Glider Pilot Recommendation Prep Questions

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Glider Pilot Recommendation Prep Questions

GLIDER PILOT RECOMMENDATION PREP QUESTIONS

I. CERTIFICATES, DOCUMENTS AND INSPECTIONS 1) Do you have to carry your pilot’s license with you every time you fly? Yes. 2) How long can you fly after changing your address without notifying the FAA? 30 days. 3) How do you notify the FAA if you change your address? Notify in writing: The Department of Transportation, Federal Aviation Administration, Airman Certification Branch, Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125. 4) Is a private pilot’s license permanent? Yes. 5) Can a private pilot share expenses? Yes. How much? Not specific but 50% is considered fair. 6) What are the medical requirements for a private pilot’s license with glider rating? Self-certification prior to each flight. 7) Do all flights in a glider have to be logged? No. Do any? Yes. If so, which ones? Flights required for currency and ratings must be logged. 8) Do you have to have a BFR if you don’t carry passengers? Yes. A BFR is required to fly solo in an aircraft. 9) What flights must be logged for a BFR check ride? 1 Hour of Ground School and 1 Hour of flight training or 3 flights. 10) What are the minimum requirements for a BFR? One hour of Ground School and three flights in which a 360 degree turn is made or one hour of flight training. 11) When does a BFR expire? At the end of the 24th calendar month following the last BFR. 12) Do you have to carry your log book when you fly? No. But student pilots must carry their logbook containing the required endorsements. 13) What documents must be on board an aircraft when you fly? (1) Airworthiness Certificate, (2) Aircraft Registration and (3) Aircraft Operations Specifications (Aircraft Operator’s Manual; placards etc.) 14) Is an Airworthiness Certificate permanent? Yes. 15) What is on the Registration Certificate? Name and address of the registered owner of the aircraft. 16) Do you have to have a radio license to fly? No. 17) Name some acceptable ways operating limitations can be aboard? Aircraft Operator’s Manual, placards, marking on ASI. 18) Where is the authoritative information regarding the operating limits of a glider found? Aircraft Operator’s Manual; placards. 19) What inspections must be performed on a glider? (1) An Annual Inspection, and (2) a 100 hour inspection if the glider is used for instruction. 20) Who can inform inspections? An FAA Certified Mechanic 21) Where can evidence of an inspection be found? In the aircraft’s logbook. 22) If you were the first to fly the glider after an annual inspection, how would you perform the preflight? Thorough preflight, including a positive control check. 23) Who is responsible for determining if the glider is airworthy? The pilot. 24) Who is responsible for maintaining the glider in airworthy condition? The owner.

II. WEIGHT AND BALANCE AND AIRCRAFT PERFORMANCE 1) What are the acceptable ways the weight and balance information can be on board? (1) Aircraft Operator’s Manual and (2) placards. 2) What two requirements must be satisfied for the glider’s weight and balance to be safe for flight? The weight must not exceed maximum allowed weight and the CG must be within stated limits. 3) Why is flight with an excessive aft CG dangerous? The pilot might not be able to lower the nose of the glider during stall recovery, 4) Why is flight with an excessive forward CG dangerous? The pilot might not be able to raise the nose during the landing flare. 5) If you exceed maximum gross weight, what could happen? The aircraft’s structural limits could be exceeded. 6) Student performs weight and balance calculations for the aircraft. Weight X Arm = Moment; total Moment divided by total Weight = CG. 7) What are the maximum and minimum weights for the front and rear seats of the aircraft? Grob-103: Front seat max is 242 lbs and minimum is 154 lbs. Rear seat max is 242lbs. and minimum is 0 lbs. (Note placard in cockpit gives weight ranges for use of ballast) 8) What is the maximum weight limit for the aircraft? Grob-103: 1,279 lbs. 9) What are the CG limits for the aircraft? Grob-103: 10.24 inches to 18.11 inches behind the datum. 10) What is the best L/D speed of the aircraft? Solo? Grob-103: 51 knots. Dual? Grob-103: 57 knots. 11) What is the best L/D ratio for the aircraft? Grob-103: 37:1. 12) How does weight affect the L/D speed of the glider? The speed at which the best L/D is achieved increases as the aircraft’s weight increases. 13) What is the minimum sink speed of the aircraft? Solo? Grob-103: 42 knots Dual? 46 knots. 14) What is minimum sink airspeed and when would you use it? The speed at which the glider loses the least amount of altitude over time. Fly minimum sink airspeed in lift or in still air if trying to maximize time aloft. 15) Is minimum sink airspeed the same during a coordinated, level turn as in straight flight? No. How is it different? Minimum sink airspeed increases as the wing loading increases. 16) How does minimum sink airspeed differ from best L/D speed? Minimum sink airspeed achieves the best performance over time, whereas best L/D airspeed achieves best performance over distance. 17) What is the sink rate of the aircraft at the best L/D speed? Grob-103 solo is 126fpm and dual is 138fpm. 18) At what speed should you fly the glider for best distance / altitude lost? Best L/D. 19) How would you adjust this speed for a headwind? Best L/D plus 50% of the headwind component. 20) How would you adjust this speed for a tailwind? Best L/D minus 50% of the tailwind component but never slower than minimum sink. 21) What is meant by “speeds to fly”? There is a “best speed to fly” for every maneuver; for example, there is a best speed to fly in the pattern, there is a best speed to fly in lift and in sink, between thermals, etc. 22) Summarize the “speeds to fly” concept in lift. In lift, fly minimum sink, adjusted for wing loading. Sink. In sink, fly the speed indicated on the MacCready Ring. This will be a faster speed than minimum sink speed. And heavy sink. Fly fast, as indicated by the MacCready Ring, in order to minimize exposure to sinking air. 23) What speed should you fly in lift? Minimum sink. In sink? The speed indicated by the MacCready Ring. 24) Explain how to use the MacCready Ring. Read the “speed to fly” from the MacCready Ring in sink. Fly minimum sink in lift. 25) How do you use the MacCready ring when flying between thermals? Read the speed to fly from the MacCready Ring. 26) How do you use the MacCready ring for flying the final glide back to the glider port? Fly the speed indicated on the MacCready ring, plus 50% of any headwind component. 27) Explain what is meant by the glider’s polar. Glider performance is represented as a comparison of speed vs. sink rate. When depicted on a graph, the performance curve is called “the polar.” The polar indicates the best speeds to fly under specific lift conditions. The MacCready Ring incorporates the glider’s polar curve into an easy to read “instrument” that can be used to determine the best speeds to fly in current conditions. 28) What are the two kinds of ballast and what are they used for? (1) Weight (ballast) is added ahead of the CG to compensate for a pilot, who weighs less than the minimum front seat weight requirement, and (2) Water ballast is loaded into wing tanks to increase the speed at which the glider will achieve best L/D. 29) What is the main purpose of water ballast? Improve cruise performance between thermals. 30) Is it okay to land with water ballast? Check the aircraft’s Operator’s Manual but generally the answer is “No.” 31) What is the stall speed of the aircraft with dive brakes retracted? Grob- 103: 41 knots. With dive brakes deployed? Grob-103: 46 knots. 32) What happens to the stall speed of the aircraft when the glider is flown in a coordinated turn? The increased wing loading results in an increase in the stall speed. 33) What is the maximum aerotow speed of the glider? Grob-103: 92 knots. 34) What speed is Va? Design maneuvering speed (Grob-103: 92 knots). 35) What is the fastest speed this glider can be flown into turbulent air? Grob- 103: 92 knots. 36) What is the fastest speed at which full control deflections can be made without causing structural damage to the glider? Va – Grob-103: 92 knots. 37) What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind component of the glider? Grob-103: 11 knots.

