REVISION PAPERS FOR ANNUAL EXAMINATION 2019-20
Std :XI ACCOUNTANCY Marks: 80 Time: 3 Hrs GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS: 1. Marks are indicated against each question. 2. All parts of a question should be attempted in one place. 3. Show working notes clearly Part - A
1 The party which is entitled to receive the payment of bill of exchange is known as,,,,, 1 a) Drawer b) Drawee c) Payee d) Debtor 2 If accounting information is based on facts and it is verifiable by documents it has the 1 quality of………………. 3 Which of the following is not a limitation of accounting 1 a)Based on accounting conventions b) Evidence in legal matters c)Incomplete information d)Omission of Qualitative information 4 Identify the Goods and services which are exempt from levy of GST. 1 a)Purchase of Asset b) Sale of goods c) Payment of salary and wages d) Paid legal consultation fee 5 Give one transaction that will decrease the asset and decrease the liability. 1
6 If total assets of a business are `10,00,000 and capital is `4,00,000, Calculate creditors. 1 7. Under which method the rate of depreciation remains constant whereas the amount of 1 depreciation goes on decreasing from year to year. 8. What is the meaning of ‘ rebate’ with reference to Bill of Exchange.. 1
9 What do you mean by Imprest System of Petty Cash Book ? 1 . 10 On May 1 2016 , cash book bank overdraft balance was` 2000. On depositing `10,000 1 into bank and giving a cheque of` 7,200 for rent , What will be the balance amount in the cash book? 11 Ravi purchased on credit goods for `5,00,000 Less 20% Trade discount. As per the 1 terms , he can deduct 4% Cash discount if he pays full amount within 15 days. What amount he will have to pay to avail the cash discount. 12 When a firm maintains a cash book , it need not maintain………. 1 a) Journal Proper b) Purchase book c) Sales book d) Cash and Bank Accounts in Ledger 13 Provision is made to meet an unknown liability is the Statement True or False. 14 Name the type of reserve where profits on sale of fixed asset can be transferred . 1 15 On 1 July 2017, Cherin sold goods to Dinesh at a list price of ` 50,000 at 20% trade 3 discount and on the same day drew a bill on Dinesh for the amount due payable after three months. Dinesh accepted the bill . On 4th September 2017 . Dinesh retires his acceptance receiving a rebate of 15% p.a . Pass entries in the books of Dinesh.. 16 Record the following transactions in Journal. 3 i. A on whom we had drawn a bill of ` 2,500 has become insolvent and 40% has been received in final payment. ii. Commission earned but not received amounts to ` 500. iii. Book value of a machinery worth ` 2,00,000 was sold for` 2,10,000.
17. A. Explain Cost Concept and Dual Principle 4 B. Differentiate between Reserves and Provision 18 From the following particulars prepare a Bank Reconciliation Statement of S Ken as on 4 30 June 2017. i) Balance as per Pass book on 30 June 2017 `6,000. ii) Out of total Cheques amounting to `12,000 deposited, Cheques aggregating `7,500 credited in June 2017, Cheques aggregating `2000 were credited in July 2017 and the rest have not been collected at all iii) Bank has charged `37 as its commission for collecting outstation cheques and has allowed interest 330 on his bank balance. iv) Amount wrongly debited by bank ` 2,400. v) A cheque of 13,300 paid into the bank was returned dishonoured but no intimation was received from the bank till June 2017.
19 Trial Balance of Mr. Dev did not agree . He put the difference to Suspense A/c and 4 discovered the following errors. 1. Bill of `2500 endorsed to Xavens not recorded in the books of account. 2. Purchase return book was overcast by `300. 3. Salary for the month of March was posted twice. `155. 4. Goods returned to Renu `3000 recorded through sales book as `1000. 5. Furniture purchased from Neetu `6,000 was recorded through purchases book as `5000 posted to the debit of Neetu 2,000. Rectify the errors and Prepare Suspense A/c.
20. April Bank A/c Dr 30,000 6 1 Furniture 20,000 - To Capital ------To Creditors 10,000 ( The opening entry made for balance brought forward and difference adjusted through capital A/c)
April ………………. A/c Dr 10th To ……………………… ----- …………. To…………………….. …………. (Goods of the list price of 8000 purchased at 20% trade discount and 5% c ash discount.)
April ………………………… Dr 3000 20th ------To ………………A/c (Bill sent to bank for collection is ------honoured.)
April ………………………….. Dr 10,000 30th To ………………………………………. ------Adjustment entries for Closing stock) ------a) Fill in the missing figures
21. Record the following transactions in the Sales Book, Purchase Book and Purchase 6 return books of Ganesh Electronics Date 2018 Sold to R.K Electronics vide invoice No 431 assuming CGST @ 9% and SGST 22 @ 9% April 5 T.V sets @20,000 each Less : Trade discount 20% 22 Sold to G Electronics Vide invoice No 432 April 10 Washing machines @ 8,000 each Less : Trade discount 25% April Purchased goods from Surya on credit assuming CGST @ 6%and SGST @ 6%. 15 40 Tubelights @`500each 15 Table fans @`2000 each Trade discount 20% May Returned goods to Surya 5 Tubelights assuming CGST @ 6%and SGST @ 6%. 27
22 a) On 1st April 2015, X Ltd. purchased a machinery for ` 12,00,000. On 1st Oct, 8 2016, a part of machinery purchased on 1st April, 2015 for ` 80,000 was sold for ` 45,000 and a new machine at the cost of ` 1,58,000 was purchased and installed on the same date. The company adopted the method of providing 10%p.a depreciation on the Diminishing balance of the machinery. Accounts are closed on 31st March every year. Prepare machinery account for 1st April 2015 to 31st March 2017.
b) ABC Ltd books showed on 1st April, 2016 following balances: ` Plant Account 1,00,000 Provision for Depreciation A/c 12,500
On 1st October, 2016 an additional plant was purchased costing ` 50,000. On 1st October, 2016 the plant purchased on 1st April, 2015 for ` 50,000 became obsolete and was sold for ` 20,000. Depreciation is provided @ 10% p.a on the original cost on 31st March every year. Show Machinery Account and Provision for Depreciation Account for the financial year 2016-17.
23 On 1 April 2016, A sold goods to B for ` 1,00,000 received ` 25,000 in cash and drew 8 two bills, first for ` 45,000 and second for ` 30,000 of two months each. Both bills were duly accepted by B. The first bill was endorsed to C in full settlement of his account of ` 45,250 and the second bill was discounted from the bank at the rate of 12% p.a. On the due date B settled the amount to C but the second bill got dishonoured and the bank paid ` 80 as noting charges. Two days after dishonour of bill, B paid ` 10,000 to A and requested him to draw another bill payable after two months for the balance including interest @ 5% p.a. A accepted the proposal and draws the bill on B, which was accepted by B and was duly met on maturity. Pass journal entries for the above transactions in the books of A.
Part –B
24 Generally accounts under single entry system are maintained by: 1 a) Sole trader b) Company c) Non -profit entity d) Government 25. Give one advantage of Customised software. 1 26 What are Deferred Revenue expenditure 1 27 Prepaid expense are treated as liquid assets. Is the statement true or false. 1 28 State any two features of incomplete records 1
29 Calculate the gross profit if rate of gross profit is 25% on sales and cost of goods sold 1 are`1.80.000. a. `60,000 b. `36,000 c. `45,000 d. `30,000 30 Differentiate between Readymade Software & Customised Software 3
31 Kumar, a trader does not keep proper books of accounts. He wants to know the result 4 of the business in 31st Dec 2017 and for that following information are available. Particulars Ist Jan, 31st Dec, 2017 2017 ` ` Cash in hand 3,000 3,500 Bank Balance 14,800 15,200 Furniture 2,000 2,000 Office equipment 4000 5000 Stock 40,000 45,000 Creditors 30,000 20,000 Debtors 15,000 16,400 During the year he had withdrawn `1,200 per month for his personal use and introduced ` 5,600 as additional capital. Write off depreciation on furniture @10% and on office equipment @ 5%p.a. ` 400 irrecoverable from Debtors. Expenses outstanding ` 1,000. Calculate his profit on 31st Dec, 2017 32 8 The following balances were extracted from the books of Mr Joshi on 31st March 2016: S.No Name of Accounts Debit (`) Credit (`) 1 Plant and Machinery 1,50,000 2 Office furniture & fittings 2,600 3 Capital and Drawings 7,000 2,00,000 4 Stock (1/4/2015) 48,000 5 Accrued Commission 12,000 6 Debtors & Creditors 45,700 52,000 7 Rent 2,800 8 Cash in hand 3600 9 Cash at Bank 6,500 10 Bad debts & Provision for 700 2,500 doubtful debts 11 Purchase & Sales 1,37,200 2,20,000 12 Purchase Returns & Sales 9,300 5,500 Returns 13 Bills Payable 3,000 14 Factory lighting and Heating 800 15 Wages 15,000 16 Discount allowed & Discount 6,500 3,700 Received 17 General Expenses 4,000 18 Depreciation on Machinery 12,000 19 Salaries 14,000 20 Insurance 9,000 - 4,86,700 - 4,86,700
i. Stock on 31st March 2016 was valued at ` 32,000 ii. Write off a further bad debts of ` 700 and provision for doubtful debts is to be maintained at 6% on debtors. iii. Provide manager commission at 5% on the net profit after charging such commission. iv. During the year machinery was purchased for 20,000 but it was debited to the purchases account. Prepare a final accounts for the year ended 31st March, 2016 giving effect to the above adjustments.
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Answer Key Revision for Annul Exam 2019-20 Accountancy Class XI 1 c)Payee 1 2 Reliability 1 3 d)Omission of Qualitative information 1 4 c)Payment of salary and wages 1 5 Payment of liabilities 1 6 Creditors `6,00,000 1 7 Written Down Value Method. 1 8 Rebate is a discount allowed by the payee to the drawee when the drawee makes the 1 payment before its due date. 9 Under this system , the Petty cashier is given a definite amount in advance to meet 1 petty expenses. 10 Cash book balance 800. 1
11. Purchase `5,00,000 1 Less : Trade discount @20% `1,00,000 `4,00,000 Less : Cash discount @4% (4,00,000) -16,000 Amount to be paid `3,84,000
12. Cash and Bank Accounts in Ledger 1 13 True 1
14 The reserves created out of capital profits are known as Capital Reserves. 1
15. 3 Date Particulars L.F Dr Cr July Purchase A/c Dr 40,000 To Cherin A/c 40,000 (Purchase goods on credit) Cherin A/c Dr 40,000 To Bill.Payable A/c 40,000 ( Bill accepted) Bill.Payable A/c Dr 40,000 To Bank A/c 39500 To Rebate A/c 500. ( Retirement of a bill) Rebate 500(40,000x15/100 x1/12)
16 4 i) Bank A/c Dr 1000 Bad debt A/c Dr 1500 To A Capital A/c 2,500 ( Received a final dividend of 40% from A) iii) Commission earned A/c Dr 500 To Commission A/c 500 (Unearned commission) iv) Bank A/c dr 2,10,000 To Profit & Loss A/c 10,000 To Machine A/c 2,00,000 ( Sale of machinery at a profit.)
17 4
A) Cost concept : The cost concept requires that all assets are recorded in the books of accountant at their cost price, which includes cost of acquisition, transportation , installation and making the asset ready for the use,
Dual aspect : This concept requires that every transaction has a dual or two fold effect on various accounts and should therefore be recorded at two places. The duality principle is commonly expressed in terms of fundamental accounting equation which is : Asset = Liabilities + Capital B) Reserves Provision Appropriation of profits Charge against profit It is made for strengthening the financial It is created for a known liability position of the business It has no effect on taxable profit It reduces taxable profit It can be used for dividend distribution. It cannot be used for dividend distribution.
18. 4 Bank Reconciliation Statement Particulars Debit Credit Balance as per Pass book 6000 Cheque deposited 4500 Commssion charged 37 Interest allowed 330 Amount wrongly debited 2,400 Cheque returned dishonoured 13,300 Overdraft balance as per cash book 25,907
26,237 26,237
19. Rectify the errors and Prepare Suspense A/c. 4
1 Xavens A/c dr 2500 To Bill receivable A/c 2500 ( Bill endorsed to Xavens ) 2 Purchase return A/c Dr 300 To Suspense A/c 300 ( Purchase return book overcast) 3 Suspense A/c Dr 155 To Salary A/c Dr 155 ( Salary posted twice now rectified) 4 Sales A/c Dr 1000 Renu A/c 2000 To Purchase return A/c 3000 (Goods returned to Renu wrongly recorded through sales book now rectified.) 5 Furniture A/c Dr 6000 Suspense A/c Dr 7000 To Neetu A/c 8000 To Purchase A/c 5000. ( Furniture purchased wrongly recorded through Purchased and posted to debit of Neetu now rectified.)
Suspense A/c To Salary 155 By Balance c/d 7155 To Neetu 7000 7155 7155
20 April Bank A/c Dr 30,000 4 1 Furniture 20,000 - To Capital 40,000 To Creditors 10,000 ( The opening entry made for balance brought forward and difference adjusted through capital A/c)
April Purchase A/c Dr 6400 10th To Discount A/c 320 T0 Cash A/c.. 6080 (Goods of the list price of 8000 purchased at 20% trade discount and 5% c ash discount.)
April Bank Dr 3000 20th To Bill sent for Collection A/c (Bill sent to bank for collection is 3,000 honoured.)
April Closing stock A/c Dr 10,000 30th To Trading a/c 10,000 Adjustment entries for Closing stock)
21. 6 Surya 5 Tubelights@ `500 each Less :T,D 20%
Add:CGST @ 6% SGST @ 6%
22 8 Machinery A/c 15 ` 2016 ` Apr 1 To Bank A/c 12,00,000 Mar By Depreciation A/c 11,20,000 31 (112000 + 1,20,000 80,000 8000) 10,80,000 Mar By balance c/d 12,00,000 31 12,00,000
2016 To balance b/d By Depreciation A/c April 10,80,000 2017 72,000 x 10/100 x 3,600 Oct 1 6/12 Oct 1 To BankA/c Jan 1 1,58,000 Jan1 By Bank A/c 45,000 By Profit & Loss A/c 23,400 Mar (loss) 1 31 68,400 – 45,000 By Depreciation 1,00,800 1,08,700 7900 Mar By balance c/d 31 9,07200 II 1,50,100 10,57,300 12,38,000 Mar 12,38,000 31
Machinery A/c 2016 ` 2016 ` April To balance 1,00,000 Oct 1 By Bank A/c 20,000 1 b/d 50,000 Oct 1 By Provision for 7,500 Oct 1 To Bank A/c Oct 1 depreciation A/c 22,500 By Profit & Loss A/c 2017 42,500 – 20000 1,50,000 March BV-SV(LOSS) 1,00,000 1,00,000 31 1,50,000 April To balance By balance c/d 1 b/d
Provision for Depreciation A/c 2016 ` 2016 ` Oct 1 To Machinery A/c April 1 By Balance b/d 12,500 (accumulated Oct 1 By Profit & Loss A/c depreciation on (50,000 x 2,500 asset sold) 2 2017 10/100x6/12) 1/4/2015 – March 2017 31/3/16 31 By Profit & Loss A/c 7,500 March 5,000 7,500 I 5000 31 1/4/16-1/10/16 15,000 II 2,500 2,500 22,500 To balance c/d ½ 22,500 April 1 2,47,500
By balance b/d Book value = Cost – Accumulated depreciation = 50,000 – 7,500 = ` 42,500
23 8 In the books of A
Date Particulars Dr Cr
2016 B’s A/c Dr 75,000 1 Cash A/c Dr 25,000 Apr To Sales A/c 1,00,000 ( Sold goods on credit) 1 Apr Bills Receivable A/c (1) Dr 45,000 Bill Receivable A/c (2) Dr 30,000 To B’s A/c 75,000 ( Drew two bills receivbles) 1 C’s A/c Dr 45,250 Apr To Bills Receivable 45,000 To Discount A/c 250 ( Bill endorsed in full settlement) 1 Bank A/c Dr 29,400 Apr Discount A/c Dr 600 30,000 To Bills Receivable ( Bill discounted with bank @ 12 %,30,000x12/100x2/12) 4 Jun B’s A/c Dr 30,080 To Bank A/c 30,080 ( Discounted bill dishonoured.) B’s A/c Dr (20,080 x 5/100 x 2/12) 167 To Interest 167 ( Interest amount due) June Bank A/c Dr 10,000 6 Bills Receivable Dr 20247 To B’sA/c 20247 ( Renewal of bill alongwith interest.) (30,080+167) 20247 Aug Bank A/c Dr 20,247 9 To Bills Receivable 20,247 ( Received the amount)
Part –B
24 .Sole trader 1 25 Customised software are designed to suit the specific requirements of the users. 1 26 There are certain expenditures which are revenue in nature but the benefit of which is 1 likely to be derived over a number of years. Such expenditures are termed as ‘ Deferred Revenue Expenditures 27 False 1 28 Unsystematic method of recording tranasctions 1 Recordsfor cash transaction and personal account 29 a.`60,000 1 30 . Differentiate between Readymade Software & Customised Software 3 Basis Ready to use Tailored
Nature of business Small conventional Large type business business Cost of installation Low Relatively high Training Low High
32 Trading and Profit & Loss A/c for the year ended 8 Particulars ` Particulars `
To Opening stock 48,000 By Sales 2,20,000 2,10,700 To Purchase 137200 - Returns 9300 - Machinery 20,000 By Closing stock 32,000 - Returns 5500 1,11,700 ToFactory light 800 To Wages 15,000 To Gross profit c/d 67200
2,42,700 2,42,700 Bad debt 700 By Gross profit b/d 67200 Add : Further Bad debt700 By disc received 3700 add: New Prov 2700 Less :Old Prov 2500 1600 Rent 2800 Disc allowed 6500 General exp 4000 Dep on Mach 12000 Salaries 14000 Insurance 9000 Managers commission 1000 Net profit c/d 20,000 70900 70,900
Balance Sheet as at Liabilities Asset Capital 2,00,000 Fixed Asset Less : Drawings 7000 Machinery 1,50,000 Add : Net profit 20,000 2,13,000 Add : Purchases 20,000 1,70,000 Furniture 2.600 Current Liabilities Creditors 52000 Current Asset Bills Payable 3000 Accrued Commission 12,000 Managers Commission Debtors 45,700 1000 Less : Further bad debt700 Less : New Provision 2700 42,300 Closing Stock 32,000 Cash in hand 3600 Cash at Bank 6500 269,000 2,69,000
Working note : Managers Commission Net Profit before calculating Commission 21,000 x 5/105 =1000 ******
REVISION PAPERS FOR ANNUAL EXAMINATION 2019-20 Std :XI BUSINESS STUDIES Marks: 80 Time: 3 Hrs
General Instructions: i. Marks for questions are indicated against each question. ii. Question Nos. 1–20 are very short answer questions carrying 1 mark each. iii. Question Nos. 21–25 are short answer question I carrying 3 marks each. iv. Question Nos. 26–28 are also short answer question II carrying 4 marks each. v. Question Nos. 29–31 are long answer question I carrying 5 marks each. vi. Question Nos. 32–34 are long answer question II carrying 6 marks each. Section A Q. No. Question Marks 1 What is the payment mechanism which is peculiar to e- 1 business called? 2 Identify the type of economic activity which requires 1 specialised knowledge (a) Employment (b) Business (c) Profession (d) Trade 3 Ragava requires Rs 1 lakh to start his own business. In terms 1 of business, what is this Rs 1 lakh called? 4 EditLaw is a firm which is engaged in manufacturing law journals. 1 Due to the growing demand for its journals, it has handed over its research work to WriteRight Ltd. What kind of business is being carried out by WriteRight Ltd.? (a) Leasing (b) Business Process Outsourcing (c) Franchising (d) Knowledge Process Outsourcing 5 Global competition is one of the major problems faced by small- 1 scale industries. (True/False) 6 Under the lease agreement, who gets the right to use the asset for 1 a specific period? (a) Lessee (b) Lessor (c) Both of these (d) None of these 7 The sole proprietor has limited liability. (True/False) 1 8 Which of the following institutions was established in 1995 1 to
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promote and foster the growth of small-scale units in India? (a) Central Bureau of Small Scale Industries (b) District Industrial Centres (c) Micro, Small and Medium Corporation (d) National Small Industries Corporation 9 Name the receipt issued by the commanding officer of the ship 1 when the cargo is loaded on the ship. 10 What is not protected under copyright for artistic work? 1 (a) Poems (b) Maps (c) Drawings (d) Logos 11 GST is applicable to supply, manufacture or sale of goods and 1 services. (True/False) 12 Radika owns a factory. She has decided to plant one thousand trees 1 near her factory site in order to avoid any damage to the environment. With reference to this case, which of the following business objectives is she fulfilling? (a) Economic objective (b) Social objective (c) Human objective (d) Internal objective 13 State the monetary limit for investment in plant and machinery 1 for manufacturing microenterprises. 14 Rupali owns a small gift shop in Rajasthan. She keeps various gift 1 items like bracelets, soft toys, fancy clocks, wall hangings etc. Her suppliers are based in Mumbai. However, they do not send the goods to Rajasthan, instead Rupali collects the goods from Gujarat and takes them to Rajasthan where they are sold to consumers. At which place will GST be applied to the goods? (a) Rajasthan (b) Mumbai (c) Gujarat (d) Gujarat and Mumbai 15 A company abides by the new regulations regarding payment of 1 taxes in India. It is performing its social responsibility towards (a) The government (b) Citizens (c) Consumers (d) Workers 16 Explain the term licensing. 1 17 Write the other two names for retained earnings. 1
18 Name the head of a joint Hindu family business. 1
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19 Name the method of funding startups wherein professionally 1 managed funds are invested in companies. 20 Who regulates the acceptance of public deposits in India? 1 Section B
Q. No. Question Marks 21 Earning profit is the sole objective of business. State whether 3 the statement is true or false and explain with the help of a reason. 22 The insured has taken a policy from two insurers. On suffering loss, 3 Rs 1,00,000 as compensation needs to be given to the insured. Both insurers will equally distribute the amount among them, i.e. Rs 50,000 each, and compensate the insured. (a) Which principle of insurance is highlighted here? (b) Explain the principle identified in (a). OR Warehouses regulated by the government are used to store goods of various traders, manufacturers or of any individual after paying the required fees or charges. (a) Which type of warehouse is mentioned here? (b) State any one of its benefits and give a reason for the same (c) Name one other type of warehouse. 23 In which form of business organisation are profits not shared 3 with anyone? Explain. State one advantage of this form of business organisation. 24 Anila was interested in establishing a business after her studies. 3 However, after a discussion with various friends, she received mixed reviews regarding setting up of a traditional business and e- business. Help her in understanding the difference between them so that she gets a clear idea to choose the better one. 25 Rishi saw his father eagerly watching the news on TV. He asked 3 his father why he was so focused on the news today. Rishi’s father told him that the news was related to the stock market as he had invested in some shares. However, Rishi could not understand anything that his father explained about shares. Can you explain to Rishi what shares are and name any two types of shares?
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Section C
Q. No. Question Marks 26 Discuss any four characteristics of a joint Hindu family business. 4 Jeneel Pvt. Ltd. always distributes its products to wholesalers 4 rather than to individual retailers. They believe that wholesalers provide them better benefits as compared to others. Why? 27 OR Fixed shop retailers are shops which have a permanent establishment to sell their products. One of their characteristics is that they need not move from place to place for product selling. In the same manner, specify the other characteristics of theseExplain retailers the following and explain types itsof bankclassification. accounts: 4 28 (a) Recurring deposit account (b) Multiple deposit account
Section D
Q. No. Question Marks Kohinoor Ltd. planned to acquire Maheshwari Ltd. However, on 5 intense discussion between the Board of Directors of both 29 companies, the maximum amount of votes had gone to the joint venture. What was the reason for this decision (benefits of joint venture)? Daljeet started his own restaurant. He used all his investment in 5 purchasing the land required for the restaurant. However, due to inflation, the prices of raw materials required had increased. More funds were needed to run the restaurant. Answer the following questions on the basis of the given example. (a) Which limitation is faced by Daljeet in starting his business? 30 (b) Explain the classification of financial needs of a business. OR Village and small-scale industries have always been considered an integral part of Indian industrial strategy. This has resulted in government initiatives to help small-scale industries. In this context, state various measures and agencies established by the government to assist and support small businesses. (Any 3) Chumbak is a store started by Sabojit Pillai in Mumbai. Due to 5 the amazing response by consumers, he started 5 new stores at different places in India. All these stores sell standardised goods at the same price. 31 (a) Identify and explain the type of retail business reflected in this case. (b) Write its advantages. OR Which services are provided by a retailer to wholesalers and manufacturers?
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Section E
Q. No. Question Marks 32 Surya and his friends decided to start a business. They gathered 6 at a place to discuss the pros and cons of a particular business activity. One of his friends recommended deciding which type of business would be profitable for them before starting anything else. But Surya wanted to consider all the points which would affect their choice of business. State the factors which determine the choice of form of organisation. (Any 6 factors) OR Shilpa has decided to enter into a partnership with her colleague for selling customised hampers. As she is an amateur in business, please guide her regarding the features/characteristics of the partnership. (Any 6) 33 Every human being faces uncertainties and risks in day-to-day 6 activities. Hence, insurance is necessary for all. It is a means of providing compensation against loss incurred due to natural or man- made factors. In light of these statements, explain the various principles of insurance. (Any 6) OR Rama provides help to Mrs Shah for cooking and cleaning the house. In return, she gets to live in the outhouse and Rs 10,000 as compensation. (a) Is this an example of provision of service? (b) Explain the term service. (c) Explain the features of services. 34 Suchitra Pvt. Ltd. is interested in importing a machine from 6 France. However, the company is unaware of the procedure to be followed for importing goods. Please guide Suchitra Pvt. Ltd. with the necessary details. (Write the first six steps of the procedure)
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Answr Answer Key of Revision Annual Exam Marks No. Business Studies 1 Digital cash 1 2 (c) Profession 1 3 Initial capital 1 4 (d) Knowledge process outsourcing (KPO) 1 5 True 1 6 (a) Lessee 1 7 False 1 8 (d) National Small Industries Corporation 1 9 Mate’s receipt 1 10 (a)Poems 1 11 False 1 12 (b)Social objective 1 13 The amount of investment in plant and machinery for a 1 manufacturing microenterprise should not exceed 25 lakh rupees. 14 (a)Rajasthan (according to the rule of destination in GST) 1 15 (a)The government 1 16 Licensing is a form or mode of entering into international 1 business wherein a contract is entered into between two or more firms in which one firm grants access of its trademarks, patents or technology to another firm/firms in a foreign 17 countryPloughing for bac a k fee. of profits, self financing 1 18 Karta 1 19 Venture capital 1 20 Reserve Bank of India 1
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Section B
Answe Answer Marks r No. 21 It is false to say that earning profit is the sole objective of a 1 business. Reason: Every business has multiple objectives. It cannot survive merely by earning profit. Hence, earning profit is 2 the most important objective of business, but it can never be the 22 sole(a) The objective. principle highlighted in the given case is the principle of 1 contribution. (b) Many a times a person takes more than one policy to cover the same risk which is known as double insurance. According 2 to the principle of contribution, every liable insurer must share the losses in proportion to the sum assured by each of them. This principle basically gives a right to the insurer (who has paid an insurance premium and made a claim) to call upon other insurers who are liable to pay and contribute. For example, if a person has double insurance over the same property (double insurance does not necessarily mean two insurance policies, it can be more than two insurance policies also) and he claims money from one of the insurers. The insurance company pays out the amount of claim. After doing so, the insurance company which has paid the amount of claim has the right to call upon other insurers to pay the amount of claim in proportion to the sum assured by them or coverage offered by the insurance policy. OR 1 (a) The type of warehouse mentioned in the given paragraph is the public warehouse. 1 (b) One of the benefits of public warehousing is that it is affordable in the sense that traders can make use of the warehouses whenever they require by paying a nominal amount instead of constructing their own warehouses which 23 In arequire sole proprietorship a lot of investment. form of business organisation, profits 12 (c)arenot Bondedshared withwarehouse anyone. This is because under a sole formproprietorship of business organisation, a single individual owns, manages controlsand the business. Thus, a sole proprietor does not share profitsthe with anyone and enjoys the rewards alone. (1 mark for identification and 1 mark for reason) Advantage: A sole proprietorship form of business can form closeand down easily. There is no separate set of laws for proprietorship.sole It can easily be started with minimal legal 1 formalities. Only in some cases, a licence is required. There are noalso specific formalities for its closure.
