Elementary Science

Elementary Science Summer Learning Academy Grade 5 Elementary Science Summer Learning Academy Pre/Post-test Information This document contains assessment items aligned to the targeted benchmarks identified by 2008 District–wide MEAP data. Teachers should use the pre-test as a diagnostic tool to identify areas of individual student strengths and weaknesses at their school. All of the assessment items have been coded and given a point value. Constructed response question is worth 3 points. Teachers should use the results of the pre-test to adjust their instruction to the needs of individual students. Each lesson in this document has been aligned to the targeted benchmarks and contains opportunities for enrichment and reinforcement. Teachers should use the posttest to identify student gains over the course of the Summer Learning Academy Program. Post-test results should be made available to parents and administrators as well as students. Grade 5 Summer Learning Academy Pre/Post Test MEAP Alignment MEAP STRAND Pre/Post Test Question # Correct Response points Total number of students with correct Pretest response Total number of students with correct Posttest response CONSTRUCTING 1 C 1 KNOWLEDGE Manipulate simple devices that aid observation and data collection C.1.e.3 2 D 1 Use simple 4 B 1 measurement devices to make measurements in scientific investigations. C.1.e.4 5 A 1 REFLECTING 6 C 1 KNOWLEDGE Develop an awareness of the need for evidence in making decisions scientifically. R.1.e.1. 24 Constructed response 3 ORGANIZATION OF 7 B 1 LIVING THINGS Compare and contrast food, energy, and environmental needs of selected organisms.L.2.e.4 8 A 1 ECOSYSTEMS 9 C 1 Describe positive and negative effects of humans on the environment. L.5.e.4 10 C CHANGES IN MATTER Prepare mixtures and 3 B 1 separate them into their component parts. . P.2.e.2 11 D 1 MOTION OF 12 D 1 OBJECTS Manipulate simple mechanical devices and explain how their parts work together. P.3.e.5 13 A 1 WAVES AND 14 B 1 VIBRATIONS Explain how shadows are made. P.4.e.4 15 C 1 GEOSPHERE 16 D 1 Recognize and describe different types of earth materials. E.1.e.2 17 B 1 Demonstrate ways to 18 B 1 conserve natural resources and reduce pollution through reduction, reuse, and recycling of manufactured materials. E.1.e.6 19 C 1 SOLAR SYSTEMS 20 A 1 Compare and contrast characteristics of the sun, moon, and earth. E.4.e.1 21 A 1 Describe the motion of 22 A 1 the earth around the sun and moon around the earth. E.4.e.2 23 D 1 Total Score 26 24. Constructed Response Answer Key Name______Class______Date______2009 Science Summer Learning Academy Pre/Post Test Grade 5 Multiple Choice Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which of the following is an example of correctly using a scientific tool? A. A scale used to measure the length of pond snails. B. A graduated cylinder used to collect pond snails C. A hand lens used to observe how pond snails move. D. A microscope used to measure the weight of a pond snail.

2. Jose found an insect on the sidewalk and put it in a jar. Which tool should he use if he wants to see the insect better? A. a light prism B. a color filter C. a telescope D. a hand lens

3. Which tools should be used to separate the mixture into the three piles? A. filter paper and magnifying glass B. sieve and magnet C. magnet and filter paper D. sieve and magnifying glass

4. Approximately how long is the beetle’s back leg? A. 1cm C. 4cm B. 3cm D. 6cm

5. Which of the following would be the unit measured for reporting the mass of a Poison -Arrow Frog? A. grams B. meters C. milliliters D. teaspoons

6. Which of the following fossil discoveries most likely allowed scientists to decide whether the Ankylosaurus was a plant-eating or meat-eating animal? A. eye plates B. club -like tail C. type of teeth D. armor plates

7. Which of the following best identifies the frog’s role in a food web? A. pupa B. consumer C. tadpole D. producer

8. These dragonflies have large eyes that are capable of seeing nearly 360 degrees (in all directions) and can detect even the slightest movement. They have two sets of wings that work independently of each other,allowing the dragonflies to fly forward, backward, change directions in mid-air, and hover motionless. They feed on mosquitoes, flies, and other insects for four to seven weeks before returning to the water to mate and die. A. predator B. producer C. vertebrate D. decomposer 9. Which of the following are renewable resources? A. coal and oil B. wool and coal C. trees and wool D. oil and trees

10. A family goes on vacation for a week. When they return home they discover that some vegetables in their refrigerator have gone bad. What is the MOST environmentally responsible thing for them to do with the rotten food? A. toss it in a fire pit and burn it. B. throw it in the trash to be taken to a landfill C. put it in a compost pile to use for plant food D. take it back to the grocery store and try to get their money back 11. In a container, a mixture of water and salt is stirred so that the salt dissolves completely. Sand is added to this solution and allowed to settle to the bottom of the container. If the container is placed on a heat source and the liquid evaporates completely, what will be left in the container? A. Nothing will remain in the container C. Only sand will remain in the container B. Only salt will remain in the container D. Salt and sand will both remain in the container

12. Which combination of simple machines is the worker using to move boxes into the truck? A. gears and inclined plane B. lever and wheel and axle C. pulley and inclined plane D. inclined plane and wheel and axle

13. Robert wants to lift a heavy rock. Why should he use the lever to lift the rock? A. Less effort is needed to lift the rock with a lever than is needed to pick up the rock by hand. B. The lever uses the same effort to lift the rock as picking up the rock by hand. C. More effort is needed to lift the rock with the lever than is needed to pick up the rock by hand. D. Larger rocks can more easily be picked up by hand than with the lever.

14. Why is it more difficult to see your shadow on a cloudy day than on a sunny day? A. Clouds create multiple shadows. B. There is little direct sunlight on cloudy days. C. It is more difficult for your eyes to focus on cloudy days. D. Clouds cause shadows to spread out and blend with the ground.

15. For a shadow to be created, it must have A. a window, an object and a blocked path B. a light source, a window and an object. C. a light source, an object and a blocked path D. a shaded tree, a light source, and an object 16. Thunderstorms often drop massive amounts of rain in a very short time. Which of these BEST describes the path that rainwater falling on a city is MOST LIKELY to take? A. ocean, stream,land, river B. land, river,ocean, stream C. stream river, ocean, land D. land, stream, river, ocean

17. Which of the following is NOT something that can happen to water after it falls to Earth? A. It evaporates. B. It becomes extinct. C. It seeps into the ground. D. it runs off into lakes and rivers.

18. Sue made this list: 1. give old clothes to sister 2. refill empty water bottles 3. start bringing a lunch box to school Which type of conservation is she practicing? A. reduce B. reuse C. recycle D. report

19. Michigan trees are used for many things, including paper for school classrooms. Julie has been asked by her teacher to come up with a ways the school to save trees. Which of these is the BEST way to save trees? A. find new uses for paper products B. replace wood with paper products C. recycle paper products D. use paper products that are less expensive

20. The Sun and a full moon appear to be about the same size. Which answer BEST describes the reason for this observation? A. The Sun is farther away than the moon. B. The moon and the Sun are the same size. C. As the moon orbits Earth, it gets closer. D. As Earth rotates, it gets closer to the Sun.

21. Which position marked with an "X " in the diagram below that BEST represents a location that is experiencing night? A. C. B. D.

22. One complete turn of the earth on its own axis best describes A. one day B. one week C. one month D. one year

23. Earth is closer to the Sun than the planet Mars. Which of the following is the result of this difference in distance from the Sun? A. Earth is larger than Mars B. A day on Earth is shorter than a day on Mars C. Earth has one moon and Mars has two moons. D. The temperature on Earth is warmer than on Mars

Short Answer Answer in complete sentences. 24. Mary likes sweet apples. She decides to compare different types of apples to see which one is the best buy. She buys three different apples. She measures the size of each apple, records the price, and then tastes each one. she records her data in the following table: Mary decides that the Macintosh are the best apple for her to buy the next time. Identify three pieces of evidence from the chart that support Mary’s decision.

Name______Class______Date______2009 Science Summer Learning Academy Pre/Post Test Grade 5 Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. ______2. ______3. ______4. ______5. ______6. ______7. ______8. ______9. ______10. ______11. ______12. ______13. ______14. ______15. ______16. ______17. ______18. ______19. ______20. ______21. ______22. ______23. ______

SHORT ANSWER 24. References Questions for this test were taken from Michigan Education Assessment Program (MEAP) Released Items Fall 2008, Fall 2007, Fall 2006, Fall 2005 and Winter 2005. Grade 8 SLA

10 14.

In the food web above, which of the following organisms feeds on the largest variety of different producers?

Summer Science Grade 8 SLA 2009 Answer Key

1 C 2 D 3 C 4 A 5 A 6 A 7 D 8 C 9 C 10 B 11 C 12 A 13 A 14 C 15 A 16 D 17 D 18 C 19 C 20 B Transition Academy

10 14.

In the food web above, which of the following organisms feeds on the largest variety of different producers?

Summer Science Transition Academy 2009 Answer Key

1 C 2 D 3 C 4 A 5 A 6 A 7 D 8 C 9 C 10 B 11 C 12 A 13 A 14 C 15 A 16 D 17 D 18 C 19 C 20 B Detroit Public Schools Office of Science Education

Summer School

Biology Semester 1 1. A biology student observed the cells shown below under a microscope.

These cells most likely came from A. an animal. B. an archaebacterium. C. a fungus. D. a plant.

2. A cell has a defect that results in the loss of its ability to regulate the passage of water, food, and wastes into and out of the cell. In which of the following cell structures is this defect most likely to be located?

A. ribosomes B. chloroplasts C. cell membrane D. endoplasmic reticulum 3. The diagram below shows an energy pyramid.

Approximately how much energy is available to the secondary consumers in this energy pyramid? A. 10 kcal/m2/year B. 100 kcal/m2/year C. 1,000 kcal/m2/year D. 5,000 kcal/m2/year 4. The graph below represents data gathered during an experiment on cellular respiration.

Which of the following conclusions is best supported by data from this graph

A. ATP production is independent of sugar availability. B. The amount of cellular respiration is constant in muscle cells. C. ATP is only produced when sugar concentrations are above 4 g/L. D. The amount of cellular respiration increases as sugar concentration increases. 5. The algal cell pictured below is a single-celled organism.

When the algal cell is cut in two as shown, the bottom part can grow into a complete cell, but the top part cannot. What conclusion does this support? A. The ribosomes are found in the top of the cell. B. The nucleus is found in the bottom of the cell. C. The top of the cell contains most of its chromosomes. D. The bottom of the cell contains most of its cytoplasm.