III. WEATHER 1) What are NOTAMS? Notices to Airmen. Who should be concerned about a NOTAM? All pilots and aircraft operators. 2) What is a SIGMET? Significant Meteorological Information. Who should be concerned about a SIGMET? All pilots and aircraft operators. 3) What is an AIRMET? Airman’s Meteorological Information. Who should be concerned about an AIRMET? Pilots and operators of smaller aircraft. 4) How do you get SIGMETS and AIRMETS? SIGMETS and AIRMETS can be obtained from FSS, telephone, in person or radio briefings, as well as through TWEBs. 5) What is a CONVECTIVE SIGMET? Convective SIGMETS provide information on large areas of severe thunderstorms, squall lines, embedded thunderstorms and tornadoes. SIGMETs also are issued for hail ¾ inch or greater in diameter, low-level wind shear, severe turbulence and sever icing. 6) What type of dangers do thunderstorms present? Turbulence, rain, hail, micro bursts, wind shear, lightening, etc. What is a safe distance form a thunderstorm? 5+ miles. Why? Hail can be thrown up to 5 miles from a thunderstorm. 7) What is pressure lapse rate? The rate at which atmospheric pressure decreases with an increase in altitude. How much is it? A decrease of ca. 1 inch of mercury for every 1,000 feet of altitude gain. What is the air pressure at sea level? 29.92 inches of mercury or 1013.2 millibars. 8) What is temperature lapse rate? The change in temperature as altitude is increased. .How much is it? 3.5 degrees F / 2 degrees C ( Note: this is not an absolute) 9) What is standard temperature at sea level? 59 degrees F or 15 degrees C. 10) What is density altitude? Density altitude is an index of aircraft performance under a given set of conditions. These conditions include actual height above sea level, temperature and humidity. 11) How does density altitude affect aircraft performance? Aircraft performance decreases with an increase in density altitude. 12) Is density altitude an issue at Caddo Mills? Yes. When? Summer. 13) How does humidity affect density altitude? It increases density altitude and degrades aircraft performance. 14) What does the dry adiabatic lapse rate mean? The rate at which heated air is cooled as it rises. 15) How much is the dry adiabatic lapse rate? 5.5 degrees F or 3 degrees C. 16) Why is the dry adiabatic lapse rate important to glider pilots? It allows us to calculate the relative strength and height of thermal development. When the temperature at any given level is known, it can be compared to the projected temperature based on the DALR and thermal height can be projected. 17) What is a thermal? A column of rising air. 18) Where might you find a thermal on a cross country flight? Beneath or slightly upwind of a cumulus cloud or just downwind of a plowed field or parking lot. 19) What is the thermal index? An index of thermal height and intensity, calculated by comparing temperature soundings at given altitudes with the temperatures projected using the Dry Adiabatic Lapse Rate. 20) Which are better for soaring: positive or negative numbers? Negative numbers indicate atmospheric instability and thus good soaring conditions. 21) How is a thermal index calculated? ? Subtract the projected temperature of the lifted air mass from the actual temperature soundings at any given altitude. 22) How do you calculate the thermal index? Subtract the temperature of the lifted air mass (-5.5 degrees / 1,000 ft. - DALR) from the temperature sounding for a given altitude. 23) What is the temperature / dew point convergence rate? 4.4 degrees F per 1,000 feet. 24) What is atmospheric instability? In contrast to stable air, that resists upward and downward displacement, unstable atmospheric conditions allow vertical disturbances to grow into convective currents. 25) What energy source triggers most thermals? The sun. 26) What is a thermal street? Thermals form in lines, usually parallel to the direction of the wind. These lines of thermals are called “thermal streets.” A cloud street? When the amount of humidity in the air is sufficient to produce cumulus clouds at the tops of thermals, the resulting line of clouds is called a “cloud street.” 27) What do you look for in a cloud for good thermaling? Sharp edges and a dark, concave base, indicating rising air. 28) What do the following cloud prefixes mean? Alto? “High.” Cumulus? “Heap.” Cirro? “Thin.” Stratus? “Layered.” Lenticular? “Lense- shapped.” Rotor? “Spinning.” 29) What is a squall line? A fast moving, narrow band of intense weather. Is it dangerous? Yes. 30) What causes Lenticular clouds? Condensation formed as air is lifted by Mountain Wave. 31) What marks the beginning stages of a thunderstorm? Updrafts forming from the earth’s surface, extending to the condensation point, where the cumulus cloud forms. 32) Can Mountain Wave be present if there are no lenticular clouds? Yes. 33) On which side of a mountain range would you find “wave”? On the lee side of the mountain range. 34) What are some dangers associated with “wave”? (1) Severe turbulence associated with the rotor, (2) Clouds forming beneath the glider, possibly trapping the glider “on top,” (3) sub-zero temperatures, (4) all hazards associated with high-altitude flying, including hypoxia. 35) If you saw a layer of clouds closing beneath you what would you do? Descend immediately. 36) What is a stationary front? When air masses of equal pressure meet, they do not move and are known as stationary fronts. 37) What is ridge lift? Lift caused by an air mass being pushed up and over a ridge line. Where would you find it? On the upwind side of a ridge. 38) What are some hazards associated with ridge lift? (1) Flight in close proximity of the ridge, (2) sinking air on the lee of the ridge. 39) What conditions must exist for “wave” and / or ridge lift to exist? Steady winds of sufficient speed (usu. 15 knots or greater), blowing approximately perpendicular to the ridge. If wind direction exceeds ca. 30 degrees of perpendicular, then there may be no ridge lift. 40) Is a rotor cloud dangerous? Yes. 41) If you planned a cross country flight and then discovered that embedded thunderstorms were forecast along your route of flight, what would you do? Cancel or postpone the flight. 42) What is a temperature inversion? Warm air over the top of colder air.