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24 Differences between traditional business and e-business: Basis e-Business Traditional Business
Formation Easy Relatively difficult 1 Setting- Low High up 1 Responsecost time for Long, with no Instant meeting fixed time 1 customer limit 25 The capitals of a company is divided into a number of parts each 2 one of which is called a share. A share is the smallest unit of the capital. Shareholders can freely and easily transfer these shares to anyone (except in a private company). If a member wants to withdraw from the membership of the company, then he needs to sell the parts/shares he owns of the company. There are two types of shares: 1) Equity shares ½ 2) Preference shares ½
Section C
Answe Answer Marks r No. 26 Features of a joint Hindu family business: 1) Formation: A joint Hindu family business is governed by the Hindu Succession Act, 1956. To start the business, at least two members should be present and they should have 1 inherited some ancestral property. It does not require any agreement as membership is obtained on the basis of birth. 2) Liability: The karta in a joint Hindu family business has unlimited liability as he is the eldest member of the family and has the responsibility of making all the decisions for the 1 business. The liability of other coparceners is limited to the extent of their share in the business. 3) Control: The control of the business and power of decision making lies with the karta. His decisions are binding on the 1 other members. 4) Continuity: There is continuity in the joint Hindu family business, as after the death of the karta, the next eldest member of the family becomes a karta and runs the 1 business. However, the business can be terminated after obtaining the consent of all members.
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27 Jeneel Pvt. Ltd. always distributes its products to wholesalers as they provide the following services: 1) Storage facilities: Wholesalers buy merchandise in bulk quantities from manufacturers and deliver 1 them to retailers in
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smaller quantities for further selling to customers. Bulk order and purchase made by wholesalers entitles manufacturers to undertake large-scale production without having to worry about storage facilities as these goods are stored in warehouses/godowns by wholesalers. 2) Market information: They are often in contact with retailers and customers. Hence, they are able to provide better information to manufacturers regarding customer’s tastes and 1 preferences, needs of customers, recent market trends and level of competition. This helps manufacturers to fulfil customers’ demands and make tailor-made products to suit customers’ requirements. 3) Financial assistance: Generally, wholesalers make payment of products in cash. This helps manufacturers to avoid blocking 1 their capital in stocks. Sometimes advance money is provided by wholesalers to manufacturers for bulk orders so that they do not face any shortage of finances and can complete the order on time. 4) Marketing activities: Wholesalers extend help in the distribution of products to a large number of retailers spread over a vast geographical area. This is beneficial for 1 manufacturers in a way that they are relieved from performing any marketing or promotional activities and only concentrate on production. OR Characteristics of fixed shop retailers: 1) They have greater resources which help them to operate at 1 a large scale as compared to itinerant traders. However, sometimes they operate on a small scale too. 2) They deal in a wide range of products—from durable to 1 non- durable products. 3) They have greater credibility in the minds of consumers 1 because of providing ancillary services such as home delivery, credit facility and guarantees for products. Classification: Fixed-shop retailers are sub-divided on the basis 1 28 of(a) size Recurring of operations deposit into account: small- scale fixed retail shop and large- scale1) In fixeda recurring retail shop. deposit account, a fixed amount is paid on an annuity basis (monthly, quarterly etc.) for a fixed period. 2 2) This amount along with the interest is paid to the holder of the account on maturity. 3) The most important benefit of this account is that it offers a high interest rate as compared to a savings account. (b) Multiple deposit account: 1) A multiple deposit account offers the account holder the benefits of a savings account as well as a fixed deposit account. 2 2) In this type of account when the deposits reach a particular amount, it automatically gets transferred to the fixed deposit. This enables the account holder to enjoy the benefits of a www.topperlearning.com fixed 6
deposit account. 3) However, in case when the balance in a savings account is low and more cash is needed for the clearance of a cheque, the required amount automatically gets transferred from the fixed deposit account to the savings account. 4) This provides cash liquidity to the account holder just like a savings bank account.
Section D
Answe Answer Marks r No. 29 Reasons (benefits) for voting in favour of joint ventures: 1) Increase in resources: In this type of business, as there are two or more firms, resources and capacity increase. This 1 enables organisations to grow quickly and efficiently. 2) Market expansion: Entering a venture with firms of another region helps in the expansion of the market base. Also, 1 advantage can be taken of the well-established distribution system of local firms. 3) Innovation: As two or more firms come together, it gives them access to new ideas and technology which help in the 1 innovation of new products. These new products enable businesses to sustain in the dynamic and competitive market. 4) Low cost of production: When international organisations come together with firms in the host country, they are able 1 to benefit from the low cost of raw materials and labour of the country. Thus, they are able to produce products of better quality at cheaper cost. 5) Goodwill: When two businesses come together, they tend to profit from the goodwill already established by the other 1 firm. This may give the joint venture an edge when entering a new market.
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30 a) Lack of finance is the limitation faced by Brian in starting 1 his business. b) Financial needs of a business are classified into Fixed capital requirements: Funds required to purchase fixed assets such as machinery, land and building, 2 ½ furniture and fixtures etc. are termed fixed capital requirements. In case of purchase of fixed assets, the funds remain invested in the business for a very long period. The quantum of funds required varies from business to business depending on the nature and size of the business. Working capital requirements: Funds required to meet 2 ½ the expenses related to day-to-day business activities such as purchasing raw materials, payment of wages and salaries to employees, payment of rent etc. are classified under working capital requirements. The quantum of working
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capital required varies from business to business. OR Small-scale industries play a crucial role in the growth and development of the nation. Despite their contributions, two major areas which affect and slow down small businesses are finance and marketing. The government therefore has taken initiatives to get rid of these issues. They have established the following agencies to assist and support small businesses: 1) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) was established in 1982 with the intention of 2 promoting integrated rural development which involves agriculture, small-scale industries and cottage and village industries. 2) The Rural Small Business Development Centre (RSBDC) is a one-of-a-kind institute by the World Association for 2 Small and Medium Enterprises. It is sponsored by NABARD and works for the betterment of socially and economically disadvantaged individuals and groups and aims at promoting technical support in rural areas to current and prospective micro and small entrepreneurs. 3) National Small Industries Corporation (NSIC) was created in 1955 to encourage, assist and foster the growth of small 2 business units in the country. It performs the following functions: Supply machines on easy hire–purchase terms Procure, supply and distribute indigenous and imported raw materials Export products of small business units and develop export-worthiness Mentoring and advisory services Creating awareness on technological upgradation Developing software technology parks and technology transfer centres Moreover, the government has launched various programmes for rural development with the intent of generating employment 31 opportunities,The type of retail developing business rural reflected areas in and this making case is ruralchain peoplestores 1 selfor -multiple sufficient. shops. These chain stores or multiple shops are nothing but a network of retail shops which sell almost same/standardised products as they are owned by the same manufacturers or intermediaries. Advantages of chain stores and multiple shops: 1) Economies of scale: These shops enjoy the benefit of 1 economies of scale as they have a centralised procurement system which fetches them huge discounts. 2) No bad debts: As these stores/shops only accept cash as a 1 mode of payment for any kind of sale, there is no chance of bad debt. 1 3) www.topperlearning.com Elimination of middlemen: These shops sell directly to 9 consumers; therefore, they are successful in
middlemen. 4) Diffusion of risk: In this type of retail trade, if one 1 shop/store incurs a loss, the profit from other stores may help to cover up or recover from the loss. OR Services provided by a retailer to wholesalers and manufacturers:
1) Assist in distribution of goods: Retailers assist in the 1 distribution of goods in the sense that they sell goods to final consumers who are scattered over a large geographical area. 1 2) Collect market information: Because retailers are in direct contact with customers, they play an important role in providing information to wholesalers regarding the tastes and preferences of customers and the demands of customers. 1 3) Personal selling: Retailers undertake personal selling efforts on behalf of producers. This helps to relieve producers from this activity and assists them in actualising the sale of 1 products. 4) Large-scale operation: Retailers sell goods in smaller quantities to the final consumers which enable 1 manufacturers and wholesalers to deal in large-scale operations. 5) Assist in promotion: Periodically, manufacturers and wholesalers need to carry out promotional activities. This is important to increase sales. These promotional activities include advertising of products,Section Eorganising contests, offering short-term incentives etc. Answe Answer Marks r No.
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32 Factors determining the choice of form of organisation: 1) Cost of setting up a business organisation: Every form of business organisation needs some initial capital for its establishment. The company form of organisation incurs the maximum cost and involves complex formalities, whereas 1 the sole proprietorship form of business is the most inexpensive form with minimum legal formalities. In case of a partnership, there are less legal formalities and limited scale of operation, so the cost of setting up a partnership firm is low. 2) Nature of business: The type of business one wants to conduct is the most important factor in determining the form of business. If one wants to have direct personal contact with 1 customers, then a sole proprietorship would be the best form. If one is willing to set up a large manufacturing unit, then a company form of business would be preferred. However, for providing professional services, a partnership form of business would be most suitable. 3) Capital: It is one of the important factors which help in
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determining the choice of the organisation. A sole proprietorship form of business requires minimum investment/capital. If one has adequate funds, then he can opt for a partnership form of business. However, huge 1 financial resources are required for a company. So, if the operations are carried out on a large scale, then the company form of business is the most suitable, whereas for medium or small businesses, a partnership or sole proprietorship form of business is most suitable. From the point of view of growth and expansion, a company is the most suitable form of business as it has the capacity to raise funds required to expand its scope of operations. 4) Liability: Liability of different forms of business organisations also plays an important role in choosing a suitable form of business organisation. In case of sole proprietorship and partnership, the liability of the sole proprietor and the partners, respectively, is unlimited. This means that the personal assets of the owners/partners will be utilised to pay off the debts (if needed). Under the joint 1 Hindu family business, only the karta has unlimited liability. Unlike other forms of business organisations, the liability of the members of a cooperative society and a company is limited, so the creditors can claim repayment of debt only to the extent of the assets owned by the business organisation. Taking into consideration the extent of liability and the risk involved, a company form of business organisation is considered most suitable. 5) Management ability: In a sole proprietorship, there is a single owner who performs all the functions of management. Hence, he cannot be an expert in all areas. On the other hand, professional experts are hired in case of business organisations like a partnership and a company. To enable efficient decision making, work must be divided 1 among different members so that they can specialise in a particular area or field of work. In some cases, this may also lead to conflicts due to difference of opinion among members. Additionally, if the operations are carried out by the organisation on a large scale and are of a complex nature, it will require professional management. In such cases, the company form of business organisation proves to be suitable. In cases wherein the operations are carried out on a small scale and are not very complex, the sole proprietorship or partnership form of business organisation must be adopted. In this way, the nature of operations/business activities and requirement of professional management is an important factor to be considered while choosing an organisation. 6) Continuity: In a sole proprietorship, continuity depends on www.topperlearning.com the people and the events which take place such as death 1 or insanity of owners, insolvency etc. However, the 1 2
cooperative society and company. So for short-term business plans, a sole proprietorship or partnership form of business organisation is most suitable. However, for a long- term and permanent business, the company form of business proves to be most suitable. OR Features/characteristics of a partnership: 1) Formation: The Indian Partnership Act, 1932, governs the partnership form of organisation. To form a partnership, there must be a legal agreement (oral or written) governing the terms of partnership between the partners to run the 1 business and share the risks and profits of the business. The purpose of this agreement should be lawful and must focus on earning profits. Any such agreement entered into for the purpose of charity will not constitute a partnership. 2) Liability: All the partners in the firm have unlimited liability. So, in case the assets of the partnership firm are insufficient to repay the debts, the partners will have to repay the debt using their personal assets. The partners are jointly and individually liable for debt payments which 1 means that all the partners are jointly responsible for payment of debt and they are individually liable up to the extent of their share in the partnership firm. 3) Risk-bearing and profit-sharing: In a partnership form of business organisation, risks are borne by the partners jointly, whereas if the business earns profits, these profits are shared as per the ratio mentioned in the partnership 1 agreement. Similarly, in cases of losses, they are also shared in the same ratio between partners. 4) Control and decision-making: The control over the business and decision-making power of the business is shared among partners. This means that all the decisions are taken with mutual consent. Joint efforts of all the partners are required to manage a partnership firm. 1 5) Number of partners: To start a partnership firm, a minimum of 2 partners are required. The maximum number of partners in a partnership firm is governed by Section 464 of the Companies Act, 2013. It lays down that the maximum number of partners in a partnership firm can be 100, subject 1 to the number prescribed by the government. As per Rule 10 of the Companies (Miscellaneous) Rules 2014, the maximum number of members at present can be 50. 6) Mutual agency: In a partnership form of business organisation, business is carried out by all or any of the partners on behalf of other partners. Hence, every partner is a principal and an agent. Here, the partner carrying out 1 business on behalf of the others is the agent. Being an agent www.topperlearning.com of other partners, he/she binds them through his/her 1 actions. He/she is also a principal in the sense that he/she 3
partners. 33 Principles of insurance: 1) Utmost good faith: The contract of insurance is based on utmost good faith. According to this principle, both insurer and insured should display good faith towards each other with respect to the contract. It is the duty of the insured to disclose all the material facts, risks, details to the insurer and the insurer must clearly explain all the terms and conditions 1 of the contract. Thus, this contract binds the proposer to reveal all the material facts relating to the proposed insurance which will help the insurer to make decisions relating to the acceptance of the proposal, the amount of premium to be charged etc. In case the insured fails to disclose any material facts related to the contract of insurance, then the contract will be voidable at the option of the insurer. 2) Insurable interest: This principle states that the insured 1 should have some kind of insurable interest in the subject matter of insurance. Under a contract of insurance, the specific interest of the insured in the subject matter of insurance is insured. For example, in case a property is insured, the interest of the insured must exist at the happening of the event, whereas in case of life insurance, it is necessary to have an insurable interest at the time when the insurance is affected and not necessary at the time of maturity. Hence, having an insurable interest is a necessary condition, as without this, it would become a fraudulent activity not acceptable under law. 1 3) Indemnity: The insurer should compensate the insured for the entire loss so that there is no difference between the insured’s financial position before and after the loss. Here, the loss suffered by the insured and the compensation paid by the insurer are measured in terms of money. This principle is not applicable to life insurance because it is not possible to estimate the amount of loss incurred due to death. Example: If an individual has taken a policy worth Rs 1 lakh but suffered a loss of Rs 75,000, then the insurance company will compensate Rs 75,000 only and not Rs 1 lakh. 1 4) Subrogation: This principle states that after compensation is received by the insured, the insurer steps into the shoes of the insured, i.e. once the person claims the compensation for the loss, the ownership of that specific thing/property shifts to the insurer. This is because the insured has already received the amount for the loss, and thus, he is not allowed to sell the damaged property to make a profit. Example: A person who has damaged car parts in a car accident is entitled to receive compensation for those www.topperlearning.com parts. After receiving the compensation, the ownership of the 1 10 damaged parts will be given to the insurer.
after taking the insurance. Example: If a person has taken fire insurance for his factory and the factory catches fire. In this situation, the person should act prudently and take steps which will help in reducing the loss or damage and not act carefree because there is an insurance cover for the same. In case when such reasonable care is not taken, the insurance company can deny the claim made by the insured. 6) Proximate cause principle: According to this principle, an insured person can be awarded compensation only for losses which are caused by the risks covered in the policy. 1 Also, when there is more than one cause, the proximate cause (i.e. the forthright/direct cause) is considered by the insurance company for compensation. OR
(a) Yes, Rama provides a service to Mrs Shah. (b) Services are intangible economic activities which are consumed at the point of sale. These activities provide satisfaction of wants but may not necessarily involve the sale of a product. Also, such activities cannot be kept in 1 stock. Examples of services include the services of a lawyer or doctor. (c) Four features of service:
1) Intangibility: Services cannot be touched or seen but can
only be experienced. Hence, they are said to be intangible.
The quality of the service cannot be judged before
buying/experiencing the service. Thus, it becomes essential
for the service provider to offer an optimal service 1 experience which satisfies customers. For example, a
customer taking a treatment in a spa must have a good
experience of the service.
2) Inventory: One of the important characteristics of a service
is that it cannot be kept aside to be consumed in the future.
So, the need for maintaining an inventory does not exist. If
the service is not used at the right time, then it results in 1 the loss of that service. Therefore, the demand and supply
of services need to be regulated as it must be
provided/supplied as and when demanded by consumers. It
cannot be performed early and stored to be used later. For
example, the ticket to an amusement park can be preserved;
however, the experience of the amusement park can only be
enjoyed at the time when the service is provided by the
amusement park.
3) Inseparability: A service is an activity whose production
and consumption occur at the same place. Thus, these
activities seem to be inseparable in nature. It is possible in 1 case of goods that they are produced at a particular time and consumed later. The same is not possible in case of services, www.topperlearning.com 11 as after production, they need to be consumed immediately.
there are doctors available in the hospital but there are no patients, then no services can be provided. Hence, the production of service and the presence of consumers for its consumption are simultaneous and inseparable activities. 4) Involvement: In case of all the services, it is very important 1 for customers to participate in the process of service delivery. This provides a chance for customers to get the services modified according to their specific needs. 34 Procedure involved in importing machinery from France by Suchitra Pvt. Ltd.:
1) Trade enquiry: The first step in the import procedure is to make a trade enquiry. With the help of a trade enquiry, the 1 importer approaches various exporters in order to obtain information regarding the price and terms and conditions of goods. After receiving a trade enquiry, the exporter provides the details of goods such as quality, size, weight, price and terms and conditions in the quotation which is known as the pro forma invoice. 2) Procurement of import license: Every importer needs to have an Import Export Code (IEC) number which can be obtained after getting registered with the Directorate 1 General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) or Regional Import Export Licensing Authority. The IEC number is required to be mentioned in various documents in connection with the import. 3) Obtaining foreign exchange: The importer requires to obtain the currency of the exporter’s country to make 1 payment for the goods imported. For this, Indian currency needs to be exchanged in return for foreign currency. All the transactions involving foreign exchange are regulated by the Exchange Control Department of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). However, many nations usually accept the US dollar to conduct international transactions. In this regard, banks and many authorised dealers provide foreign exchange. Every importer is required to obtain a sanction of foreign exchange by making an application in the prescribed form to the banks authorised by RBI for issuing foreign exchange. 1 4) Placing order or indent: Once the importer has obtained an import license, it can place an import order or indent requesting the supply of the specific goods required by the importer. This order contains details such as price, size, grade, quality of goods and instructions related to shipping, 1 packing, port of shipment and destination, insurance etc. 5) Obtaining a letter of credit: A letter of credit is obtained by the importer from its bank and then sent to the exporter. It ensures that there will be no non-payment risk www.topperlearning.com 12 from the importer’s side. 1
time of arrival of goods at the port. It is essential to make advance arrangement for finance so as to avoid penalties for imported goods which are pending for clearance at the port.
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REVISION PAPERS FOR ANNUAL EXAMINATION 2019-20
Std :XI BIOLOGY Marks: 70 Time: 3 Hrs
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
There are a total of 27 questions and four sections in the question paper. All questions are compulsory. Section A contains question number 1 to 5, very short answer type. Questions of 1 mark each. Sections B contains question number 6 to 12, short answer type I. Questions of 2 marks each. Sections C contains question number 13 to 21, short answer type II. Questions of 3 marks each. Sections D contains question number 22 to 24, short answer type III . Questions of 3 marks each. Sections E contains question number 25 to 27, long answer. Questions of5 marks each. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, internal choices are provided in two questions of one mark, one question of two marks, two questions of three marks and all three questions of five marks. An examinee is to attempt any one of the question out of the two given in the question paper with the same question number.
SECTION A
1. Name the Algae that yields agar-agar. A]Gelidium and Gracilaria b]Gracilaria and Ectocarpus c]Polysiphonia and Fucus d] Chlorella and Chlamydamonas OR The Order which includes Solanaceae and Convolvulaceae A] Anacardales b] Polemoniales c]Rosales d]None 2. The role of radula is A] rasping b]fixing c] movement d] none OR What are the three cells found in the egg apparatus? A]egg cell and 2-synergids b]antipodals-3 c]polar nuclei -3 d]egg cell and endosperm.
3. Give the technical term for i] cork cambium ii] secondary cortex. A] phellogen and phelloderm b]phelloderm and phellogen c]phellum and phelloderm d] none. 4. Why is the flower of Mustard considered to be hypogynous? A] ovary superior B] ovary inferior C] ovary half superior D] none
5.The kind of epithelium found in alveoli- a. simple squamous epithelium b.cuboidal cells c. stratified epithelium d.none. SECTION B
6. What is pericarp? State its different regions. 7. Explain exhalation. 8. Mention the fundamental features that form the basis of classification of animals [any 4]. 9. Distinguish between Liverworts and Moss. 10. Describe the differences between heart wood and sap wood. 11. Explain the structure of villi. 12. What is diatomaceous earth? State the economic uses of diatomaceous earth. OR Draw a neat labeled of Human heart. SECTION C
13. Explain the role of calcium ions, troponin and F actin during contraction of striated muscle fiber. 14. Give the schematic representation for Glycolytic pathway OR Write why respiration is also called amphibolic pathway. 15. What do these terms explain? A] cardiac output b. stroke volume c. cardiac cycle 16. Briefly explain the steps involved in urine formation.
17. State the criteria for considering an element essential. OR Describe any six modifications in roots. 18. Distinguish between apoplast and symplast pathways with the help of labeled diagram. 19. Write a short note on cell wall. 20. What is photoperiodism? How are they further classified? 21. Explain Calvin cycle.
SECTION-D 22. Certain hormones function antagonistic to each other to regulate a particular metabolic process, A] Name two pairs of hormones which are antagonistic to each other. B] State their functions. C] Mention the target organs where they function.
23. a. State Blackmans law of limiting factors. b. Which group of plants C3 or C4 would show increase in rate of photosynthesis when grown in green house conditions? c. Cite two examples for green house crops.
24. State the ways by which ammonia is used to synthesise amino acids OR Give the deficiency symptoms observed in plants .Define hydroponics. SECTION E
25. On an educational trip to Uttranchal ,Harsh and his friends observed that many local people were having swollen neck .Please help Harsh and his friends to find out solutions to the following questions. A] Which probable disease are these people suffering from? B] How is it caused? C] What effect does this condition have during pregnancy? OR List the hormones produced by the anterior pituitary lobe. 26. a] Name the blood group known as universal donor. B] State th antigens and antibodies present. C] Sherin’s blood group is B. She requires blood transfusion. Mention the groups that are suitable for transfusion in Sherin’s case. D] What would happen if Blood from A group is given? O A] Differentiate the types of formed elements. B ] Explain double circulation 27. Explain the structure of the inner ear with the help of neat labeled diagram. OR A] Explain the parts of human nervous system. B] Draw neat labeled diagram of human brain
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BIOLOGY-ANSWER KEY
Q.N ANSWER MARKS O 1. A OR B 1 2 A 1 3 A 1 4 A 1 5. A 1
6 Fruit wall is pericarp-it is differentiated into ectocarp, mesocarp and endocarp. 4X1/2= 2
7 The process by which deoxygenated blood is eliminated from the respiratory 2 system is called exhalation, thoracic cavity decreases in size, diaphragm and ribs come back to original condition, pressure increases thus air from inside gets pushed outside. 8. Body organization, symmetry, coelom nature, presence or absence of notochord. 4x1/2= 2 9 liverworts Moss 4x1/2=2 4x1/2= Moist shady areas and Found in shady 2 the plant body is a habitats and the dorsiventral thallus predominant structure is a gametophyte. dorsiventral thallus Foot,seta,capsule are not differentiated,and the parts of the sporophyte sporophyte embedded within the thallus. Spores germinate into Spores germinate gametophyte. into protonema and which forms vertical structures.
10. Heart wood Sap wood 4x1/2= Central part of the Peripheral part of the 1 2 wood wood Consists of dead cells Cells are alive 2 No function of Helps in conduction. 3 conduction Has depositions- Lacks extractives, less 4 gums, resins ,tannins. durable
11 Mucosa is folded into finger like projections, called villi, the cells lining the villi 4x1/2= bear microvilli and form brush bordered epithelium to increase the surface area 2 for absorption, these are richly supplied with blood vessels and large lymph vessel called lacteals. 12 Diatomaceous earth refers to the deposits of the nearly indestructible silica wall of Diatoms in the ocean floor. -used in filtration of oils and syrups -polishing of metals. OR Page-283-fig-18.3 13 -Calcium binds to specific sites present on the troponin component of the actin 6x1/2= filament, active sites gets exposed, --troponin masks the active site on F actin. 3 -The active sites on the F actin are specific to the myosin head for cross bridge formation. 14 A]Page-229-fig-14.4 4x1/2= B]Page-236-fig-14.6 2 Since it involves catabolism an anabolism it is called amphibolic pathway. Ex-Proteins broken into amino acids which further broken into Pyruvate which gets converted into Acetyl Co enzyme, which enters Kreb’s cycle. This is catabolic pathway and the reverse process is anabolic pathway. 15. 3x1=3 a Volume of blood pumped out by each ventricle per minute. b It refers to the amount of blood pumped by the ventricle during the cardiac cycle- 70ml of blood. c Sequential events in the heart which is cyclically repeated is called cardiac cycle.
16 -Tubular filtration-protein free fluid is filtered in the glomerulus into the lumen of 6x1/=3 Bowman’s capsule. -Reabsorption-99 percent of the filtrate gets absorbed in the renal tubules ,certain substances like-glucose, sodium and potassium ions are absorbed actively, nitrogenous wastes are absorbed passively. -tubular secretion-certain substances like potassium, hydrogen ammonia are directly secreted into the lumen of the nephron, thus helps to maintain osmotic balance.
17 It should be absolutely necessary for the growth, reproduction 3 -it should be specific -direct role in the metabolism of plant. 18 Storage, photosynthetic ,epiphytic ,breathing, stilt, prop roots 1+2=3 19. Apoplast Symplast pathway 1+2=3 path way Movement through Movement involves 1 cell walls and crossing of intercellular spaces membranes and cytoplasm, Mass flow and is Slow movement and 2 faster Movement till the root Movement from the 3 cortex is apoplast endodermis is symplast.
20. Amount of light required for inducing flowering is called photo-periodism. 1+1+1= Long day plants 3 -short day plants day neutral plants. 21 Calvin cycle includes- 1+1+1= 1]carboxylation-here Ribulose1,5 di phosphate in the presence of Riblose 3 biphosphate carboxylase gets converted into 2 molecules phosphor glyceraldehyde 2]reduction-light energy products are used for reduction 3]regeneration-for the cycle to continue and for the RuBP should be regenerated ,it requires ATP . 22 Insulin-converts excess glucose into glycogen 6x1/2= -glucagon-converts stored glycogen to glucose 3 -parathyroid increases level of calcium whereas thyro calcitonin decreases calcium level in blood. Liver, adipocytes Bone, plasma 23 A]If a chemical process is affected by more than one factor, then its rate will be 3/4x4= determined by the factor which is nearest to its minimum value, it is the factor 3 which directly affects the process if its quantity is changed. B] C3 plants-respond to higher CO2 concentration by showing increased photosynthetic rate. C]bell pepper, tomato
24. Ammonia-reductive amination-ammonia reacts with alpha ketoglutaric acid to 4X3/4= form glutamic acid in the presence of glutamate dehydrogenase 3 -transamination-transfer of amino groups from one amino acid to keto acid. OR Chlorosis, necrosis, stunted growth, reduction in cell division, reduced photosynthetic yield. -the branch of science which deals with growing of plants in the absence of soil.
