Objective 3.1.3 Mutations

EOC HW Quiz #6 Objective 3.1.3 Mutations 1. Breeders induce mutations to a. produce hybrids b. produce purebred organisms. c. decrease the genetic variation in a population. d. increase the genetic variation in a population. 2. A frameshift mutation a. changes the chromosome number. b. includes the loss of part of a chromosome. c. shifts the reading frame of the gene. d. does not change the genetic material. 3. A change in a sequence of DNA is called a a. mutation. b. recombination c. polygenic trait. d. single-gene trait. Objective 3.3.1 Genetic Engineering 4. One function of gel electrophoresis is to a. separate DNA fragments. b. cut DNA. c. recombine DNA d. make many copies of DNA. 5. The process of DNA fingerprinting is based on the fact that a. the most important genes are different among most people. b. no two people, except identical twins, have exactly the same DNA. c. most genes are dominant. d. most people have DNA that contains repeats. 6. The enzyme which cuts DNA into differnet size fragments is known as______. a. DNA polymerase b. restriction enzyme c. ATP synthase d. Catalase 7. What pushes DNA fragments through the gel? a. buffer b. electricity c. phoresis d. restriction enzymes 8. Which size DNA fragment will flow through the gel the fastest, therefore be located at the bottom of the gel when finished running. a. smallest piece b. medium length piece c. longest fragment Objective 3.3.2 9. What has been an advantage of producing transgenic plants? a. improving many people’s diet b. using more pesticides c. producing clones d. studying human genes 10. During transformation a. a prokaryote is changed into a eukaryote. b. A cell incorporates DNA from outside the cell. c. foreign DNA is inserted into a plasmid. d. a genetically identical organism is produced. 11. Transgenic organisms are useful because they a. are a source of human proteins. b. produce crops resistant to insect damage. c. improve the food supply. d. all of the above. 12. Any organism that has a gene from another species in its genome is considered transgenic. a. True b. false 13. Which of the following is not a product of genetic engineering? A. golden rice b. human insulin c. human growth hormone d. blood 14. Transgenic animals are used a. for selective breeding b. to study human genes c. to produce plastics. d. to increase genetic variation. 15. A DNA molecule produced by combining DNA from different sources is known as a. A mutant. b. a hybrid. c. a polyploidy. d. recombinant DNA. 16. A gene that makes it possible to distinguish bacteria that carry a plasmid containing foreign DNA from those that do not is called a (an) a. resistance gene. b. antibiotic. c. genetic marker. d. clone.

Objective 3.3.3 17. The human genome was sequenced a. by sequencing each gene on each chromosome, one at a time. b. using DNA fingerprinting c. by looking for overlapping regions between sequenced DNA fragments. d. using open reading frames. 18. The Human Genome Project is an attempt to a. make a DNA fingerprint of every person’s DNA. b. analyze the human DNA sequence. c. cure human diseases. d. identify alleles in human DNA that are recessive. 19. The purpose of gene therapy is to a. cure genetic disorders. b. determine the sequences of genes. c. search for genes on chromosomes. d. identify an individual using DNA. 20. A gene map shows a. how cross-over occurs. b. the number of possible alleles for a gene. c. the segregation of traits. d. the relative locations of genes on a chromosome. 21. Breeders maintain the desired traits of an organism by a. inbreeding b. plasmids c. inducing mutations d. hybridization 22. Polyploidy instantly produces a new plant species because it a. changes a species’ number of chromosomes. b. results from hybridization c. causes transgenic plants. 23. Which of the following have been produced by selective breeding? a. horse breeds b. cat breeds c. dog breeds d. a,b, and c. 24. Scientist produced oil-eating bacteria by a. making bacteria polyploidy. b. inbreeding bacteria. c. inducing mutations in bacteria. d. hybridizing bacteria. 25. Which of the following techniques do scientists use to make many copies of a gene? a. Cloning b. transformation c. gel electrophoresis d. PCR Objective 3.2.2 Genetics 26. A Punnett square shows all of the following EXCEPT a. all possible results of a genetic cross b. the genotypes of the offspring. c. the alleles in the gametes of each parent. d. the actual results of a genetic cross. 27. What is the probability that a heterozygous tall pea plant will produce a gamete with the allele for tallness? A. 75 percent b. 50 percent c. 25 percent d. 0 percent 28. The cross between a red flower and a white flower produces all pink flowers. This type of inheritance is known as a. incomplete dominance b. polygenic inheritance c. codominance. d. simple dominance 29. Chromosomes form tetrads during a. prophase of meiosis I b. metaphase of meiosis I. c.prophase of meiosis II. d. metaphase of meiosis II. 30. Situations in which both allleles contribute to the phenotype are called a. incomplete dominance b. codominance. c. multiple alleles. d. polygenic alleles. 31. Which of the following are shown in a karyotype? a. homologous chromosomes b. sex chromosomes c. autosomes d. all of the above 32. What is the approximate probability that a human offspring will be female? a. 10 percent b. 25 percent c. 50 percent d. 100 percent 33. A person who has PKU a. inherited the allele for the trait from one parent. b. is heterozygous for the trait. c. inherited the allele for the trait from both parents. d. will not pass the allele for the trait to his or her offspring. 34. Colorblindness is more common in males than in females because a. Fathers pass the allele for colorblindness to their sons only. b. The allele for colorblindness is located on the Y chromosome. c. The allele for colorblindness is recessive and located on the X chromosome. d. Males who are colorblind have two copies of the allele for colorblindness.. 35. Which of the following is determined by multiple alleles? a. Rh blood group b. ABO blood type c. PKU d. Huntington’s disease 36. Sickle cell disease is caused by a a. small change in the DNA of a single gene. b. cnange in the size of a chromosome. c. change in two genes. d. change in the number of chromosomes in a cell. 37. Compared with normal hemoglobin, the hemoglobin of a person with sickle cell disease a. is longer b. is shorter. c. has a different sequence of amino acids. d. is sickle-shaped. 38. The failure of chromosomes to separate during meiosis is called a. nondisjunction. b. Turner’s syndrome. c. Down syndrome. d. Cystic Fibrosis. 39. Scientists test for alleles that cause human genetic disorders by a. making karyotypes b. making DNA fingerprints. c. using DNA probes. d. making pedigrees. Objective 3.2.3 Environmental Effects