IV. FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS AND ASSOCIATED AIRCRAFT SYSTEMS 1) What is magnetic variation? The angle formed by the different positions of the “true” north pole and the magnetic north pole as viewed from the compass in the aircraft. 2) How is magnetic variation shown on an aeronautical chart? Isogonic lines. 3) What is magnetic deviation? Compass errors resulting from magnetic fields or electrical disturbances in the vicinity of the compass. What are some causes of variation? Magnets, radios, aircraft instruments, etc. 4) When is a magnetic compass reliable? During an unaccelerated, straight glide. 5) What are the two types of compass errors and what causes them? (1) Turning Error, most pronounced when turning to or from heading of N or S. When turning from a N heading, the compass initially indicates a turn in the wrong direction; when turning form a S heading, the compass initially shows a turn in the correct direction but at an accelerated rate. (2) Acceleration / Deceleration Errors occur when an aircraft increases or decreases speed and are most pronounced on an E or W heading. When accelerating, the compass shows a turn to the N and when decelerating, the compass shows a turn to the S. 6) What is an inclinometer? Also called a “slip indicator,” it shows slips and skids. 7) During a right turn, the ball moves right of center. Which rudder do you press? Right rudder. 8) What does the yaw string show you? The direction of the relative wind with respect to the glider. 9) In a left turn, the tail of the yaw string is left of center. What do you do to center the yaw string? Reduce left rudder pressure. 10) In a left turn, the tail of the yaw string is left of center. What kind of turn is it? A skidding turn. 11) In a right turn, the tail of the yaw string is left of center. What do you do? Increase right rudder pressure. 12) In a left turn, the tail of the yaw string is right of center. What do you do? Increase left rudder pressure. 13) In a left turn, the tail of the yaw string is right of center. What kind of turn is it? A slip. 14) In a forward slip with the right wing low and the left rudder applied, which way will the yaw string be deflected? To the left. 15) When the yaw string indicates a skidding turn and the glider’s nose is high with respect to the horizon, what can happen? A stall with auto-rotation (spin). 16) On final approach with a right crosswind and using a crab for drift control, where will the yaw string be positioned? The yaw string will be centered. A crab is coordinated flight. 17) What is measured by the air speed indicator? Impact air pressure. 18) The air speed indicator is connected to the static ports and the Pitot tube. 19) Can the pitot and static ports become clogged? Yes. With what possible result? Inaccurate ASI, altimeter and VSI indications. 20) When does true airspeed equal indicated airspeed? At sea level on a standard day. 21) What does true airspeed indicate? The actual speed of the aircraft through the air mass. 22) When flying at high altitudes, true airspeed is higher or lower than indicated airspeed? Higher. 23) How do you calculate true airspeed from indicated airspeed? A Flight Computer. What data would you need? Air temperature in degrees C and pressure altitude. (Read TAS on the outer scale opposite CAS) 24) What is pressure altitude? The altitude read from the altimeter when the barometric pressure is set to 29.92 inches of mercury. 25) What does the white arc on an airspeed indicator indicate? Speed range within which flaps can be deployed. Green arc? Normal operating range. Yellow arc? Caution. Smooth air penetration only. Red line? Never exceed speed (Vne). 26) What does the yellow triangle on the Grob-103’s airspeed indicator indicate? The minimum approach speed loaded. 27) What is Vne? Never exceed speed. When is it acceptable to exceed Vne? Never. 28) What speed is associated with the bottom of the green arc? Stall speed. 29) What is Va? Design Maneuvering Speed. How is Va indicated on the airspeed indicator? It isn’t; find this speed in the aircraft operator’s manual. 30) What is measured by the altimeter? Barometric pressure. 31) Describe how an altimeter works. Have student draw the connections. The altimeter is connected to static ports, which allow outside air to move in and out of the system. As the pressure of the outside air changes, an aneroid or “bellows” expands or contracts based on these pressure changes. These changes are calibrated to the display, which indicates an increase or decrease in altitude. 32) How can changing weather conditions affect the altimeter? The barometric pressure can change, rendering the reading on the altimeter inaccurate. 33) How should the altimeter be used during an off-field landing? It should not be used. Height decisions should be made based on angles. 34) When flying cross country, how should the altimeter be set? The current barometric pressure or to the altitude at the airport of departure. If atmospheric conditions vary, adjustments should be made to the setting. 35) When flying from a glider port located in uneven terrain, how should the altimeter be set? At the current barometric pressure or to the altitude at the airport of departure. 36) Do you need to check the altimeter before each takeoff? Yes. Why? The barometric pressure may have changed since the last flight. 37) What does a Variometer measure? Barometric pressure changes and impact airspeed. 38) What information does the variometer provide to the glider pilot? Vertical movements of surrounding air mass. 39) How does a variometer work? By measuring and comparing changes in barometric pressure and impact air pressure. Draw a diagram of the connections. 40) What is an audio variometer? Indications of lift and sink are indicated my changes in the pitch of an audible sound. What are its advantages over a mechanical variometer? The pilot can hear the changes while keeping the eyes “outside the aircraft.” Also, electronic variometers are more accurate and faster to register changes. 41) What is the purpose of the total energy probe? It removes the total energy component of the glider from the indication given by the variometer. 42) What is a “stick thermal”? A false indication of a rising air mass caused by pulling the glider into a climb. 43) Why is the compensator called “total energy”? Because the total energy component of the glider is subtracted from the indication given by the instrument. 44) What could happen if you flew into a cloud without benefit of gyro instruments? You could become spatially disoriented and lose control of the aircraft. 45) What types of electrical systems are found in some gliders? D.C. 46) What colors are associated with the positive and negative poles of a battery? Positive: red and Negative: black. 47) What are the dangers of a lead acid battery? Explosion, acid leaks, which could damage the aircraft, burns to the hands and eyes, etc. 48) What is the frequency range for radio communications in an aircraft? Radio waves travel in straight lines and are limited by line-of-sight. The strength of the transmitter can limit the transmission distances.