25a -Goiter 1+1+1= B -Deficiency of Iodine 3 c -During pregnancy deficiency causes defective development and maturation of the growing baby leading to stunted growth-Cretinism, mental retardation, low intelligence quotient, abnormal skin, deaf-mutism, etc. OR Growth hormone -Prolactin -Thyroid stimulating hormone -Adrenocorticotrophic hormone -Luteinizing hormone -Follicle stimulating hormone
26a O-Blood group B Antigen-nil Antibody-anti-A, anti-B C O,B D Clumping of RBC OR A RBC WBC Platelets b Human heart has 4 chambers-upper two auricles and lower two ventricles. Into the right auricle deoxygenated blood from different parts of the body is brought through the superior and inferior Venacava, from the right auricle blood moves into the right ventricle, tricuspid valve is present to prevent backward flow of blood, pulmonary artery carries impure blood to the lungs for purification. From the lungs 4 pulmonary veins bring pure blood into the left auricle, which then goes to the left ventricle, bicuspid valve is present between the left auricle and the left ventricle, aorta carries pure blood from the left ventricle to different parts of the body. Since blood flows twice it is said to exhibit Double circulation. 27. Cochlea-diagram-page-326-fig-21.8 Mechanism of hearing-the external ear receives sound waves and directs them to the eardrum ,these vibrations get transmitted to the ear ossicles , oval window ,fluid of cochlea, which causes waves - this causes ripple in the basilar membrane which causes bending of hair cells, pressing them against tectorial membrane, nerve impulses get generate through the auditory nerves to the auditory cortex of the brain. OR Brain diagram Human nervous system consists of A]Central nervous system-includes brain and spinal cord B]peripheral nervous system-cranial and spinal nerves C]autonomous nervous system-sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system.
************** REVISION PAPERS FOR ANNUAL EXAMINATION 2019-20 Std :XI COMPUTER SCIENCE (Python) Marks: 70 Time: 3 Hrs
i) All Questions are compulsory. ii) Programming Language - Python Q. No Part Question Description Marks 1 a) Out of the following, identify the different types of tokens ( 2 keywords, variables, literals, operators etc). India_123, pass, {},AND
b) Evaluate the following expressions: 1 i) (2+3)**3 – 6/2 ii) 12*3%5+2*6//4 c) Rewrite the following code in python after removing all syntax 2 error(s). Underline each correction done in the code.
X=int(“Enter value for X:”) for M in range[0,11]: if X=Y: print(X+Y) else: print(X-Y)
d) Write the output of the following Python code (Ignore any 2 syntactical errors, if any): word='work hard' result=word.find('work') print(“Substring, 'work', found at index:”,result) result=word.find('har') print(“Substring, 'har', found at index:”,result) if(word.find('pawan'))!=-1): print(“Contains given substring”) else: print(“Doesn't contain given substring”)
e) Write a program to input a number and find the sum of even digits 2 of that number. Eg: if the number is 2895640, then the sum is 2+8+6+4+0=20
1 2 a) What are the different types of sequences in Python? Explain any 2 one of them briefly with an example. b) What will be the output generated by the following code: 3 for i in range(4): for j in range(5): if i+ 1==j or j+i ==4: print(“+”,end=' ') else: print(“o”,end=' ') print(“#”)
c) Write the most appropriate method to perform the following tasks: 2 i) Given an element, e of the list L, delete e from L. ii) Add an element in the beginning of the list L. Iii) Get the position of the element, e in the list L. Iv) To get the copy of the string with only the first letter in upper case d) What will be the output of the code given below: 2 sports={“Tennis”:”Roger Federer”,”Cricket”:”Sachin Tendulkar”,”Badminton”:”P.V.Sindhu”,”Football”:”Chhetri”}
print(“Keys:”,list(sports.keys())) print(“Values:”,list(sports.values()) print(“Items:”,list(sports.items())) print(“Get:”,sports.get(“Basket Ball”,”Jordan”))
3 a) int('a) produces an error but the following expression having 2 int('a) in it does not return error, why? What is the output produced?
len('a')+2 or int('a') b) Write a program to input a list of integers and find the range of the 3 integers. Eg: if the list is 23,9,14,2,28,19,3,15,9,25,2,4,9 the the range is 26 (differene between the largest and smallest integer of the list) c) What are the 5 steps involved in the compilation of a program? 3 Give an example of a compiler.
4 a) What is the difference between public cloud and private cloud? 2 b) Draw the state transition diagram of a process. Label the states 3 neatly. c) Wrtie a program that inputs a string and stores it as words in a 3
2 tuple. Then translate each word to Pig Latin and print it back as a string.
Eg: if the string is “The quick brown fox”. Then the tuple should be (“The”,”quick”,”brown”,”fox”). To make it in Pig Latin, take the first letter of each word, move it to the end of the word and add “ay” to it. So “The” becomes “heTay”, “quick” becomes “uickqay” ..... The string in Pig Latin should be “Hetay uickqay rownbay oxfay” If s is the string, s.split() will return the list of words of the string,s. d) Write a program to input a list of integers. Then create another list 2 with the cumulative sum of the first list. Cumulative sum of list [a,b,c,....] is[a,a+b,a+b+c,...] Eg: if the first list is [2,3,4,5,6,7] then the second list is [2,5,9,14,20,27,..] ie 2,2+3,2+3+4,2+3+4+5,...
5 a) What is an empty statement? How can you give an empty statement 2 in Python? b) Write a program to sort the list of integers in the ascending order 3 using bubble sort. c) Given a list of strings Neena, Meeta, Geetha, Reeta, Seetha. Write the 3 output of the list after the Ist,2nd and 3rd iteration of the Insertion Sort. The list has to be arranged in ascending order.
6 a) Observe the PARTICIPANTS and EVENTS tables given below. Write 2 the name of the SQL operation that is performed to obtain the output given in the table RESULT. Also, give the degree and cardinality of the table RESULT. PARTICIPANTS EVENTS PNO PNAME EVENTCODE EVENT NAME 1 Aruanabha Taribhan 2 John Fredericks 1001 IT QUIZ 3 Kanti Desai 1002 Group Debate RESULT PNO NAME EVENT CODE EVENT NAME 1 AruanabhaTariban 1001 IT Quiz 1 AruanabhaTariban 1002 Group Debate 2 John Fedricks 1001 IT Quiz 2 John Fedricks 1002 Group Debate 3 Kanti Desai 1001 IT Quiz
3 3 Kanti Desai 1002 Group Debate
b) Write the SQL command to alter the table emp. The statement 2 should add a column EXP. It takes alphanumeric data and its width can be 20. Default value is “Fresher” c) Write down the SQL queries based on the tables given below. 4 Table : PRODUCTS PID PNAME QTY PRICE COMPANY SUPCODE
101 DIGITAL CAMERA 120 1200 RENIX S01 14X 102 DIGITAL PAD 11i 100 22000 DIGI POP S02 104 PEN DRIVE 16 GB 500 1100 STORE KING S01 106 LED SCREEEN 32 70 28000 DISPEXPERTS S02 105 CAR GPS SYSTEM 60 12000 MOVEON S03
Table: SUPPLIERS
SUPCODE SNAME CITY S01 GET ALL INC KOLKATA S02 EASY MARKET CORP DELHI S03 DIGI BUSY GROUP CHENNAI
i) Write a SQL command to display the details of all the products in the descending order of the product name.
ii) Write a SQL command to display the product name and price of those products whose price is in the range of 10000 and 15000.
iii)Write a SQL command to display the product name, qty, Total Amount (qty * price) .
iv) Write a SQL command to display the product name, supplier name, city, company. d) Write the output of the following queries. The queries are based 2 on the tables given in the previous question.
i) SELECT DISTINCT SUPCODE FROM PRODUCTS;
ii) SELECT MAX(PRICE),MIN(PRICE) FROM PRODUCTS;
iii) SELECT CONCAT(PNAME,” MANUFACTURED BY “, COMPANY)
4 “MANUFACTURED” FROM PRODUCTS; iv) SELECT PID,PNAME,PRICE FROM PRODUCTS WHERE PNAME LIKE “DIGI%”;
7 a) State the principle of duality in Boolean Algebra. Give an example. 3 b) Write the complement of the given expression(write down the 2 steps) : (P+Q) + (Q+R).(R+P) c) Draw the logic circuit for the function, F(X,Y,Z)=YZ + XZ using 2 NAND gates only. d) Prove algebraically that x' y + y z = x' y z + x' y z' + x y z + x' y z 3
8 a) Out of the following which all comes under cyber crime? 1 i) Stealing away a brand new computer from a showroom. ii) Getting in someone's social networking account whithout his/her consent and posting pictures on his / her behalf. iii) Secretly copying files from a company's server and selling it to other company. iv) Viewing sites on a browser b) What is a worm? How can you prevent your system from getting 2 infected by a worm? c) What are the different ways in which you can be tracked on the 3 web (Any two, write about each in not more than 2 sentences) ?
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5 ANSWER KEY
Q. No Part Question Description Marks 1 a) Identify the type of following literals: 2 23.789, True, true,None Ans: 23.789 – float, True – boolean, true - identifier, None - None (4 *1/2 =2)
b) Evaluate the following expressions: 1 i) i) (2+3)*5//4+(4+6)/2 - 11.0 ii) 12*5%3+(2*6)//4 - 2 (1/2 + 1/2) c) Rewrite the following code in python after removing all syntax 2 error(s). Underline each correction done in the code.
X=int(“Enter value for X:”) X=int(input(“Enter value for X”)) for M in range[0,11]: Y=5 if X=Y: for M in range(0,11): print(X+Y) if X==y: else: print(x+y) print(X-Y) else: print(X-Y) (4*1/2=2)
d) Write the output of the following Python code (Ignore any 2 syntactical errors, if any): L=[] L1=[] L2=[] for i in range(6,10): L.append(i) for i in range(10,4,-2): L1.append(i) for i in range(len(L1)): L2.append(L[i]+L1[i]) L2.append(len(L)-len(L1)) print(L2)
Ans: [16,15,14,1] (1/2+1/2+1 = 2) e) Write a program to input a number and find the sum of odd digits 2 of that number. Eg: if the number is 2895640, then the sum is 9+5=14
6
num=int(input(“Enter a number”)) sum=0 while(num>0): digit=num%10 (1/2) if not (digit%2+=0): (1/2) sum+=digit (1/2) num/=10 print(“Sum of even digits in the number”,sum) (1/2)
2 a) What are the different types of sequences in Python? Explain any 2 one of them briefly with an example. Strings, Lists, Tuples are the different sequences in Python. (1/2) List is a - mutable sequence (1/2) - writtten in [], eg L=[1,2,3,4,5] - can have different data types as elements (1/2) - forward indexing and backward indexing used to access the elements of the list eg: L[0] is 1 and L[-1] is 5 (1/2) b) What will be the output generated by the following code: 3 for i in range(4): for j in range(5): if i+ 1==j or j+i ==4: o + o o + # (1/2) print(“+”,end=' ') o o + + o # (1) else: o o + + o # (1/2) print(“o”,end=' ') o + o o + # (1) print(“#”)
c) Write the most appropriate method to perform the following tasks: 2 i) Given a list L1, add it to another list L. L.extend(L1) ii) Add an element in the beginning of the list L. L.insert(0,e) Iii) Get the position of the element, e in the list L. L.index(e) Iv) To get the copy of the string with only the first letter in upper case S.capitalize() (4 *1/2= 2) d) What will be the output of the code given below: 2 T1=(“TEA POT”,[1,2,’3’],’S’,(3,4,6),”book”,10) print(T1[1][1]) print(T1[-5:-3]+T1[3] print(T1[4:4]) print(T1[0]+T1[2])
Ans: 2
7 ([1,2,’3’],’S’,3,4,6) () ‘TEA POTS’ ( 4 * 1/2 =2)
3 a) int('a) produces an error but the following expression having 2 int('a) in it does not return error, why? What is the output produced?
len('a')+2 or int('a')
When logical OR is used in expression – evaluates the first expression - if it is true,it ignores the second expression. -Hence the int('a') is ignored since len('a)+2 is a True value, more than 0 (1 1/2)
Output is 3 (1/2) b) Write a program to input a list of integers and find the difference 3 between the maximum value and minimum value of the integers in the list. Eg: if the list is 9,14,2,19,3,15,9 The difference between the largest and smallest integer of the list is 17. num=int(input(“Enter the numbers”)) l=[] (1/2) for i in range(num): n=int(input(“Number”)) l.append(n) small=0; big=0; for i in range(num): if small>=l[i]: 1 small=l[i] if big<=l[i]: 1 big=l[i] print(“Range of the given list is “,big-small) ( 1/2) c) What are the 5 steps involved in the compilation of a program? 3 Give an example of a compiler. Compilation Steps – Pre processing Compilation – Analysis and Synthesis Assembly / object code Linker Loader C++ / C#, C are all compilers (6 * 1/2 =3)
4 a) What is a public cloud? Give 2 examples of public cloud. 2
8
Public Cloud : refers to the cloud available to many subsribers . Resources are owned by a third party, shared by the public (1) eg: Azure, Google Drive, Icloud, Amazon cloud (1) b) Draw the state transition diagram of a process. Label the states 3 neatly.
Start (1/2 for 5 states, 1/2 for showing stransitions)
Ready Running Complet ed
Waiting
c) Wrtie a program that inputs a string and stores it as words in a 3 tuple. Then translate each word to Pig Latin and print it back as a string.
Eg: if the string is “The quick brown fox”. Then the tuple should be (“The”,”quick”,”brown”,”fox”). To make it in Pig Latin, take the first letter of each word, move it to the end of the word and add “ay” to it. So “The” becomes “heTay”, “quick” becomes “uickqay” ..... The string in Pig Latin should be “Hetay uickqay rownbay oxfay” s=input(“Etner the string”) t=tuple(s.split()) (1/2) nstr=” “ for word in t: nword=word[1:]+word[0]+”ay” (1) nstr+=nword+” “ (1/2) print(“New string is “,nstr) (1)
d) Write a program to input a list of integers. Then create another list 2 with the cumulative sum of the first list. Cumulative sum of list [a,b,c,....] is[a,a+b,a+b+c,...] Eg: if the first list is [2,3,4,5,6,7] then the second list is [2,5,9,14,20,27,..] ie 2,2+3,2+3+4,2+3+4+5,...
num=int(input(“Enter the limit”))
9 l=[];nl=[] (1/2) for i in range(num): n=int(input(“Enter the integer”)) l.append(n) for i in range(num): s=0 (1/2) for j in range(i+1): s=s+l[j] (1/2) nl.append(s) (1/2) print(nl)
5 a) What is the use of pass statement in Python? 2
Pass is an empty statement in Python. An empty statement is a statement which does nothing but its presence is required as part of the syntax. Logically there is nothing to be done at that point. (1+1)
b) Write a program to sort the list of integers in the ascending order 3 using bubble sort. n=int(input(“Limit”)) s=[] (1/2) for i in range(n): num=int(input(“Number”)) s.append(num) (1/2) for i in range(n): for j in range(n-i-1): (1/2) if s[j]>=s[j+1]: (1/2) s[j],s[j+1]=s[j+1],s[j] (1/2) print(s) (1/2) c) Given a list of strings Neena, Meeta, Geetha, Reeta, Seetha. Write the 3 output of the list after the Ist,2nd and 3rd iteration of the Insertion Sort. The list has to be arranged in descending order. Ist iteration : Neena, Meeta, Geetha, Reeta, Seetha (1) 2nd Iteration: Neena, Meeta, Geetha, Reeta, Seetha (1) 3rd Iteration: Reeta,Neena,Meeta,Geetha,Seetha (1)
6 a) Observe the table RESULT. Find the primary key of the table 2 RESULT. Also find the degree and caedinality
RESULT PNO NAME EVENT CODE EVENT NAME 1 AruanabhaTariba 1001 IT Quiz n
10 2 John Fedricks 1002 Group Debate 3 Kanti Desai 1001 IT Quiz 4 Shivani Patel 1002 Group Debate 5 Arnav Patel 1002 Group Debate
Ans: Primary Key is PNO (1) Degree : 4 (1/2) Cardinality : 5 (1/2) b) Write the SQL command to alter the table emp. The statement 2 should add a column EXP. It takes alphanumeric data and its width can be 20. Default value is “Fresher”
ALTER TABLE EMP ADD COLUMN(EXP VARCHAR(20) DEFAULT “FRESHER”); (2) c) Write down the SQL queries based on the tables given below. 4 Table : PRODUCTS PID PNAME QTY PRICE COMPANY SUPCODE
101 DIGITAL CAMERA 120 1200 RENIX S01 14X 102 DIGITAL PAD 11i 100 22000 DIGI POP S02 104 PEN DRIVE 16 GB 500 1100 STORE KING S01 106 LED SCREEEN 32 70 28000 DISPEXPERTS S02 105 CAR GPS SYSTEM 60 12000 MOVEON S03
i) Write a SQL command to display the details of all the products in the descending order of the product name. SELECT * FROM PRODUCTS ORDER BY PNAME DESC; (1) ii) Write a SQL command to display the product name and price of those products whose price is in the range of 10000 and 15000. SELECT PNAME,PRICE FROM PRODUCTS WHERE PRICE BETWEEN 10000 AND 15000; (1) iii)Write a SQL command to display the product name, qty, Total Amount (qty * price) . SELECT PNAME,QTY, QTY*PRICE “TOTAL AMOUNT” FROM PRODUCTS; (1)
iv) Write a SQL command to display the product name, price and company which has ‘EE’ in their product name
11 SELECT PNAME,Price, Company FROM PRODUCTS WHERE PNAME LIKE “%EE%’; (1) d) Write the output of the following queries. The queries are based 2 on the tables given in the previous question.
i) SELECT DISTINCT SUPCODE FROM PRODUCTS; DISTINCT SUPCODE S01 S02 S03 ii) SELECT MAX(PRICE),MIN(PRICE) FROM PRODUCTS; MAX(PRICE) MIN(PRICE) 28000 1100 iii) SELECT CONCAT(PNAME,” MANUFACTURED BY “, COMPANY) “MANUFACTURED” FROM PRODUCTS; MANUFACTURED DIGITAL CAMERA 14X MANUFACTURED BY RENIX DIGITAL PAD 11i MANUFACTURED BY DIGI POP PEN DRIVE 16GB MANUFACTURED BY STORE KING LED SCREEN 32 MANUFACTURED BY DISPEXPERTS CAR GPS SYSTEM MANUFACTURED BY MOVEON
iv) SELECT PID,PNAME,PRICE FROM PRODUCTS WHERE PNAME LIKE “DIGI%”; PID PNAME PRICE 101 DIGITAL CAMERA 14X 12000 102 DIGITAL PAD 11i 22000 (4 *1/2=2)
7 a) State the principle of duality in Boolean Algebra. Give an example.. 3 Principle of Duality states that, from a given boolean expression, another boolean expression can be derived by (2) changing all the (+) to (.) changing all the (.) to (+) Replacing all 0's to 1 and all the 1's to 0.
eg: if boolean expression is (A+B).(C+D), then its dual is (A.B)+(C.D) (1)
b) Write the complement of the given expression(write down the 2 steps) : (P+Q) + (Q+R).(R+P) Apply De Morgan's theorem – ((P+Q)+(Q+R).(R+P))' (1/2) (P+Q)' . ((Q+R).(R+P))' (1/2) (P'.Q').(Q+R)'+(R+P)' (1/2) (P'Q').(Q'.R')+(R'.P') (1/2)
12 c) Draw the logic circuit for the function, F(X,Y,Z)=YZ + XZ . 2 Y AND Z OR X AND Z
d) Prove tat x' y + y z = x' y z + x' y z' + x y z + x' y z 3
RHS = X'YZ + X'YZ' +XYZ +X'YZ =X'Y(Z+Z')+YZ(X+X') distr.law (1/2) =X'Y.1 + YZ.1 complimentary law x+x'=1 (1/2) = X'Y+YZ properties of 1 1.x=x (1) =LHS (1)
(Or truth table proof is also correct)
8 a) Out of the following which all comes under cyber crime? 1 v) Stealing away a brand new computer from a showroom. vi) Getting in someone's social networking account whithout his/her consent and posting pictures on his / her behalf. vii) Secretly copying files from a company's server and selling it to other company. viii) Viewing sites on a browser Ans: (ii) and (iii) (2*1/2=1) b) What is a worm? How can you prevent your system from getting 2 infected by a worm? Worm is a malicious software, self replicating code. It takes up disk space by replicating itself and slows down the system eventually. Spreads normally through network. (1) Preventive Measure – Antivirus, antispyware upto date download email attachments with caution scan the system regularly frquently download system updates regularly (1) c) What are the different ways in which you can be tracked on the 3 web (Any two, write about each in not more than 2 sentences) ? Cookies – are text files stored in your system by the website that you have visited. It helps to personalize your browsing but it can be misused by third party cookies to get information. HTTP referrer – when you click on a link, it will open another webpage. This can retrieve your information like the IP address, machine type etc. IP address : Everytime you connect to the net, your IP address is seen by others. From this it is easy to get your georgraphic location. (3)
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13 REVISION PAPERS FOR ANNUAL EXAMINATION 2019-20 Std :XI CHEMISTRY Marks: 70 Time: 3 Hrs Question numbers 1-20 carry 1 mark each. Question numbers 21- 27 carry 2 marks each. Question numbers 28- 34 carry 3 marks each. Question numbers 35-37 carry 5 marks each.
Section A Read the passage and answer the questions 1 to 5 that follow: The elements in Organic compound can be detected by Lassaigne’s test. The elements are converted from covalent form to ionic form by fusing the compounds with Sodium metal. Cyanide, sulphide, halide formed is the Sodium Fusion Extract. 1. What is the name of Prussian blue? 2. How does sodium fusion extract react with lead acetate and acetic acid? 3. What is the role of dil.HNO3 for detecting halides? 4. What is Sodium Nitroprusside? 5. How does sodium cyanide react with FeSO4 solution?
Questions 6 to 10 are short answer questions: 6. A solution is prepared by dissolving 10 g of NaOH in 100 ml of solution. What is its Molarity ? 7. State the hybridization of Carbon in acetylene molecule. 8. What do you understand by BOD(Biological Oxygen Demand)? 9. The technique used to separate glycerol from spent lye in soap industry is ------10. The IUPAC name of this compound is :
Questions 11 to 15 are multiple choice questions: 11. Considering Entropy as a Thermodynamic property, the criterion for Spontaneity of a process is :
a) ΔS system- ΔS surroundings < 0 b) ΔSsystem > 0 c) ΔS surroundings > 0 d) ΔS system - ΔS surrounding > 0
12. Orbital interaction between sigma bonds of a substituent group and the neighbouring pi-orbital is known as : a) Hyperconjugation b) Inductive Effect c ) Electromeric Effect d) Resonance effect. 13. Which of the following is a Lewis base?
a) AlCl3 b) Ag c) Al(OH)3 d) NH3
14. Which of the following is an example of elimination reaction ? a) Chlorination of Methane b) Dehydration of Alcohol c) Nitration of benzene d) Hydrogenation of ethene. 15. The strongest acid among the following is:
a) C2H6 b) C3H8 c) C2H2 d) C2H4
In the following questions, Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are given. Of the statements mark the correct answer as a) If both A and R are True, and R is the correct explanation of A b) If both A and R are True, but R is not the True explanation of A c) If A is True, but R is False d) If both A and R are False e) If A is False but R is True 16. Assertion (A) : Alkali metals impart colour to the flame Reason (R) : Their Ionization energies are low.
17. Assertion (A) : Bond angle in H2O is less than that in H2S. Reason (R) : Electronegativity of Oxygen is more than Sulphur. 18. Match the following Column I Column II a) Syn Gas i) Oxidising agent b) NaBH4 ii) (NaPO3)n c) Calgon iii) CO +H2 d) Hydrogen peroxide iv) Reducing agent
19. The relative order of stability for a Carbocation is Primary> secondary > Tertiary Say True or False 20.Draw the structures of a) Pent-4-en-2-ol b) Cyclohex-2-en-1-ol SectionB 21. Identify A and B
Red hot iron HNO3, H2SO4 C2H2 A B Tube 873 K 22. a) Aluminium forms [AlF6]3- but boron does form [BF6]3- ion. Why?. b) Is boric acid a protic acid? Explain.
23. a) Why is KO2 Paramagnetic?
b) Li2CO3 decomposes at a lower temperature whereas Na2CO3 at a higher temperature. Why?
24. Account for the following i) Neopentane has lower boiling point. ii) Benzene is extraordinarily stable even though it contains 3 double bonds. 25. Give reason. a) LiF is insoluble in water where as LiCl is soluble in water and also in acetone.
b)PbCl2 is more stable than PbCl4. OR a) Name the catalyst used in the Kharasch effect. b) Out of cis and trans isomer which has greater dipole moment and why ?
26. What is a disproportionation reaction? Give a suitable example. OR What is Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity? Explain by taking the example of nitrogen.
27. Balance the following redox equation by Oxidation number method:
Permanganate (Vii) ion, MnO4- in basic solution , Oxidises iodide ion
(I-), to produce Iodine and MnO2. Write a balanced Ionic equation to represent this redox reaction. Section C 28.What happens when : a) Borax is heated strongly b) Boric acid is added to water c) Aluminium is treated with HCl. 29. 0.3780 g of Organic chloro compound gave 0.5740 g of silver Chloride in Carius estimation. Calculate the percentage of Chlorine present in the compound. 30. Write short notes on: a. Clark’s method b. Calgon Process c. Ion exchange method. 31. Arrange the following set of compounds in the order of decreasing reactivity with an electrophile, E+ . i) Chlorobenzene, 2,4-dinitrochlorobenzene, p-nitrochlorobenzene. ii) Toluene, p- H3C-C6H4-CH3 , p- H3C-C6H4-NO2 , p-O2N-C6H4-NO2. iii) Benzene, n-hexane, ethyne ( Arrange in Decreasing order of acidic behaviour) 32. An antifreeze solution is prepared from 222.6 g of ethylene glycol
C2H4(OH)2 and 200 g of water. Calculate the molality of the solution. If density is 1.072 g/mL, what will be the molarity of the solution? 33. Calculate the number of moles in each of the following: a) 392 g of Sulphuric acid b) 44.8 litres of Sulphur –di-Oxide at N.T.P c) 6.022 x1022 molecules of Oxygen.
34. a) Propanal and pentan-3-one are the reductive ozonolysis products of an alkene .What is the Structural formula and name of the alkene. b) Do the following Conversions: i) Ethane to ethyne ii) Isopropyl bromide to 1-Bromopropane.
Section D 35. a) Write the products and their IUPAC names Obtained when hex-1ene reacts with HBr ( Markovnikov’s ) b ) Give Markovnikov’s Mechanism with 1-Propene. OR a) Write the products and their IUPAC names Obtained when hex-1-ene reacts with HBr in the presence of Peroxide ( Anti-Markovnikov’s ) b ) Give Anti-Markovnikov’s Mechanism with 1-Propene.
36. Account for the following a) Covalent bonds are directional while ionic are not directional. b) Ethyne molecule is linear.
c) BeH2 molecule has zero dipole moment although Be-H bonds are polar. d) A molecule of Hydrogen exists whereas Helium does not e) Complete the reaction
Si + CH3Cl---- OR Account for the following.
a) Conc. HNO3 can be transported in aluminium container. b) CCl4 is immiscible in water whereas SiCl4 is easily hydrolysed. c) Water has higher boiling point than Hydrogen fluoride. d) Gallium has higher ionization enthalpy than aluminium. e) Complete the reaction B2H6 + NH3 37. a) State the Third Law Of Thermodynamics.
b) Derive an expression ΔG= -TΔStotal. c) For a reversible reaction taking place at 127 0 C and 1atm Pressure, ΔG is 23.5kJ/mol for the forward reaction. Calculate the value of Kc for this reaction. OR a) What is Buffer solution? Give an example of acidic and basic buffer. b) The pH of 0.01 M solution of Organic acid is 4.15. Calculate the concentration of the anion, Ionisation constant of the acid and pKa.