6. The diagram below shows some of the feeding relationships in a desert food web.

Which of the following trophic levels is not shown in this diagram? A. producers B. decomposers C. primary consumers D. secondary consumers 7. The diagram below shows a sea star in various stages of regeneration.

What cellular process is directly responsible for this regeneration? A. meiosis B. mitosis C. transpiration D. respiration

8. The illustration below shows part of the carbon cycle.

At position Y, carbon is most likely to be in which of the following forms? A. protein B. carbon solid C. carbohydrate D. carbon dioxide 9. A mutation that prevents a maple tree from efficiently taking gases from the air would most directly affect which of the following processes? A. reproduction B. photosynthesis C. water uptake D. DNA replication

10. The diagram below shows a generalized cycle in sexually reproducing animals.

What is Process A in this cycle? A. fertilization B. mitosis C. osmosis D. replication

11. DNA and RNA are similar because they both contain A. deoxyribose. B. nucleotides. C. thymine. D. double helices. 12. Genetic information for a breed of chicken is shown below.

Frizzle Fowl

Types of Chickens with Different Feathers Genotype Phenotype FF Normal (Normal feathers) Ff Frizzle fowl (Curly feathers) ff Feather shedder (Loses feathers easily)

Which of the following crosses of chickens will produce only Frizzle fowl offspring? A. Normal × Frizzle fowl B. Frizzle fowl × Frizzle fowl C. Normal × Feather shedder D. Feather shedder × Feather shedder

1. Many animals have internal or external skeletons that provide support and structure. Which of the following parts of plant cells play a similar role? A. cell membranes B. cell walls C. chloroplasts D. cytoplasm

13. Four students attempted to classify organisms into the Plant and Animal Kingdoms. Their classifications are shown in the table below.

Plants Animals Student 1 Eukaryotic Prokaryotic cells cells Student 2 Multicellular Unicellular

Student 3 Cells have Cells do not cell walls have cell walls Student 4 Heterotrophic Heterotrophic by absorption by ingestion

Which student’s classification correctly separates organisms into these two Kingdoms? A. Student 1 B. Student 2 C. Student 3 D. Student 4

14. Cyanide is a powerful poison because it inhibits an enzyme in mitochondria, preventing the transfer of energy during one of the steps in cellular respiration. This poison would directly affect the production of which of the following molecules?

A. ATP B. glucose C. oxygen D. RNA

2. Which of the following is an example of a prokaryotic organism?

A. bacterium B. celery C. horse D. mushroom

3. The figure below represents the flow of food energy through a system.

In an experiment, chickens were fed grain that contained a chemical marker in its proteins. The presence of the marker can be detected in organisms.

Which of the following is the most reasonable prediction from this experiment?

A. The marker will only be found in the grain. B. Both chickens and wolves will have the marker.

C. Wolves will have the marker, but chickens will not.

D. The marker will only be found in the animals' wastes. 15. The natural cycling of oxygen between organisms and their environment is most directly accomplished through which of the following pairs of processes?

A. fermentation and oxidation B. transpiration and evaporation C. precipitation and condensation D. photosynthesis and respiration

16. A food web is shown below.

Which organism in this food web is a decomposer?

A. American plum B. golden mycena C. metallic wood borer D. white-tailed deer 17. If scientists search other planets for possible life, they are likely to focus on the presence of molecules containing which of the following elements? A. carbon B. iron C. potassium D. sodium

18. Starting in 1954, commercial fishers in the northwest Pacific were paid by weight, rather than by the individual fish, for pink salmon. The fishers increased the use of a type of net that selectively catches larger fish.

Which of the following effects did this change in fishing techniques most likely have on the salmon population over the next 20 years?

A. The average body size of the salmon population increased significantly. B. The average body size of the salmon population decreased significantly. C. The average body size of the males in the salmon population increased and the average body size of females in the salmon population stayed the same. D. The average body size of the males in the salmon population stayed the same and the average body size of the females in the salmon population increased. 19. The diagrams below show a marine food web and an incomplete terrestrial food web.

The organism in the terrestrial food web that corresponds to the krill in the marine food web is labeled X. Which of the following organisms is most likely organism X? A.

D. 20.A hurricane sweeps across a small Caribbean island, killing 50 percent of the herbivore species on the island. Which of the following is the most immediate result? A. a reduction in biodiversity B. an acceleration of the carbon cycle C. an increase in predator populations D. a decline in decomposer populations 21. A graph of atmospheric carbon dioxide concentration over time is shown below.

Scientists are investigating the cause of the large increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide concentration since about 1800. Which of the following provides the best explanation for the increase? A. eruptions of large volcanoes B. use of fossil fuels by humans C. natural fluctuations of climate D. photosynthesis by phytoplankton 22.Which of the following is a main function of the cell wall? A. to store carbohydrates for later use B. to give the cell a rigid structure C. to package proteins for export D. to carry out photosynthesis

23.The water cycle would not occur if which of the following were missing? A. animals B. bacteria C. ice caps D. solar energy

24.Which of the following statements correctly matches a cell part with its function? A. The cell membrane packages lipids for export. B. The mitochondria perform photosynthesis. C. The lysosome digests molecules. D. The nucleus produces energy. 25. Part of a tundra food web is shown below.

Which of the following describes the relationship between the sedge and the arctic hare? A. competition B. host-parasite C. mutualism D. producer-consumer

26.The diagram below provides information about a carrot cell.

A carrot cell contains 18 chromosomes. Which of the following diagrams illustrates the correct number of chromosomes in new cells produced by mitosis? A. B.

27. Which of the following is the best example of an organism maintaining homeostasis? A. a wolf panting after a chase B. a spider catching an insect in a web C. a cricket becoming infected by a virus D. a mole digging tunnels in the ground

28.Which of the following explains why elements, such as carbon and oxygen, that are used in organic molecules are not permanently removed from the environment? A. They are replenished by sunlight. B. They are cycled through ecosystems. C. They are replaced by volcanic eruptions. D. They are produced constantly from nutrients. 29.Which of the following would most likely happen if grasses and shrubs were removed from a rural Massachusetts ecosystem? A. There would be an increase in consumers in the ecosystem. B. There would be an increase of photosynthesis in the ecosystem. C. There would be a decrease in food energy produced by the ecosystem. D. There would be a decrease of carbon dioxide available to the ecosystem.

30.The graph below shows the amount of ATP produced in a cell during a period of time.

According to the graph, which of the following processes must have increased between points A and B? A. cellular respiration B. cytokinesis C. DNA replication D. meiosis 31. The diagram below illustrates how plant root cells take in mineral ions from the surrounding soil.

Which of the following processes is illustrated? A. active transport B. diffusion C. osmosis D. passive filtration 32.A food web in a rain forest is shown below.

Which of the following most likely occupies the location marked X in this food web? A. decomposers B. primary consumers C. producers D. secondary consumers ANSWER KEY

1. D 19. B 2. C 20. A 3. B 21. B 4. D 22. A 5. B 23. A 6. B 24. B 7. B 25. B 8. D 26. D 9. B 27. C 10. A 28. D 11. B 29. B 12. C 30. A 13. B 31. B 14. C 32. C 15. A 33. A 16. A 34. A 17. B 35. A 18. D Detroit Public Schools Office of Science Education

Summer School

Biology Semester 2 1. Which of the following best describes the result of a mutation in an organism's DNA? A. The mutation may produce a zygote. B. The mutation may cause phenotypic change. C. The mutation causes damage when it occurs. D. The mutation creates entirely new organisms.

2. The pedigree below shows the occurrence of Becker muscular dystrophy in a family. Becker muscular dystrophy causes muscle weakness.

Based on this pedigree, it is most reasonable to conclude that Becker muscular dystrophy is which of the following?

A. a polygenic trait B. a codominant trait C. a sex-linked recessive trait D. an autosomal dominant trait

3. Caytonia is an extinct plant that existed between 200 and 140 million years ago. It had reproductive structures that resemble structures in modern flowering plants.

How do scientists know about the structures of this ancient extinct plant? A. Scientists study the DNA sequences of Caytonia. B. Scientists genetically engineer modern plants to produce Caytonia. C. Scientists excavate and examine the fossilized remains of Caytonia. D. Scientists observe the adaptations of plants in habitats resembling those of Caytonia.

4. European rabbits were introduced to Australia in 1859. The rabbits reproduced rapidly in their new habitat, displaced other animals, and overgrazed vegetation. In an attempt to reduce the rabbit population, a virus was introduced in 1951. This virus is usually deadly to European rabbits.

When the virus was first introduced, the rabbits died in large numbers, but the death rate decreased over time. Which of the following best explains the decrease in the rabbit death rate?

A. Young rabbits learned to avoid being infected with this virus. B. Natural selection favored rabbits that are resistant to this virus. C. The lifespan of this virus is too short to affect rabbits over a long period of time. D. The rabbits that were originally infected with this virus have been dead for many years.

5. In a mouse population inhabiting a grassland area, a mutation occurs that results in a new coat color allele.

Which of the following factors has the greatest effect on whether the new coat color will become more common in the mouse population?

A. whether abundant food is available in the grassland B. whether the new coat color allele is dominant or recessive C. whether the rate of reproduction in the mouse population is stable D. whether the new coat color allele increases the survival of mice in their environment 6. The mold Aspergillus flavus grows on grain. A. flavus produces a toxin that binds to DNA in the bodies of animals eat the grain.

The binding of the toxin to DNA blocks transcription, so it directly interferes with the ability of an animal cell to do which of the following?

A. transport glucose across the cell membrane into the cytoplasm B. produce ATP using energy released from glucose and other nutrients C. transfer proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum to Golgi complexes D. send protein-building instructions from the nucleus to the cytoplasm and ribosomes 7. Similar structures are present in the embryos of fish, chickens, and rabbits. In fish, these structures develop into gills, but in chickens and rabbits, they either disappear or develop into other body parts later in embryonic development.

Which of the statements below best explains the presence of these structures in the embryos of all three species?

A. The embryos of the three species are similar in size. B. Breathing structures are similar among the young of the three species. C. The three species have a common ancestor with these embryonic structures. D. The reproductive mechanisms are similar among the adults of the three species.

8. Which of the following terms applies to traits, such as human eye color, that are controlled by more than one gene?

A. codominant B. polygenic C. recessive D. sex-linked 9. Human blood types are genetically determined. The table below shows the symbols used to represent two of the alleles for blood types and gives a description of each allele.