V. FLIGHT PREPARATION AND PLANNING 1) How can you get an aviation weather briefing? By telephone (800) WX- BRIEF; in person at a FSS, DUATs, web-based weather resources. 2) How long is an aviation sectional chart current? A Sectional Chart is valid until the published release date for the next version, indicated on the front of the chart (ca. 6 months). 3) How can you tell of your sectional is current? Look at the valid dates on the front of the chart. 4) From a sectional chart: i. Identify Class C airspace around SAT. Student points out solid Magenta line. ii. Can a glider enter Class B airspace? Yes, if it has a two-way radio and a Mode C Transponder and receives permission from ATC. iii. Find Boerne Stage Airfieldt. Student locates Boerne Stage Airfield. iv. What information is given about Boerne Stage Airfield? Airport Code (7F3); MSL Altitude; Length of longest runway (4,000’); (L) Lighted; Uncontrolled (Magenta); UNICOM (123.0); Glider activity. v. What is the Mode C vale? A 30 n.m. area around a designated airport in which all aircraft must have an operating transponder with Mode C capabilities, responding to Mode C interrogations. Gliders are excluded from this requirement as long as they were not originally certificated with a transponder and are not operating within Class B, C or D airspace. vi. What class airspace surrounds Boerne Stage Airfield? Class G, up to 700 AGL. vii. What is the airspace above Boerne Stage Airfield at 1200 feet AGL? Class E. viii. What is the airspace surrounding Majors Field? Class D. To what altitude does this airspace extend? The Class D extends to 3,000 MSL. ix. Can a glider fly into Majors Field? Yes, if it has a two-way radio and gains landing clearance from ATC. x. Where can Class A airspace be found on a sectional chart? Class A airspace is not depicted on a Sectional Chart. xi. What does the magenta coloring around Boerne Stage Airfield tell us? The base of Class E airspace begins at 700 AGL. xii. What does the blue coloring mean? Class E begins at 1,200 AGL and abuts Class G. xiii. What class airspace surrounds Oklahoma City Will Rogers Airport? Class C. xiv. Why are some airports blue while others are magenta? Blue indicates the presence of an operating control tower; magenta indicates an uncontrolled airport. xv. What is the grey line that traverses Boerne Stage Airfield? Victor Airway. How wide is it? 8 n.m. (4 n.m. to either side). What are its vertical limits? From the floor of the controlled airspace (700 AGL) up to Class A. xvi. What Class Airspace is a Victor Airway? Class E/ 5) What are the different classes of airspace? Class A, B, C, D, E and G. 6) Can a glider ever fly into Class A airspace? No – the only exception being when ATC opens a “Wave Window” into Class A to accommodate high- altitude flights in mountain wave. 7) What are the minimum visibility and ceiling clearances for Class B airspace? 3 statute miles, clear of clouds Class E airspace? (1) Below 10,000 MSL - 3 statute miles, 500’ below, 1,000’ above and 2,000’ horizontal of clouds; Above 10,000 MSL – 5 statute miles, 1,000’ below, 1,000’ above and 1 s.m. horizontal of clouds. Class G airspace? 1 statute mile (day) 3 statute miles (night), 500’ below, 1,000’ above and 2,000’ horizontal of clouds. Class D airspace? 3 s.m., 500’ below, 1000’ above and 2000’ horizontal. Class C airspace? 3 s.m., 500’ below, 1000’ above and 2000’ horizontal. 8) Do you have to have permission to enter Class D airspace? Yes. 9) What equipment is required to enter Class C airspace? Two way radio and Mode C transponder. 10) Can a glider without Mode C fly in Class D airspace? Yes. 11) What happens to Class D airspace if the tower closes? It becomes Class E Airspace. 12) How is Class E airspace depicted on a sectional chart? The floor of Class E is not depicted if it begins at the surface. Magenta shading indicates a floor of 700 AGL and blue shading indicates a floor of 1,200 GL if it abuts controlled airspace. 13) When flying in Class E airspace above 10,000 feet MSL, what are the visibility and cloud clearance minimums? 5 s.m., 1000’ below, 1000’ above and 1 s.m. horizontal. 14) Is special use airspace depicted on sectional charts? Yes. 15) Can you fly in Restricted Areas? Yes, but you should get permission from the controlling authority. 16) Can you fly in Prohibited Areas? No. 17) What hazards might you encounter in Restricted Airspace? Artillery, aerial gunnery, guided missiles, etc. 18) What is a MOA? Military Operating Area. What hazards might exist in a MOA? Fast flying military aircraft, combat aerial training, etc. 19) How would you develop a cross country flight plan? After plotting course and obtaining a weather briefing, determine decision points along the route of flight that allow either for a safe return to the a previous landing site or continuation to the next safe landing site. Plot required altitudes at each decision point based on no more than 50% of the aircrafts glide ratio. 20) Explain thermaling techniques, how to find one, how to center one, etc. A thermal is a rising column of air, which may be capped by a developing cumulus cloud. Surrounding the thermal is sinking air. The glider circles in the thermal at minimum sink airspeed, adjusted for bank angle. Thermals can be found under or slightly upwind of cumulus clouds, over dark, plowed fields, etc. When lift is encountered, the glider should continue to fly into the lift, then circle. Bank angle should be increased when the lift weakens and reduced when it increases.