Objective 3.4.1 Formation of Early Anaerobes 40. The first organisms on Earth were most like today’s a. bacteria b. eukaryotes c. Multicellular organisms. d. DNA molecules. 41. Miller and Urey’s experiments produced a. DNA and RNA b. proteins c. living cells d. Amino acids 42. The first plants evolved from a. mosses b. an organism similar to multicellular green algae c. a protist that lived on land. d. photosynthetic prokaryotes. 43. In addition to hydrogen, two of the gases used in Miller and Urey’s experiment were a. Nitrogen and carbon monoxide c. hydrogen cyanide and oxygen. b. Methane and ammonia. d. carbon dioxide and hydrogen sulfide 44. A single species that has evolved into several different forms that live in different ways has undergone a. adaptive radiation b. coevolution c. punctuated equilibrium d. mass extinction

45. Miller and Urey’s experiments demonstrated that a. the endosymbiotic theory is true. b. DNA molecules can evolve from RNA molecules. c. eukaryotes arose from living communities of prokaryotes. d. organic compounds could form under the conditions of early Earth. 46. Sharks, dolphins, and penguins all have streamlined bodies and appendages that enable them to move through water. These similarities are the result of a. coevolution b. convergent evolution c. asexual reproduction. d. adaptive radiation. 47. To be used as an index fossil, a species must have existed for a a. Long period over a wide geographic range. c. long period over a small geographic range. b. Short period over a wide geographic range. d. short period over a small geographic range. 48. Why was the development of sexual reproduction speed up the process of evolution? a. Sexual reproduction occurs more rapidly than asexual reproduction. b. The offspring of sexual reproduction are identical to their parents. c. Sexual reproduction increases genetic variety. d. Sexual reproduction limits genetic variety. 49. The process by which two species, for example, a flower and a pollinating insect, evolve in response to each other is called a. convergent evolution. b. adaptive radiation. c. coevolution. d. punctuated equilibrium Objective 3.5.1 Classification 50. The discipline in which scientists classify and name organisms is a. cladistics. b. geology. c. Taxonomy. d. paleontology. 51. Which two kingdoms did Linnaeus recognize? a. bacteria and animals b. plants and fungi c. plants and animals c. protists and animals 52. Traditional classification tended to take into account primarily a extinct organisms. b. RNA similarities. c. DNA similarities. d. general similarities in appearance. 53. Sometimes organisms that are not closely related look similar because of a. convergent evolution. b. molecular clocks. c. mutations. d. reclassification. 54. An analysis of derived characters is used to generate a a. family tree based on external appearance b. family tree based on DNA structure. c. cladogram. d. traditional classification system. 55. The three domain system recognizes fundamental differences between two groups of a. Prokaryotes. b. eukaryotes. c. protists. d. multicellular organisms. 56. Organisms in the kingdom Eubacteria and Archaebacteria were previously grouped in a kingdom called a. Animalia. b. Fungi. c. Monera. d. Eukarya. 57. Similar genes are evidence of a. binomial nomenclature b. mutations. c. common ancestry. d. different anatomy. 58. What do all organisms have in common? a. They use DNA and RNA to pass on information. b.They are all prokaryotes. c. They are all eukaryotes. d. They are genetically identical. 59. The two part scientific naming system includes an organisms a. family and genus b. class and family c. genus and species d. kingdom and species Objective 3.4.2 Evolution 60. Eastern meadowlarks do not respond to western meadowlark mating songs. This is an example of a. founder effect. b. behavioral isolation c. genetic drift d. temporal isolation 61. One of Darwin’s finches evolved adaptations more similar to those of woodpeckers that other finches. This is probably explained by a. coevolution b. convergent evolution c. gradualism d. stabilizing selection. 62. The process by which modern organisms have descended from ancient organisms is called a. Genetic drift b. adaptation c. evolution d. homologous descent 63. The number of different genes that control a trait determine the a. Allele frequencies for the trait. c. number of phenotypes for the trait b. Size of the gene pool. d. chance that natural selection will occur. 64. Natural selection leads to an increase in a species’ a. range b. gene pool c. fitness d. geographic isolation 65. A dating method that determines a fossil’s age in years is a. relative dating. b. radioactive dating c. index fossil dating. d. geological dating. 66. Which choice shows the correct order iin which the evolution of traits occurred? a. Eukaryotic cells, sexual reproduction, multicellularity b. Sexual reproduction, eukaryotic cells, multicellularity c. Multicellularity, sexual reproduction, eudaryotic cells d. Eukaryotic cells, multicellularity, sexual reproduction