In homozygous individuals, two IA alleles result in blood type A and two IB alleles result in blood type B. The IA and IB alleles are codominant, resulting in blood type AB in individuals heterozygous for the two alleles.

A male and a female both have blood type AB. If they have a child, what is the probability that the child will also have blood type AB?

D. 10. The illustrations below show vestigial pelvic bones of a baleen whale and vestigial hind limb bones of an extinct whale.

The presence of these bones in the baleen whale and extinct whale provides evidence of which of the following?

A. Whales can travel on land when necessary. B. Whales evolved from four-legged animals. C. Whales have functional legs that are hidden by fat and skin. D. Whales are developing into animals with four functioning limbs. 11. Some willow trees alter the chemical composition of their leaves when attacked by caterpillars. Compared to normal leaves, the chemically altered leaves are less nutritious and are more difficult for caterpillars to digest.

Which of the following is a likely effect of this ability to alter leaf composition? A. Willow trees with this ability will attract more caterpillars than other willow trees. B. Willow trees with this ability will have a survival advantage over other willow trees. C. More butterflies will lay their eggs on willow trees with this ability than on other willow trees. D. Caterpillars that feed on willow trees with this ability will be larger than caterpillars on other willow trees.

12. The drawings below show some trilobite and crinoid fossils.

Which of the following is the most reasonable conclusion when fossils of these two different types of organisms are found in the same layers of rock?

A. Crinoids were prey for trilobites. B. Crinoids were ancestors of trilobites. C. Crinoids and trilobites had similar behaviors. D. Crinoids and trilobites lived at the same time. 13. The diagram below shows the positions of the genes for flower color and stem length in a pea plant. The chromosomes represented below will replicate before meiosis.

For these two genes, what is the maximum number of different allele combinations that can be formed normally in gametes produced from this cell? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8

14. In pigeons, the allele B produces ash- red feathers. The allele b produces blue feathers. The B allele is dominant to the b allele.

A pigeon with genotype Bb is crossed with a pigeon with genotype bb. What percent of the offspring are expected to have ash-red feathers?

A. 0% B. 25% C. 50% D. 100% 15. The diagram below shows a strand of DNA matched to a strand of messenger RNA.

What process does this diagram represent?

A. mutation B. respiration C. transcription D. translation

16. There are two types of modern whales: toothed whales and baleen whales. Baleen whales filter plankton from the water using baleen, plates made of fibrous proteins that grow from the roof of their mouths. The embryos of baleen whales have teeth in their upper jaws. As the embryos develop, the teeth are replaced with baleen.

Which of the following conclusions is best supported by this information? A. Primitive whales had teeth as adults. B. Toothed whales descended from baleen whales. C. Baleen whales are evolving into toothed whales. D. Descendants of modern baleen whales will have both teeth and baleen as adults. 17. The diagram below represents a cell. The letters in the diagram represent alleles for two different genetic traits.

According to Mendel’s law of independent assortment, which of the following shows all of the allele combinations expected in gametes produced by this cell?

18. During the fall reproductive season, the belly of a male brook trout becomes bright orange. The orange belly provides some camouflage and helps attract females.

This trait evolved in brook trout because, compared to males with pale bellies, males with bright orange bellies are more likely to A. live in good habitats. B. be eaten by predators. C. mate with other species of fish. D. fertilize eggs to produce offspring. 19. Which of the organisms shown below is not correctly labeled with its kingdom? A.

20.Why is the particular sequence of bases in a segment of DNA important to cells? A. Some base sequences code for protein production. B. Some base sequences cause the release of lipids from the nucleus. C. Some base sequences contain the order of sugars in polysaccharides. D. Some base sequences produce electrical signals sent to the cytoplasm. 21. Within an individual mouse, four different mutations occurred in different genes, located on separate chromosomes and in different cells, as shown in the table below.

Cell Type Chromosome Trait Normal Mutated Phenotype Phenotype skin chromosome 4 fur color black fur white fur gamete chromosome 3 eye color brown eyes blue eyes muscle chromosome 2 fur thickness thick fur thin fur nerve chromosome 1 tail length long tail short tail

Which of these mutations could be passed on to the mouse's offspring? A. white fur B. blue eyes C. thin fur D. short tail

22.A rare genetic condition causes dwarfism and immunodeficiencies. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this condition?

A. a parasitic infection B. a mutation in DNA C. a bacterial disease D. an excess of ATP 23.Cheetahs have come close to extinction due to hunting, drought, and disease. There is now very little genetic variation in cheetah populations.

Which of the following is a result of the limited genetic variation in the current cheetah populations compared to earlier cheetah populations with more variation? A. Cheetahs in current populations are more resistant to new diseases. B. The survival rate of young cheetahs is increased in current populations. C. Cheetahs in current populations are less able to interbreed with other species. D. The current cheetah populations are less likely to be able to adapt to environmental changes. 24.Two spotted leopards produce a litter of four cubs. Three of the cubs are spotted and one is solid black. The black coat is probably what type of trait? A. dominant B. recessive C. polygenic D. sex-linked 25. The illustration below represents a marine iguana.

The marine iguanas of the Galápagos Islands feed on seaweed and algae. Marine iguanas have flattened tails while other species of iguanas that live inland on the Galápagos and on the South American mainland have rounded tails.

Which of the following best explains this difference in tail shape? A. Flattened tails are better for swimming than rounded tails. B. Flattened tails move more easily on land than in the ocean. C. Flattened tails are harder for predators to grasp than rounded tails. D. Flattened tails release heat more rapidly in the ocean than on land. 26.A student researching bears found the chart below in a textbook. The chart shows the classifications of several types of bears.

Which of the following conclusions is best supported by the data given in this chart? A. Modern bears evolved from species that are now extinct. B. The short-faced bear was the ancestor of the Asiatic black bear. C. Present day bear species are more closely related than their ancestors were. D. Natural selection favored the brown bear over the American black bear. 27. DNA and RNA are similar because they both contain A. deoxyribose. B. nucleotides. C. thymine. D. double helices. 28.The picture below shows two dogs andtheir puppies.

The parent dogs are each heterozygous for two traits: fur color and white spotting. Both parent dogs are solid black. Their puppies, however, have four different phenotypes as listed below.

 solid black  black with white spots  solid red  red with white spots

Which of the following explains how these parent dogs can produce puppies with these four phenotypes? A. The genes for these traits are sex-linked. B. The genes for these traits mutate frequently. C. The genes for these traits assort independently. D. The genes for these traits are on the same chromosome.

29.The diagrams below show changes in a desert lizard population. 1. Population with variety of inherited traits

2. Predation of individuals with particular traits

3. Reproduction of survivors

Which biological concept is illustrated? A. polygenic traits B. natural selection C. sex-linked inheritance D. silent mutations 30.Genetic information usually flows in one specific direction. Which of the following best represents this flow?

A. DNA → Protein → RNA B. Protein → RNA → DNA C. RNA → Protein → DNA D. DNA → RNA → Protein

31. Which of the following is an example of codominance in genetic traits? A. A tall pea plant and a short pea plant produce tall pea plants. B. An orange cat and a black cat produce an orange-and-black kitten. C. A blue-eyed man and a brown-eyed woman produce a blue-eyed child. D. A color-blind woman and a man with normal vision produce a color-blind son.

32.More than 1.5 million species of animals have been described, yet all of them have DNA that is made of the same building blocks. This is evidence that all animals have

A. a common ancestor. B. identical fossils. C. similar appearances. D. the exact same DNA sequences. ANSWER KEY 1. B 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. D 6. D 7. C 8. B 9. B 10. B 11. B 12. D 13. B 14. C 15. C 16. A 17. C 18. D 19. C 20. A 21. B 22. B 23. D 24. B 25. A 26. A 27. B 28. C 29. B 30. D 31. B 32. A Detroit Public Schools Office of Science Education

Summer School

Chemistry Semester 1 1. The picture below shows a gas at standard conditions in a container with a moveable piston.

According to Charles’s law, what will happen to the piston when the gas is heated? A. The piston will move up because the gas particles get larger. B. There will be no change because heat will not affect the system. C. The piston will move up because the gas particles move faster and get farther apart. D. The piston will move down because the gas particles move slower and get closer together. 2. Which of the following elements has the highest electronegativity? A. B (boron) B. C (carbon) C. O (oxygen) D. N (nitrogen) 3. A student heated a 10 g sample of a compound in an open container. A chemical reaction occurred. The mass of the sample was measured again and found to be less than before. Which of the following explains the change in mass of the sample? A The heat caused the compound to become less dense. B The reaction gave off more heat than was added. C Some of the lighter atoms were converted to energy. D One of the reaction products was a gas.

5. Which of the following represents a pair of isotopes? 3. The chemical formula for ammonia is NH3. Which of the following is 1 3 A. theH andcorrect H Lewis electron dot structure for ammonia? 16 2− 19 1− B. O A. and F C. 40K and 40Ca D. 16O2− and 32S2− B.

6. Limestone is a naturally occurring form of calcium carbonate. The correct formula for limestone is

A. Ca(CO3)2.

B. CaCO3.

C. Ca2CO3.

D. Ca2(CO3)2.

7. The positions of copper (Cu) and carbon (C) are identified on the periodic table below.

When carbon-14 decays, it emits a beta particle to produce nitrogen-14, as shown below.

When copper-67 undergoes beta decay, which of the following isotopes is produced? A. copper-66 B. copper-68 C. nickel-67 D. zinc-67

8. In potassium fluoride, the potassium atom donates an electron and the fluorine atom takes an electron. When the compound potassium fluoride is formed, which of the following are formed? A. covalent bonds B. ionic bonds C. magnetic forces D. nuclear forces

9. A pot containing a few milliliters of water is placed on a hot burner. The water is boiled until no water is left in the pot.

A frying pan is placed on a hot burner. A raw egg is taken out of its shell and placed in the frying pan until the egg white becomes solid.

a. Describe the change that takes place in the water. Be sure to indicate whether the change is chemical or physical. b. Describe the change that takes place in the egg white. Be sure to indicate whether the change is chemical or physical.

10. Which of the following elements is a nonmetal? A. fluorine B. copper C. magnesium D. sodium 11. A solid cube was put into a cylinder containing four liquids with different densities as shown below.