VI. REQUIRED EQUIPMENT AND SUPPLIES 1) What supplies do you need to take on a long flight? Water, Power Bar, cellular telephone, sun screen, hat, sun glasses, sectional, etc. 2) If the flight involves high altitudes, what equipment is required? On- board oxygen system; proper clothing. 3) Is it okay to use medical oxygen in your glider’s oxygen system? No; only Aviator’s Breathing Oxygen should be used. Why not? Medical oxygen may include water vapor, which can freeze and foul the system. 4) What kind of oxygen should be used? Aviator’s Breathing Oxygen 5) What are the principal components of an oxygen system? (1) Storage Tank, (2) Pressure Reducing System, and (3) Mask Assembly. 6) What is the oxygen system preflight checklist? PRICE – Pressure (pressure should read between 1500 and 1800 p.s.i.); Regulator (perform “blowback” test – you should feel resistance); Indicator (move diluter lever to 100% oxygen and check blinker for operation); Connections (check all connections); Emergency (make sure emergency bail out bottle is available). 7) Is it okay to use ordinary lubricants on Oxygen system components? No. Use a silicon-based lubricant. 8) You are at a high altitude and you suspect there is a problem with your oxygen system. What do you do? Descend immediately. 9) Are parachutes ever required in a glider? Yes. When? Parachutes are required for maneuvers in which the aircraft is banked in excess of 60 degrees or when the pitch of the aircraft exceeds 30 degrees above or below the horizon. Parachutes are required when practicing spins. Is a parachute required to practice spins? Yes. 10) Is there ever an occasion when it is legal to spin a glider without wearing a parachute? Yes. The single exception is when spins are taught as part of the training for a rating and when the training is conducted by a CFIG. 11) Where is the best place to store a parachute? Store a parachute in the house or where the temperatures are not excessively cold or hot. 12) Do parachutes ever have to be repacked? Yes. How often? Every 120 days. 13) Who can repack a parachute? Certified Parachute Rigger. 14) How do you know if a parachute has been repacked? Check the parachute log.

VII. AEROMEDICAL FACTORS 1) What is hypoxia? State of oxygen deficiency. What causes it? Reduced barometric pressure at high altitudes. What are the early symptoms? Increased breathing rate, light-headache, fatigue, dizziness. 2) If hypoxia is allowed to develop, what are the possible consequences? Impairment of judgment and motor and metal functions, loss of consciousness, death. 3) Why is hypoxia so dangerous? One of the symptoms is euphoria, which leads the pilot to believe there is not a problem. 4) What is the cure for hypoxia? (1) Use of supplemental oxygen, or (2) decent to a lower altitude. 5) What are the FAR supplemental oxygen requirements? (1) Supplemental oxygen must be used by the PIC for all portions of a flight above 12,500 MSL that is in excess of 30 minutes, (2) for all flight of any duration above 14,000 MSL, and (3) Supplemental oxygen must be available for all passengers for all flight above 15,000 MSL. 6) What is hyperventilation? A condition that can occur when there is a deficiency of carbon dioxide in the blood gases. What are the symptoms? Stress, deep breathing while using supplemental oxygen, increased rate of breathing. 7) What can cause hyperventilation? Insufficient carbon dioxide in the blood gases. Practical causes can include rapid breathing due to stress. 8) How do you stop hyperventilation if it occurs? Slow rate of breathing, talk out loud, sing, breath into a paper bag for a few minutes. 9) Why are ear and sinus problems potentially dangerous to the pilot? Debilitating pain can develop with the pressure changes encountered in flight, especially during rapid descents. 10) Can the pilot prevent ear and sinus problems with medicines? Yes, but caution should be used since medications can cause reduced alertness, drowsiness and loss of motor skills. 11) What is spatial disorientation? Vertigo can occur when the pilot loses visual reference cues, e.g., when flying in reduced visibility. When can it occur? When visibility is reduced, loss of the horizon, in a cloud, etc. 12) What can spatial disorientation lead to in an aircraft? Vertigo can lead to loss of control, stall, and spin or death spiral. 13) What would you do if you were caught above a cloud layer with no choice but to descend through it? Trim to 50 knots prior to entering cloud layer, take hands and feet completely off the controls and open the dive breaks to 100 percent. Do not touch the controls until visibility is regained. 14) What are the common causes of motion sickness? Anxiety, nervousness, unfamiliarity with the motion and sensations of flight, not looking out of the aircraft, etc. 15) What are the early symptoms of motion sickness? Sweating, dizziness, sense of being disoriented, etc. 16) What would you do if you noticed early signs of motion sickness in yourself? Open air vents, loosen clothing, use supplemental oxygen, if available - land immediately. In a passenger? Open air vents, loosen clothing, use supplemental oxygen, if available - land immediately. 17) How do you know if someone is getting sick? They usually quit talking. 18) What should you do if you or your passenger begins to get motion sickness? Open air vents, loosen clothing, use supplemental oxygen, if available - land immediately 19) What is the medical problem most likely to occur here in Texas? Dehydration. 20) What is dehydration? Critical loss of fluids from the body, usually through sweating. 21) How can you avoid dehydration? Drink plenty of water before the flight and during the flight. Wear light-colored clothing. 22) What can dehydration lead to? Heat stroke. 23) Has dehydration been found to be the cause of a number of glider accidents? Yes. 24) Can dehydration occur on a cloudy day? Yes. 25) Will colas, coffee or tea help prevent dehydration? No; they will exacerbate the problem because they are diuretics. 26) Can alcohol consumed the night before a flight contribute to dehydration? Yes. 27) Is alcohol a stimulant or a depressant? Depressant. 28) What do the FAR’s require with respect to flying and drinking? A pilot should no operate an aircraft for at least 8 hours after consuming an alcoholic beverage. Most pilots agree that one should not fly for at least twelve hours. 29) What is the minimum time between drinking and piloting? 8 hours. Does meeting this standard guarantee the pilot is in good condition to fly? No. 30) What would you do if nine hours had elapsed between drinking and your planned flight time but you felt hung over? Cancel the flight. 31) Is the effect of alcohol affected by altitude? Yes. How? The effect of alcohol is more pronounced with an increase in altitude. 32) How would you apply this fact when you make the decision to fly as PIC? If I had consumed alcohol with the past eight hours, or if I felt the least bit impaired, I would not fly. 33) Is it safe to take over-the-counter drugs and pilot a glider? Over-the- counter drugs can impair judgment and motor function; care should be taken when using over-the-counter drugs. 34) Why is it potentially unsafe to fly shortly after scuba diving? The increased pressures encountered when diving cause the body to absorb more nitrogen. The lower pressures encountered in flight can result in a case of “the bends.” 35) What are the minimum times between scuba diving and flying? 24 hours. 36) Are you responsible to ensure you are medically capable of flying before acting as PIC of a glider? Yes.