Answer Key Chemistry Q.N0 Section -A Mks 1. Iron (III) hexacyano ferrate (II) or Ferric ferrocyanide 1 2. Na2 S + Pb(CH3COO)2 PbS ( Black Ppt)+ 2CH3COONa 1 3. To expel the gases. 1 4. Na2S + Na2 [Fe (CN)5 NO] ( Sodium Nitroprusside) Na4[Fe(CN)5NO.S] Violet colour 1 Detection of Sulphur. 5. FeSO4 + 2NaCN Fe(CN)2 + Na2SO4 1 6. 2.5 M 1 7. sp 1 8. It is the amount of dissolved Oxygen needed by aerobic bacteria to break down 1 Organic matter 9. Distillation under reduced Pressure 1 10. 4-Bromopent-2-ene 1 11. ΔS system –Δ S surrounding > 0 1 12. Hyperconjugation 1 13. NH3 1 14. Dehydration of Alcohols 1
15. C2H2 1 16. a- Assertion and Reason are Correct. 1 17. e- Assertion False ,Reason Correct. 1 18. Match the following a-iii , b-iv , c-ii , d-i 1 19. False 30 >20 >10 1 20. a. CH2=CH-CH2-CHOH-CH3 b. Cyclohex-2-en-1-ol b. Draw 1 21. Section- B 1 A-Benzene B-Nitrobenzene 1 22. a. Boron does not have vacant d orbitals hence cannot expand its Octet. Boron does 1 not show covalency of more than 4.
b. It does not ionise in water to give a proton acts as a Lewis acid accepting electron from water. 1
23. a. It Contains 1 unpaired electron in Π* 2py Orbital. 1 b. A small Lithium cation cannot stabilise a large Carbonate anion ,hence 1 decomposes easily. 24. a. Branched structure, Vander Waals Force decreases, boiling point decreases. 1 b. Resonance and delocalisation of pi electrons 1 25. a. LiF small cation-Lattice Enthalpy higher than Hydration, whereas in LiCl Lower 1 lattice Enthalpy,Solunle in water.Covalent Character due to Polarisation ,hence soluble in non polar solvent like acetone. 1 b. Inert Pair effect-Explain( Reluctance to lose electrons from s-Orbitals) OR a. Benzoyl Peroxide. b. Cis-Isomers due to dipole Interactions
26. A reaction where the Oxidation states of an element are different. Any Equation2 1+1 H2O2 2H2O + O2 Oxidation Number of Oxygen is different. Oxygen has Oxidation State -1 in Hydrogen peroxide,-2 in Water and 0 in Oxygen molecule. OR 1+1 Electron pairing will not take place in orbitals of same energy until each orbital is singly occupied. N- 1s22s2 2px12py12pz1
27. Balance the two half reactions by following the rules and simplify it 1 2MnO4-+ 6 I- + 4H2O ------2 MnO2 +3 I2 + 8 OH- 1 28. Section -C 1 a. Na2B4O7.10H2O Na2B4O7 --2NaBO2 + B2O3 1 b. B(OH)3 + H2O [B(OH)4]- + H3O+ 1 c.2 Al + 6 HCl 2Al3+ + 6Cl- + 3H2 29. 143.5 g of AgCl contains 35.5 g of Cl 1 o.5740 g of AgCl Contains? 35.5 x 0.5740/143.5 =0.142 g 1 % of Halogen= 0.142 x100/0.3780 =37.57 % 1 30. a. Ca( HCO3)2 + Ca (OH)2 2CaCO3 + 2H2O 1 b. Na2[Na4(PO3)6] + 2Mg2+ Na2[Mg2 (PO3)6] +4Na+ 1 c. Na2Z + Ca2+ CaZ + 2Na+ 1 31. i) Chlorobenzene > p-Nitro chlorobenzenebenzene > 2,4-Dinitrochlorobenzene ii)p-CH3-C6H4 > Toluene > p-CH3-C6H4NO2 > O2N-C6H4-NO2 iii) Ethyne > Benzene > n-Hexane 32. Molality ( m) = n/ Mass of Solvent in Kg = Mass of Ethylene glycol C2H4(OH)2/Molar 1 mass/mass of
Solvent in Kg =222.6/62/0.2= 17.95 mol/kg 1
Molarity (M)=n/Volume of Solution in Litres Mass of Solution= Mass of Solute +Solvent= 222.6 +200=422.6 g Volume=Mass of Solution/Density= 422.6 g/ 1.072 g/mL 1 394.2 mL=0.3942 L M= n/V= 222.6/62/ 0.3942 = 9.10 mol/L
33. a) 98 g of Sulphuric acid =1 mol 1 392 g----? = 392/98= 4 mol b) 22.4 Litres of gas=1mol 1 44.8 Litres ---? =44.8/22.4=2mol c) 6.022 x 1023 molecules of Oxygen =1 mol 6.022 x 1023 molecules ? = 0.1 mol 1 34. a. 3-Ethyl hex-3-ene 1 b i. C2H6 ---Cl2/sunlight CH3CH2Cl--- Alc KOH CH2=CH2---Br2CH2Br-CH2Br---Alc KOH C2H2 1 ii. CH3-CHBr-CH3---Alc KOH CH3- CH=CH2---HBr/Peroxide CH3-CH2 -CH2 Br 1
35. CH3-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH=CH2---HBr CH3-CH2- CH2-CH2-CHBr-CH3 ( 2-Bromohexane) 1 Law-The negative part goes to that carbon atom containing the least number of 1 hydrogen atoms. 3 Mechanism—Refer NCERT Text Part 2 Pg 389 Or CH3-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH=CH2---HBr/Benzoyl Peroxide CH3-CH2- CH2-CH2-CH2-CH2Br 1 ( 1-Bromohexane) 2 2 Mechanism Mechanism—Refer NCERT Text Part 2 Pg 390
36. Section -D 1 a. Covalent bonds formed due to overlap of atomic orbitals which are directional whereas ionic bonds 1 bonds are due to transfer of electrons which are non-directional. 1 b. Due to sp hybridisation the resultant dipoles cancel each other. 1 c. BeH2 linear structure bond angle 1 0 ,whereas Be-H Polar due to electronegative 1 difference. 1 d. Helium has fully filled 1s orbital,whereas H2 molecule can accept 1 electron into the 1s orbital. e. 2CH3Cl + Si (CH3)2 SiCl2 1 OR 1 a. Conc. HNO3 reacts with Al2O3 which forms a protective coating which renders the metal passive. 1 b. Carbon has no Vaccant d-orbitals to accept lone pair of electrons from water. 1 c. Water has two hydrogen bonds whereas HF has only one, hence water needs 1 more energy to break the bonds. d. Due to poor screening effect of 3d orbitals of Gallium. e. 2 B2H6 +6NH3 B2N3H6 + 12 H2 37. a. The entropy of a perfect Crystalline solid may be taken as absolute zero 1 temperature. b. Derivation NCERT Text Part 1 Pg 184,185 1 c. log Kc = -ΔG/ 2.303 RT log Kc= - 23500 jmol-1/ 2.303 x 8.314 x 400 K 3 log Kc =3.0683 Kc=antilog -4.9317 = 8.545 x 10-4 OR Buffer Solution : The solution which resists changes in the hydrogen ion 1 concentration on the addition of small amount of acid or base. Acidic buffer: It contains equimolar quantities of a weak acid and its salt with strong base. Eg: CH3COoH and CH3COONa maintains pH of 4.74 1 Basic Buffer: Eg Weak base and its salt with a strong acid 1 Eg: NH4OH and NH4Cl maintains pH of 9.25 pH= -4.15 [H+] =Antilog -5.85 = 7.08 x 10-5 M [A-]=[H+]= 7.08 x 10-5 Ka= [H+] [A-]/[HA] 1 = ( 7.08 x 10-5)2/0.01 =5.0 x 10-7
pKa= -log Ka = -log ( 5.0 x 10-7) = 7-log 5 1 = 7-0.699 = 6.301
REVISION PAPERS FOR ANNUAL EXAMINATION 2019-20 GRADE XI ECONOMICS MARKS : 80 TIME : 3 HRS
PART A 1. In…………………………… market, seller produces products that are only superficially different. 2. Expenditure incurred by the producer on the purchase of inputs from market leads to ………………………. 3. Producers Equilibrium is struck at that level of output where the difference between TR and TC is ………………………… 4. What happens to PPC when MRT is constant? 5. If the price of Good X rises and this leads to a fall in the demand of good Y, how are the 2 goods related? 6. There are train and bus services between New Delhi and Jaipur. Suppose that the train fare between the 2 cities have reduced , how will it affect demand curve for bus trvel between the 2 cities. ? 7. The difference between AC & AVC is constant . True / false. 8. When there are diminishing returns to a factor TP always decreases. True/ False. 9. Price discrimination is possible under monopoly. Give reasons. 10. A straight line passing through the origin forming a 60⁰ indicates : (a) Es= 0 (b) Es= 1 (c) Es >1 (d) Es< 1 11. “ a firm can sell more only at lower price”. To which market would you relate this statement? (a) Perfect competition (b) Monopoly (c ) Oligopoly (d) Duopoly (1x11=11) 12. A consumer consumes only 2 goods X &Y. MU of each is 2 utils. The price / unit of X & Y is Re. 1 and Rs. 2 respectively. Is this consumer in equilibrium? . What will be the further reaction of the consumer? 13. The market for a good is in equilibrium . What would be the impact on the market price if there is a simultaneous increase in both demand and supply of the good. ? (increase in demand being more than increase in supply) 14. The Union Health Minister of India has recently launched ‘ Integrated Child Development Services’ . How will it impact the PPC of India ? 15. Under what market condition does AR be equal to MR. Explain using Diagram. 16. A firm earns a revenue of Rs. 50 when the market price of a good is Rs. 10. The market price increases to Rs. 15 and the firm now earns a revenue of Rs. 150. What is the price elasticity of firm’s supply curve? (3x5=15) 17. Compute TR, AR and MR schedule in the following table. Market price of each unit of the good is Rs. 10 Quantity Sold TR MR AR 0 - - - 1 - - - 2 - - - 3 - - - 4 - - - 5 - - - 6 - - - 18. What is the implication of the existence of (a) large number of sellers (b) perfect knowledge regarding market condition in a perfectly competitive market. 19. Explain the four factors on which price elasticity of demand depends. (4x3=12) 20. If the equilibrium price of a good is greater than the market price , explain all the changes that will take place in the market . explain using diagrams. 21. “ In a hypothetical market of mobile phones, the brand AWAAZ was leading the market share. Its nearest competitor VAARTA suddenly changed its strategy by bringing in a new model of mobile phones at a relatively lesser price. In response , AWAAZ too slashed its price”. Based on the above information , identify the form of market represented and discuss the features of this market. (6x2=12)
PART B 1. Standard Deviation is always computed from (a) Median (b) Mean (c ) Mode (d) All of the above 2. Which out of the following is a positional average? (a) Arithmetic Mean (b) Median (c ) Geometric Mean (d) Mode 3. The unit of correlation coefficient between height in feet and weight in kgs is (a) Kg/Ft (b) percentage (c) Non- existent (d) none of the above 4. Arithmetic mean of 4,6,8,15,25 is (a) 10 (b) 11.2 (c ) 15 (d) 11.6 5. When do you say there is high degree of correlation? 6. What is an Index Number? 7. …………………… is the difference between the upper limit of the highest class and the lower limit of the lowest class. 8. …………………… has 25% of items of the distribution below it. 9. What is mean deviation? (1x9=9) 10. The mean wage of 100 workers is Rs. 324. The mean wage of 60 workers is Rs. 340. Find the mean wage of the remaining 40 workers. 11. Calculate median from the following table Class: 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60 60-70 Freq : 10 5 5 10 15 5 10 12. Construct index number using average of price relatives method. Commodity Price in 2008 Price in 2012 A 8 10 B 15 18 C 12 16 D 10 14 E 8 12 F 12.5 17 (3X3=9) 13. Calculate Rank Correlation Coefficient X: 48 33 40 9 16 16 65 24 16 57 Y: 13 13 24 6 15 4 20 9 6 19 14. A batsman is to be selected for a cricket team. The choice is between x & y on the basis of their five previous scores which are X: 25 85 40 80 120 Y: 50 70 65 45 80 Which batsman should be selected if we want , (i) a higher run getter (ii) a more reliable batsman.? 15. Compute Price Index numbers for 2007 with 1993 as base using (a) Laspayers (b) Paasche’s (c ) Fishers Methods Commodity P0 Q0 P1 P2 A 20 8 40 6 B 50 10 60 5 C 40 15 50 15 D 20 20 20 25 (4x3=12)
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ANSWER KEY 1. Monopolistic competition 2. Explicit cost 3. Maximum 4. PPC is downward sloping straight line. 5. Complimentary goods 6. Demand curve for bus travel will shift to the left. It happens because the price of its substitute ( train fare) has decreased , and it will make bus travel relatively expensive. 7. False. The difference between AC & AVC is AFC and AFC can never be constant. Since ATC tends to decline with increase in Q , the difference between AC & AVC must reduce as Q increases. 8. False , this is because in a situation of diminishing returns to a factor MP tends to fall. Fall in MP leads to TP increasing at a decreasing rate. 9. Price discrimination means charging different prices for the same product from different buyers at the same time.. since monopoly is a single seller in the market , it enjoys complete control over the price. In this regard it can follow price discrimination in order to gain maximum profits. 10. © Es>2 11. (b) Monopoly 12. Given Px= 1 Py=2 MUx =2 MUy=2
Equilibrium condition =
Here the consumer is not in equilibrium because
= 2/1> 2/2. The consumer would react to this situation by increasing the consumption of Good X in place of Good Y. 13. DD is the initial demand curve and SS is the initial supply curve. E is the initial equilibrium position where DD intersect SS. Correspondingly OQ is the equilibrium quantity and OP is the equilibrium price. With increase in demand , the demand curve shifts parallelly outwards to D’D’. On the other hand , with increase in supply , the supply curve shifts to S’S’. However, increase in demand is greater than increase in supply. The new equilibrium is at E’ where D’D’ intersect S’S’.So the equilibrioum price has risen to OP, and equilibrium quantity is OQ,. 14. ICDS is launched to improve the overall development of children in India. This would ensure that a healthy labour force is added to the existing stock of man power. Thus , PPC shifts to the right. 15. It is under perfect competition that AR=MR . under perfect competition price is given to a firm as determined by the industry. Constant price implies constant AR and thus AR=MR at all levels of output. Accordingly AR & MR under perfect competition are shown by horizontal straight line. 16. P=10 TR= PXQ=50 Q = 50/5=5 P, = 15 TR= P,XQ,= 150 Q,= 150/15=10
Es= X
= 2units
17.
Quantity Sold P TR= MR AR PxQ 0 10 0 - - 1 10 10 10 10 2 10 20 10 10 3 10 30 10 10 4 10 40 10 10 5 10 50 10 10 6 10 60 10 10
18. (a) Large no. of buyers and sellers implies no individual sellers can influence the price of the commodity in the market. Any change in output supplied by a single seller will not affect the total output of the industry. To an individual seller the price is given. He can sell whatever output he wants at the given price ie, an individual seller is a price taker. Similarly , no individual buyer can influence the price of the commodity. (b) implication is that any attempt by any firm to charge a higher price than the prevailing market price will fail. The buyers will not pay higher price because they have perfect knowledge . there is no ignorance about factors operating in the market. The seller will not charge a higher price the buyers will not pay a higher price. 19. (a) Availability of close substitute (b) income of consumers (c ) number of uses of the commodity (d) time period. (explain ) 20. In the figure, DD is the market demand curve and SS is the market supply curve. Market Demand and market supply are equal at the point E. At point E OP is the equilibrium price and OQ is the equilibrium quantity. OP is the equilibrium price which is greater than the market price OP,. At the given price, there is excess demand = AB. In reponse to increase in market price , the price of quantity supplied tends to rise leading to an upward movement along the SS curve from point A to Point E. Also a rise in price leads to backward movement along the demand curve from Point B to Point E, indicating fall in quantity demanded. Movement along the Supply and Demand curve will continue to occur till excess demand is eliminated and equilibrium is restored. This occurs at point E , where Market Demand = Market supply.
21. Oligopoly is the market form. Features (1) Few dominant firms (2) Barriers to entry (3) Homogenous or Differentiated for product (4) Indeterminate Demand Curve (5) Price Rigidity. (explain)
PART B 1. (b) Mean 2. (b) Median 3. (b) percentage 4. (d)11.6 5. When the value of the coefficient is between 75 and 1 6. Index Number is a statistical device used for measuring changes in the magnitude of a group of related variables. 7. Range 8. Lower quartile 9. It is the arithmetic mean of the differences of the values from the averages 10.
Let X be the mean of 40 workers 324 = / 100 X = Rs. 300 11.
Class freq Cumulative freq 0-10 10 10 10-20 5 15 20-30 5 20 30-40 10 30 40-50 15 45 50-60 5 50 60-70 10 60
Median = N/2th term 60/2=30th term Median class = 30-40 Me= Lo + N/2-CF/F x h = 30 + 30-20/10 x10 40 12. Commodity Price in 2008 Price in 2012 P1/P2X100 A 8 10 125 B 15 18 120 C 12 16 133.33 D 10 14 140 E 8 12 150 F 12.5 17 136 804.33
P01= Σp1/p0 x100/ N = 804.33/6 = 134.05 13. X Y R1 R2 D D2 48 13 3 5.5 -2.5 6.25 33 13 5 5.5 -0.5 0.25 40 24 4 1 3 9 9 6 10 8.5 1.5 2.25 16 15 7 4 3 9 16 4 7 10 -3 9 65 20 1 2 -1 1 24 9 6 7 -1 1 16 6 7 8.5 -1.5 2.25 57 19 2 3 -1 1 41 Correction factor = Σm (m2-1)/12= 3 Rk = 1-6(ΣD2+ CF)/N(N2-1) = 0.73 14. MeanX = 70 Mean Y= 62 Batsman X Batsman Y X Deviation Square of Y Deviation Square of from mean deviation from mean deviation 25 -45 2025 50 -12 144 85 15 225 70 8 64 40 -30 900 65 3 9 80 10 100 45 -17 289 120 50 2500 80 18 324 350 5750 310 830
Batsman X = ΣX/n= 350/7=70
√ √ Σx2/N= √
CVx= = 33.91/70x100= 48.44
Batsman Y = ΣY/n= 310/5= 62
√ Σy2/N=√ = 12.88
CVy= = 12.88/62x100= 20.77
X is the higher run getter as X’s average is more Y is more reliable batsman in the team. 15. P1Q0 P0Q0 P1Q1 P0Q1 320 160 240 120 600 500 300 250 750 600 750 600 400 400 500 500 2070 1660 1790 1470
Laspayers = ΣP1Q0/ΣP0Q0X100 = 2070/1660X100 =124.69 Paasches= Σp1q1/Σp0q1x100 = 1790/1470x100 121.76
Fishers = √
= √ = 123.61
REVISION PAPERS FOR ANNUAL EXAMINATION 2019-20 Std :XI ENGLISH Marks: 80 Time: 3 Hrs
ENGLISH SAMPLE PAPER GRADE XI Total- 80 Marks SECTION A – READING (20 MARKS) 1. Read the given passage carefully and then answer the questions based on it: [12] Read the passage given below carefully: 12 1. Fear of failure is an attitude problem. All of us postpone things. We procrastinate. We rationalize. We make excuses. We foolishly believe that to be creative and to have a positive attitude and to simply do things, we have to have all kinds of preconditions. 2. You can find several excuses for waiting to be more creative. But scratch the surface of these smooth and logical rationalizations, and if you are honest, you will see the face of a little demon, the fear of failure, hiding there. 3. Zig Ziglar reminds us that this is nothing but an attitude problem: “The future can be depressing or magnificent – it is not correlated to the present or the past, past failures or past successes. It is only our attitude towards these failures or successes which determines our future.” You can change yourself by changing your attitude without fear of error. 4. Problems cause stress and stress reduces our effectiveness. So it is very logical that once we solve our problems, we should be able to increase our efficiency and effectiveness. Incidentally, we can’t eliminate problems unless we have the final exit – the very thought of this itself is very stressful. 5. What causes our problems? Well, roughly speaking one-third of our problems are there because we are alive and kicking. Another one-third of our problems are created by ourselves; and the remaining one-third of our problems exist because of greed and ego. 6. When too many problems are causing you enormous stress and strain, do the following: (i) Think … there must be a better way to solve these problems. It helps to remember the crow and jug story! Recall similar stories and incidents. (ii) Ask, ask, ask…from yourself and from others, how to do things in better ways. May be certain things should not be done at all or should be clubbed with other activities! Don’t forget that even stupid questions will get your intelligent and common-sense answers. (iii) Do it now! Start doing it. Don’t forget that the first step towards solving a problem is to begin. The first step is the most difficult one, but taking it will kill procrastination—a disease or a problem in itself. Do not forget to prioritize your problems first. Those which are “C” category jobs should be delegated to others, but do not forget to check and recheck till these get done. 7. There is always a silver lining in any gloomy situation, provided you starve the problems and feed the opportunities. For every problem, there could be several solutions, and solutions point towards opportunities. 8. Apply the MISER concept to solve problems. MISER … where M stands for Merge, I for Improve, S for Simplify, E for Eliminate and R for Reduce. MISER is an excellent conceptual sieve that helps in reducing many problems to a very few ones. A. Read the questions given below and write the option you consider the most appropriate in your answer sheet: [4] i Most people procrastinate because ………………….. a) They are not creative b) They adopt a wrong attitude c) They are too lazy to do anything d) They wait for better opportunity ii. Our future is determined by ……………………… a) past failure b) success in the present c) efforts in future d) attitude towards past failures or success. iii. Our effectiveness gets reduced as ……………………. a) problems multiply b) depressing time is painful c) stress is caused by problems d) problems dishearten us
iv. The best way to tackle a problem is ………………………… a) to defer it for some time b) to seek help of a friend c) to think of an easy solution d) to begin at once
B. Answer the following questions very briefly. [4] i. How does our effectiveness get reduced? ii. Can we eliminate problems? Why not? iii. What is the best way to tackle the problem? iv. Which saying has been used in the passage for being optimist?
C. Find words in above passage which convey the same meaning as the following: [4] i. Delay or postpone action (para 1) ii. Very large (para 6) iii. Justify (para 1) iv. interrelated (para 3)
2.Read the following passage carefully: [8] 1 The nine-letter word "interview" can perspire the most knowledgeable and strong people in the world. That may be one reason, political leaders and corporate giants normally do not agree for an interview. But the popular ones, or those who want to make an impact, willingly give interviews. In modern times, whether you like interview or not, your prospects depend on its success. So you must know what an interviewer expects from you. 2 First an academic question. What is an interview? It is a discussion in which an interviewer faces a candidate for a short while and asks questions to probe his knowledge and awareness on the subject. These are done to assess the personality of the interviewee. It is a very formal means of interaction with one person facing a group of persons, each of whom is a specialist in his or her field.
3 Knowledge is an important component of success in an interview. It has two aspects: range and depth. The former implies that you should know a lot beyond your own specialisation and the latter means an awareness of the various aspects of the topics under discussion. An in-depth knowledge is gained through reading and listening. Listening is more important than reading. Be a keen listener, store major facts in your mind and use them at the appropriate time.
4 Next comes appearance, which means your dress for the interview. You must be elegantly attired for the occasion. Wear a simple outfit that suits your physique and features. Women should wear sarees or any other sober dress. Casuals like kurta-pyjama should not feature in your selection of dresses.
5 Conducting yourself in an apt way is equally significant. The way you move yourself, sit on the chair, place your hands and your briefcase and talk to the members reflect your behaviour. Walking sloppily, talking loudly or inaudibly, getting irritated easily, and showing documents insistently are symptoms of bad behaviour. A better way is to enter the room smartly, move forward with dignity, greet the board, sit when asked to, and thank at the end before you leave. 6 Expression is the most important aspect of the interview. It conveys your views and opinions. For good expression, what you need is clarity of mind and speech. Show your balanced thinking to convey your views clearly. 7 Convey your view effectively. In an interview, you may be asked questions where you have to either agree or disagree. Whatever your approach, convince the board that it is unbiased. The board may not agree with your view. Even if you disagree, let not your face show it. Create an impact through your expressions. Give an impression of being a leader. Show that you can cooperate and get cooperation that you can share views and get people to accept your authority to reach decisions and implement them. 8 Finally, never consider yourself to be a perfect man. Being a human being makes you susceptible to flaws. However, try to conform to the highest standards and reach as close to perfection as possible.
(a) Make notes on the above passage in any suitable format. Use recognisable abbreviations wherever necessary and give a title to the passage. (5) (b) Write a summary of the passage based on your notes. (3)
SECTION B: WRITING SKILLS [30MARKS] 3. You are the HR Manager of Green Bio-Products Ltd, Sector 18, Industrial Area, Faridabad. You need an efficient clerk for your office. Write an advertisement for the column of a local newspaper in 50 words. [4]- x OR As the president of the Student Council of your school, write a notice in not more than 50 words asking the students of your school to donate old books, clothes and bags for the Anubhav Shiksha Kendra, a school for the underprivileged. [4]
4. You are Amit/ Amy. Write a letter placing an order with Confectioners for a programme organized in your company. Write the letter in 120-150 words. [6] OR Write a letter to the Editor of a magazine Expressions, New Delhi on the deterioration in the standard of living in your city. Give suggestions for improvement. Sign yourself as PMR.
5. You are Bhavya/Bhavjeet of 25/A, defence Colony, New Delhi. You are deeply concerned about the growing apathy of people towards eve-teasing in local buses. Write a letter to the editor of a newspaper expressing your concern and suggesting ways in which women can ensure their own safety. (120-150 words)[6] OR You have made your annual payment for home garbage collection to the Residents Welfare Association. However, the collection is irregular and the collectors do not pick up all the garbage bags, leading to a further mess outside your house due to stray animals. The uncollected garbage is also a breeding ground for mosquitoes. Write a letter of complaint to the President of the Association, drawing his attention to this irregularity. Mention the inconvenience caused. You are Amrit/Amrita, 12-B Mall Apartments, Delhi. (120 to 150 words) [6]
6. Your class has just seen a street play enacting the changing face of society with a fall in human values. Draft a speech on ‘The Changing Value Systems- A Need for Re-orientation’ in 150-200 words. [8] OR Your school is hosting a debate competition on the topic ‘Is competition a necessary part of the education process?’ Write a debate either in favour or against the motion in 150-200 words. [8]
7. The following passage has not been edited. There is one mistake in each line. Write the mistake and write the correction in the blank. (1/2 × 8 = 4) (a) Most of the Indian craftsmen which ______(b) exquisite crafts has helped India ______(c) earn an high status, are unfortunately, ______(d) among those who are living with basic ______(e) facilities they leave below the poverty ______(f) line they are forceful to take loan at ______(g) high rate of interest or get trapped in ______(h) eternal debut. ______
8. Rearrange the following words or phrases to make meaningful sentences: (1 × 2 = 2) (a) the / on / forests / the / industry / oil / depends (b) do / get / the / forests / from / what / we products / ?
LITERATURE [30 marks] 9. Read the extract and answer any two questions: (1x 2= 2 marks)
Where did my childhood go? It went to some forgotten place. That’s hidden in an infant’s face. That’s all I know.
(a) Where did the poet in childhood go?
(i) Forgotten place (ii) well known place (iii) both (iv) None.
(b) Why does the poet call it a forgotten place?
(i) Out of use (ii) irrelevant (iii) useless (iv) can’t be brought back
(c) Find out similar word to ‘toddler‘ in meaning
(i) Forgotten (ii) hidden (iii) infants (iv) None
10. Answer any FIVE of the following questions in 30 to 40 words. (2 × 5 = 10) a. What does the notice “The world’s most dangerous animal” at a cage in the zoo of Lusaka signify? b. ‘Each photograph is a memory.’ Justify the statement in the light of the poem. c. How do Shahid and the writer react to the knowledge the Shahid is going to die? d. How did the theory of ‘brut art‘ put forward by Jean Dubuffet get credence? e. What does John Byro mean when he tells the boys that a suspicious man would believe his eyes instead of his heart?‘ f. Explain : “ There’s greater truth in that shastra than we imagine”.