The cube fell quickly through layer A, fell slowly through layer B, and stopped upon reaching layer C. The density of the cube most likely lies between A. 1.00 and 1.50 g/cm3. B. 1.51 and 3.50 g/cm3. C. 3.51 and 6.00 g/cm3. D. 6.00 and 9.00 g/cm3. 12. The correct name for an aqueous solution of HCl is

A. chloric acid. B. chlorous acid. C. hydrochloric acid. D. hydrogen chloride.

13. The illustration below shows two atoms of a fictitious element (M) forming a diatomic molecule.

What type of bonding occurs between these two atoms? A. covalent B. ionic C. nuclear D. polar 14. Which of the following elements can form an anion that contains 54 electrons, 74 neutrons, and 53 protons? A.

D. 16. Which of the following graphs best shows the relationship between an element’s atomic mass and its atomic number? A.

18. The diagram below represents particles of different elements in a crystal. 1. A student burned a sample of pure carbon in an open crucible. The carbon reacted with oxygen in the air and produced carbon dioxide.

a. In your Student Answer Booklet, write the balanced equation for the complete combustion of carbon. b. The student observed no visible products. Why does it appear that the law of conservation of mass was violated by this reaction? What type of bond holds these particles together? c. If one mole of carbon is burned, how many moles of oxygen gas will be consumed and how many moles of product should be obtained? Explain how you determined these values. A. covalent B. hydrogen C. ionic D. polar

19. The graph below compares three states of a substance.

Which of the following choices is the best label for the y-axis? A. molecular density B. molecular motion C. neutron density D. neutron motion 20. Concrete is composed of Portland cement, rocks, sand, and water. Which of the following best describes concrete? A. an element B. a compound C. a homogenous mixture D. a heterogeneous mixture

21. Sodium has an atomic number of 11 and a mass number of 23.

a. Identify the types of subatomic particles located in the nucleus of a sodium atom. Compare the properties of each type of particle. b. Where is most of a sodium atom’s mass located? Explain your answer. c. Identify the subatomic particles that are found in the energy levels outside the nucleus of a sodium atom. Describe the number and arrangement of these particles.

d. Explain the role of electrons in a chemical reaction between atoms of two different elements.

22. Which of the following is the same for both hydrogen and potassium? A. atomic mass B. total mass of neutrons C. number of valence electrons D. number of filled energy levels

23. The bar graph below represents four elements and their relative atomic numbers.

What would be the most likely positioning of these unknown elements in the periodic table? A.

D. 24. Which of the following Lewis dot structures represents the compound

methane (CH4) ? A.

25. What is the mass of one mole of helium gas? A. 2 g B. 4 g C. 8 g D. 22 g 26. The temperature of an unknown substance was measured as it cooled. The temperature of the substance over time was graphed and the graph was divided into five different zones, as shown below. In zone A, the substance was a gas.

Compare what happened at the particle level in three of the four remaining zones:

B, C, D, and E.

For each zone you choose, discuss all of the following:

 energy of the particles  motion of the particles  arrangement of the particles

 state(s) of matter present 27. The atomic number of an element indicates which of the following?

A. the number of neutrons in the atom B. the number of protons in the atom C. the sum of the neutrons and protons in the atom D. the sum of the protons and electrons in the atom

28. The table below shows some information for four different elements.

A cube of an unknown element has a shiny, silvery color. The side of the cube measures 2.0 cm and the cube has a mass of 14.56 g.

Based on the information in the table, which element makes up the cube? A. barium B. beryllium C. chromium D. phosphorus

29. Which of the following explains why saltwater is considered a mixture? A. It is composed of one element. B. It is composed of one compound. C. It is composed of two or more substances and has new chemical properties. D. It is composed of two or more substances that retain their own chemical properties.

30. Ernest Rutherford performed an experiment in which he shot alpha particles through a thin layer of gold foil. He predicted that the alpha particles would travel straight through the gold atoms, as shown below.

However, Rutherford observed that although most of the alpha particles passed straight through the foil, a few alpha particles were deflected, as shown below.

Which of the following statements about the atom did Rutherford's experiment support? A. An atom contains protons, neutrons, and electrons. B. An atom's nucleus is small and has a positive charge. C. Electrons follow a predictable path around the nucleus. D. Different isotopes of an element have different masses. 31. In the following diagrams, the spheres represent particles. Different shadings represent different particles.

Which of the following contains only one pure substance? A.

32. Which of the following is an example of a physical change? A. Iron exposed to air produces rust. B. Hydrogen combined with oxygen forms water. C. Sulfur combined with oxygen produces sulfur dioxide. D. Liquid nitrogen exposed to air becomes nitrogen gas.

33. Which of the following trends in the periodic table should be expected as the atomic number of the halogens increases from fluorine (F) to iodine (I)? A. Atomic radius decreases. B. Electronegativity decreases. C. Atomic mass decreases. D. Electron number decreases.

34. Which of the following statements describes the elements in family 16 of the periodic table? A. They have six valence electrons. B. They are all gases at room temperature. C. They exist commonly as cations in nature. D. They combine easily with elements in family 17.

35. Which of the following is an example of a chemical change? A. burning a scented candle B. cutting an apple into slices C. freezing liquid water into an ice cube D. melting a stick of butter to pour over popcorn 36. What is the percent mass oxygen in acetone (C3H6O)? A. 1.00% B. 10.3% C. 27.6% D. 62.0%

37. Which of the following chemical equations is balanced correctly? A. B. C. D.

38. The final elements produced by radioactive decay differ from the original radioactive elements because the nuclei of the final elements are always A. more stable. B. increased in mass. C. half as radioactive. D. positively charged. ANSWER KEY 1. C 17. CR 2. C 18. C 3. D 19. B 4. A 20. D 5. A 21. CR 6. B 22. C 7. D 23. D 8. B 24. A 9. CR 25. B 10. A 26. CR 11. C 27. B 12. C 28. B 13. A 29. D 14. B 30. B 15. No Question 31. C 16. D 32. D 33. B 34. A 35. A 36. C 37. B 38. A Detroit Public Schools Office of Science Education

Summer School

Chemistry Semester 2 1. Which of the following molecules has the same empirical formula as

glucose (C6H12O6)?

A. butane (C4H10)

B. ethanoic acid (C2H4O2)

C. propene (C3H6)

D. sucrose (C12H22O11)

2. Which of the following correctly describes molecules of two different gases if they are at the same temperature and pressure?

A. They must have the same mass.

B. They must have the same velocity. C. They must have the same average kinetic energy. D. They must have the same average potential energy.

3. Aluminum reacts with oxygen gas to form aluminum oxide, as shown in the reaction below.

How many grams of aluminum are needed to completely react with 192 g of oxygen gas?

A. 27.0 g B. 102 g C. 216 g D. 432 g

4. The table below gives information about four aqueous solutions of sodium nitrate (NaNO3).

In which beaker will an additional 10 g of sodium nitrate (NaNO3) dissolve at the slowest rate? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

5. A solution that contains less solute than it can hold at a given temperature is A. disassociated.

B. saturated. C. supersaturated. D. unsaturated. 6. Assuming pressure is held constant, which of the following graphs shows how the volume of an ideal gas changes with temperature? A.

7. The figure below represents a reaction. What type of reaction is shown? A. synthesis B. decomposition C. single displacement D. double displacement

8. The density of a gas is 1.35 g/L at standard temperature and pressure (STP). What is the molar mass of the gas at STP? A. 0.0603 g/mol B. 6.02 g/mol C. 22.4 g/mol D. 30.2 g/mol 9. The equation below shows ammonia dissolving in water.

Why is water considered an acid when ammonia is dissolved in it? A. Water acts as a proton donor. B. Water acts as a proton acceptor. C. Water contains hydrogen atoms. D. Water has a 2:1 ratio of hydrogen to oxygen.

10. The table below contains data for water samples from four sources.

Nancy analyzed water samples from several sources: rainfall, a nearby creek, a swimming pool, and her kitchen faucet. She recorded her data in the table.

Which sample was most acidic? A. rain B. creek C. pool D. faucet 11. An equation for an equilibrium reaction is shown below.

Which of the following changes in reaction conditions will not shift the equilibrium of the system? A. an increase in the pressure B. an increase in the temperature

C. a decrease in the SO3 concentration

D. a decrease in the NO2 concentration

12. A student adds 68.4 g of sucrose (C12H22O11 ) to 750 mL of 20°C water. She stirs the solution until all of the sucrose crystals dissolve. She then transfers the solution to a volumetric flask and fills it to the 1.00 L mark with 20°C water.

What is the molarity of the sucrose solution the student prepared? A. 0.20 M B. 0.70 M C. 1.0 M D. 6.8 M

13. Propane (C3H8) burns in oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water.

a. Write a balanced chemical equation for this reaction. b. If 11.0 g of propane gas is burned completely, 33.0 g of carbon dioxide and 18.0 g of water are produced. Determine the mass of oxygen consumed. Show your calculations and include units in your answer. 14. When stirred in 30°C water, 5 g of powdered potassium bromide, KBr, dissolves faster than 5 g of large crystals of potassium bromide. Which of the following best explains why the powdered KBr dissolves faster? A. Powdered potassium bromide exposes more surface area to water molecules than large crystals of potassium bromide. B. Potassium ions and bromide ions in the powder are smaller than potassium ions and bromide ions in the large crystals. C. Fewer potassium ions and bromide ions have been separated from each other in the powder than in the crystals. D. Powdered potassium bromide is less dense than large crystals of potassium bromide.

15. Which of the following chemical reactions is a decomposition reaction?

A. BaCO3 → BaO + CO2

B. 2Ca + O2 → 2CaO

C. 3Br2 + 2FeI3 → 2FeBr3 + 3I2

D. MgCl2 + H2SO4 → MgSO4 + 2HCl

16. Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is a strong base. The dissociation of NaOH in an aqueous solution is given below.

NaOH(aq) → Na+(aq) + OH−(aq)

According to the Arrhenius theory, why is sodium hydroxide a base? A. NaOH is a neutralizer. B. NaOH is a proton acceptor. C. NaOH is a hydroxide ion donor. D. NaOH is an electron pair provider. 17. The illustration below shows a hot-air balloon. The pilot can change the altitude of the hot-air balloon by changing the temperature of the gas inside the balloon. When the gas is heated, the balloon rises.

Which of the following best explains this phenomenon? A. Heating the gas reduces its pressure. B. Heating the gas decreases its density. C. Heating the gas decreases its molecular motion. D. Heating the gas reduces the frequency of the gas molecules' collisions. 18. The diagram below represents a sodium ion surrounded by several water molecules.