VIII. GROUND OPERATIONS 1) Assembly Procedures: i. Describe the assembly procedure: Assembly should be conducted using a written check list. All tools should be accounted for after assembly. Before the first flight following assembly, a positive control check should be conducted. ii. Have student explain and draw how the wing pins and control hook ups work in the Grob-103. Student draws and explains the hook ups. iii. What is the best insurance that you have performed every element of the assembly process? Use a check list and conduct a positive control check. iv. What is a positive control check? A PCC is a method for insuring that the controls are properly connected following assembly. The pilot attempts to move the controls (stick / rudder) while a crew member holds the associated control surface in a fully-deflected position. No “slack” should be observed in the controls. v. When is it imperative that you perform a positive control check? Following each assembly. 2) Ground Handling: i. How long should the rope be to tow the glider behind the golf cart? The minimum rope length should be at least 5 feet longer than one- half the wing span. ii. Is it safe to tow the glider on the ground with the canopy open or unlocked? No. 3) Visual Inspection: i. Explain the Visual Line Check (ABCD). Airframe, Ballast, Controls, Tail Dolly. ii. Why do we preflight the glider? To determine that the glider is airworthy. iii. Explain the preflight inspection? Look at the airframe, all control surfaces and connections. Make sure the static ports, pitot, etc, are clear. Check tires for pressure and wear. Check breaks for proper movement. Ensure controls move in the proper direction and that proper ballast is installed or removed from the aircraft. What are we looking for? Anything that doesn’t look right. iv. How often do you perform a line inspection of the glider? Before each series of flights, i.e., if the pilot is going to take three tows, the line inspection should be made before the first flight of the series. v. What is the range of breaking strength of the tow rope? Minimum: not less than 80% of the maximum certificated weight of the glider; maximum, 2X the certificated weight of the glider. vi. What is a weak link? A safety link is installed at the point of attachment to the glider that meets the minimum and maximum tensile strengths required for the glider being towed. What is it used for? Allows the glider to be towed using a rope that exceeds the maximum tensile strength for that glider by proving a section of rope that will break within the limits of the FAR’s for that glider. vii. Why do you check for knots in the rope? A knot reduces the tensile strength of a rope by 50 percent. 4) Pre-Takeoff Check: i. Explain the pre-takeoff check (CB-SIT-CBE). Controls, Ballast, Seat Belts / Harness, Instruments, Trim, Canopy, Brakes, Emergency procedures. ii. If you do not have a backseat passenger, explain your actions with regard to the rear cockpit. Fasten read cockpit seat belts and harness, ensure “heat shields” are removed from rear controls, secure loose objects, and close and lock canopy and close window. iii. Explain emergency tow release planning. Check wind speed and direction and determine what options are available under prevailing conditions. What observations are necessary before climbing into the cockpit? Wind speed and direction. iv. What are your options if the rope breaks: 1. @ 50 feet? Land straight ahead; directional control to avoid colliding with tow plane. 2. @ 100 feet? Land straight ahead, if possible; turns not to exceed 30 degrees from runway heading. 3. @ 200 feet? If conditions allow, an option is to make a 180 degree turn for a downwind landing. 4. @ 500 feet? Modified pattern or downwind landing. 5) Post Flight Check: i. What do you do to the glider after the flight is over? Push glider off the runway, secure controls. ii. What if the winds are strong and gusty? Lock dive brakes in open position using seat belt. IX. AEROTOW LAUNCH PROCEDURES 1) Visual Signals - Explain the following signals: i. Pilot points “thumbs up”? Level wings. ii. Glider’s wings held level by lineman? Lineman awaiting launch signal from pilot. Ready for launch. iii. Wingman waves arm below waist? Take up slack. iv. Glider wags rudder? Ready to launch. v. Wingman rotates arm? Signal to tow plane that glider is ready to launch. vi. Tow plane rocks wings? Distress! Release immediately. vii. Glider rocks wings? Speed up. viii. Tow plane fishtails with rudder? Tow plane cannot release. ix. Tow plane wags rudder? “Something is wrong with the glider! Check Dive Brakes! x. Glider fishtails with rudder? Slow down. xi. Glider moves from center and rocks wings? Glider can’t release. xii. Glider moves to the right of the tow plane? Turn left. 2) Use the model glider to explain a crosswind takeoff. Student demonstrates cross wind landing technique. 3) What do you do if you lose sight of the tow plane while on tow? Release immediately. 4) Why is slack line dangerous? Slack indicates that the glider has accelerated toward the tow plane. Slack rope can wrap around the glider’s wing, damage control surfaces, make it impossible to release, etc. 5) What are some of the causes of slack line? Turbulence, getting “outside” of a turn and accelerating, turning “inside” the tow plane, getting high on tow, then diving to reestablish position, etc. 6) What options do you have to correct slack in the line? Yaw away from the slack, gently open dive brakes, or RELEASE! 7) What would you do if the slack line were about to wrap around your wing? Release! 8) Why do we box the wake? (1) To demonstrate knowledge of where the tow plane’s wake is, and (2) to demonstrate facility in “flying the tow.” 9) Early in the tow, you notice the canopy is not latched. What would you do? Maintain aircraft control (keep flying!), latch canopy, if possible, continue flying on tow until reaching a safe altitude, induce slight slip to put airflow over the canopy so that it does not blow open (in the Grob, this would require slight left rudder). 10) Explain the proper tow release sequence and associated safety factors? (1) Prior to reaching release altitude, “clear the area, left and right, for the glider and the tow plane. Do not release if the release and subsequent turn would create the possibility of a collision for either aircraft. (2) Assuming the area is clear to all sides, establish good tow position and ensure the glider has not slipped into a low position with regard to the tow plane (this reduces the possibility of a “rope strike”). (3) Clear the area to the right and left once more. (4) Pull the release twice and visually verify that the rope is away before turning. (5) Initiate a level turn to the right and maintain the turn until the tow plane is in sight. 11) Abnormal occurrences during aerotow: i. What do you do if the rope will not release? Don’t panic. Fly the glider. Move slightly higher in the tow and try again. Take tension off rope with shallow dive and try again. How would you signal the tow plane? Move slowly to the left and rock the wings. Return to normal tow position. ii. Would you move to the left or to the right to signal the tow plane? Left. Why? Moving left and not right minimizes the possibility that the tow pilot will think the glider has released, which could result in his starting a steep, diving left turn. iii. What would you do if neither you nor the tow plane could release? (1) Move to the low tow position and be prepared for a shallow descent to land. (2) Use dive brakes as necessary to prevent overtaking the tow plane. (3) The glider should land first using only dive brakes (no wheel brake) until the tow plane is on the ground. (4) Avoid collision with tow plane. iv. What do you do if you begin to overtake the tow plane just after becoming airborne on takeoff? Release ASAP; the tow plane may have lost power. Avoid colliding with the tow plane. v. What do you do if the tow plane continues a steady descent for ten seconds or more? Release; the tow plane may be in distress. vi. What do you do if the rope breaks at altitude? Release any part of the rope that may be attached to the glider by pulling several times on the release handle.