11. How does the story ‘We are not afraid to die’ suggest that optimism helps to endure ‘the direct stress’? [6] OR Imagine you are ZahiHawas. Make a diary entry expressing your feelings when the CT scan is complete. [6]
12. Describe the exchanges between Albert Einstein and the history teacher. What characteristics of Einstein’s nature are highlighted by this exchange? [6] OR What is Magic Realism? How has the dramatist used the device of Magic Realism in making the plot of the play believable for the reader? [6]
13. “Fertility falls as income rise, education spreads, and health improves.” Justify. [6] OR Attempt a character sketch of the grandmother as seen through the eyes of the grandson with reference to the lesson ―Portrait of a Lady. [6]
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ANSWER KEY
1. Read the given passage carefully and then answer the questions based on it: [12] 1. A. [1x4= 4] i) b) they adopt a wrong attitude 1 ii) d) attitude towards past failures or success 1 iii) c) stress is caused by problems 1 iv) d) to begin at once B. [1x4= 4] i) Our effectiveness gets reduced by problems which cause stress. ii) No. - for the simple fact that we are alive and kicking and sometimes our greed and ego also promote problems. iii) To begin at once with positive thinking iv) There is always a silver lining in any gloomy situation, C. [1x 4= 4] i) Procrastinate ii) enormous iii) rationalize iv) correlated 2. A) Note Making TITLE - 1mk, KEY to ABBREVIATIONS -1mk, NOTES -3mks B) Summarising - Content = 2 Accuracy/ Expression =1 3. Invitation / Poster/ Advertisement - Content = 2 Accuracy = 2 [4] 4. Letter to the Editor / Letter Placing Order - Content = 3 Expression = 2 Accuracy = 1 [6] 5. 4. Letter to the Editor / Letter Placing Order - Content = 3 Expression = 2 Accuracy = 1 [6] 5. Article / Speech - Content = 3 Expression = 2 Accuracy = 1 [8] Grammar (1/2x 8= 4) (a) Which whose (b) Has have (c) An a (d) With without (e) Leave live (f) Forceful forced (g) Or and (g) Debut debt 8.Rearrange- (1x2= 2) (a) The oil industry depends on the forests. (b) What products do we get from the forests? 9. Extract Answers: Any 2 ( 1x 2= 2) (a) forgotten (b) can’t be brought back (c) infants
10. Short Answer ques – Any 5 (2x5= 10 marks) a. In the zoo in Lusaka, there is a cage where the notice reads “The world’s most dangerous animal” and inside the cage is a mirror where you can see a reflection of yourself. The point is to make people aware of their destructive nature. People play a vital role in making the world a better place to live in. This notice is a reminder to the people of their evil attitude towards the environment. b. Photographs are memories that are captured and kept for lifetime purposes. Shirley Toulson’s “A Photograph” captures one such moment when her mother was young and she went on a beach holiday with her cousins. Gone are these days of the mother and her cousins but the photograph manages to bring back those memories even after thirty years later. The laughter of the mother while seeing the photograph has become a past incident. But the photograph allows the poet to recall and revive the laughter through the image captured thirty years back. Therefore, photographs are indeed memories. c. Death is something that no one likes to hear about; every human being is scared of this inevitable reality. So, naturally when someone is diagnosed with terminal illness and has only limited number of days, that person and his near and dear ones are not happy at all; they have to accept this reality with pain and sadness. Shahid and his family had to accept the news of his imminent death; Amitav was also shocked. Everyone connected with Shahid was sad. However, Shahid decided to live the remaining numbered days of his life in the best possible manner. Quite frequently half-dozen or more people would gather at his apartment. There would be poetry, talks, singing, and discourses. Shahid would have delicious dishes cooked for his friends. Thus, there was always carnival at his apartment; and he was the center of this carnival. d. French painter Jean Dubuffet challenged the concept of ‘art brut‘ in the 1940s.Before that the art of untrained visionary was of minority interest. At about the same time an untutored genius was creating paradise‘. This was none other than Nek Chand, who cleared a little patch of jungle to make himself a garden sculpted with stone and recycled material is known to the world today as the Rock Garden, at Chandigarh. e. When John Byro saw the boys with the horse he could swear it was his horse tooth for tooth. His eyes told him that it was his horse. However, the fame of the boys‘ family for honesty was known to John Byro and his heart told him that the boys could not have stolen his horse. f. Ranga could never realise that what Shastri told them about his marriage was just a stage managed acting.Shastri did and said what he was tortured to do and say. But Ganga was totally impressed by shastri's productions. They suited him. So he declared that astrology was a science . The Shastra contained greater truth that people imagined.
Long Answer 11.We are not afraid Ans: Value Points: Last 16 years experience helped a lot the gigantic wave broke the boat Wavewalker, but not their spirit If winter comes… can spring be far behind all worked as a team cheered themselves up encouraged themselves - used every possible measure worked very hard determined to succeed remained hopeful ‘God helps those who help themselves’. OR
Tut Value Points ● Mention the curse – death or misfortune to anyone disturbing the mummy ● Damage already caused by Howard Carter to the mummy ● Cooler fan of the CT scan machine suddenly stops working ● Strong winds outside- even nature appears angry ● The general feeling of nervousness among people ● The winds subside once the mummy is placed back in its resting place. ● Findings 112.Albert Ans. This biographical piece first presents Albert in confrontation with his history teacher. When the teacher asks him in what year the Prussians had defeated the French at Waterloo, Albert replies that he did not know and this leads to a heated exchange between them. When he is further asked why he did not try to learn them, he again replies honestly that there is no point in learning dates which could be checked in a book by anyone. This reply angers his teacher greatly who responds asking him again whether he saw no point in learning facts which forms the basis of school education at that time. Albert honestly replies that he did not see any point in learning facts. Now his teacher becomes sarcastic and asks him to tell the class the Einstein theory of education. Ultimately Albert says that he did not see any point in learning dates of battles or which army killed more men but he would be rather interested to know why those soldiers were trying to kill each other. This made his teacher go mad with anger and he scolded Albert viciously and asked him to stay back after school for an extra period. This exchange brings out the honesty of Albert as a child. He of course lacked tactfulness and was very straightforward. He spoke whatever was in his mind. Of course, he used to feel miserable in classes like that of history. His mind was a great mind of science which used to be in search of the true working of the universe and time and other dimensions.
OR Mother’s Day Answer: Value Points: Magic realism is a modern method used in fiction where magical elements are intermixed with the realistic description of everyday affair in such a way that the magical elements are taken as realistic description which help in emphasizing some basic aspect where the writer wants to give focus. Popularized by writers such as Gabriel Garcia Marquez, Salman Rushdie, Milan Kundera etc. In this play, Mrs. Fitzgerald changes her body with Mrs. Pearson, something which is impossible in real life. However, the reader does not object to this fantastic aspect in the plot line because this element has been used in such a way in the plotline that the reader overlooks the impossibility as his real focus is the real issues of the play which is highlighted by the dramatist.
13. The present world population is about 5.7 billion. Every four days the population increases by one million. As incomes rise, health improves and education spreads, fertility rate falls. Development is possible when we limit the population. The rich get richer and the poor produce more babies which makes them turn ever poorer. More children result in more number of unemployed people. If there is no proper system of voluntary family planning then it would most definitely lead to preservation of poverty and degradation of resources. This indicates that unless population control is given the utmost priority, more number of people are likely to die hungry and poor. We must raise awareness in people so that they are capable of choosing between control of population and perpetuation of poverty. Population plays a major role in distorting the future of human society. Hence, it must be checked and controlled for the smooth functioning of the society and for maintaining a balance in the ecosystem. OR Value Points ● Loving, caring, looked after her grandson in the village ● Gave a lot of importance to his education ● Very religious-- went to temple every day, muttered prayers the whole day, sang prayers to her grandson, prayed on her deathbed rather than talking to her family ● Cared for animals—dogs, sparrows ● Uncomplaining by nature—even when she was left alone ● Didn‘t show her disapproval of his new school or his going abroad ● Celebrated his return ● Beauty in her nature and character—serene, caring, calm
***************** REVISION PAPERS FOR ANNUAL EXAMINATION 2019-20
Std :XI ENTREPRENEURSHIP Marks: 70 Time: 3 Hrs GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. All questions are compulsory. 2. Questions from 1 to 5 carries 1 mark each. Answer in one sentence each. 3. Questions from 6 to 10 carries 2 marks each. Answer in about 40 words each. 4. Questions from 11 to 17 carries 3 marks each. Answer in about 60 words each. 5. Questions from 18 to 21 carries 4 marks each. Answer in about 70 words each. 6. Questions from 22 to 24 carries 6 marks each. Answer in about 100 words each.
1. The business strengths of Mr.Raj has been identified as medical,technology,finance and legal which type of entrepreneur is he? 2. Define competency. 3. Which risk factor must have caused the journey of black and white T.V. to latest flat screen HD T.V.? 4. In process of entrepreneurship, the entrepreneurs move on to new ventures. 5. Name any one pattern of an enterprise capital structure. 6. Complete the process:
Tension
Drives
Reduction of tension
7. List down the core values of an entrepreneur. 8. Differentiate fixed cost & variable cost with examples. 9. Why should an entrepreneur carefully select physical resources? 10. What is” innovation time off” in an Intrapreneurship program? 11. Mr.Shaheen Mistri is the founder of Akansha Foundation,an Indian non-profit educational initiative in Mumbai & Pune with a mission to impact the lives of children from low income communities enabling them to maximize their potential and change their lives. Which category of entrepreneur will Shaheen belong to and briefly explain any one characteristic of such entrepreneurs. 12. Attitudes constitute an important psychological attribute of individuals which shape their future. a. List and briefly explain any one essential attribute that an entrepreneur must possess. b. State any one source from where an entrepreneur can acquire the essential attitudes. 13. Using the information given below for Archie & Victoria enterprises, calculate the minimum number of goods that must be sold: a. For Archie & Victoria enterprises to break even. b. How many units should they sell to achieve a target profit of INR 10,00,000. Direct Labour per unit INR 30 Direct material per unit INR 20 Variable overhead per unit INR 10 Fixed costs INR 400000 Selling price per unit INR 80
14. What is meant by Income Statement? Is there a different name for the same? Why is the preparation of this statement important for an entrepreneur? Calculate the Gross profit of Biciclita, a bicycle manufacturing company if its Profit before Tax is accounted INR 10,30,000 and its Fixed cost is calculated as 2,00,000. 15. What is debt financing? Explain any 6 sources of raising debt. 16. Little angels is a high-end boutique. With growing competition from readymade clothes, the company decided to venture into the field of e-commerce, trading in the handicrafts of our country. As an entrepreneurship student suggest certain new technological advancements for Little angels. 17. Explain the importance of market research. 18. What is cash flow? Identify the following items as inflow/outflow with reasons. a. Raw material b. Depreciation c. Machinery purchased d. Loan from bank 19. Cash flow projection is considered to be an important management tool. Why? How is this different from Cash Flow Statement? 20. Explain in detail the types of Business Financing. 21. Discuss on the methods of Opportunity Assessment. 22. Towards promoting both budding entrepreneurs & existing entrepreneurs, Modi government has introduced certain startup & other schemes. On the basis of your general entrepreneurship awareness list any 2 of such schemes. Explain in detail what are these schemes for? .Also answer the question given below: The government launched a programme for pollution free zones & provided financial assistance to entrepreneurs. By including such assistance , Mrs Ayreen was induced to enter into entrepreneurship. To which category of entrepreneurs does Ayreen belong to? 23. Prepare a detailed cash flow projection for Carnival Pvt. Ltd. For the period January to March 2020 (include Dec 2019). Carnival Pvt. Ltd. Are manufacturers of tyre chord fabrics that work as reinforcement material for vehicle tyres. Unit of sale is bale. PROJECTED SALES FORECAST: SALES Dec 19 Feb 20 Mar 20 Apr 20 ( IN 500 700 600 500 BALES)
a. Ratio of cash to credit sales: 70:30 for all the months b. Government grant expected in Dec 19 –INR 2,50,000 c. Loan from bank to be sanctioned in Dec 19- INR 7,80,000 d. Venture Capital funding expected in Mar 20-INR 3,00,000 e. Raw materials are expected to be procured at INR100/bale across all konths f. Freight and Packing costs (including both)=INR 20/bale g. Selling price to be pegged at INR 300/bale h. There are 3 sales executives who will earn salary of INR 10,00 per month i. In addition to above salary they are eligible for sales commission on cash sales @5% which is paid to all the 3 executives in the same month of sales made j. The credit sales is recovered at the following month of actual credit sales. k. Purchase of assets in Dec 19-INR 50,000, Jan 20-INR 75,000 l. Depreciation to be calculated at 10% per annum on assets purchased in both the months m. Rental & Utilities bills starting from Dec 19 – INR6,500 per month n. Salaries to 5 administrative staffs at INR 5000 per staff per month starting Dec 19. 24. What do you mean by Marketing Mix? Explain in detail different elements of Marketing Mix. Also complete the channel of distribution given below when a product is to be distributed to customers from one part of the country to another:
Manufacturer Wholesaler Customers
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ANSWER KEY
1. Trailblazer 2. A set of defined behaviours that provide a structured guide enabling the identification, evaluation & development of behaviours in an individual. 3. Economic 4. Harvest 5. Equity & debentures 6. The process of motivation :
tension
unsatisfied drives need
reduction search of tension behaviour
satisfaction of need
7. Core values are: a. Innovation & creativity b. Independence c. Respect for work d. Quest for outstanding performance 8. Point of difference: a. meaning b. changes with output c. examples 9. A careful selection of physical resources is essential because many allied issues of an enterprise are influenced by the ‘place’ selected such as: a. Capital cost b. Cost of production c. Availability of other resources such as gas ,water etc. d. Transport & communication cost e. Availability of manpower & its costs (wages & salaries)etc. 10. Through Intrapreneurship program all employees are empowered & encouraged to spend a specific % of their time on projects that interest them & that the company thinks shall benefit them & their customers. 11. Social entrepreneur. Social catalyst. 12. a)Have passion for business. b) Group association. 13. B.E.P= Fixed cost/Gross margin per unit=400000/20=20000units Target=F.C.+P/Gross margin per unit=400000+1000000/20=70000units 14. Statement that enables us to determine the profit over a period of time is called Income Statement. Yes, there is a different name for I.S. which is Profit & Loss Statement. The I.S. is important for an entrepreneur because it shows the profitability of an enterprise during the time interval specified in the statement by the enterprise. PBT of Biciclita is INR 12,30,000.(Hint:GP=PBT+FC) 15. Debt financing is a financing method involving interest bearing instruments, usually in the form of loan, to be repaid after a particular period. The six sources are: debentures, public deposits, loans from banks in the form of overdrafts, cash credits, factoring, demand loan etc, grant, trade credits, money lenders. 16. Information collection, Business intelligence, Smart mobility, Cloud computing,Power of social media. 17. Risk reduction, help attainment of objectives, market overview, forecast, facilitates decision-making, knowledge of customer needs & wants. 18. The movement of money in & out of a business during a specific period of time.a,b,c are outflow of cash and ‘d’ is inflow 19. It shows the expected in & out flow of cash in ones business .It also let you know when your outlays are too high or when you might want to arrange short term investments to deal with a cash surplus. Cash Flow Projection also gives an idea about how much capital investment a business idea needs.CFS highlights the cash inflow & outflow that had occurred in the past whereas CFP shows the cash that is anticipated to be generated or expended over a chosen period of time in the future. 20. Equity, personal, debt, venture capital 21. Micro n macro 22. Venture capital Assistance Scheme, Start up India scheme 2019. Induced entrepreneur. 23. Cash Flow Projection for Carnival Pvt. Ltd. For the period January to March 2020 Particulars Dec 19 Jan 20 Feb 20 Mar 20 Apr 20 Cash Inflow: Govt grant 2,50,000 Loan from bank 7,80,000 VC funding 3,00,000 Sales:70:30 Cash (70/100) 1,05,000 1,47,000 1,26,000 Credit (30/100) 45,000 63,000 54,000 TOTAL INFLOW 10,30,000 1,05,000 1,92,000 4,89,000 Cash Outflow: Purchase of assets 50,000 75,000 Raw materials 50,000 70,000 60,000 50,000 Freight n packing 10,000 14,000 12,000 10,000 Sales exe salary 30,000 30,000 30,000 Sales commission 15,750 22,050 18,900 Rental n Utilities 6,500 6,500 6,500 6,500 Salary to adm 25,000 25,000 25,000 25,000 staffs TOTAL 1,41,500 2,36,250 1,55,550 1,40,400 OUTFLOW: Surplus/deficit 8,88,500 (1,31,250) 36,450 3,48,600 (TI-TO) Cumulative 8,88,500 7,57,250 7,93,700 11,42,300 surplus /deficit(optional)
24. Marketing Mix is a plan which designs marketing strategy regarding controllable variables of market mechanisms, in a way that there are optimum sales & profits. The 4 Ps are the important variables: A. Price B. Place/physical distribution C. Product D. Promotion
agent manufacturer /distributer wholesaler retailer customer
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REVISION PAPERS FOR ANNUAL EXAMINATION 2019-20
Std :XI HOME SCIENCE Marks: 80 Time: 3 Hrs General Instructions: 1. All questions are compulsory. 2. There are total 33 questions. 3. Questions no. 1- 18, Section A are objective type questions and are of 1 mark each. 4. Questions no. 19 – 23, Section B, are of 2 marks each, to be answered in 10-20 words. 5. Questions no. 24 and 25, Section C, are of 3 marks each, to be answered in 20-30 words. 6. Questions no. 26 -29, Section D, are of 4 marks each, to be answered in 40 words. 7. Questions no. 30 -33; Section E are of 5 marks each, to be answered in 50-60 words. 8. Internal choices are given in sections A, B, C, D and E. 9. Support your answer with suitable examples wherever required. SECTION A
I. FILL IN THE BLANKS
1 ______helps in the development of self concept and self esteem. 1
2 The form of carbohydrate present in milk is ______1
3 ______is the ability to meet the demands of a physical task 1
4 ______is an eating disorder marked by binge eating , and over 1 eating followed by various ways to control weight like self induced vomiting, laxative abuse, fasting or extensive exercise
5 ______is the doing process of management. 1
6 ______is a single yarn spun from a mixture of different fibres. 1
7 What type of finish is given to bring back the fabric to its original 1 width ?
8 The vitamin needed for clotting of blood is ______1
9 The type of motor development that starts from the centre of the 1 body to the outside organs is known as ______
10 ______is the process of gradual introduction of supplementary 1 food along with breast milk to meet the nutritional needs of the growing infant
II. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
11 Which are the two functions performed by clothing to enhance our 1 personality? a. Self adornment and self expression
b. Self identification and creativity
c. Self respect and self motivation
d. All of the above
12 What is the BMI range of a person who is having adequate weight 1 for height ?
a. less than 18.5
b. 18.5 – 24.9
c. 25 – 29.9
d. greater than 30
13 Select the real direct income form the following . 1
a. By producing vegetables in the kitchen garden
b. By doing household chores like cooking, laundering etc
c. Teaching children at home instead of sending them for tuition
d. All of the above
14 Which type of bank account is most suited to business people ? 1
a. Savings account
b. Current account
c. Recurring account
d. None of the above
15 Which scheme is aimed to serve the need of higher studies and 1 marriage of a girl child ?
a. Sukanya Samridhi Yojna
b. Kisan vikas patra
c. National saving certificate
d. Time deposit scheme 16 Which is the component of detergent that breaks down the surface 1 tension which ensures the cleansing action ?
a. Cleansers
b. Surfactants
c. Active ingredients
d. Anti corrosive agents
17 Which of the following is an example for a grease solvent ? 1
a. Bran
b. Talcum powder
c. Turpentine
d. Chalk
18 Which component is used to stiffen silk clothes ? 1
a. Starch
b. Gum
c. Resin
d. All of the above
SECTION B
19 How will you remove ball point ink stain from a white cotton shirt ? 2
20 Give 4 reasons to justify that a family must save money. 2
21 Explain the effect of clothes on personality of the individual . 2
22 a. Which are the four factors that influence the weaning ? 2
OR
b. What is the importance of breast feeding for infants ?
23 Milestones are important in the development of a child. Justify the 2 statement.
SECTION C
24 Your brother is going to play hockey this summer. What six features 3 would you look for in the fabric and in the design of clothes, while buying for him?
25 Write the advantages of maintaining household records ? 3
SECTION D
26 Give a brief note on the various cognitive changes that takes place 4 in adolescents.
27 Which are the various dimensions of health ? 4
28 Briefly explain the steps in management process ? 4
29 a. Stains on a fabric can be removed by using various methods. 4 Explain.
OR
b. Suggest the precautions to be followed while storing cotton, wool, nylon and silk clothes .
SECTION E
30 Explain the various factors that influence the selection of clothes for 5 yourself .
31 Elaborate the checks you will make in a readymade shirt to ensure 5 its good workmanship.
32 Define Family income. What are its components ? Explain with the 5 help of suitable examples.
33 a. Which are the principles of growth and development ? 5
OR b. Compare the motor development and social development of early and late childhood .
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ANSWER KEY-HOME SCIENCE – SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
1 Self recognition 1
2 Lactose 1
3 Fitness 1
4 Bulimia nervosa 1
5 Implementation 1
6 Blended yarn 1
7 Tentering 1
8 Vitamin K 1
9 Proximodistal development 1
10 Weaning 1
11 Self adornment and self expression 1
12 18.5 – 24.5 1
13 All of the above 1
14 Current account 1
15 Sukanya Samridhi Yojna 1
16 Surfactants 1
17 Turpentine 1
18 Gum 1
19 Ball point ink stain can be removed by the following procedures. Sponge 1x2=2 the stain with methylated spirit. Rub potassium permanganate solution followed by oxalic acid
20 The four reasons for saving money are ½ x4=2
1. For achieving the family goals
2. Due to inflation – constant rise in prices of goods and services
3. To secure future 4. Catering to large family needs
21 Clothes are an indication of caste, place, state and occupation of the ½ x 4=2 person
- Introverts- prefer light and sober colours
- Extroverts- bright and gaudy colours
- Some uniforms are reserved for certain professions , which help in enhancing their personality
Eg- wearing white coat by doctors
-simple, and elegant clothes shows serious personality
22 A. The factors that influence the weaning of an infant are
- Introduce one supplementary food at a time
- Start giving small quantity at a time, gradually increase the amount
- Do not force the child too much
- Serve food in attractive plates, bowls, glasses, and with child safe cutlery
B. Importance of breastfeeding for infants
- Breastmilk contains colostrum – rich in antibodies which protects the child from infections
- Emotional bond between mother and child
- Provide total fluid requirements
- Healthy and safe even if infant has diarrhoea
23 • Milestones are indicators of development and are normal measures ½ x 4=2 of an average child.
• Eg. Child starts sitting independently at the age of 7-8 months, walking independently around 1-1.5 year. • Knowledge of milestones helps to evaluate the health of a child.
• Any major diversion from normal development helps to alert the parents and reduce the risk of abnormalities
2Features I would look for in the fabric and in the design of clothes will be ; ½ x 6=3 4 - The fabric should be stretchable
- The fabric should be stain resistant
- It should be able to absorb sweat easily
- The clothes should not be too loose fitting or too tight
- the clothes should have air permeability
- the clothes should have good heat conductivity
2 The advantages of maintaining household records ½ x 6=3 5 - Helps in checking wasteful expenditure
- Smooth functioning of family finances
- Householder can determine the amount of money that can be spent on various commodities
- Maintain a balance between income and expenditure
- Helps to avoid any confusions with the seller regarding payments
- Helps family to spend money as planned .- can save money for the future .
- Facilitates the achievement of family goals .
2Cognitive development among adolescents brings out certain marked ½ x 8=4 6changes
a. They become very critical- they develop analytical ways of perceiving the world around them. This affects their personal, social and emotional status. Because of the resultant critical ability, they start noticing the drawbacks of parents and all authority figures. This often lead to parent child conflicts. b. IDEALISTIC REBELLION – adolescents during this period do not like subordination to adults. They want to be considered as their equal. Adolescents feel adults are not fair and just to them. Consequently they become idealistic rebels. c. Cognition leads to unique language development. They come up with words and phrases often termed as slangs that are understood by peers. d. Adolescents are SELF CONSCIOUS of their looks. Due to their limited understanding, they feel, they are being watched by all. They are concerned of how the imaginary audience will like their looks. As the cognition improves, the imaginary audience and self consciousness get replaced by more mature reality. e. Most adolescents have a unique ability to do things differently. This means adolescents are very creative. They should be encouraged to develop their creative potential. Creativity improves with cognition. f. The adolescents have improved visual imagery due to the growing cognition. Their imagination becomes more positive as they grow. g. Establishment of long term values- at first, the children are ego centric. Gradually, ego centrism declines and reasoning , values and attitudes develop. Increasing cognition enables one individual to establish long term values of self reliance , competence and independence.
2The 4 dimensions of health are 1x4=4 7 Physical
Mental
Social
Spiritual
PHYSICAL DIMENSION OF HEALTH-refers to proper height and weight for a particular individual . one should also have adequate strength , stamina and capacity to carry on with all the lifetime activities
MENTAL DIMENSION OF HEALTH – it means the individual is free from tensions, worries and mental ailments. He should be capable of having good comprehension, understanding and the ability to apply these in day to day living
SOCIAL DIMENSION OF HEALTH- refers to the ease with which one gets along with people from different walks of lifeshows one’s ability to adjust in a social group. A socially healthy person has many qualities like tolerance, helpfulness, caring, pleasant , humane and affectionate attitude. Such persons are ever ready to share all that they have. These qualitites help one to become an important asset to any social set up.
SPIRITUAL DIMENSION OF HEALTH – modern man is faced with tremendous external pressures in his complex environment. Hence, it is essential that he has strong faith in his capabilities and convictions. This is where spiritual dimension helps one to have a positive attitude to keep one’s soul and spirit at peace. Only a healthy person is efficient and productive and hence, is an all time asset to the family , society and nation
2 1. Planning 1X4=4 8 - Framing the outlines of the future activities inorder to attain the desired goals
Steps in planning
- Identify the goal you want to achieve or the problem you want to solve
- Ensure the resources available for the same
- Decisions to be taken on when , where and who will use the resources
CHARACTERISTICS
- Continuous process
- Flexible
- Stages of planning are inter related
- Basic needs should be given priority while planning
ORGANISING
Organising can be defined as a process of combining and co-ordinating work of the family members with the resources necessary for its execution. A sound and effective organization is the answer to most problems.
IMPLEMENTING
Implementing means putting the plan into action. It is the ‘doing’ process of management. When a plan has been finalized and resources are assembled and organized, it is ready to be put into action CONTROLLING
• Controlling is the art of measurement and application of correction for any activity. If anything goes wrong with the prior action plan, ie , planning, organizing or implementing, it can be set right by the control process.
• Eg. In case, if our study and extent of learning is not upto the desired level at a certain stipulated time, cut down your leisure time and devote more time for study. Additional help of a qualified person can be taken to solve our difficulties to make the plan successful.
EAVLUATION
• Evaluation helps in assessing progress at every stage of management process and final results achieved.
• Evaluation provides checks and tests to know that the plan is turning out as originally planned or whether it needs any modification
• It helps in judging the strengths and overcoming weaknesses of the entire process.
2 a. 1x4=4 9 - DIPPING METHOD – the stained material is dipped into the reagent. It is then scrubbed to remove the stain and rinsed with water
- SPONGING METHOD
The stained part is placed on blotting paper and the reagent is applied with a sponge on the stained area and scrubbed gently
- DROP METHOD
Reagent is put on the stained cloth stretched over a bowl with a dropper
- STEAMING METHOD
Stained area is exposed to steam from boiling hot water
OR b. STORAGE OF COTTON CLOTHES
- Do not store moist clothes , they invite fungus and mildew
- Avoid storing clothes with starch. They attract silver fish
- Moth balls or neem leaves should be kept along with the clothes so that moulds and fungus do not grow on them.
- Store dry clothing clothing only
- Gum treatment should be avoided for long storage of silks
- Store silk in muslin cloth to avoid discolouration of silk and fancy work
- Avoid use of moth balls as they reduce the lusture of silk .
STORAGE OF SILK
- Store dry clothing clothing only
- Gum treatment should be avoided for long storage of silks
- Store silk in muslin cloth to avoid discolouration of silk and fancy work
- Avoid use of moth balls as they reduce the lusture of silk .
STORAGE OF WOOL
- Store dry woollens
- They should be wrapped in muslin cloth
- Use neem/tobacco leaves/naphthalene balls to prevent damage by moths
- STORAGE OF NYLON/POLYESTER
- Store clothes without moisture
- Put deodorant like odonil in clothes to smell fresh
3 - AVAILABILITY OF MONEY-higher the income, larger the expense 1X5=5 0 on clothing, availability of money often leads to spontaneous . purchases
CLIMATIC FACTORS
Winter – warm, thick and bright coloured clothes are used
Summer – cool, soft and light coloured clothes, should have sweat absorbing quality
Rainy season – wrinkle free and easy to dry clothes eg. Nylon
SUITABILITY TO FIGURE
- A person should wear clothes according to his figure
- Judicious use of colours and clothes disguise the figure flaws and can highlight the salient features
• Short and fat person – wear clothes of plain/single colour and use vertical lines/designs
• Tall and thin person- use horizontal designs with 2 or more colours in the dress
can use frils, pipings in their dress to look fat and organdie texture
. SUITABILITY TO OCCASION
- Parties , celebrations- expensive clothes like brocade, silk with bright and gaudy colours can be used.