This diagram can be used to represent which of the following? A. how sodium ions dissolve in water B. how sodium is neutralized by water C. how sodium metal makes bubbles in water D. how sodium ions precipitate out as a solid in aqueous solution

19. The equation below represents the reaction of hydrogen iodide with water.

+ − HI + H2O → H3O + I

Which reactant in this equation acts as a Brønsted base? A. HI

B. H2O

+ C. H3O D. I- 20.Silver (Ag) is a commonly used metal that easily tarnishes. The silver reacts with hydrogen sulfide (H2S) in the air. This reaction produces silver sulfide (Ag2S), a dull brownish compound, and hydrogen gas (H2).

a. Write a balanced equation for this reaction and identify the reaction type. b. Explain why silver tarnishes faster in a heated room than in an unheated room. c. Describe how you could slow down this reaction or prevent it from occurring.

21. Which of the following occurs when a rigid container of gas is heated? A. The pressure inside the container increases. B. The pressure inside the container decreases. C. The pressure inside the container stays the same. D. The pressure inside the container changes the composition of the gas.

22.Which of the following helps explain why honey dissolves more rapidly in hot water than in cold water? A. The honey and hot water form more covalent bonds. B. The hot water is more chemically reactive with the honey. C. The honey breaks down into free atoms more quickly in the hot water. D. The greater motion of hot water molecules disperses the honey more quickly. 23.The addition of 500 J of energy to a block of iron causes a rise in the average kinetic energy of the atoms in the block. Which of the following instruments can best be used to observe this change? A. a ruler B. a balance C. a thermometer D. a graduated cylinder 24.Which of the following substances has the highest concentration of hydrogen ions in solution? A. bleach – pH 13 B. water – pH 7 C. tomato juice – pH 4 D. vinegar – pH 3 25. The table below contains data from one trial in an experiment designed to determine the molar mass of a sample of an unidentified compound X in the gaseous state.

Trial 1

Mass of gas (g) 6.42

Gas volume (L) 4.48

Density (g/L) 1.43

Temperature (°C) 0.0

Pressure (atm) 1.00

Based on the data gathered in this first trial, what is the molar mass of the compound? A. 19.4 g/mol B. 28.8 g/mol C. 32.1 g/mol D. 144 g/mol 26.Which of the following has the greatest mass?

A. 1 mole of H2 B. 2 moles of K C. 3 moles of Mg D. 4 moles of He 27. The two samples of gas represented below have the same volume, temperature, and pressure.

Based on this information, these two samples of gas must also have the same A. chemical reactivity. B. density. C. mass. D. number of molecules. 28.Three 10 g samples of sugar are represented below.

10 g 10 g A B 10 g C

Sample A dissolves in water more slowly than sample B. Sample B dissolves more slowly than sample C. Which of the following best explains why sample A dissolves most slowly? A. It has the most volume. B. It has the smallest surface area. C. It has the largest number of sugar molecules. D. It has the fewest bonds between sugar molecules. 29.The solubility of a substance can be described in a variety of ways. Some references may use descriptive terms for solubility, such as those in the table illustrated below.

Parts of solvent Descriptive terms needed for 1 part solute Very soluble <1 Freely soluble 1–10 Soluble 10–30 Sparingly soluble 30–100 Slightly soluble 100–1,000 Very slightly soluble 1,000–10,000 Practically insoluble >10,000 or insoluble

Using the table above as a reference, what descriptive term would be used for a medication that required 4,000 mg of water to dissolve 200 mg of the drug? A. soluble B. slightly soluble C. sparingly soluble D. very slightly soluble 30.Potassium carbonate (K2CO3) is an important component of fertilizer. The partially balanced equation for the reaction of 6 moles of potassium hydroxide (KOH) and 3 moles of carbon dioxide (CO2) to produce potassium carbonate and water is given below.

6KOH + 3CO2 → K2CO3 + 3H2O

When this equation is balanced, what is the coefficient for potassium carbonate? A. 2 B. 3 C. 6 D. 9 31. A student was assigned to take water samples from a lake near his home. He measured the pH of one of the water samples to be 6.0. Which of the following best describes this sample of water? A. highly acidic B. slightly acidic C. highly basic D. slightly basic

32.How many moles of oxygen atoms are present in 2 moles of Mg3(PO4)2? A. 4 B. 8 C. 12 D. 16 33. Which of the following graphs best represents how the average kinetic energy of molecules changes with absolute temperature? A.

D. 34.A student bends a paperclip rapidly back and forth. When he touches the point where he was bending the paperclip, he finds that its temperature has increased. This indicates that the atoms in that part of the paperclip have increased in A. conductivity. B. kinetic energy. C. mass. D. number. 35. A picture of a balloon is shown below.

If the temperature of this balloon were to decrease suddenly, how would the balloon change? A. Its mass would increase. B. Its mass would decrease. C. Its volume would increase. D. Its volume would decrease. 36.Aluminum reacts vigorously and exothermically with copper(II) chloride. Which of the following is the balanced equation for this reaction?

A. Al + CuCl2 → AlCl3 + Cu

B. Al + 3CuCl2 → 2AlCl3 + Cu

C. 2Al + 3CuCl2 → 2AlCl3 + 3Cu

D. 3Al + 2CuCl2 → 3AlCl3 + 2Cu

37. Copper in the compound CuSO4 can be isolated in the following reaction with iron.

Fe + CuSO4 → FeSO4 + Cu

What type of reaction is shown above? A. decomposition B. synthesis C. single displacement D. double displacement 38.A data table and two prepared beakers are shown below.

Temperature Solubility of KNO3 (°C) in 100 g H2O 10 22 g 20 33 g 30 48 g 40 65 g 50 84 g

Beaker A Beaker B 10 g KNO3 10 g KNO3 100 g H2O 100 g H2O 10°C 50°C

Solid KNO3 was added to each beaker. Each beaker was stirred at the same rate until all of the solid dissolved. The table shows the solubilities of KNO3 at different temperatures. How will the rates of dissolving compare?

A. KNO3 will dissolve faster in Beaker B because of increased surface area.

B. KNO3 will dissolve faster in Beaker A because the water molecules are farther apart.

C. KNO3 will dissolve faster in Beaker B because the overall kinetic energy is increased.

D. KNO3 will dissolve at the same rate in Beaker A and Beaker B because the concentrations are the same.

ANSWER KEY 1. B 20. CR 2. C 21. A 3. C 22. D 4. A 23. C 5. D 24. D 6. A 25. C 7. A 26. B 8. D 27. D 9. A 28. B 10. A 29. A 11. A 30. B 12. A 31. B 13. CR 32. D 14. A 33. B 15. A 34. B 16. C 35. D 17. B 36. C 18. A 37. C 19. B 38. C 39. Detroit Public Schools Office of Science Education

Summer School

Earth Science Semester 1 1. One factor responsible for the strength of gravitational attraction between a planet and the Sun is the

A. degree of tilt of the planet’s axis B. distance between the planet and the Sun C. planet’s period of rotation D. amount of insolation given off by the Sun

2. Large craters found on Earth support the hypothesis that impact events have caused

A. a decrease in the number of earthquakes and an increase in sea level B. an increase in solar radiation and a decrease in Earth radiation C. the red shift of light from distant stars and the blue shift of light from nearby stars D. mass extinctions of life-forms and global climate changes

3. What causes the Coriolis effect?

A. Earth’s tilt on its axis B. the spin of Earth on its axis C. the orbital motion of the Moon around Earth D. the orbital motion of Earth around the Sun

4. Which type of surface absorbs the greatest amount of electromagnetic energy from the Sun?

A. smooth, shiny, and light colored B. smooth, shiny, and dark colored C. rough, dull, and light colored D. rough, dull, and dark colored

5. Which ocean current transports warm water away from Earth’s equatorial region?

A. Brazil Current C. Falkland Current B. Guinea Current D. California Current

6. The data table below shows the density of four different mineral samples. A student accurately measured the mass of a sample of one of the four minerals to be 294.4 grams and its volume to be 73.6 cm3. Which mineral sample did the student measure?

A. corundum C. hematite B. galena D. quartz

7. The edges of most lithospheric plates are characterized by

A. reversed magnetic orientation B. unusually rapid radioactive decay C. frequent volcanic activity D. low P-wave and high S-wave velocity

8. Compared to Earth’s continental crust, Earth’s oceanic crust is

A. thinner and more dense B. thinner and less dense C. thicker and more dense D. thicker and less dense 9. Which bar graph correctly shows the orbital eccentricity of the planets in our solar system?

10. The diagram below shows Earth in its orbit around the Sun. Positions A, B, C, and D represent Earth at the beginning of each season.

At which lettered position of Earth does New York State experience the first day of summer?

A. A C. C B. B D. D 11. Which sequence of New York State index fossils shows the order in which the organisms appeared on Earth?

12. The map below shows the northern section of the boundary between the Arabian Plate and the African Plate. Arrows show the relative direction of plate motion.

Which type of plate boundary is located at the Jordan Fault?

A. divergent C. convergent B. subduction D. transform

13. A seismograph station recorded the arrival of the first P-wave at 7:32 p.m. from an earthquake that occurred 4000 kilometers away. What time was it at the station when the earthquake occurred?

A. 7:20 p.m. C. 7:32 p.m. B. 7:25 p.m. D. 7:39 p.m. 14. In which set are the rock drawings labeled with their correct rock types?

D. 15. The topographic map below shows a lake and two rivers.

In which direction does each of the rivers flow?

A. The Sapphire River and the Garnet River both flow east. B. The Sapphire River and the Garnet River both flow west. C. The Sapphire River flows east and the Garnet River flows west. D. The Sapphire River flows west and the Garnet River flows east. 16. The cross section below, which shows an underwater mountain range in the Atlantic Ocean. The oceanic bedrock is composed mainly of basalt. Points X and Y are locations in the bedrock that have been diverging at the same rate. The movement of the North American Plate and Eurasian Plate is shown by the two arrows.

Which statements best describe the age and magnetic orientation of the basalts found at locations X and Y?

Atlantic Ocean

A. The basalt at location X is younger than the basalt at location Y. Both locations have the same magnetic orientation. B. The basalts at locations X and Y are the same age. Both locations have the same magnetic orientation. C. The basalts at locations X and Y are the same age. Location X has normal magnetic orientation and location Y has reversed magnetic orientation. D. The basalt at location X is older than the basalt at location Y. Location X has reversed magnetic orientation and location Y has normal magnetic orientation.