X. INFLIGHT MANEUVERS 1) What is the difference in a crab and a slip? A crab is coordinated flight used to maintain desired course across the ground. A slip is uncoordinated flight used to dissipate excess altitude or counter the drift of a crosswind during final approach. 2) What are the two types of slips and what are they used for? Forward Slip: used to dissipate excess altitude without corresponding increase in airspeed. Side Slip: used to counter drift during a crosswind landing. 3) How does a glider feel at critically slow airspeeds? The controls will feel “soft” or “mushy” (ineffective). 4) What is a stall? The wing ceases to produce sufficient lift to sustain flight. What causes it? Exceeding the critical angle of attack (AOA). 5) When are stalls most likely to occur? (1) When entering the pattern at a lower than usual altitude, then trying to “stretch” the pattern, (2) when thermaling at low altitudes, and (3) when performing a 180 degree turn following a low altitude rope brake. 6) What are the six signs of an impending stall (in order)? i. Excessive Back Pressure on the stick ii. Aircraft’s nose is high with respect to the horizon iii. Low indication on the ASI iv. Quiet v. Mushy feel to the controls vi. Vibration or buffeting of the empennage 7) How do you recover from a stall? Reduce the back pressure to reduce AOA. 8) What should you do before intentionally stalling an aircraft? (1) Perform clearing turns to ensure no aircraft and in the vicinity, (2) then ensure sufficient altitude exists for a safe recovery. 9) What is the minimum altitude at which you should practice stalls? 2000 AGL 10) What do you do if a wing begins to drop as at a critically slow airspeed? Neutralize aileron and use opposite rudder to level the wings. 11) What should you never do if a wing begins to drop at a critically slow airspeed? Never try to recover to level flight with aileron. 12) What is a spin? A spin is a condition in which one wing is stalled and not producing lift, while the other is still producing some lift. This results in autorotation or “a spin.” Explain the difference in a stall and a spin. In a stall, both wings are stalled; in a spin, only one wing is fully stalled, while the other is still producing some lift. This asymmetrical lift produces autorotation or “a spin.” 13) When are spins most likely to occur? Spins can only occur if preceded by a stall. The three most likely scenarios for spins are: (1) When entering the pattern at a lower than usual altitude, then trying to “stretch” the pattern, (2) when thermaling at low altitudes, and (3) when performing a 180 degree turn following a low altitude rope brake. 14) How do you recover from a spin? (1) Neutralize the ailerons (center the stick), (2) Apply rudder opposite the direction of the rotation, (3) When rotation stops, neutralize the rudders, (4) Use forward elevator to break the stall – PAUSE to let airspeed to increase, then (5) position the nose in a normal glide attitude. 15) Should you practice spins without having first received dual instruction in spin recovery? No.

XI. SOARING TECHNIQUES 1) Thermal Soaring: i. What speed do you fly in a thermal? Minimum Sink, adjusted for bank attitude. What is this speed in the Grob-103 for solo flight? 43 knots. Dual flight? 46 Knots. ii. How do you calculate the minimum sink airspeed, corrected for bank angle, in a 45 / 60 degree thermaling turn? The stall speed increases in proportion to the square root of the wing loading. For example, a 45 degree bank angle will result in 1.4 G’s in a level turn. The square root of 1.4 G’s is ca. 1.2. In a 60 degree banked turn, the wing loading is 2.0 G’s. The square root of 2.0 is ca. 1.4. Therefore, the stall speed increase by ca. 20% in a 45 degree banked turn and ca. 40% in a 60 degree banked turn. iii. What causes most thermals? Solar heating. What is their shape? Thermals are rising columns of air that get wider as their height increases. They tend to drift downwind. iv. What part of a thermal has the greatest lift? The center (core) of the thermal. v. How do you center a thermal? Fly into the lift for about 5 seconds, then initiate a turn. Shallow the bank when lift increases and steepen the bank when it diminishes. vi. How do you know which way to turn in a thermal? You make an educated guess based on what you see. vii. Why is pitch control critical to centering a thermal? Pitch control directly affects airspeed. Airspeed variations prevent the glider from turning in a circle, thus making it difficult to center the thermal. viii. Why are coordinated turns critical in maximizing the glider’s performance in a thermal? Uncoordinated flight is inefficient flight and produces more drag. ix. What are some indications of the presence of a thermal? Cumulus clouds with sharp edges and concave, dark bottoms; surrounding sink encountered in the vicinity of a thermal indicates a high- likelihood of thermals. x. What is a thermal street? Thermals tend to develop in rows, parallel to the direction of the prevailing winds. When a series of thermals form, they are called “thermal streets.” xi. What is the best bank angle for thermaling? The shallowest bank possible that keeps the glider in the core of the thermal – usually between 30 degrees and 45 degrees. xii. What performance penalty is incurred by increasing the bank angle of a thermaling turn? The sink rate of the glider increases as the wing loading increases, requiring that the wing be flown at a higher AOA to produce the necessary lift to sustain level flight. This creates drag. xiii. What is found just outside an area of lift? SINK! xiv. If you are losing a thermal, how to you re-center it? Continue the turn until the lift increases. As soon as lift increases, level the wings and fly straight for 4 to 5 seconds, then resume the turn. xv. What do you do if you make several turns and do not center the thermal? Depart for greener pastures. xvi. How can you estimate the wind speed and direction at altitude? Turn 360 degrees and observe ground speed changes and drift angles. xvii. How do you join a thermal if another glider already is in the thermal? Enter the thermal using a wide turn in the same direction as the other glider. Maintain separation from the other glider and tighten the turn until the thermal is centered. xviii. Who sets the direction of the turn in a thermal? The first glider to enter the thermal sets the direction of the turn. xix. On a cross country flight, at what altitude should you have a couple of fields in mind for a possible emergency landing? (1) General landing “areas” should be determined by 3,000 AGL; (2) begin narrowing the possibilities by 2,000 AGL; (3) By 1,500 AGL, a specific field should be selected. xx. What is the lowest altitude for safe thermaling? A safe thermaling altitude varies with skill level. Student pilots should limit thermaling to a minimum altitude of 1,500 AGL. xxi. You have entered the traffic pattern to land and the variometer indicates a strong thermal. What do you do? You have committed to land so land the glider and take another tow. DO NOT thermal in the landing pattern. 2) Ridge Soaring: i. Draw a ridge and have the student show where the lift will be found. Student should show lift on the upwind side of the ridge. ii. Have the student draw the wind angles to the ridge that will result in ridge lift. Angles should not exceed 30 degrees off perpendicular to the ridge line. iii. How do you reverse direction when flying in ridge lift? ALWAYS turn away from the ridge line. Why? The area of ridge lift is small so by necessity, you are flying low and close to the ridge line. Turning toward the ridge will mean you will have a tailwind toward the ridge after 90 degrees of the turn. In all likelihood, the glider will drift over the ridge line and into the sink on the lee of the ridge. You will not make it back over the ridge in the lee sink and may crash into the ridge if you try. iv. What atmospheric condition characterizes the lee of the ridge? SINK! v. If you overtake a glider flying ridge, where do you pass that glider? Between the glider and the ridge, being careful not to drift over the ridge line. vi. What should you do if the lift begins to diminish? Return to land, if possible or find a suitable off-field landing site. vii. If you must cross a ridge, what angle is the best to fly over the ridge? 45 degrees – this allows you to turn away quickly if sink is encountered. viii. What hazards accompany crossing a ridge? Turbulence, birds low to the ground, flight in proximity of the ridge, trees, etc., sink in the lee of the ridge, other gliders in close proximity of the ridge (and you), little time to make landing decisions if the lift quits, etc., 3) Mountain Wave Soaring: i. Draw a mountain range and have the student locate: 1. The lift: Student should indicate lift on the lee of the mountain range and at the crest of the sine wave. 2. The rotor: Student should locate the rotor between the areas of lift. 3. The sink: Student should locate the sink above the rotor. ii. Is “wave” smooth or turbulent? Smooth iii. Where is the lift in wave with respect to lenticular clouds? The lenticulars form in the area of lift. They can form beneath a glider that is soaring in wave. iv. You are in wave and notice the clouds closing beneath you. What do you do? Descend below the forming clouds. v. How could you descend rapidly without overstressing the glider? Open dive breaks and fly under Va. vi. What must you do to fly above FL180? Get permission from ATC to enter a “wave window.” vii. What dangers are associated with “wave”? All of the dangers of high-altitude flying, including hypoxia and extreme temperatures, clouds forming beneath the glider and trapping the aircraft “on top,” and the severe turbulence associated with the rotor cloud. viii. At high altitudes, what happens to Vne? Vne at high altitudes is reduced.

