus Medius B. Gluteus Maximus and Tensor Fasciae Latae C. Iliacus and Psoas Major D. Vastus Lateralis and Biceps Femoris

59. The tibial nerve and common fibular nerve both derive from the: A. Femoral Nerve B. Sciatic Nerve C. Gluteal Nerve D. Obturator Nerve

60. Contraction (shortening) of the left sternocleidomastoid muscle results in: A. Right rotation of the neck B. Left rotation of the neck C. Elevation of the mandible D. Abduction of the humerus at the shoulder

61. Which of the following muscles does not cross both the hip joint and the knee joint? A. Sartorius B. Semimembranosis C. Gracilis D. Pectineus

62. What muscle must increases in length as the brachialis muscle contracts and shortens in length? A. Triceps Brachii B. Brachioradialis C. Biceps Brachii D. Latissimus Dorsi

63. Which of the following muscles does not attach to the scapula ? A. Pectoralis Minor B. Pectoralis Major C. Infraspinatus D. Deltoid

64. Which of the following muscles is innervated by the tibial nerve? A. Tibialis Anterior B. Fibularis Longus C. Extensor Hallucis Longus D. Soleus

65. A major flexor of the trunk is: A. Latissimus Dorsi B. Transverse Abdominus C. Rectus Abdominus D. Rectus Femoris

66. All of the following pairs of muscles perform essentially the same action except: A. Fibularis Longus and Fibularis Brevis B. Semimembranosus and Semitendinosus C. Teres Minor and Infraspinatus D. Pectoralis Major and Pectoralis Minor

67. All of the following pairs of muscles can be antagonists except: A. Adductor Longus and Tensor Fasciae Latae

9 October 4, 2009 ANPS 19 Practice Exam #2 B. Teres Major and Teres Minor C. Gracilis and Pectineus D. Biceps Brachii and Tricep Brachii

68. What are the four muscles of the rotator cuff? A. Teres Major, Teres Minor, Pectoralis Major, Latissimus Dorsi B. Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Teres Minor, Supscapularis C. Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Teres Minor, Teres Major D. Pectoralis Major, Pectoralis Minor, Deltoid, Latissimus Dorsi

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