17. Approximately how many degrees per day does Earth revolve in its orbit around the Sun?

A. 1° C. 15° B. 13° D. 23.5° 18. The diagrams below represent three containers, A, B, and C, which were filled with equal volumes of uniformly sorted plastic beads. Water was poured into each container to determine porosity and infiltration time.

Which data table best represents the porosity and infiltration time of the beads in the three containers?

B. D. 19. The diagram below represents the Sun’s rays striking Earth and the Moon. Numbers 1 through 4 represent positions of the Moon in its orbit around Earth.

The highest tides on Earth occur when the Moon is in positions

A. 1 and 3 C. 3 and 2 B. 2 and 4 D. 4 and 1

20. Most of the solar radiation absorbed by Earth’s surface is later radiated back into space as which type of electromagnetic radiation?

A. x ray C. infrared B. ultraviolet D. radio wave 21. The map below shows the location of an earthquake epicenter in New York State. Seismic stations A, B, and C received the data used to locate the earthquake epicenter.

The seismogram recorded at station A would show the

A. arrival of P-waves, only B. earliest arrival time of P-waves C. greatest difference in the arrival times of P-waves and S-waves D. arrival of S-waves before the arrival of P-waves

22. An earthquake’s first P-wave arrives at a seismic station at 12:00:00. This P- wave has traveled 6000 kilometers from the epicenter. At what time will the first S- wave from the same earthquake arrive at the seismic station?

A. 11:52:20 C. 12:09:20 B. 12:07:40 D. 12:17:00

23. The movement of tectonic plates is inferred by many scientists to be driven by

A. tidal motions in the hydrosphere B. density differences in the troposphere C. convection currents in the asthenosphere D. solidification in the lithosphere 24. Which two tectonic plates are separated by a mid-ocean ridge? A. Indian-Australian and Eurasian B. Indian-Australian and Pacific C. North American and South American D. North American and Eurasian

25. A student created the table below by classifying six minerals into two groups, A and B, based on a single property.

Which property was used to classify these minerals?

A. color C. chemical composition B. luster D. hardness

26. Which igneous rock has a vesicular texture and contains the minerals potassium feldspar and quartz?

A. andesite C. pumice B. pegmatite D. scoria 27. A stream is transporting the particles W, X, Y, and Z, shown below.

Which particle will most likely settle to the bottom first as the velocity of this stream decreases?

A. W C. X B. Y D. Z

28. Which diagram represents a landscape where fine-grained igneous bedrock is most likely to be found?

B. D. Base your answers to questions 29 and 30 on the diagram below, which shows an inferred sequence in which our solar system formed from a giant interstellar cloud of gas and debris. Stage A shows the collapse of the gas cloud, stage B shows its flattening, and stage C shows the sequence that led to the formation of planets.

29. From stage B to stage C, the young Sun was created

A. when gravity caused the center of the cloud to contract B. when gravity caused heavy dust particles to split apart C. by outgassing from the spinning interstellar cloud D. by outgassing from Earth’s interior

30. After the young Sun formed, the disk of gas and dust

A. became spherical in shape B. formed a central bulge C. became larger in diameter D. eventually formed into planets Base your answers to questions 31 through 34 on the cross sections of three rock outcrops, A, B, and C. Line XY represents a fault. Overturning has not occurred in the rock outcrops.

31. The volcanic ash layer is considered a good time marker for correlating rocks because the volcanic ash layer

A. has a dark color B. can be dated using carbon-14 C. lacks fossils D. was rapidly deposited over a wide area

32. Which sedimentary rock shown in the outcrops is the youngest?

A. black shale C. tan siltstone B. conglomerate D. brown sandstone

33. What is the youngest geologic feature in the three bottom layers of outcrop C? A. fault C. unconformity B. igneous intrusion D. zone of contact metamorphism

34. Which processes were primarily responsible for the formation of most of the rock in outcrop A?

A. melting and solidification B. heating and compression C. compaction and cementation D. weathering and erosion Base your answers to questions 35 through 36 on the world map below. The shaded portion of the map indicates areas of night, and the unshaded portion indicates areas of daylight on a certain day of the year. Dashed latitude lines represent the Arctic Circle (66.5° N) and the Antarctic Circle (66.5° S). Point A is a location on Earth’s surface.

35. Approximately how many hours of daylight would occur at position A on this day?

A. 6 C. 12 B. 9 D. 15

36. On this day, the duration of daylight from the equator to the Arctic Circle

A. decreases, only B. increases, only C. decreases, then increases D. increases, then decreases Base your answers to questions 37 and 38 on the block diagram below. The diagram shows the tectonic plate boundary between Africa and North America 300 million years ago, as these two continents united into a single landmass. The arrows at letters A, B, C, and D represent relative crustal movements. Letter X shows the eruption of a volcano at that time.

37. Identify the type of tectonic plate motion represented by the arrow shown at D.

38. Identify the type of tectonic motion represented by the arrows shown at A, B, and C. Base your answers to questions 39 and 40 on the passage and the cross section below. The passage describes the geologic history of the Pine Bush region near Albany, New York. The cross section shows the bedrock and overlying sediment along a southwest to northeast diagonal line through a portion of this area. Location A shows an ancient buried stream channel and location B shows a large sand dune.

The Pine Bush Region

The Pine Bush region, just northwest of Albany, New York, is a 40-square mile area of sand dunes and wetlands covered by pitch pine trees and scrub oak bushes. During the Ordovician Period, this area was covered by a large sea. Layers of mud and sand deposited in this sea were compressed into shale and sandstone bedrock. During most of the Cenozoic Era, running water eroded stream channels into the bedrock. One of these buried channels is shown at location A in the cross section. Over the last one million years of the Cenozoic Era, this area was affected by glaciation. During the last major advance of glacial ice, soil and bedrock were eroded and later deposited as till (a mixture of boulders, pebbles, sand, and clay). About 20,000 years ago, the last glacier in New York State began to melt. The meltwater deposited pebbles and sand, forming the stratified drift. During the 5000 years it took to melt this glacier, the entire Pine Bush area became submerged under a large 350-foot-deep glacial lake called Lake Albany. Delta deposits of cobbles, pebbles, and sand formed along the lake shorelines, and beds of silt and clay were deposited farther into the lake. Lake Albany drained about 12,000 years ago, exposing the lake bottom. Wind erosion created the sand dunes that cover much of the Pine Bush area today. 39. According to the passage, how old is the bedrock shown in the cross section?

40. What evidence shown at location A suggests that the channel in the bedrock was eroded by running water?

ANSWER KEY

1. B 21. B 2. D 22. B 3. B 23. C 4. D 24. D 5. A 25. B 6. A 26. C 7. C 27. A 8. A 28. A 9. A 29. A 10. C 30. D 11. D 31. D 12. D 32. C 13. B 33. A 14. D 34. C 15. A 35. C 16. B 36. A 17. A 37. CR 18. A 38. CR 19. A 39. CR 20. C 40. CR Detroit Public Schools Office of Science Education

Summer School

Earth Science Semester 2

nts 061008, 0509 Page 137 1. Which weather instrument is used to measure wind speed?

A. anemometer C. psychrometer B. wind vane D. thermometer

2. A weather station model is shown below.

What is the barometric pressure indicated by this station model?

A. 0.029 mb B. 902.9 mb C. 1002.9 mb D. 1029.0 mb

3. The upward movement of air in the atmosphere generally causes the temperature of that air to

A. decrease and become closer to the dewpoint B. decrease and become farther from the dewpoint C. increase and become closer to the dewpoint D. increase and become farther from the dewpoint

nts 061008, 0509 Page 138 4. The cross section below shows a house on the shore of Lake Ontario in August.

Under which conditions would the wind shown in the cross section most likely occur?

A. at 2 a.m., when the air over land is 70°F and the air over the lake is 80°F B. at 6 a.m., when the air over land is 70°F and the air over the lake is 70°F C. at 2 p.m., when the air over land is 80°F and the air over the lake is 70°F D. at 10 p.m., when the air over land is 70°F and the air over the lake is 72°F

nts 061008, 0509 Page 139 5. Point X is a location on the topographic map below. Elevations are measured in meters.

What is a possible elevation, in meters, of point X?

A. 55 C. 68 B. 57 D. 70

6. The topographic map below shows two hills labeled A and B. The tributary streams labeled X and Y have the same volume of water.

Which statement is best supported by the map?

A. Hill A is higher than hill B. B. Hill B is higher than hill A. C. Stream X flows faster than stream Y. D. Stream Y flows faster than stream X.

nts 061008, 0509 Page 140 Base your answers to questions 7 through 9 on the flowchart below, which shows a general overview of the processes and substances involved in the weathering of rocks at Earth’s surface. Letter X represents an important substance involved in both major types of weathering, labeled A and B on the flowchart. Some weathering processes are defined below the flowchart.

7. Which term best identifies the type of weathering represented by A?

A. physical C. chemical B. biological D. glacial

nts 061008, 0509 Page 141 8. Which substance is represented by X on both sides of the flowchart?

A. potassium feldspar C. hydrochloric acid B. air D. water

9. Which weathering process is most common in a hot, dry environment?

A. abrasion C. frost action B. carbonation D. hydrolysis

Base your answers to questions 10 and 11 on the map below, which represents an imaginary continent. Locations A and B are on opposite sides of a mountain range on a planet similar to Earth. Location C is on the planet’s equator.

10. Compared to the climate at location A, the climate at location B would most likely be

A. warmer and more humid C. cooler and more humid B. warmer and less humid D. cooler and less humid

nts 061008, 0509 Page 142 11. Location C most likely experiences

A. low air pressure and low precipitation B. low air pressure and high precipitation C. high air pressure and low precipitation D. high air pressure and high precipitation

Base your answers to questions 12 and 13 on the data table below, which shows the average number of days with thunderstorms that occur over land areas at different latitudes each year.

12. On the grid in your answer document, plot, with an dot, the average number of days per year a thunderstorm occurs over a land area for each latitude shown on the data table.

Connect the centers of the dots with a line.

13. State the relationship between latitude and the average number of days each year that thunderstorms occur over a land area.

nts 061008, 0509 Page 143 Base your answers to questions 14 through 17 on the passage and map below. The map shows a portion of the continent of Antarctica.