XII. APPROACHES AND LANDINGS 1) Have student draw and explain the elements of the traffic pattern. Student draws traffic pattern. 2) What other coexisting traffic patterns are in effect at Boerne Stage Airfield? Glider & power traffic is West of airfield RW 17 / 35, Right hand pattern. 3) What is the pre-landing checklist? The pre-landing checklist is a series of items that must be checked prior to entering the traffic pattern to land. These items include: Surface observation (traffic on the runway, in the pattern, wind direction and speed, etc.), Radio (transmit position and intentions); Check Dive Brakes, Trim for approach speed, set flaps, lower landing gear. 4) How should you use the altimeter on downwind, base and final? The altimeter should not be used after entering the pattern; use angle reference points. 5) Is it okay to thermal in the traffic pattern? No. 6) What is the approach speed for your aircraft in the traffic pattern? Grob- 103: 60 knots. Under what conditions might the speed change? Strong wind gradient, cross winds, etc. 7) At what altitude should you arrive over the IP? 1,000 AGL 8) What is “wind gradient” and why is it important to understand it? Wind gradient is a change (reduction) in wind speed with as a glider descends to land. What potential dangers does a strong wind gradient pose? Loss of airspeed margin, steepening of glide slope. Potential stall or landing short. 9) How can you tell the wind speed and direction at altitude? Look for smoke drifting, particularly the angle of drift. Look at cloud shadows. Track the drift of the glider in a 360 degree turn. 10) When flying a crab in the pattern, is the glider being flown in a coordinated manner? Yes. 11) When flying a slip in the pattern, is the glider being flown in a coordinated manner? No. 12) What kind of slip is used on final to counter crosswind? Side slip. 13) If there is a right crosswind, which wing is held low? The right wing. Why? Lowering the right wing slips the plane in the direction of the cross wind, thus countering drift. 14) What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind component for the Grob- 103? 11 knots. When is it okay to exceed it? Never. 15) How do you determine crosswind component? Use the scale on the flight computer. 16) In a side slip, which way is the longitudinal axis of the glider pointed with respect to the ground track? The side slip is used to align the longitudinal axis of the aircraft with the centerline of the runway. So the L-axis is parallel with the ground track. 17) In a forward slip, is the longitudinal axis of the glider aligned with the ground track? No. 18) When is a forward slip useful? When it is necessary to dissipate excess altitude without a corresponding increase in air speed.

XIII. DOWNWIND LANDINGS 1) What is the principal danger of a downwind landing? Overshooting the desired landing area. 2) When performing a downwind landing, what effect will wind gradient have on our airspeed? Airspeed will tend to increase as the glider descends. 3) What airspeed do you fly on a downwind approach? The same airspeeds that are flown during a normal approach into the wind. 4) What illusion may occur during a downwind landing? The increased ground speed may create a tendency to fly at too low an airspeed. What is a possible result? A stall. 5) What will happen to control effectiveness as the glider slows from a downwind landing? The controls will become inoperative at a much higher ground speed. 6) How do you know when to touch down on a downwind landing? The glider will land when it is ready to land, just as in a normal approach.

XIV. OFF-FIELD LANDINGS 1) By what altitude should you have a filed selected? 1,500 AGL 2) What do you look for in an off-field landing site? Smooth, recently cultivate field. Earth color is best, while light green is preferable to yellow, which could indicate corn or sunflowers. Avoid freshly plowed fields, which have deep furrows and large clods. 3) How do you fly the pattern for an off field landing? Fly a normal pattern, being careful not to fly too high an approach or too close in on downwind. 4) If you arrive at the selected field lower than the usual pattern height, what kind of pattern would you fly? An abbreviated pattern.

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