- Mourning /death – black, white and dull colours
- Travelling and playing – easily washable, sweat absorbent and comfortable dress
AGE
SELECTION OF CLOTHES FOR ADOLESCENTS
- Bright colours reflect enthusiasm, cheerfulness, liveliness
- Clothes should be creative, stylish and according to the latest fashion
3 The checks to be noted in the workmanship of a readymade 1X5=5 1 garment is
1.DESIGN - In readymade garments, one should look for
- Uniform print
- Stipes and checks are sticthed at proper angles
• SEAM
- Seam should be durable
- Stitches should be small, equal and straight
- The thread should be colourfast
- Proper Seam allowance should be there
- Interlocking should be done on both ends of the seam
HEMS
- Edge finish
- Sticthes of hemming should be at short intervals and equal in size
- The ends of hemming should be properly locked
- The thread should be colourfast and matching to the fabric
- The foldings for hemming should have some margin left for alternations
PLACKET
- PLACKET should be straight, buttons or hooks should be placed at equal distance
- The placket should have neat finish
- Should be long enough for easy wearing
- In case of long placket, you should have an additional hook button so that it does not gape
. FASTENERS
- fasteners, buttons and zippers are used to close plackets and all other openings - Fasteners should of right size and type suited for the fabric
- Buttons should be carefully stitched with matching thread. Extra buttons should be provided to be used in case a button is lost/damaged
- Button holes should be of correct length, to fit well over the buttons
3 Family Income 5 2 Stream of money, goods, services and satisfaction that come under the control of the family to be used by them to satisfy needs and desires and to discharge obligations.
COMPONENTS OF FAMILY INCOME
1. MONEY INCOME
2. REAL INCOME
a. Direct income
b. Indirect income
3. PSYCHIC INCOME
1. MONEY INCOME
Consists of all the income obtained in the form of currency.
Sources – salary, wages, pensions, bonus, rental money
2. REAL INCOME – stream of facilities and commodities which the family enjoys over a period of time
A. REAL DIRECT INCOME - commodities and facilities which are available to the family without the use of money
Family members can earn income
a. by using their human resources like knowledge, skills, interest etc .for eg.
- By producing vegetables in the kitchen garden
- By doing household chores like cooking, laundering etc
- Teaching children at home instead of sending them for tuition In case these jobs are not done by family members, then they have to spend money on them. This savings become a part of their income
REAL INDIRECT INCOME - commodities and facilities which are available to the family with the use of money or in exchange of goods .
- Services of paid workers
- Barter/exchange of goods
- Fringe benefits – conveyance, housing, medical facilites etc
Barter system
Exchange of a commodity or service also adds to income .eg.
- Heena knits sweater for her friend Seema’s daughter and Seema in return teaches heena’s daughter . Both are saving money which becomes a part of their income
c. Services of electricity, telephone, internet etc may be availed after paying for these.
PSYCHIC INCOME
• refers to the satisfaction that is obtained from the money income and real income.
3 a. The various principles of growth and developments are 5 3 - It is a continuous process starting with conception and ending when an individual dies
Eg. Body hair and nails continue to grow till the time you die
• It is a systematic process . Each individual goes through the same pattern of development.
Eg. - the child crawls before walking and walks before running.
• Development proceeds from general to specific
Eg. Child learns to use the hands before using the fingers. This happens because finger muscles take longer time to develop
• Order of growth and development same for all human beings Eg. Individual passes through the foetal stage, infancy, early childhood, adolescence, adulthood and old age
• The growth and development rte varies at different stages of life
Eg. Growth and development is rapid in infancy and adolescence. The growth rate is little low in early child hood and adulthood
• Heredity and environment directly influence the development of the individual.
Eg- good heredity factors, healthy environment and good food intake leads to better development among individuals
OR
MOTOR DEVELOPMENT
- Refers to changes in abilities to control body movements related to gross and fine muscles
- Gross motor – development of large muscles in the body , for walking, running etc
- Fine motor skills- development of smaller muscles- for writing, drawing etc
- Motor development is sequential
a. cephalocaudal development – starts from head to toe. First head develops, and then the development of arms, chest, abdomen, and leg follows
b. Proximodistal development – development starts from centre of the body to the outer organs eg. Arms develop first , then hand and fingers
MOTOR DEVELOPMENT OF EARLY AND LATE CHILDHOOD
Early childhood Late childhood
Throws ball Can throw ball at a distance
Draws circles Dress oneself independently
Catches ball with the help of Jump as high as oneself upper body Can dance and swim Can kick and throw ball accurately with speed
SOCIAL DEVELOPMENT
Refers to acquiring skills which allow person to develop and maintain positive relationships with others.
Early childhood Late childhood
Prefer playing with others Start developing a close circle of same gender friends
Love copying the actions of Enjoy group activites others Do not believe in keeping Become independent secrets and often complain against each other to parents or teachers
REVISION PAPERS FOR ANNUAL EXAMINATION 2019-20 Std :XI INFOMATICS PRACTICES Marks: 70 Time: 3 Hrs
INSTRUCTION : ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS.
I.
1. What do you mean by packages? (1) 2. What is the meaning of the term volatile Primary Memory? (1) 3. What is the difference between an Interpreter and Compiler? (2) 4. What do you understand by online identity theft? Mention one measure that can be used to avoid online identity thefts. (2) 5. Give one word for the following: (2) i) A system of hardware and software that monitors all communication over a network and allows only legitimate communication to propagate. ii) A passive attack on a network that gains access to communication medium and listens to the communication to fetch content.
II.
1. What are keywords in Python? (1) 2. Which of the following are legitimate variable declarations: (1) i) My.var ii) _GLOBAL iii) for iv) While 3. What is the purpose of following operators in Python: (1) %, **, // , in 4. Is, the Python is case sensitive language ? why? (1) 5. How many types of Strings are there in Python? (1)
III.
1. What are selection statements? Give one example. (1) 2. What will be the output of the following python statements? (1) x=2 # print(x) 3. Differentiate between equality(==) operator and assignment operator? (2) 4. Find output of the following code: - (2) for x in range(3, 12, 2): print(x, end= “ #”)
5. Find error(s) in the following codes and rewrite the corrected codes and underline each correction. (2) x = 5 i == 1 while (i < = x) : i =+ 2 print(Output is, “”ï”) 6. What will be the output of the following python code? (2) a, b = 10, 50 if b % a == 0: print(b//4) print(a/2) else: print(a**2) print(b%3)
IV.
1. What will be the output of the following programming code? (1) s1=”My Python Programming” print(s1[-5:-1]) print(s1[1:5])
2. Consider the string s1=”Green Revolution”. (2) Write statements in python to implement the following: (a) To replace all the occurrences of letter ‘a’ in the string with “*”. (b) To display the starting index for the substring ‘vo’. (c) To check whether the string contains ‘Gre’ or not. (d) To repeat the string 3 times. 3. Write python code to allow user input a string. Find the number of vowels in the string. (2)
V.
1. Lists in Python are mutable. Substantiate this point with example. (1) 2. pop() and remove() though removes an item in a list works differently. Explain. (2) 3. Write python script to input a number and count the occurrence of the number in the given list. (2)
VI.
1. Why can’t lists be used as keys in a python dictionary? (1) 2. What are the two ways in which an empty dictionary can be created in python? (1) 3. Suppose dict is a dictionary then differentiate following commands: - a)dict.clear b)del dict (1) 4. Create a dictionary to store names of any 5 states as keys and their capitals as values. Also write code to print it. (2)
VII.
1. Predict the output of the following code: (1) import math print(“MATH FUNCTIONS :”, math.ceil(3.4), math.floor(4.9), math.pow(2,4), math.sqrt(25), sep= “\n”)
2. What is the purpose of arange()? (1)
3. Write a module to calculate and return square and cube of number. Write the main program also. (2)
4. Find the error(s) in the following code: (2)
import NUMPY as p lst={1,2,3,4,5,6} a=p.array(lst) b=p.reshaping(a,(2,3)) print(“Array one is ”, A) print (“Array two is”, B)
5. Which method is used for the following in the case of an array: (2)
a. To convert a list of values to an array. b. To create an uninitialized array of specified shape and datatype. c. To create an array from another array. d. To create an array with all its elements as 1 of the specified size
6. What are built-in functions in Python? Explain with any one function of math module. (2)
VIII.
1. What is RDBMS? Give one example. (1) 2. Define constraints with example. (1) 3. A table EMP has 5 rows and 4 columns. Mohit added 2columns and 2 rows. What is the degree and cardinality of the table? (1) 4. Which operator is used for the following in MySQL query? (1) i) To specify a list of values. Ii ) To specify a range of values.
5. Which clause is used with UPDATE command to update the selected rows? (1) 6. Which aggregate function is used to calculate the average of the given data? (1) 7. Differentiate between ALTER TABLE command and UPDATE command. (1) 8. Is it possible to have primary key and foreign key in one table? Justify your answer? (1) 9. Kaveri wants to delete the records when the “FirstName” is “Rama” in the ‘EMPL’ table. She has entered the following MySQL statement. An error is being displayed. Rewrite the correct statement. DELETE ‘RAMA’ FirstName from EMPL; (1)
10. Is NULL and 0(zero) same? Justify your answer. (1)
IX.
1. Write the output for SQL queries (i) to (iii) and write SQL queries for (iv) to (vii), which are based on the table: FACULTY. (7) Table: FACULTY FCODE FNAME SEX SALARY SUBJECT JOIN DATE F1001 MERRY JOSE F 350000 ENGLISH 2000-09-06 F1002 PRIYA M F 220200 WEB DESIGN 2005-05-05 F1003 TANYA SABIN F 200200 WEB DESIGN 2007-05-04 F1004 FARDEEN KHAN M 230000 PROGRAMMING 2009-08-02
i. Select COUNT(Salary) from FACULTY; ii. Select MAX(JoinDate),MIN(JoinDate) from FACULTY; iii. Select distinct(subject) from faculty. iv. To display the records from table FACULTY in alphabetical order as per the name of faculty. v. To increase the salary of all faculties by 2000, who are either teaching the subject “Programming” or teaching the subject “Mathematics”. vi. To display details of all faculties whose name starts with letter 'A'. vii. To display the name, joining date of faculty who salary is in the range of 2 lakh and 2.5lakh.
2. Write MYSQL statements for the following: (5) i. Create a table accounts with a column accno of char type and size 4. ii. Add two columns - name of datatype varchar(20) and balance of datatype int(7) iii. Change the datatype of column accno to int. iv. Change the name of column name to accountholder. v. Remove the table from the database.
*********************************************
ANSWER KEY
INSTRUCTION : ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS.
I. 1. What do you mean by packages? (1)
Ans: General application software that are required by the users for the fulfillment of their needs and requirements are known as Packages.
2. What is the meaning of the term volatile Primary Memory? (1)
Ans- In Volatile Primary Memory all contents are erased as soon as power goes off. Ex- RAM
3. What is the difference between an Interpreter and Compiler? (2)
Ans- Interpreter: 1) An interpreter converts an HLL Program into machine language line by line and simultaneously executes the converted line . 2) An Interpreter must always be present in the memory along with the program for its execution. 3) If an error in a line, the line is displayed and interpreter does not proceed unless the error is rectified.
Compiler: 1)A compiler converts an HLL program in machine language in one go. 2)If there are errors in the program it gives the error list along with the line number 3)Once the errors are removed ,error free object code is made available and after this compiler is no more needed in the memory.
4. What do you understand by online identity theft? Mention one measure that can be used to avoid online identity thefts. (2)
Ans: Online Identity theft is a kind of online fraud that involves using someone else’s online credentials to cause harm the actual person financially or socially. Private browsing, Anonymous browsing, incognito, proxy, VPN (Any one)
5. Give one word for the following: (2)
i) A system of hardware and software that monitors all communication over a network and allows only legitimate communication to propagate. ii) A passive attack on a network that gains access to communication medium and listens to the communication to fetch content.
Ans: i) Firewall ii) Eavesdropping
II. 1. What are keywords in Python? (1)
Ans: Keywords are reserved words by python interpreter that cannot be used as variables.
2. Which of the following are legitimate variable declarations: (1) i) My.var ii) _GLOBAL iii) for iv) While
Ans: ii) _GLOBAL iv) While
3. What is the purpose of following operators in Python: (1) %, **, // , in
Ans: % - arithmetic operator that computes remainder of division operation. ** operator find the exponential value of a number raised to the exponent. // is arithmetic operator for integer division. 'in' operator is used to check if a value exists in a sequence or not.
4. Is, the Python is case sensitive language ? Why? (1)
Ans. Yes, Python is case sensitive as it treats upper and lower-case characters differently.
5. How many types of Strings are there in Python? (1)
Ans. Python allows two string types- (i) Single-line Strings (ii) Multiline Strings
III. 1. What are selection statements? Give one example. (1)
Ans: A set of statements are selected for execution based on the true value of a condition. Eg: if statements
2. What will be the output of the following python statements? (1) x=2 # print(x)
Ans: No output will be generated, as print statement is commented.
3. Differentiate between equality(==) operator and assignment operator? (2)
Ans. Equality operator(==) is used to compare two values and if both values are same then it returns True otherwise it returns False. E.g.: if a==1: #here value of variable is checked to see if it is 1 Print(“the value of A is ”,a)
Assignment operator(=) is used to give a value to a variable. E.g.: a=1 # here variable a is getting a value 1.
4. Find output of the following code: - (2) for x in range(3, 12, 2): print(x, end= “#”) Ans: 3 # 5 # 7 # 9 # 11
5. Find error(s) in the following codes and rewrite the corrected codes and underline each correction. (2) x = 5 i == 1 while (i < = x) : i =+ 2 print(Output is, “”ï”)
Ans: x = 5 i =1 # assignment operator = should be used. while i < = x : # brackets not needed to give condition i += 2 # += is the shorthand operator print(“Output is ”, i) # String should be in double quotes
6. What will be the output of the following python code? (2) a, b = 10, 50 if b % a == 0: print(b//4) print(a/2) else: print(a**2) print(b%3) Ans: 12 5.0
IV. 1. What will be the output of the following programming code? (1) s1=”My Python Programming” print(s1[-5:-1]) print(s1[1:5])
Ans: mmin y Py
2. Consider the string s1=”Green Revolution”. (2) Write statements in python to implement the following:
(a) To replace all the occurrences of letter ‘a’ in the string with “*”. (b) To display the starting index for the substring ‘vo’. (c) To check whether the string contains ‘Gre’ or not (d) To repeat the string 3 times
Ans: (a) print(s1.replace(“a”, “*”)) (b) print(s1.find(“vo”)) (c) print(“Gre” in s1) (d) print(s1*3)
3. Write python code to allow user input a string. Find the number of vowels in the string. (2)
Ans: w=input(“Enter the String”) vowel=0 for letter in w: if letter in(‘a’, ‘e’, ‘i’, ‘o’, ‘u’): vowel=vowel+1 print(“The number of vowels in ”, w , “is ”, vowel) V. 1. Python lists are mutable. Substantiate this point with example (1)
Ans: A python list is a mutable sequence of values which can be of any type and is indexed by an integer. By mutable, we mean the items in a list can be changed. E.g.: lst=[10,20,30] lst[0]=40 print(lst) Output: [40,20,30] # the item in index zero changed to 40. 2. Pop() and remove() though removes an item in a list works differently. Explain. (2)
Ans: pop() – removes the element from the specified index and also returns the element which was removed. E.g.: lst=[1,2,3,4,5] a=lst.pop(1) # here element at index 1 (i.e. 2 ) is deleted and stored in a. print(lst)
output –[1,3,4,5]
remove() – removes the element specified from the list. E.g.: lst=[1,2,3,4,5] a=lst.remove(1) # here element 1 is deleted. print(lst)
output –[2,3,4,5]
3. Write python script to input a number and count the occurrence of the number in the given list. (2)
Ans: l=[10,20,30,40] num=int(input(“enter the number to be searched in list”)) count=0 for i in l: if num==i: count=count+1 print(“ the element ”, num, “ is present in the list ”, count, “ number of times”)
VI. 1. Why can’t lists be used as keys in a python dictionary? (1)
Ans: Lists cannot be used as keys in dictionary because they are mutable. A Python dictionary can have only keys of immutable types.
2. What are the two ways in which an empty dictionary can be created in python? (1) Ans: Method 1: using the statement d={} Method 2: using dict() E.g.: d=dict()
3. Suppose dict is a dictionary then differentiate following commands: - a)dict.clear b)del dict (1)
Ans: dict.clear() – removes all items in a dictionary. Del dict[key]- removes an item from the dictionary based on the key specified.
4. Create a dictionary to store names of any 5 states as keys and their capitals as values. Also write code to print it. (2)
Ans: dict = {'HP': 'Shimla', 'Punjab’: ‘Chandigarh’, 'Rajasthan': 'Jaipur', ‘Haryana’:’Chandigarh’, ‘MP’:’Bhopal’} print(dict)
VII. 1. Predict the output of the following code: (1) import math print(“MATH FUNCTIONS :”, math.ceil(3.4), math.floor(4.9), math.pow(2,4), math.sqrt(25), sep= “\n”)
Ans: MATH FUNCTIONS : 4 4 16.0 5.0
2. What is the purpose of arange()? (1)
Ans: arange() is used to create an array from a range. It takes a start index, stop index and a step value as arguments. Syntax is
3. Write a module to calculate and return square and cube of number. Write the main program also. (2)
Ans: #module saved as calculations.py def Square(n): s=n*n print(“Square of ”, n, “is” , s)
def Cube(n): c=n*n*n print(“Cube of ”, n, “is” , c)
# main program
import calculations num=int(input(“Enter the number”)) calculations.Square(num) calculations.Cube(num)
4. Find the error(s) in the following code: (2) import NUMPY as p lst={1,2,3,4,5,6} a=p.array(lst) b=p.reshaping(a,(2,3)) print(“Array one is ”, A) print (“Array two is”, B)
Ans: # corrected code with corrections underlined: import numpy as p lst=[1,2,3,4,5,6] a=p.array(lst) b=p.reshape(a,(2,3)) print(“Array one is ”, a) print (“Array two is”, b)
5. Which method is used for the following in the case of an array: (2)
a) To convert a list of values to an array. b) To create an uninitialized array of specified shape and datatype. c) To create an array from another array. d) To create an array with all its elements as 1 of the specified size
Ans: a) array() b) empty() c) copy() d) ones()
6. What are built-in functions in Python? Explain with any one function of math module. (2)
Ans: Built in functions are the pre-defined functions that are already available in Python. They provide efficiency and structure to the program. To access these functions the dot notation is use as shown below: E.g.: result=math.sqrt(49)
The above code will find the square root of 49 and will return the value 7, which is stored in variable result.
VIII. 1. What is RDBMS? Give one example. (1)
Ans: Relational Database management System is used to define, modify, update, store and manage data stored in a database in the form of tables. E.g.: MySQL
2. Define constraints with examples. (1) Ans: Constraints are a set of rules or conditions applicable to a column or a table that ensures validity and integrity of data. Eg: not null, unique, primary key, default, check…
3. A table EMP has 5 rows and 4 columns. Mohit added 2columns and 2 rows. What is the degree and cardinality of the table? (1)
Ans: Degree of EMP table: 6 (six) Cardinality of EMP table: 7 (seven)
4. Which operator is used for the following in MySQL query? (1) i) To specify a list of values. ii) To specify a range of values
Ans: i) in operator ii) between operator.
5. Which clause is used with UPDATE command to update only selected rows? (1)
Ans : where clause to specify condition
6. Which aggregate function is used to calculate the average of the given data? (1) Ans: Avg()-finds average value excluding nulls if any.
7. Differentiate between ALTER TABLE and UPDATE command. (1) Alter table is a DDL command used to change the structure of an existing table whereas update statement is a DML command used to make changes to data in a table. 8. Is it possible to have primary key and foreign key in one table? Justify your answer? (1)
Ans : yes. A table can have its own primary key and a non-key attribute (foreign key) referenced from another table. Eg: Student table can have primary key (stdno) and foreign key (trno) referenced from teacher table.
9. Kaveri wants to delete the records when the “FirstName” is “Rama” in the ‘EMPL’ table. She has entered the following MySQL statement. An error is being displayed. Rewrite the correct statement. DELETE ‘RAMA’ FirstName from EMPL; (1)
Ans: delete from EMPL where FirstName= “ Rama”;
10. Is NULL and 0(zero) same? Justify your answer. (1) Ans: No NULL and zero are not the same. Zero indicates a value whereas, null indicates that the value is not defined or inapplicable.
IX. 1. Write the output for SQL queries (i) to (iii) and write SQL queries for (iv) to (vii), which are based on the table: FACULTY. (7) Table: FACULTY FCODE FNAME SEX SALARY SUBJECT JOIN DATE F1001 MERRY F 350000 ENGLISH 2000-09- JOSE 06 F1002 PRIYA M F NULL WEB DESIGN 2005-05- 05 F1003 TANYA F 200200 WEB DESIGN 2007-05- SABIN 04 F1004 FARDEEN M 230000 PROGRAMMING 2009-08- KHAN 02 i. Select COUNT(Salary) from FACULTY; ii. Select MAX(JoinDate),MIN(JoinDate) from FACULTY; iii. Select distinct(subject) from faculty. iv. To display the records from table FACULTY in alphabetical order as per the name of faculty. v. To increase the salary of all faculties by 2000, who are either teaching the subject “Programming” or teaching the subject “Mathematics”. vi. To display details of all faculties whose name starts with letter 'A'. vii. To display the name, joining date of faculty who salary is in the range of 2 lakh and 2.5lakh. Ans:
i. Count(salary) 3
ii. MAX(JoinDate) MIN(JoinDate) 2009-08-02 2000- 09-06
iii. distinct(subject) ENGLISH WEB DESIGN PROGRAMMING
iv. select * from faculty order by fname asc; v. update faculty set salary=salary+2000 where subject=“Programming” or subject= “Mathematics”; vi. select * from faculty where fname like “A%”; vii. select fname, joindate from faculty where salary between 200000 and 250000;
2. Write MYSQL statements for the following: (5) i. Create a table accounts with a column accno of char type and size 4. ii. Add two columns - name of datatype varchar(20) and balance of datatype int(7) iii. Change the datatype of column accno to int. iv. Change the name of column name to accountholder. v. Remove the table from the database.
Ans: i. Create table accounts(accno char(4)); ii. Alter table accounts add name varchar(20), balance int(7); iii. Alter table accounts modify accno int(4); iv. Alter table accounts changename accountholder varchar(20); v. Drop table accounts;
********************************************* REVISION PAPERS FOR ANNUAL EXAMINATION 2019-20 Std :XI LEGAL STUDIES Marks: 80 Time: 3 Hrs
General Instructions: (i) There are 37 questions in all. (ii) All the questions are compulsory. However, internal choice has been given in some questions. (iii) Questions number 1 to 20 are multiple choice questions carrying 1 mark each. (iv) Questions number 21 to 28 are short answer questions carrying 2 marks each. (v) Questions number 29 to 33 are long answer I questions carrying 4 marks each. (vi) Questions number 34 to 37 are long answer II questions carrying 6 marks each.
SECTION A
1. Dividing the government into 3 specific branches is called a. Checks and Balances b. Tri-Government Balance c. Pyramid of Power d. Separation of Powers
2. India became a Sovereign, democratic republic on : a. Aug 15, 1947 b. Jan 30, 1948 c. Jan 26, 1950 d. Nov 26, 1949
3. Which one of the following statement is false a. The judiciary maintains order and manages public services b. The organ of government which carries out the legislative function is called the legislature c. The organs of government carrying out the executive function are collectively referred to as the executive d. The judicial organ of government is the judiciary
4. Direct Democracy is the system in which a. Citizens choose their representatives in free and fair elections b. Citizens are allowed to debate with their representatives in open public meetings c. Citizens represent themselves in the decision making process d. Senior political leaders are known as Directors
5. Writ of Mandamus is: a. an order to produce the body of a person b. an order from a superior court to any official to show his right to the office. c. an order from a higher court to stop proceedings in a certain case d. a writ from a superior court commanding some public officer or particular public authority to do a specific act
6. Which Charter established crowns Courts in India? a. Charter of 1726 b. Charter of 1660 c. Charter of 1762 d. Charter of 1606
7. The President of India is in which branch of government a. Legislative b. Judicial c. Elective d. Executive
8. The chairman of the Drafting Committee for Constitution of India was a. Mahatma Gandhi b. Jawaharlal Nehru c. Dr Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar d. Bhagath singh
9. In the decision of Kesavananda Bharathi v. Union of India Which Constitutional Principle was discussed at length? a. Basic Structure Doctrine b. Theory of eminent domain c. Emergency Powers d. Doctrine of Severability
10. Habeas Corpus means: a. an order from a court to free a person who had been illegally detained by the police or any other person b. an order from a superior court calling up the record of a proceeding in an inferior court for review c. an order from the superior court to an official to show his right to the office d. an order from a higher court to stop proceedings in a certain case
11. Provision of imposing president’s rule in case of failure of Constitutional machinery in the states is provided under a. Article 353 b. Article 360 c. Article 352 d. Article 356
12. According to the ……………. Act, no man below the age of 18 and woman below the age of 16 could marry. a. Child Marriage Restraint Act, 1992 b. Child Marriage Restriction Act, 1992 c. Child Marriage Restraint Act, 1929 d. Child Marriage Restriction Act 1922
13. Consider the following statements. 1. In the case of violation of the fundamental Rights, the affected person can directly approach the Supreme Court only. 2. In the matters under the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, the High Court cannot be approached. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2
14. Right against Self-incrimination is guaranteed as per a. Article 14 b. Article 12 c. Article 20 d. Article 22
15. Writ of Certiorari means a. an order to produce the body of a person b. a writ issued by a superior court calling up the record of a proceeding in an inferior court for review c. an order from the superior court to any official to show his right to the office d. an order from a higher court to stop proceedings in a certain case
16. Which of the following statements is not correct? 1. The Constitution forbids employment of children below the age of 14 years in dangerous jobs like factories and mines. 2. The freedom of religion is not an unlimited right as govt. can interfere in religious matters for rooting out certain social evils. 3. The Constitution allows conversions in India. 4. All minorities, religious or linguistic can set up their own education institutions.
a. 4 only b. 3 and 4 c. 3 only d. None 17. Consider the following statements about High Court: 1. High Court can issue writs only for restoring fundamental rights. 2. Its decisions are binding on all courts. 3. High Court can hear appeals from lower courts. Which of the following statements are correct? a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 3 only d. 2 and 3
18. What is the true meaning of “Secular” ? a. All religions are equal in the eyes of the government b. Special importance to a religion related to minorities c. One religion is promoted by the government d. None of the following
19. The writ of Prohibition issued by the Supreme Court or a High Court is issued against: a. judicial or quasi-judicial authorities b. administrative and judicial authorities c. administrative authorities only d. administrative authorities and government
20. The writ of Mandamus is available for the purpose of: I. Enforcement of fundamental rights II. Compelling a court or judicial tribunal to exercise its jurisdiction when it has refused to exercise it III. Directing a public official or the Government not to enforce a law which is unconstitutional a. I only b. II and III c. I and III d. I, II and III SECTION B 21. Briefly describe the Right against Self-Incrimination. 22. Define the institute of Marriage 23. Discuss briefly on inheritable and uninheritable property. 24. Write briefly on the Objective Resolution 25. How do commentaries and digest differ from each other 26. Describe briefly legislation as a source of Law. 27. What do you mean by the term “Adult Suffrage” 28. What does Article 368 refer to?