Antarctica’s Ice Sheet

The size and shape of the West Antarctic Ice Sheet depends on many factors, including melting and freezing beneath the glacier, the amount of snowfall, snow removal by wind, iceberg formation, and the rate of ice flow. Glacial moraines are found in the Executive Committee Mountains shown on the map. Moraines are located up to 100 meters in elevation above the present ice sheet surface, which indicates that a thicker ice sheet existed 20,000 years ago. The world’s oceans and climate are influenced by Antarctica’s ice. Even a small increase in sea level from melting glaciers would be a disaster for the nearly two billion people who live near coastal areas.

14. Identify one piece of evidence found on the sides of some Antarctic mountains that indicates that an ice sheet, hundreds of meters thicker than the current ice sheet, existed in the past.

nts 061008, 0509 Page 144 15. State the latitude and longitude of Byrd Station. Your answer must include both the units and the compass directions.

16. Describe the arrangement of sediment found in a glacial moraine.

17. Identify one change that would cause a decrease in the size of the West Antarctic Ice Sheet.

Base your answers to questions 18 through 21 on the cross section below, which shows the general pattern of water movement in the water cycle. Letter X represents a water- cycle process.

18. What process of the water cycle is represented by X?

19. Describe the process of condensation.

20. Describe one surface condition that would allow runoff to occur.

21. Explain one role of plants in the water cycle.

nts 061008, 0509 Page 145 22. A weather instrument is shown below.

Which weather variable is measured by this instrument?

A. wind speed B. precipitation C. cloud cover D. air pressure

nts 061008, 0509 Page 146 23. In the United States, most tornadoes are classified as intense

A. low-pressure funnel clouds that spin clockwise B. low-pressure funnel clouds that spin counterclockwise C. high-pressure funnel clouds that spin clockwise D. high-pressure funnel clouds that spin counterclockwise

24. Which type of air mass is associated with warm, dry atmospheric conditions?

A. cP C. mP B. cT D. mT

25. Earth’s surface winds generally blow from regions of higher

A. air temperature toward regions of lower air temperature B. air pressure toward regions of lower air pressure C. latitudes toward regions of lower latitudes D. elevations toward regions of lower elevations

26. The diagram below shows how prevailing winds cause different weather conditions on the windward and leeward sides of a mountain range.

Clouds usually form on the windward sides of mountains because this is where air A. rises and cools C. sinks and cools B. rises and warms D. sinks and warms

27. Which ocean current brings warm water to the western coast of Africa?

A. Agulhas Current B. North Equatorial Current C. Canaries Current D. Guinea Current

Base your answers to questions 28 and 29 on the graph below, which shows air temperature, dewpoint, and present weather conditions for a 23-hour period at Dallas, Texas.

28. The thunderstorm that occurred between 11 p.m. and 12 midnight was most likely the result of

A. the arrival of a warm front B. the arrival of a cold front C. an increase in the difference between air temperature and dewpoint D. an increase in both air temperature and dewpoint

29. Which weather condition was reported at Dallas when the air temperature was equal to the dewpoint?

A. fog C. thunderstorm B. rain D. drizzle Base your answers to questions 30 and 31 on the graph below, which shows the effect that average yearly precipitation and temperature have on the type of weathering that will occur in a particular region.

30. Which type of weathering is most common where the average yearly temperature is 5°C and the average yearly precipitation is 45 cm?

A. moderate chemical weathering B. very slight weathering C. moderate chemical weathering with frost action D. slight frost action

31. The amount of chemical weathering will increase if

A. air temperature decreases and precipitation decreases B. air temperature decreases and precipitation increases C. air temperature increases and precipitation decreases D. air temperature increases and precipitation increases ANSWER KEY 1. A 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. D 7. C 8. D 9. A 10. B 11. B 12. CR 13. CR 14. CR 15. CR 16. CR 17. CR 18. CR 19. CR 20. CR 21. CR 22. D 23. B 24. B 25. B 26. A 27. D 28. B 29. A 30. D 31. D Detroit Public Schools Office of Science Education

Summer School

Integrated Natural Science (INS) Semester 1 1. After a spacecraft takes off, its distance traveled is measured and is represented in this graph.

Distance vs. Time

Time (s)

What is the average speed of the spacecraft?

A 12 kilometers per second

B 5 kilometers per second

C 3 kilometers per second

D 1 kilometer per second 2. Which graph represents a car with a positive acceleration?

A ) m (

e c n a t s i D Time (s)

B ) m (

e c n a t s i D Time (s)

C ) m (

e c n a t s i

D Time (s)

D ) m (

e c n a t s i

D Time (s)

3. A student is a passenger in the front seat of a moving car. Which object is the best frame of reference for the student to determine how fast the car is moving relative to the ground?

A a person sitting in the backseat of the car

B a truck traveling in the lane next to the car

C the driver sitting next to the student

D a signpost on the side of the road

4. An object rolls east at a steady speed of 12 m/s for 3.0 seconds. What distance did it travel?

A 7.0 m

B 18 m

C 24 m

D 36 m

5. A car’s velocity changes from 0 m/s to 40 m/s in 5 seconds. What is the average acceleration of the car?

A 5 m/s 2

B 8 m/s2

C 35 m/s2

D 200 m/s2 6. This graph represents the motion of an object.

Distance vs. Time

Time (s)

What is the average speed of the object from time = 0 s to time = 5 s?

A 0.8 m/s

B 1.2 m/s

C 5 m/s D 6 m/s

7. A car starts from rest and accelerates uniformly at 1.7 m/s/s. How long will it take the car to reach a speed of 34 m/s?

A 200a B 58 s C 20 s D 2 s 8. This graph shows the motion of a person riding a bicycle.

Time (s)

Which time period shows the acceleration of the bicycle?

A 0—4 s

B 4—8 s C 8—10 s

D 10—16 s

9. A 200-kg load is suspended from a cable on a crane. The load is moved upward at a constant velocity 20 m to the top of the building. What would be true of the force on the cable as it moved upward?

A the force on the cable decreased

B the force on the cable increased

C the force on the cable remained the same

D the force on the cable depended upon the energy of the crane 10. A student uses two identical balls to perform an investigation. The student throws ball A with a horizontal velocity from a height of 10 meters. At the same time, another student drops ball B from the same height without any horizontal velocity. Neglecting air resistance, which best describes the results?

A ball A will hit the ground first

B ball B will hit the ground first

C both balls will hit the ground at the same time

D ball A will take twice as long to hit the ground

11. This diagram shows an object being pushed along a frictionless surface. The object accelerates at 2 m/s/s.

2 m/s/s force

What force was applied to the object?

A. 1 N

B. 1.5 N

C. 5 N

D. 6 N 12. How much force is needed to accelerate a 500.0-kg car at a rate of 4.000 m/s/s?

A 125.0 N

B 250.0 N

C 2,000. N

D 4,000. N

13. Two equal forces act at the same time on the same stationary object but in opposite directions. Which statement describes the object’s motion?

A it remains stationary

B it moves at a constant speed

C it accelerates

D it decelerates

14. A quarter is resting on top of an index card, which has been placed across the top of a Quarter small cup. Index Card

When the card is given a hard horizontal push to the right, what will happen?

A the card and quarter will move to the right, off of the cup, and land together

B the card and quarter will move to the right and land on the table, but the quarter will travel farther C the card will fall off the cup, but the quarter will fall directly into the cup D the card and quarter will flip off the cup and land upside down on the table 15. This chart represents information about four different carts and the force applied to each cart.

Cart Masses and Forces Applied

Cart Mass (kg) Force (N) W 5 3 X 5 6 Y 5 4 Z 5 1

Which cart will have the greatest amount of acceleration?

16. A 100-N force causes an object to accelerate at 2 m/s/s. What is the mass of the object?

A 0.02 kg

B 50 kg

C 102 kg

D 200 kg 17. Carts A and B have the same mass. Both students have a mass of 80 kg.

Cart A Cart B

If the student in cart A pulls the rope, what will result?

A cart A will move toward a stationary Cart B B cart B will move toward a stationary Cart A. C both carts will move toward each other. D cart B will move faster than Cart A.

18. A chair exerts a force of 20 N on a floor. What is the force that the floor exerts on the chair?

A 10 N

B 20 N

C 21 N

D 40 N 19. A student in a boat decided to go for a swim. He dove off the back of the boat, as shown in the diagram. The boat moved in the direction shown by the arrow.

Which statement best explains why the boat moved in the direction shown?

A a body in motion tends to remain in motion B the acceleration of a body is directly proportional to the force applied C for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction friction on the bottom of the boat was reduced because of the lake D water.

20. Which diagram best shows forces acting on an object that is sitting at rest on a table?

C. D. 21. A roller coaster car moves on a roller coaster track through positions W, X, Y, and Z.

At what position will the roller coaster car most likely have the greatest kinetic energy?

A W B X C Y D Z

22. A 1-kg block of ice is set into motion on a frictionless surface. It attains a speed of 5 m/s at point X.

What is the kinetic energy of the ice at point X?

A 2.5 J

C 12.5 J

D 25 J 23. What is the potential energy acquired by an object with a mass of 5.00 kilograms when it is raised 5.00 meters?

A 25.0 J

B 49.0 J

C 245.0 J

D 480. 0 J

24. A metal rod and a brick are both in the sun. Assuming that both are the same mass, which property of matter will make one hotter to the touch than the other

A density

B specific heat

C melting point

D boiling point

25. A 3.00-kg object rests on the roof’s edge of a 10.0-m high building. What is the object’s potential energy?

A 22.8 J

B 33.0 J

C 294 J

D 300. J 26. How much power is used to lift a box that weighs 50 newtons 10 meters in 10 seconds?

A 5 watts

B 50 watts

C 500 watts

D 5,000 watts

27. A total of 750 J of work was done when a force of 125 N was exerted on a box to move it. How far was the box moved?

A 6.00 m

B 600. m C 850. m

D 906 m

28. A student exerts a force of 500 N pushing a box 10 m across the floor in 4 s. How much work does the student perform?

A 50 J

B 1,250 J

C 2,000 J

D 5,000 J 29. In which example would the amount of work done equal zero?

A holding a 1,000-N rock overhead

B filing papers in a file cabinet

C carrying a bag of groceries upstairs D writing a book report

30. When a plastic rod is rubbed with fur, the plastic rod becomes negatively charged. Which statement explains the charge transfer between the plastic rod and the fur?