SECTION C 29. A who got married at the age of 21 to B lived a happy married life for a period of two years after marriage. Marital issues creped in when A’s mother in law started physically and verbally abusing her demanding dowry. In a short period of time even her husband B started showing signs of abusive mannerism. A eventually approached you for filing petition for abusive treatment against B and his parents. Advice A.Also comment on the primary objective of the Act under which you would file the complaint against B and his parents, comment on the role of service providers under the Act. 30. Comment on the role played by ‘court pandits’ also explain how they lost their predominant status during the second phase of Anglo – Hindu law. 31. How is supreme legislature different from subordinate legislature.Also comment on the different kinds of subordinate legislature in the country? 32. Comment on the rules of intestate succession among Hindus, Christians and Muslims. 33. Explain the significance of Fundamental Rights in a democracy like India
SECTION D 34. In a decided case the hon’ble Supreme Court judge pronounced the judgment and stated the rights of an arrested person. The landmark judgment was to be followed by all the other courts in the country. Identify the underlying principle, explain this principle by giving due importance to two parts of a judgment also comment on the relevance of judge made laws in the country. 35. Explain on the Writ of Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Quo Warranto, Certiorari and Prohibition. Briefly describe the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India and the High Courts of State with the relevant constitutional provisions. 36. Explain the following types of states- roman empire, feudal state and oriental empire? 37. With the help of a flow chart identify the different branches of law ?
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ANSWER KEY SECTION A
1.D 2.D 3.A 4.A 5.D 6.A 7.D 8.C 9.A 10.A 11.D 12.C 13.B 14.C 15.A 16.D 17.C 18.A 19.A 20.D
SECTION B
21. Accused and the Right against Self-incrimination The right against self-incrimination is provided under Article 20(3) of the Constitution of India, which stipulates that "No person accused of an offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself". However, the following restrictions are placed on the exercise of this right: Only such documents/statements are protected as are within the personal knowledge of the accused, and thus records that are maintained in fulfillment of a statutory requirement may not be protected. Further, the accused can be required to give a handwriting sample/blood/DNA sample as the same are not within the 'personal knowledge' of the accused. The protection against Article 20(3) protects the accused only against being compelled to produce documents. The Supreme Court has held that a search and seizure does not amount to 'compulsion to produce' and is thus outside the protection of Article 20(3). Summons under Section 91 CrPC cannot be issued to an accused person, however, a general search warrant under Section 93(1)(c) CrPC is not protected under Article 20(3) of the Constitution of India. 22. Marriage is defined as a social and legal union between a man and a woman; through this institution the spouses create kinship. Kinship is a system of social organization between people who are related by blood, marriage, or adoption. Marriage is a social union because both the spouses are entitled to each other's company and conjugal rights, which are mutual rights and privileges between two individuals that arise from the state of being married. These rights and privileges include affection, companionship, co-habitation, joint property rights, and sexual relations. 23. Inheritance is one of the means of acquisition of property. After the death of the owner, all rights belonging to the deceased with regard to the property are divisible into two classes, namely: (1) Inheritable rights, and (2) Uninheritable rights. A right is inheritable if it survives its owner. It remains functional even after the death of the person to whom it belongs and devolves on his legal representative; it is not inheritable if it dies with his person. Generally speaking, proprietary rights (rights attached to property) like debts are inheritable whereas personal rights (rights associated with the person) are not as they extinguish with the death of the deceased. 24. The third source was the Objectives Resolution adopted in the December 1949 Assembly session. The Constitution derived its spirit from this source. The Objectives Resolution laid down the philosophy and the Constitution expressed it through its many lengthy and detailed provisions. Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India, had drafted the Objectives Resolution drawing upon the Congress Party documents of the previous two decades. The Objectives Resolution called for the integrity of the Indian Union and that its authority and power were derived from the Indian people. It stated that all the people should be secured with regards to justice, social, economic and political- equality of status, of opportunity, and before the law; freedom of thought, expression, belief, faith, worship, vocation, association and action, subject to law and public morality. Furthermore, the Objectives Resolution provided for adequate safeguards for minorities, depressed and backward classes, and underdeveloped and tribal areas. The Objectives Resolution can be summarized to consist of three interdependent salient features: . 1) protecting and enhancing national unity and integrity; . 2) establishing the institutions and spirit of democracy; and . 3) promoting a social revolution for the betterment of the citizens. 25. LEGISLATION AS A SOURCE OF LAW In modern times, legislation is considered as the most important source of law. The term 'legislation' is derived from the Latin word legis which means 'law' and latum which means "to make" or "set". Therefore, the word 'legislation' means the 'making of law'. The importance of legislation as a source of law can be measured from the fact that it is backed by the authority of the sovereign, and it is directly enacted and recognised by the State. The expression 'legislation' has been used in various senses. It includes every method of law-making. In the strict sense it means laws enacted by the sovereign or any other person or institution authorised by him. Kinds of Legislation The kinds of legislation can be explained as follows: Legislation (i) Supreme Legislation: When the laws are directly enacted by the sovereign, it is considered as supreme legislation. One of the features of Supreme legislation is that, no other authority except the sovereign itself can control or check it. The laws enacted by the British Parliament fall in this category, as the British Parliament is considered as sovereign. The law enacted by the Indian Parliament also falls in the same category. However in India, powers of the Parliament are regulated and controlled by the Constitution, through the laws enacted by it are not under the control of any other legislative body. Subordinate Legislation: Subordinate legislation is a legislation which is made by any authority which is subordinate to the supreme or sovereign authority. It is enacted under the delegated authority of the sovereign. The origin, validity, existence and continuance of such legislation totally depends on the will of the sovereign authority. Subordinate legislation further can be classified into the following types:- Indian Parliament . (a) Autonomous Law: When a group of individuals recognized or incorporated under the law as an autonomous body, is conferred with the power to make rules and regulation, the laws made by such body fall under autonomous law. For instance, laws made by the bodies like Universities, incorporated companies etc. fall in this category of legislation. . (b) Judicial Rules: In some countries, judiciary is conferred with the power to make rules for their administrative procedures. For instance, under the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court and High Courts have been conferred with such kinds of power to regulate procedure and administration. . (c) Local laws: In some countries, local bodies are recognized and conferred with the law-making powers. They are entitled to make bye-laws in their respective jurisdictions. In India, local bodies like Panchayats and Municipal Corporations have been recognized by the Constitution through the 73rd and 74th Constitutional amendments. The rules and bye-laws enacted by them are examples of local laws. . (d) Colonial Law: Laws made by colonial countries for their colonies or the countries controlled by them are known as colonial laws. For a long time, India was governed by the laws passed by the British Parliament. However, as most countries of the world have gained independence from the colonial powers, this legislation is losing its importance and may not be recognized as a kind of legislation. (e) Laws made by the Executive: Laws are supposed to be enacted by the sovereign and the sovereignty may be vested in one authority or it may be distributed among the various organs of the State. In most of the modern States, sovereignty is generally divided among the three organs of the State. The three organs of the State namely legislature, executive and judiciary are vested with three different functions. The prime responsibility of law-making vests with the legislature, while the executive is vested with the responsibility to implement the laws enacted by the legislature. However, the legislature delegates some of its law-making powers to executive organs which are also termed delegated legislation. Delegated legislation is also a class of subordinate legislation. In welfare and modern states, the amount of legislation has increased manifold and it is not possible for legislative bodies to go through all the details of law. Therefore, it deals with only a fundamental part of the legislation and wide discretion has been given to the executive to fill the gaps. This increasing tendency of delegated legislation has been criticized. However, delegated legislation is resorted to, on account of reasons like paucity of time, technicalities of law and emergency. Therefore, delegated legislation is sometimes considered as a necessary evil. 27. Article 326 confers on the citizens of India the right to vote in the general elections to the House of People and to the Legislative Assemblies of States. Every citizen who is not less than 18 years of age (reduced from 21 years by the Constitution(sixty-first Amendment) Act, 1988 and otherwise not disqualified under the Constitution or any other law on the grounds of unsoundness of mind, non- residence, crime or corrupt or illegal practice shall be entitled to be registered as a voter at any such election. There is one general electoral roll for every territorial constituency, as stated in Article 325 of the Constitution, for election to either House of Parliament or to the House or Houses of State Legislature. This Article further specifies that no person shall be ineligible for inclusion to the electoral roll on the grounds only of religion, race caste sex or any of them. Article 331 provides for representation for members of the Anglo-Indian community in the House of People. In the case of Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain (AIR 1975 SC 2299), popularly known as Election case, right to free and fair elections has been declared to constitute the Basic Structure of the Constitution. 28. Article 368 of the Constitution provides for constituent powers of the Parliament, and lays down the procedure for amendment of the Constitution. In the exercise of its power of judicial review, the Supreme Court of India in Keshavananda Bharati case (AIR1973 SC 1461) popularly known as Fundamental Right's Case, held that the Parliament in exercise of its amending power under Article 368,could not alter the Basic Structure of the Constitution. Thus the basic structure limits the amending power of the Parliament. The Judges while deciding this case could not form a unanimous opinion on the provisions oftheConstitutionwhichconstituteitsBasicStructure. On a perusal of different cases decided by Supreme Court, the following features seem to emerge as the Basic Structure, so as to be beyond the amending power of the Parliament under Article 368: . Supremacy of the Constitution; . Republic and democratic form of Government; . Secular character of the Constitution and State; . Sovereignty of India; . Judicial Review and jurisdiction of courts under Article 32&Article 226 . Separation of Powers and Independent Judiciary (In the case of State of Biharvs. Bal Mukund Shah (AIR2000SC1296) . Right to Equality and Rule of Law It is, therefore, for the Supreme Court of India to determine finally the essential features constituting the framework of the Constitution. In other words, the Supreme Court has assumed to itself the constituent power in exercise of Judicial Review. In conclusion, the Indian Constitution has not adopted the doctrine of separation of powers in its strict sense. Nevertheless, the Constitution of India has sufficiently differentiated the essential functions of the organs and no organ shall assume to itself what essentially belongs to other. SECTION C 29. Domestic Violence The nature of violence against women varies based on the particular socio-cultural as well as political and economic contexts. It also varies based on spaces where it occurs: public spaces as well as private spaces of family and matrimonial relationships. Domestic violence against women happens in the private space. Domestic violence is largely forbidden in the Western countries. However, in many developing countries, domestic violence is either legally recognized or socially acceptable For example, the United Arab Emirates' laws allow the man the use of limited physical means to discipline his wife and children. Domestic violence is also a socially acceptable practice, including by women themselves, in many developing countries like Jordan, Guinea, Zambia, Sierra Leone, Laos, and Ethiopia. . The salient features of PWDVA are as follows: The PWDVA is a civil law. Its primary objective is to provide compensation as well as support to the woman. This is contrary to criminal law, which intends toprimarilypunishtheperpetrators. Enforcingcriminallawsdependonthe State, the police, and the prosecution lawyer. As a civil law, PWDVA is victim- driven; she has direct access to the court. The rights and reliefs under PWDVA can only be initiated with the consent of the woman. PWDVA describes 'domestic relationships' broadly to include, wives, mothers, sisters, daughters, and live in partners. All of these all are provided protection by the PWDVA.
The protection under the PWDVA is not limited to the matrimonial home but covers 'shared householder' to include mothers, sisters and daughters as well. . PWDVA provides for 'Stop Violence' orders that offer emergency reliefs to stop violence immediately. PWDVA is an additional law and allows women to enforce other laws, such as the divorce laws as well. . For the effective implementation of this law, PWDVA offers both access to justice as well as access to support systems. It provides for Protection Officers to operate as nexus between the court and the woman to ensure accessibility to the justice system. PWDVA also envisages Service Providers, i.e. non- governmental organizations who voluntarily register under the Act, to deliver her with essential support she might require, such as shelter and medical facilities. Service Providers are crucial, as women often would feel more comfortable approaching an NGO rather than the police or state authorities. . PWDVA stipulates for the 'single window clearance system' to aid women in accessing the justice system. This allows woman to use PWDVA to enforce other civil reliefs under other laws as well, such as the criminal law. For example, she can use one PWDVA suit to enforce her right not be dispossessed when a divorce petition is pending (Section 498 A of the Indian Penal Code). This helps her avoid filing of multiple of suits in various forums. . PWDVA provides that the magistrate may, at any stage of the proceedings of the case, direct either one or both the parties to the suit to undertake counseling with any member of the service provides who holds the required qualification and experience of counseling. Women groups are critical to the counseling provision as it is often seen as a tool for preserving marriage and placing the woman back in the violent situation. . PWDVA puts responsibility on the Central and State Governments for training and sensitization of the general public as well as the state authorities including the judiciary. 30. In the first phase between 1772 and 1864, three main developments occurred with respect to the Anglo-Hindu Law. First, the important Dharmashastra texts were compiled and translated by various British administrator-scholars including William Jones, Henry Thomas Colebrooke, J.C.C. Sutherland, and Harry Borrodaile. The rules from these texts were applied to Hindus in order to expand British rule in India. Second, the court pandits were used in the British courts to aid the British judges with the interpretation of the Dharmashastra texts and implementation of the Classical Hindu Law. Third, the court pandits became redundant due to sufficient proliferation and development of established case laws of some precedent value. 31. (i) Supreme Legislation: When the laws are directly enacted by the sovereign, it is considered as supreme legislation. One of the features of Supreme legislation is that, no other authority except the sovereign itself can control or check it. The laws enacted by the British Parliament fall in this category, as the British Parliament is considered as sovereign. The law enacted by the Indian Parliament also falls in the same category. However in India, powers of the Parliament are regulated and controlled by the Constitution, through the laws enacted by it are not under the control of any other legislative body. Subordinate Legislation: Subordinate legislation is a legislation which is made by any authority which is subordinate to the supreme or sovereign authority. It is enacted under the delegated authority of the sovereign. The origin, validity, existence and continuance of such legislation totally depends on the will of the sovereign authority. Subordinate legislation further can be classified into the following types:- Indian Parliament . (a) Autonomous Law: When a group of individuals recognized or incorporated under the law as an autonomous body, is conferred with the power to make rules and regulation, the laws made by such body fall under autonomous law. For instance, laws made by the bodies like Universities, incorporated companies etc. fall in this category of legislation. . (b) Judicial Rules: In some countries, judiciary is conferred with the power to make rules for their administrative procedures. For instance, under the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court and High Courts have been conferred with such kinds of power to regulate procedure and administration. . (c) Local laws: In some countries, local bodies are recognized and conferred with the law-making powers. They are entitled to make bye-laws in their respective jurisdictions. In India, local bodies like Panchayats and Municipal Corporations have been recognized by the Constitution through the 73rd and 74th Constitutional amendments. The rules and bye-laws enacted by them are examples of local laws. . (d) Colonial Law: Laws made by colonial countries for their colonies or the countries controlled by them are known as colonial laws. For a long time, India was governed by the laws passed by the British Parliament. However, as most countries of the world have gained independence from the colonial powers, this legislation is losing its importance and may not be recognized as a kind of legislation. (e) Laws made by the Executive: Laws are supposed to be enacted by the sovereign and the sovereignty may be vested in one authority or it may be distributed among the various organs of the State. In most of the modern States, sovereignty is generally divided among the three organs of the State. The three organs of the State namely legislature, executive and judiciary are vested with three different functions. The prime responsibility of law-making vests with the legislature, while the executive is vested with the responsibility to implement the laws enacted by the legislature. However, the legislature delegates some of its law-making powers to executive organs which are also termed delegated legislation. Delegated legislation is also a class of subordinate legislation. In welfare and modern states, the amount of legislation has increased manifold and it is not possible for legislative bodies to go through all the details of law. Therefore, it deals with only a fundamental part of the legislation and wide discretion has been given to the executive to fill the gaps. This increasing tendency of delegated legislation has been criticized. However, delegated legislation is resorted to, on account of reasons like paucity of time, technicalities of law and emergency. Therefore, delegated legislation is sometimes considered as a necessary evil. 32. Rules of intestate succession among Hindus Heirs belonging to a Hindu male are classified into four categories i.e. class I, class II, agnates and cognates. Class I heirs are the most preferred heirs and include mother, wife, son as well as daughter and their descendants upto the third generation. Class II heirs include father, brother as well as sister and their children, maternal and paternal uncles and aunts, maternal and paternal grandfather and grandmother etc. Class II heirs will inherit property only in absence of Class I heirs. If there are no heirs belonging to Class I or Class II then property goes to agnates. When two persons are related by blood or adoption wholly through males, they are called agnates. For example, the son of a great grandson (son, grandson, great grandson being dead) and great grandson of P, SSSS1 is son of SSS and great great grandson of P. Here, SSSS1 is agnate to P as he is tracing relation wholly through males i.e his father (SSS), grandfather (SS), and greatgrandfather (S). No female has intervened in-between. P F FM FMF1 In case, all the above-mentioned heirs i.e. Class I, Class II and agnates are absent then property will go to cognates. When two persons are related by blood or adoption but not wholly through males, they are called cognates. For example father of paternal grandmother i.e. FMF1 is a cognate as female (father's mother) has intervened in between. . Rules of intestate succession among Muslims: There is no codified law for Muslims in the area of succession. They are governed by their religious texts. Among Sunnis, heirs are divided into three categories i.e. sharers (Quranic heirs), residuaries (agnatic heirs), and distant kindred (uterine heirs). Sharers are the most preferred heirs. First of all, sharers are allotted their Quranic shares. If something is left behind after allotting shares to them, then, it goes to residuaries. If their shares exhaust the entire estate, then sharers exclude residuaries and distant kindred. The distant kindred are not entitled to succeed so long as there is any heir belonging to the class of sharers or residuaries. But there is one case in which distant kindred will inherit with the sharer: when there is only one sharer i.e. the wife or husband of the deceased and no other sharer or residuary exist. Among Shias, heirs are divided into two categories i.e. heirs by consanguinity and heirs by marriage i.e. husband and wife. Heirs by consanguinity are further sub-divided into three classes. Class I includes parents and children. Class II includes grandparents, brothers and sisters, and their descendants etc. Class III includes paternal and maternal uncles and aunts of the deceased, and of his parents, grandparents etc. Among the heirs by consanguinity, the first group excludes the second and the second group excludes the third. The claimants in both the categories i.e. heirs by consanguinity and heirs by marriage succeed together, if there are heirs of both the categories.
Rules of intestate succession under the Indian Succession Act, 1925: The Indian Succession Act, 1925 is a central legislation and is applicable to every person, unless and until anyone is governed by any law particularly applicable to them. This Act is not applicable to Hindus and Muslims. Christians and Parsis are governed by this Act. Among Christians, the first preference is given to the spouse of the deceased and his lineal descendants i.e. children, grand children, great grand children or their remoter lineal descendants. When there are no lineal descendants then property passes on to the spouse of the deceased and those who are kindred (consanguinity is the connection or relation of persons descended from the same stock or common ancestor) to him. If there are no lineal descendants or one who is kindred to him, then entire property goes to his or her spouse. In the absence of such spouse, property passes on to lineal descendants or to those who are kindred to him. How it has just been established there are such lineal / kindred descendants! The rules pertaining to interstate succession are more or less same in all the communities. The first preference is given to the husband or wife of the deceased and their lineal descendants. In their absence, the preference is given to collaterals that are close to the deceased. In their absence, property goes to remote agnatic heirs and then to cognatic heirs. A rule of escheat is applicable in all the communities. If no heir is present then property goes to the Government by this Rule. 33. Fundamental Rights The Constitution of India guarantees its people certain basic human rights and freedoms known as 'Fundamental Rights', which are listed in Part- III of the Constitution (Articles 12 to 35.) These are broadly rights of equality (equality before laws and prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth; equality of opportunity in matters of public employment; abolition of untouchablility and titles); right to freedom ([rights regarding freedom of speech such as freedom of speech and expression, right to free movement, to form associations, to practice any trade or occupation]; protection in respect to conviction for offences; protection of life and personal liberty; protection against arrest and detention in certain cases); right against exploitation, right to freedom of religion; cultural and education rights and right to constitutional remedies. The right to education was inserted as Article 21A vide the Constitution (eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002. Fundamental Rights stated under Article 14 and 21 are even conferred to non-citizens. The Fundamental Rights guarantee to the people certain basic rights. The legislative and executive actions which infringe upon or violate the Fundamental Rights are declared ultra vires the Constitution. The Supreme Court shall have power to issue directions or orders or writs, including writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari, whichever may be appropriate, for the enforcement of fundamental rights under Article 32;and the High Courts under Article 226 of the Constitution. The speedy and effective remedy under Article 32 is itself guaranteed as a Fundamental Right. Therefore, these guaranteed rights are termed justiciable rights. SECTION D 34. JUDICIAL PRECEDENT AS A SOURCE OF LAW In simple words, judicial precedent refers to previously decided judgments of the superior courts, such as the High Courts and the Supreme Court, which judges are bound to follow. This binding character of the previously decided cases is important, considering the hierarchy of the courts established by the legal systems of a particular country. In the case of India, this hierarchy has been established by the Constitution of India. Judicial precedent is an important source of law, but it is neither as modern as legislation nor is it as old as custom. It is an important feature of the English legal system as well as of other common law countries which follow the English legal system. In most of the developed legal systems, judiciary is considered to be an important organ of the State. In modern societies, rights are generally conferred on the citizens by legislation and the main function of the judiciary is to adjudicate upon these rights. The judges decide those matters on the basis of the legislations and prevailing custom but while doing so, they also play a creative role by interpreting the law. By this exercise, they lay down new principles and rules which are generally binding on lower courts within a legal system. Given this background, it is important to understand the extent to which the courts are guided by precedents. It is equally important to understand what really constitutes the judicial decision in a case and which part of the decision is actually binding on the lower courts. Judicial decisions can be divided into following two parts: (I) Ratio decidendi (Reason of Decision):'Ratio decidendi' refers to the binding part of a judgment. 'Ratio decidendi' literally means reasons for the decision. It is considered as the general principle which is deduced by the courts from the facts of a particular case. It becomes generally binding on the lower courts in future cases involving similar questions of law. (ii) Obiterdicta(Saidbytheway):An'obiterdictum'referstopartsofjudicialdecisionswhich are general observations of the judge and do not have any binding authority. However, obiter of a higher judiciary is given due consideration by lower courts and has persuasive value. 35. abeas Corpus Mandamus Quowarranto Certiorari Prohibition You may have the body We command By what warrant (or authority)? To be more fully informed To forbid or to stop. Purpose of issue To produce a person who has been detained, whether in prison or in private custody, before a court and to release him/her if such detention is found illegal A command issued by the court to any public or quasi-public legal body that has refused to perform its legal duty. It is an order by a superior court commanding a person or a public authority to do or forbear to do something in the nature of public duty. It is an order issued by the court to prevent a person from holding office to which he is not entitled and to oust him from that office. It is a writ issued by a superior court to an inferior court or body exercising judicial or quasi-judicial powers to remove a suit and adjudicate upon the validity of the proceedings or body exercising judicial or quasi-judicial functions. It is issued by a superior court to an inferior court in order to prevent the inferior court from dealing with a matter over which it has no jurisdiction. The aim of this writ is to keep the inferior courts within the limits of their jurisdiction. 36. Roman Empire The Romans established a form of government - a republic - that inspired several countries for centuries. For instance, government of the United States is hugely is influenced by the Roman model. The Roman State passed through three different periods. The first period was that of the monarchies state. Monarchy was succeeded by a Republic under which civil and military power were in the hands of two consuls who were elected annually. The Patricians controlled the administration. There were struggle between the patricians and plebians for the control of power. Ultimately, both of them got equal political and civil rights. The Republic gave way to the Roman Empire which at one time extended over most parts of Europe, Asia Minor and the whole of the Mediterranean coast. Rome put before the world the ideals of unity, order, universal law and cosmopolitanism. The law of nations developed during this period. Political thinkers like R.G Gettle and historian Edward Gobbin (1737-1794) have attributed the decline of the Roman Empire to reasons such as the sacrifice of individual liberty for the sake of unity, moral depravity of the upper class, failure to make rules for the succession of Emperors, and internal feuds. D. Feudal States They emerged from the long and continuous conflict between the barbarians and the Roman political institutions after the downfall of Roman Empire. Feudalism emerged as a consequence and compromise. Vast territories of disintegrated Rome fell into the hands of powerful nobles. Nobles were the patricians of the Roman Empire, who shared political power with the Monarch. They were the members of elite families by way of wealth and social prestige. They became high council officials after the decline of the empire. Oriental Empire Nomadic tribes generally settled down in places where their basic needs of food, water and pasture for their cattle were fulfilled. The early nomadic tribes made the valleys of river Ganges and Indus in India, in the valley of Huang Hoangho and Yang Tse-Kiang in China, the Euphrates and Tigris in Mesopotamia and Nile in Egypt as their homelands. Tribal centres became kingdoms and empires by conquests and re-conquests, as in the case of Aryans and Sumerians. Some of the important features of this empire included concept of private property, settlement on definite territorial area, and authority of the eldest member of the family or the person with highest physical force. 37. International Law and Municipal Law and its subdivisions.
********** REVISION PAPERS FOR ANNUAL EXAMINATION 2019-20
Std :XI MATHEMATICS Marks: 80 Time: 3 Hrs GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
Questions 1 to 20 carry 1 mark each. Questions 21 to 26 carry 2 marks each. Questions 27 to 32 carry 4 marks each. Questions 33 to 36 carry 6 marks each.
SECTION A
1) is equal to
a) – b) 1 c) d) -1
2) Equation of a circle which passes through (3, 6) and touches the axes is a) x2 + y2 + 6x + 6y + 3 = 0 c) x2 + y2 - 6x - 6y + 9 = 0 b) x2 + y2 - 6x - 6y - 9 = 0 d) None of these
3) The value of 1 - tan2 150 is 1 + tan2 150
a) 1 b) √3 c) d) 2
4) The slope of a line which cuts off intercepts of equal lengths on the axes is a) -1 b) 0 c) 2 d) √3
5) While shuffling a pack of 52 playing cards, 2 are accidentally dropped. Find the probability that the missing cards to be of different colours.
a) b) c) d)
6) If -3x + 17 < -13, then a) xϵ (10, ∞) b) xϵ [-10, ∞) c) xϵ (-∞, 10) d) xϵ [-10, 10)
7) The length of the latus rectum of ellipse 3x2 + y2 = 12 is
a) 4 b) 3 c) 8 d)
8) The value of (z + 3) (z + 3) is equivalent to a) | z + 3|2 b) | z - 3| c) z2 + 3 d) None of these
9) The total number of 9 digit numbers which have all different digits is a) 10! b) 9! c) 9 x 9! d) 10 x 10!
10) If 9 times the 9th term of an A.P is equal to 13 times the 13th term, then 22nd term of the A.P is a) 0 b) 22 c) 220 d) 198
11) Let A = {x, y, z} and B = {1, 5}. Find the number of relations from A to B.
12) If tan θ = and θ lies in the IV quadrant, find the value of sin ( )
13) Find the coefficient of variation, if n= 10, ̅ = 12 and ∑ = 1530.
14) If = 720 and = 120 then find the value of r.
15) Express (5 - 3i)3 in the form of a + ib.
16) Find the derivative of the function y= ( 1) cos x
17) Find the equation of the hyperbola where foci are (0, ) and the length of the latus rectum is 36.
18) What is the distance of the point (3, 4, 5) from the YZ plane?
19) Find the domain and range of the function f(x) =
20) Find the sum to infinity of the following geometric progression 1, , , ………
SECTION B
21) Find the points on Y - axis whose distance from the line + =1 is 4 units.
22) Show that the points A (-2, 3, 5), B (1, 2, 3) and C (7, 0, -1) are collinear. Find the ratio in which C divides AB.
23) Expand (2x-3)4 using Binomial Theorem.
24) Find the sum of the sequence 7, 77, 777, ……to n terms.
25) Show that for any sets A and B, A ⋃ (B – A) = A ⋃ B
26) A fair coin is tossed four times and a person wins Rs.1 for each head and lose Rs.1.50 for each tail that turns up. Form the sample space. Calculate how many different amounts of money you can have after four tosses and the probability of having each of these amounts.
SECTION C
27) Solve the following system of inequalities graphically: x - 2y ≤ 3, 3x + 4y ≥ 12, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 1
28) Using the principle of mathematical induction, prove that 32n+2 – 8n – 9 is divisible by 8 for all nєN
29) Prove that sin3x + sin 2x – sin x = 4 sinx cos( ) cos ( )
30) Compute the derivative of cos2x using the First principle of derivatives.
31) Convert the complex number z = 1 - 7i into polar form. (2 + i)2 32) Find the term independent of ‘x’ in the expansion of 3x2 – 1 6 2 3x SECTION D 33) a) Evaluate the following limit
-
b) Differentiate y = x5 – cosx with respect to ‘x’ sinx
34) The diameter of circles (in mm) drawn in a design are given below. Calculate the standard deviation and mean diameter of the circles.