A protons are transferred from the plastic rod to the fur

B protons are transferred from the fur to the plastic rod

C electrons are transferred from the plastic rod to the fur

D electrons are transferred from the fur to the plastic rod

31. How do electrically charged objects affect neutral objects when they come in contact?

A electrons move from negatively charged objects to neutral objects

B electrons move from neutral objects to negatively charged objects

C protons move from positively charged objects to neutral objects

D protons move from neutral objects to positively charged objects 32. This diagram shows a negatively charged balloon. When the charged balloon is brought near some pieces of paper, the papers are attracted to the balloon.

Which describes the charging of the pieces of paper?

A positive, due to induction

B positive, due to conduction

C negative, due to induction

D negative, due to conduction

33. A series circuit has a 6-V battery and 3 ohms of resistance. How much current will flow through the circuit?

A 0.5 A

D 18 A 34. What voltage is required to run a 45-watt light bulb if the current is

A 45 volts

B 90 volts

C 120 volts

D 225 volts

35. How much current is used by a 120-V refrigerator that uses 650 W of power? A 0.18 A B 5.4 A

C 120 A

D 78,000 A 36. Three light bulbs are connected to a 120-V potential difference. Ammeters are placed

at four different locations labeled #1, #2, #3, and #4.

At which location will the current be greatest?

C #3 D #4

37. Which best describes a circuit in series?

A different parts are on separate branches.

B current values are different at various points in the circuit.

C electrons may take several paths.

D electrons have only one path at all times.

38. Which statement is true about parallel circuits?

A they contain separate branches through which current can flow.

B they are usually called open circuits

C they provide one path through which current can flow

D they cease to function when one part of the circuit is disconnected

39. Which is the correct diagram for a parallel circuit with three light bulbs powered by a 24-V battery?

40. A motor has a current of 2 A flowing through it when it is powered with a 12-V battery. What is the power used by the motor?

A 0.16 W

B 6.0 W

C 14.0 W

D 24.0 W 41. The diagrams represent two complete circuits. A 9-V battery is connected to two light bulbs as shown.

Circuit A

Circuit B

Which statement best describes what can be observed?

A the light from Circuit A will be brighter because each light bulb adds its current to the other light bulb

the light from Circuit B will be brighter because each light bulb has a direct B path to both poles of the battery.

the light from Circuit A will be dimmer because each light bulb has a direct C path to both poles of the battery. the light from Circuit B will be dimmer because each light bulb must share D its current with the other light bulb 42. A light bulb with a resistance of 100 ohms is plugged into a 120-volt outlet. What is the current flowing through the bulb?

A 0.83 ampere

B 1.2 amperes

C 20 amperes D 220 amperes

43. A sheet of paper is positioned to completely cover a bar magnet. Iron filings are then gently sprinkled on the paper. What does the pattern created by the iron filings indicate?

A the stronger of the two poles B the distance between the two poles C the midpoint of the area between the two poles D the magnetic field created by the two poles 44. A magnet is moved back and forth through a loop of wire as shown below.

What will happen as the magnet is moved back and forth as shown?

A the wire will attract the magnet B the magnet will attract the wire C the galvanometer needle will stay at 0 on the scale the galvanometer needle will move back and D forth

45. Which statement best describes a bar magnet that has been broken into two pieces?

A both pieces have lost their magnetic poles B one piece has a north pole only, and the other piece has a south pole only C each piece has both a north and a south pole D both pieces have a north pole only 46. A student coiled wire around a nail, attached both ends to a 1.5-V battery, and attempted to lift paper clips with the nail.

Results

Number of Turns Paper Clips of Wire Picked Up 10 2 20 4 30 10 40 20

What is a valid conclusion for this investigation?

A Increasing voltage increases electromagnetic strength

B Increasing the number of turns of wire decreases electromagnetic strength

C Increasing the number of turns of wire increases electromagnetic strength

D Increasing the number of turns of wire has no effect on electromagnetic strength

On your answer document.

47., Briefly explain why objects of the same mass weigh less on the moon than on Earth. ANSWER KEY

1. C 2. B 3. D 4. D 5. B 6. B 7. C 8. C 9. C 10. C 11. D 12. C 13. A 14. C 15. B 16. B 17. C 18. B 19. C 20. A 21. B 22. C 23. C 24. B 25. C 26. B 27. A 28. D 29. A 30. D 31. A 32. A 33. B 34. B 35. B 36. A 37. D 38. A 39. B 40. D 41. B 42. B 43. D 44. D 45. C 46. C 47. CR Detroit Public Schools Office of Science Education

Summer School

Integrated Natural Science Semester 2 1. The liquids in two beakers have an initial temperature of 50°C and are left to cool.

100 mL Ethyl Alcohol 100 mL water 100 mL 100 m

Specific Heat = 2,400 J/kg°C Specific Heat = 4,186 J/kg°C

What will happen to the liquids?

A the ethyl alcohol will cool first

B the water will cool first

C both liquids will cool at the same rate

D both liquids will remain at 50°C

2. A solid object at 30°C is placed inside a container of liquid at 60°C.

What most likely will be observed?

A the temperature of the liquid will remain the same

B the temperature of the solid object will decrease

C the temperature of the liquid will increase

D the temperature of the solid object will increase

3. How does ice cool a warm drink?

A cold flows from the ice to the drink B heat flows from the ice to the drink

C cold flows from the drink to the ice

D heat flows from the drink to the ice

4. Why is lightning seen before thunder is heard?

A light travels slower than sound.

B light travels faster than sound

C lighting has more energy than thunder

D lightening has less energy than thunder

5. A student opens the top window and the bottom window in a hot room. Warmer air goes out the top window, while cooler air comes in the bottom window. Which best explains why the room becomes cooler?

A conduction

B radiation

C heat reaction

D convection

6. When comparing the types of electromagnetic waves, which has the greatest energy?

A ultraviolet

B X-rays

C gamma rays

D visible 7. Which diagram represents a wave with the most energy?

8. Which figure represents the wave with highest frequency and lowest energy?

9. A student is listening to the radio and realizes that the volume is too low. When she turns up the volume, which part of the sound waves is she changing?

A wavelength

B frequency

C period

D amplitude

10. What is the speed of a wave with a wavelength of 0.5 m and a frequency of 20 Hz?

A 5 m/s

B 10 m/s

C 20 m/s

D 30 m/s

11. The drawing shows two uncharged lightweight plastic balls suspended by thin, insulating threads. Ball 1 is given a positive charge. Ball 2 is given an equivalent negative charge.

Plastic Balls

Which diagram best shows how the balls will react after becoming charged?

D 12. Which part of Dalton’s atomic theory was disproved by further scientific research?

A all elements are composed of atoms B atoms are indivisible particles C atoms of different elements are different

D compounds are composed of two or more elements

13. Which model best illustrates Thomson’s explanation of the atom?

D 14. 15. What was Niels Bohr’s prediction about the location of the electrons in an atom?

A electrons pair with protons and stay in the nucleus of the atoms

B electrons can be found at various levels within an energy cloud surrounding the nucleus C electrons orbit the nucleus in well-defined energy levels or orbitals

D electrons are scattered randomly in a positive background matrix

16. Which best describes the current model of an atom?

A a solid sphere with electrons and protons embedded B a solid sphere unique for everything that exists C a central nucleus containing protons and neutrons with electrons orbiting in levels of high probability D a central nucleus containing protons with electrons orbiting in specific paths 17. An atom with which atomic diagram has chemical properties most similar to calcium?

D 18. Which distinguishes an atom of one element from an atom of a different element?

A the number of protons

B the number of neutrons

C the number of electrons

D the number of neutrons and protons

19. How many protons are in an atom of bromine?

20 An element with an atomic number of 51 and an atomic mass of 121 has how many neutrons in each atom?

D 172 21. Which diagram represents an electrically neutral atom?

D 22. What is the mass number in atomic mass units of an atom wit 14 protons, 14 electrons and 16 neutrons?

A. 14 amu

B. 16 amu

C. 30 amu

D. 44 amu

23. What is the atomic number of carbon -14?

24. Atomic masses are usually expressed as averages due to the existence of what phenomenon?

A. isotopes

B. radioactive decay

C. electrons

D. man-made elements 25. How do the atoms of carbon-12 and carbon-14 differ?

A. atomic number

B. number of electrons

C. number of protons

D. number of neutrons

26. Chlorine has two naturally occurring isotopes, chlorine-35 and chlorine-37. The atomic mass of naturally occurring chlorine is 35.45. Which statement is correct?

A chlorine-35 is more abundant.

B chlorine-37 is more abundant.

C chlorine-36 is more abundant.

D chlorine-35 and chlorine-37 are equally abundant. 27. Several common metals are listed in this chart.

Common Metals

Metal Density (g/cm3) aluminum 2.7 iron 7.9 lead 11.4 silver 10.5

Assuming equal masses of each, a cube of which metal would have the greatest volume?

A aluminum

B iron

C lead

D silver 28. This diagram represents four different liquids that have been poured into a container and have separated.

Which liquid has the greatest density?

A liquid 1

B liquid 2

C liquid 3

D liquid 4 29. A small piece of aluminum at a temperature of 10C is placed in an insulated container filled with water at 95C. The temperatures of the aluminum and the water are recorded for several hours until equilibrium is reached. The dashed line represents the temperature of the aluminum, and the solid line represents the temperature of the water. Which graph best represents the temperature of each substance over time? 30. A solid substance is heated at a uniform rate. This graph shows how the temperature of the substance changes as heat is added.

According to the energy diagram shown, the substance will boil at what temperature?

A. –60C

B. –10C

C. 90C

D 140C 31. A student performed an experiment to determine the number of paper clips that are attracted to an electromagnet as the amount of current changes.

Data Table Number of Current Paper Clips 5 A 20 10 A 40 15 A 60 20 A 80

Which graph best describes the relationship between magnetism and electrical current? Answer questions #32 - #34 in the space provided in your answer document.

32. Sidewalks are generally laid in blocks and concrete roads in sections with small gaps between each section. Similarly, bridges are built with small spaces between joints. Explain why this is done.

33. A student places a mug filled with hot chocolate on the counter. After an hour, the drink is at about room temperature. Explain what happened to the thermal energy of the drink.

34. What are greenhouse gases, and how do they affect Earth's temperature? Are greenhouse gases bad for the environment? Justify your answer. ANSWER KEY

1. A 18. A 2. D 19. D 3. D 20. B 4. B 21. D 5. D 22. C 6. C 23. A 7. D 24. A 8. A 25. D 9. D 26. A 10. B 27. A 11. A 28. D 12. B 29. C 13. D 30. B 14. A 31. B 15. C 32. CR 16. C 33. CR 17. D 34. CR