Diameter 30-40 40-50 50-60 60-70 70-80 80-90 90-100 of Circle Number 3 7 12 15 8 3 2 of Circles
35) a) Find the number of arrangements of the letters of the word INDEPENDENCE. In how many of these arrangements i) do the words start with P? ii) do all the vowels always occur together? iii) do the vowels never occur together? iv) do the words begin with I and end in P?
36) a) Find the coordinates of the foot of perpendicular from the point (-1, 3) to the line 3x – 4y – 16 = 0 b) Find the coordinates of the focus, axis of the parabola, equation of the directrix and length of the latus rectum of the parabola x2 = – 16y
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REVISION PAPERS FOR ANNUAL EXAMINATION 2019-20
Std :XI PAINTING Marks: 80 Time: 3 Hrs
1. How is Frescoe painting done and where is it found in Indian History ?
2. Explain about the Bearded King.
3. Define the different principles of art and briefly explain..
4. Explain about the cave paintings at Bhimbhetka and its classifications.
5. Describe the technique of Bronze sculpting with examples.
6. Explain about the different seals found in Mohenjadaro.
7. What are known as shadangas and name them mention any 5 Principles of art
8. Describe the Mauryan Pillar at Sarnath
9. Explain about the Cave traditions of Western India and Eastern India.
10. Describe the seated Buddha at Sarnath.
11. Briefly explain the difference between Gandhara and Mathura schools.
12. The nucleus of a temple is otherwise known as______
13. Buddha images during Gandhara period had ______features.
14. The attendant figures were replaced as ______and ______.
15. The yoga tradition of the Shungan period was known as ______.
16. Buddha images of Mathura were modelled on ______images.
17. Shows movement between 2 or more points______
18. Area between objects around them and within them is called ______.
19. Create an organized feeling of movement is called ______.
20. Arrangement of opposite elements are termed as ______.
21. Forms or colors that appear in a similar family is known as ______.
22. Explain about the Bearded King.
23. Give a brief description of the archaeological site of Indus valley civilisation.
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24. Write a short note on the seals found with the example of Pashupathi Mahadeva in
Mohenjadaro.
25. Which are the three types of designs and write few lines on elements of drawing.
26. Explain about the early rock cut paintings with example.
27. Explain the Seated Buddha, Katra Mount, Mathura.
28. Describe the Pillars of Sarnath
29. Explain about the temple architecture that prevailed in the Gupta period.
30. Describe the Sanchi Stupa.
31. Who introduced Buddhism and give 3 reasons on how art flourished.
32. Name few places where the finest sculptures were found and the names of the two religious
sects that arose.
33. Define any 5 principles of Art. Name the 5 Elements of Drawing.
34. The material used to make pillars in Mathura period was ______.
35. Buddha images during Gandhara period had ______feature
36. Buddha’s first sermon was held at ______.
37. Lotus stand for ______& ______.
38. Buddha head at Taxila has ______features.
39. Features of the Mughal period
40. Taj Mahal –key features
41. GolGumbad – key features
42. Name 5 temples from your course of study
43. Bronze sculpting – process
44. 2 kinds of paintings in Indian history are ______and ______.
45. Islamic architecture followed ______and ______style in construction.
46. Indus valley civilization is also known as ______age.
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47. Two philosophies of architecture are ______and ______.
48. Sculptures are of 2 kinds ______-and ______.
49. Three forms of art are______, ______and ______.
50. The temples in the north were named as ______and were called as ______in the
south.
51. Roof above the nucleus is also called as S______or S______or T______.
52. The nucleus is also called S______.
53. The gateways are place at the 4 ______points.
54. Pradkshina patha is also called as ______path.
55. The famous pillar at sarnath is also called as ______.
56. Rampurva bull capital has ______& ______.
57. Pillar has P______, S______A______& C______.
58. Bronze casting also known as ______.
59. Wall paintings also called as ______or Bhittichitra.
60. Name the different folk traditions of India.______, ______, ______,
______, ______, ______, ______.
61. The techniques of shading are ______, ______, ______, ______, ______,
______.
62. Shading pencils are _____ , ______& ______
63. Drawing pencils are ______& ______.
64. Materials used for painting are ______
65.Mediums of paintings are ______, ______
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ANSWER KEY 1. Sandhara, Nirandhara, Sarvatobhadhra 2. Elements of Drawing and Principles of Art 3. Tessalations 4. Amrud or (onion dome) topped by a finial. 5. 73meters in height and has 5 storeys. 2.a.Qutub Minar - 73 mts high – 5 storeys – projecting balconies – 1st 3 made of red sandstone ad last 2 made of marble and sandstone – built during the time of Qutub Uddin Aibek – tower was built to show the muslim dominance – consists of the 1 st mosque – tomb of illtutmish - alai darwaza and alai minar and 7 meter iron pillar
built by Qutub-ud-Din Aibak in 1193. was built to celebrate Muslim dominance in Delhi after the defeat of Delhi’s last Hindu ruler. highest tower in India, complete with five storeys and projecting balconies. The first three storeys of the QutubMinar are made of red sandstone and the last two are made of marble and sandstone. complex comprises of the Quwwat-ul-Islam Mosque (the first mosque to be built in India), a 7 metre high iron pillar, the tomb of Iltutmish, Ala’i-Darwaza and the Ala’IMinar. Calligraphy all over the surface showing quranic versus. b. Ravanaugraha - Elephanta caves – Bas relief work showing Ravan lifting mount Kailash where Lord Shiv & Parvati and the other sages animals and all living creatures are shaken where Ravan is punished for his demonic act. Ravan tried to lift Mount Kailash, but Shiva pushed the mountain into place and trapped Ravana beneath it. For a thousand years, the imprisoned Ravana sang hymns in praise of Shiva, - The theme comes under early Gupta era (300–600 CE). Ravana places his head like a veena beneath Kailash as Shiva and Parvati are sitting on the top. 2c. Bust portrait – shawl over the left shoulder Found in Mohenjadaro – made of steatite - a priest king - draped in a shawl – with trefoil motifs – eyes are elongated – half closed – nose medium sized and well formed – short cut moustache and short beard – hair is parted in the middle - plain woven fillet is passed round the head – armlet on the right hand – holes round the neck suggest necklace – greek influence is seen.
3 a. 3a. The unique bas-relief faces east. -two large boulders of pink granite in the - measure 15 by 30 metres (49 ft × 98 ft). The figures carved are in life size, -. It cascaded over the cleft and the relief to give the impression of the Ganga descending from the head tied matts of Shiva. - The bas- relief is an ensemble of over a hundred figures of gods, people, half-humans and animals. The event being watched by scores of gods, goddesses, mythical figurines of Kinnara, Gandharva, Apsara, Gana, Nagas, and also wild and domestic animals, all admiringly looking up at the scene. This relief is a "world renowned" one”. The total number of carvings are probably about 146. - are anthropomorphic forms -male Kinnara is holding a musical instrument (type unknown) while the female Kinnara is holding a cymbal. Shiva is carved in front of the river (to the right of the cleft) in a standing posture with Bhagiratha, the sage, standing on one leg offering him prayers to check the force of the Ganga as she descends to earth. Shiva is also shown with a weapon which is interpreted as Pashupati, which he gave to Arjuna. The ganas shown in the carvings represent the
4 people who have spent their entire lives in dedication to Shiva, and are blessed with the boon to remain close to Shiva for all time to come. Carvings of nagas are shown swimming in the river, as Ganga descends from the heavens, a serpent and human, - Vishnu temple to the right of the cleft to denote fertility and protective forces of nature, - The bas-relief shows one unity "sublime continuity in all living things." The elephants shown in relief are unique. There is a deer scratching its nose. - Sun, on the left and Moon on the right side are also depicted on top part of the panel. - Hunters and hunting scenes are part of the panel; a hunter with a bow, two hunters hiding under trees to hunt, a lion about to attack two hunters are some of the parts of forest scenes carved on the panel. - few monkeys, and carving of a lion in his den with few deers in front of it .- temple roof is patterned on the style of Draupadi Ratha - A square supports the domed roof. A sage is seen sitting in front of the temple giving sermons to his students. the cleft. Figures in the cleft in the rock are covered with nagas (serpent deities), in Anjali posture. The river is said to represent Ganga or the River Ganges emerging from Shiva's head. Event is shown in the form of sculptures on the boulders being watched by the animals and human beings Descent of the ganges – Mahabalipuram boulders with 146 relief sculptures . 2 boulders with a cleft in between cistern at the top A pink Stone with 146 relief sculptures showing anthropomorphic forms , shiva and parvati with animals like deer and monkeys shown around, elephants coming closer to drink water , a temple with a kudu and a stupi on top the shrine has lord vishu within which is a sage and few worshipers . There is a hunting scene too with celestial pairs flying around also a sun and moon on either end on the upper panel. Arjun standing on one leg with arms above his head in penance. b. Padmapani Bodhisattva late first century CE. Considered as the masterpiece of INDIAN Art. Is holding a padma (a BLUE Lotus) , has three bents in the body creating a movement. There is grace though the tilt of his head and gesture of his hand. The elegant features, high forehead, and downcast eyes giving a feel of dignity, and serene meditation. The modelling is soft and the outlines are merged with the body volume, creating the effects of three-dimensionality. Light red, brown, green and blue colours are used in the picture. On the other side of the image, Vajrapani Bodhisattva has been painted. He holds a vajra in his right hand and wears a crown. Bodhisattvas are shrine guardians. Sapphire indictates royal birth. wears a pearl and sapphire necklace. The drapery is shown in ascetic style.
4a. During the Mughal period architecture took a different form, 1. High raised platform Trabeate and acruate. 2. geometric designs, - Intricate shapes 3. overlapping of patterns – called as Tessallations 4. floral and vegetable motifs. 5. Pitra Dura – or inlay of precious stones 6. Mosques, tombs, forts, palaces and gateways Arches & domes 7. Towers or minarets at the corners. 8. Calligraphy - Quranic verses 9. Borders 10. Colours were very brilliant 5
11. Paintings had more of perspective and people in Side profile.
4 b. Ajanta: The famous cave site in western India is Ajanta. It is located in Aurangabad district of Maharashtra. It has 29 caves, including 4 chaitya caves. It has the large Chaitya-Vihara and is decorated with sculpture and paintings (murals). Ajanta is the only surviving example of the painting of the first century BCE and the fifth century BCE. Major paintings are in cave Nos. 1, 2, 16 and 17. Paintings have a lot of typological variations. Figures in the paintings are heavy like the sculptures of western India. Cave excavation and painting were a simultaneous process and dating of the paintings follows the date of the cave excavation. Almost in all the finished excavations, pictures have been painted, but very few have survived. Various skin colours in the paintings represent multi-coloured society. The themes of the paintings are events from the life of Buddha, the Jatakas and Avadanas. events happened are separated by their locations. Jungle or at palace . Images of Padmapani and Vajrapani are very common in Ajanta. Another important cave site located is Ellora. It is located 100kms away from Ajanta. There are 32 Buddhist, Brahmanical and Jain caves. It is unique art historic site in the country as it has monasteries associated with the three religions dating from fifth century CE onwards to eleventh century CE. Confluence of many styles at one place. There are 12 Buddhist caves having many images belonging to Vajrayana Buddhism. Buddhist caves are big in size and are of a single, double and triple storey. The triple storey of Ellora is a unique one.
Pillar designs grow from Buddhist caves and when they reach Jain caves (9th century CE), they become very ornate and the decorative forms gain heavy protrusion. Most of the caves of Brahamanical faith are dedicated to Shaivism. The different avatars of Vishnu are also depicted here. Cave no.16 is known as Kailas Leni or kailasa temple. It is a rock cut temple which is carved out of a single rock.
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It was built in the 8th century CE. The grand sculpture of Ravana attempting to lift Mount Kailash, with his full might is a landmark in Indian art. Elephanta caves and other sites: Elephanta caves located on Elephanta Island near Mumbai were originally a Buddhist site which was later dominated by the shivite faith. It is contemporary with Ellora. The other noteworthy cave site is Bagh located near Indore, MP. The Bagh cave also contains paintings and a painting which represents a group of dancers resembles the Garba Dance of North India (originated in Gujarat). When the early history of the country depends on collective public patronage, the post sixth century CE depends more on political patronage. Cave tradition in Eastern India Like in western India, Buddhist caves have been excavated in eastern India, mainly in the coastal regions of Andhra Pradesh and Odisha. One of the main sites in Andhra Pradesh is Guntapalle in Eluru district. Guntapalle is a unique site where the structural stupas, viharas and the caves are excavated at one place. The other important site is Rampaerrampallam. In Ankapalli, near Vishakapattanam, a huge rock-cut stupa was carved out of the hillock during 4th-5th century CE. It is a unique site as it has the biggest rock cut stupas in the country. Another important cave site is the Udayagiri-Khandagiri caves located in Odisha. These caves are scattered and have inscriptions of Kaharvela Kings, the caves were meant for Jain monks. There are numerous single cell excavations here. The upper part of the cell is decorated with a series of Chaitya arches and narratives that still continue in the folklores of the region.
5. Earliest civilizations found with civic planning – Bronze age – 2500 – 1500 BC – various art forms found were seals, stone sculptures , terracotta figures , gold and pottery. To major cities Harrapa in north and Mohenjadaro in south - roads cut across in 90 deg. Angles - city divided into blocks – drainage system - delineation of human and animal figures were realistic in nature. . Fury and charge on the bull shows detailing on stones 0r clay or bronze metal. – another very important bull picture very often repeated was the Zebu bull - representing the most powerful clan symbolically representing the top officials of Mohenjadaro & Harrapa - cord around the neck – head turning to right – recurring theme in many of rituals and decorative art of Indus – carved on seals with short inscriptions
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Thousands of seals were found - made of steatite , as well as bronze but most commonly found seals showed – unicorn, rhino, bull, tiger, bison buffalo etc., - for commercial purpose – made as amulets as ID’s - standard size was 2x2 sq inch – found in gold & ivory Depicts a human figure seated crossed legged – elephant & tiger on the right and rhino & buffalo on the left are seen 2 antelopes are seen below , fig has a 3 horned head with inscriptions above. Cire Perdue also known as the lost wax technique – model is made of wax covered with clay – after it is dry wax is melted there is a hole below the mould through which melted bronze metal is poured in after it is cooled clay is removed. Eg. Dancing girl. And Dancing Natraja from Chola Period.
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REVISION PAPERS FOR ANNUAL EXAMINATION 2019-20
Std :XI PHYSICS Time: 3 Hrs
General Instructions: All questions are compulsory. There are 37 questions in all. This question paper has four sections: Section A, Section B, Section C and Section D. Section A contains twenty questions of one mark each, Section B contains seven questions of two marks each, Section C contains seven questions of three marks each, and Section D contains three questions of five marks each.
SECTION A
1. The velocity-time graph for uniform motion is(i)straight line inclined to time axis(ii)curved line(iii)straight line parallel to X axis(iv)straight line parallel to Y axis 2. If the linear momentum is increased by 50%, its kinetic energy is increased by(i)50% (ii)75% (iii)100% (iv)125% 3. A bullet of mass 5 g is shot from a gun of mass 5 Kg. The muzzle velocity of bullet is 500 m/s, the recoil speed of gun is (i)0.5 m/s (ii) 0.25m/s(iii)1 m/s(iv)data is insufficient. 4. An athlete between mass range 40 Kg-100 Kg in games covers a distance of 100 m in 10 s. His kinetic energy ranges (i)200J-500J(ii)2000J-3000J (iii)20000J-50000J (iv)2000J-5000J 5. If r is the radius of Earth and g is the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth,the mean density of earth is (i)4πG/3gr (ii03πr/4πG (iii)3g/4πrG (iv)πrG/12g 6. An object weighs 72 N on the earth. Its weight on the centre of Earth will be (i)72 N (ii)36 N (iii) 18 N (iv) 0 N 7. For which of the following does the centre of mass lie outside the body (i) pencil (ii) shot put (iii)disc (iv) bangle 8. The angle between I + j and I – j is ------9. Write the dimensional formula of gravitational constant? 10. Write the displacement equation representing the following conditions obtained in a Simple Harmonic Motion: Amplitude = 0.01 m, Frequency = 600 Hz, Initial phase = π/6 11. What is the rotational analogue of mass of the body? 12. List the two essential conditions for isothermal process. 13. Give an example of heat pump. 14. A metallic sphere has a cavity of diameter D at its centre. If the sphere is heated, the diameter of the cavity will (i) Decrease (ii) Increase (iii) Remain unchanged (iv)none of the above 15. Define radius of gyration. 16. A spherical drop of mercury has a diameter of 6x10-3 m. If the surface tension of mercury is 0.5N/m, then the pressure inside the drop will exceed the pressure outside by about (i)42Pa (ii) 330Pa (iii) 167Pa (iv) 170Pa 17. T is the period of oscillation for a spring-mass system on earth. Its period on moon is –(i) T (ii) 6T (iii) T/6 (iv) √6 T 18. A frictionless heat engine can be 100% efficient only if its exhaust temperature is (i) equal to inputs temperature (ii) 00C (iii) less than the input temperature (iv) 0 K 19. The thermodynamic co-ordinate that remains constant during an adiabatic process is (i) temperature (ii) pressure (iii) density (iv) entropy 20. In an elastic collision (i) momentum is conserved but not kinetic energy (ii) kinetic energy is conserved but not momentum (iii) both momentum and kinetic energy is conserved (iv) neither momentum nor kinetic energy is conserved.
SECTION B
21. For the given cyclic process CAB as shown for a gas, find the work done.
22. A mass of 10 Kg is suspended vertically by a rope from the roof. When a horizontal force is applied on the rope at some point, the rope is deviated at an angle of 450 at the roof point. If the suspended mass is at equilibrium, find the magnitude of the force applied. 23. A particle which is experiencing a force, given by F =3 I + 12 j, undergoes a displacement of d= 4j. If the particle had a kinetic energy of 3 J at the beginning of the displacement, what is its kinetic energy at the end of the displacement? 24. State Newton's law of cooling. Represent Newton's law of cooling graphically. 25. A rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 3 Kg and radius 40 cm. What is the angular acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled with a force of 30N? 26. A particle executes simple harmonic motion with amplitude of 5 cm. When the particle is at 4 cm from the mean position, the magnitude of its velocity in SI units is equal to that of its acceleration. Then, find its periodic time? 27. What is Doppler effect in sound. Hence write the expression for the apparent frequency when the source moves away from the stationary observer.
SECTION C
28. A block is kept on a rough inclined plane as shown in figure, remains at rest upto a maximum force 2 N down the inclined plane. The maximum external force up the inclined plane that does not move the block is 10 N. Find the coefficient of static friction between
the block and the plane. 29. The acceleration due to gravity at a height 1 km above the earth is the same as at a depth d below the surface of earth. Then find the value of d? 30. State the law of equipartition of energy of a dynamic system and use it to find the values of internal energy and the ratio of the specific heats of a monoatomic gas? 31. State law of conservation of momentum. Write S.I. units of momentum. Explain why a cricket player lowers his hand while catching a ball. 32. State perpendicular axis theorem. What is the moment of inertia of a ring of mass ‘m’ and radius ‘r’ about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to its plane? Also write formula for moment of inertia about an axis along its diameter. 33. Draw stress strain curve. Explain its various points 34. Write the relation for potential energy and kinetic energy of Simple harmonic oscillator. At what displacement the P.E and K.E of Simple Harmonic Oscillator is maximum?
SECTION D
35. (a)What is a projectile? A projectile is fired with a velocity u making an angle θ with the horizontal. Show that its trajectory is a parabola. (b) Derive expressions for it’s: (i) time of flight, (ii) maximum height, and (iii) horizontal range. 36. A) Give reasons: a) The surface tension of a film is S/2L and not S/L. b) To keep a piece of paper horizontal, you should blow over, not below it. c) Draw the graph between frequency and square root of density of a wire (keeping length, radius and tension constant). d) The ratio of intensities of two waves moving in same medium and having same frequency is 1:16. What is the ratio of their amplitudes? e) When a train blowing its whistle passes by you, you first hear a high pitched note and later a low pitched note. Why? 37. What is a simple pendulum? Show that motion executed by the bob of the simple pendulum is Simple Harmonic Motion. Derive an expression for its time period. What is meant by second pendulum?
ANSWER KEY NO VALUE POINTS MARKS 1. (i) 1 2. (iv) 1 3. (i) 1 4. (iv) 1 5. (iii) 1 6. (iv) 1 7. (iv) 1 8. 900 1 9. [M -1 L 3T -2 ] 1 10. y = 0.01 sin (1200π t + π/6) 1
11. Moment of inertia 1 12. 1. The walls of container must be perfectly conducting, to ½ allow free exchange of heat between the gas and its +1/2 surroundings. 2. The process of compression or expansion should be slow so as to provide time for exchange of heat 13. Refrigerator 1 14. (ii) 1 15. Radius of gyration is defined as the distance from the axis of 1 rotation to a point where total mass of the body is supposed to be concentrated. 16. (ii) 1 17. (i) 1 18. (iv) 1 19. (iv) 1 20. (iii) 1 21. 1
½
½ 22. 1
1
23. ½
½
½
½ 24. Newton’s Law of Cooling states that the rate of heat lost by a body is directly proportional to the temperature difference 1 between the body and its surrounding areas.
1
25.
½
½
½
½ 26. ½
½
½
½ T= 2π/(3/4) =8π/3 27. Doppler Effect refers to the change in wave frequency 1 during the relative motion between a wave source and its observer. f' = [v/(v+vs)]f , where f= frequency of sound, ½ +½ v= velocity of sound, vs =velocity of source, f1 = apparent frequency
28.
1
1
1 29. 1
1
1
30. Boltzmann's law of equipartition of energy states that the energy of a molecule (gas) is equally partitioned (divided) 1 into different degrees of freedom that the molecule has. The energy per partition (degree of freedom) is equal to 1/2 k T per molecule or 1/2 xRT per mole. T = absolute temperature, k = Boltzmann's constant,
R = Universal gas constant
A diatomic molecule has 5 degree of freedom. 1 Total energy of diatomic gas per mole = Q = 5/2 R T ½ dQ/dT at constant volume = Cv = 5/2 R Cp = Cv + R
Cp = 7/2 ½ Cp / Cv = 7/5 31. Law of conservation of momentum states that in an isolated 1 system the total momentum of system remains constant. S.I units of momentum is Kgm/s 1 By lowering his hands he increase the time of action hence decrease the rate of change of momentum thus less force 1 acts on his hands 32. The moment of inertia of a planar body (lamina) about an axis perpendicular to its plane is equal to the sum of its moments of inertia about two perpendicular axes 1 concurrent with perpendicular axis and lying in the plane of the body. Moment of inertia about axis perpendicular to plane is mr2. Diametric axis are symmetric therefore using theorem of 1 perpendicular axis Ix +Iy = Iz Id + Id = mr2 1 Id = ½ mr2 33.
2
In the region from A to B, stress and strain are not proportional. Nevertheless, the body still returns to its original dimension when the load is removed. The point B in the curve is known as yield point (also known as elastic limit) and the corresponding stress is known as yield ½ strength (Sy) of the material. If the load is increased further, the stress developed exceeds the yield strength and strain increases rapidly even for a small change in the stress. The portion of ½ the curve between B and D shows this. When the load is removed, say at some point C between B and D, the body does not regain its original dimension. In this case, even when the stress is zero, the strain is not zero. The material is said to have a permanent set. The deformation is said to be plastic deformation. The point D on the graph is the ultimate tensile strength (Su) of the material. 34. The PE of particle executing SHM is given by u=1/2mw 2 y 2 ½ The KE of a particle executing SHM is given by K= 1/2mw 2 ½ (A2 - y 2) U is maximum when y= A = amplitude of vibration. 1 i.e when the particle is at the extreme position and minimum when the particle is at the mean position. 1 K is maximum when y =0 i.e when the particle is at the mean position and is minimum when y= A i. e. particle is at the extreme position. 35. Projectile is an object projected with some velocity and its ½ initial direction of motion makes an angle α ( α >0 and α <90°) with horizontal direction.
½
½
1.) Time of Flight u = u sin α a = −g v = 0 (at highest point) Now, Using the first equation of motion, ½
v = u + at 0 = u sinα− gt gt = u sinα t = u sinα/g ½
Since t is only half of the total time, therefore we can
calculate total time of the journey as T = 2t, T= [2 u sinα]/g ½ ½ 2.) Maximum Height:
Applying Law of Conservation of Energy,1/2mu² = mgH ½ 1/2 m(u sinα)²= mgH
1/2 mu²sin²α = mgH
H = u²Sin²α/2g
3.) Horizontal Range: ½ Since, the projectile is in the air for a duration T R = u in x direction × T ½ R = u cosα × 2u sinα/g R=u² 2sinα cosα/g ∴ R=u²sin2α/g 36. a)It has two free surfaces. 1 b)As per Bernoulli's principle, atmospheric pressure reduces under the paper. This makes the paper fall. To keep a piece of paper horizontal, one should blow over it. This 1 increases the velocity of air above the paper. 1
1 1
c) d) I α A 2 So 1:4 e)Doppler effect 37. A simple pendulum has a small-diameter bob and a string 1 that has a very small mass but is strong enough not to stretch appreciably. 1
Let us consider the simple pendulum makes an angular displacement θ as shown in figure. At this position the forces are weight of the bob of pendulum and Tension acting 1 on the string as shown in figure. Let us resolve the weight mg, the gravitational force into two perpendicular components as shown in figure. One component (m g cosθ) is in the direction of tension T that equalizes the tension which is giving necessary centripetal force for circular motion. The other perpendicular component (m g sinθ) is the restoring force acting on the bob to bring to its equilibrium position. 1
The restoring force Fx is written as, Fx = -mgsinθ (-ve sign indicates, the displacement is in opposite direction to force ) for small angular displacement sinθ ≈ θ, hence Fx = -mgθ = - mg (x/L) = -(mg/L)x ...... (1) here we have assumed the displacement x is nearly equal to the arc length Lθ .
Above eqn(1) indicates the restoring force is directly proportional to displacement, hence the oscillatory motion 1 is simple harmonic.
we know that for simple harmonic motion, F = -kx, where k is the force constant and period T of oscillation is given by,
we can see that the bracketed term of the right hand side of equation(1) is the force constant for the simple harmonic motion of pendulam. hence we can write for the period T of simple pendulam as,
frequency =
REVISION PAPERS FOR ANNUAL EXAMINATION 2019-20
Std :XI POLITICAL STUDIES Marks: 80 Time: 3 Hrs GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS All questions are compulsory. Questions from 1 to 20 carries 1 mark each. Answer in one sentence each. Questions from 21 to 23 carries 2 marks each. Answer in about 40 words each. Questions from 24 to 27 carries 4 marks each. Answer in about 60 words each. Questions from 28 to 30 carries 5 marks each. Answer in about 70 words each. Questions from 31 to 33 carries 6 marks each. Answer in about 100 words each. Question number 34 is a picture based question which carries 5 marks.
1. Define Universal Adult Franchise. 2. has been appointed for the purpose of drawing boundaries of constituencies all over our country. 3. The very special orders issued by court wherein a court orders a lower court to transfer a matter pending before it to higher authority or court is called: a. Prohibition b. Quo Warranto c. Certiorari d. Mandamus 4. The President of India is elected for a period of years. 5. Another name for Public Interest Litigation. 6. Why special provisions are granted to north eastern states under Article 371? 7. The year in which Constitution of India was adopted. 8. Name any one feature of our Constitution that cannot be amended. 9. State any one natural right. 10. Define Citizenship. 11. Write down a reason why the states are necessary for. 12. State the meaning of Secularism. 13. What is the idea of development? 14. Which type of freedom implies absence of restraints on freedom? 15. ‘Political theory examines the arguments advanced by different thinkers in defence of the theory concepts’. Name any one thinker mentioned here. 16. What is an integral part of constitution? 17. The President cannot send back an amendment Bill for reconsideration of the Parliament. State whether True or false. 18. State any one function of Zila Parishad. 19. What is 73rd & 74th Amendment Act about? 20. Defence is a subject under list. 21. What do you mean by Apartheid? Who had written his personal struggle against Apartheid in his autobiography “Long Walk of Freedom”? 22. Mention any two features of federal government. 23. List down any two functions of our constitution. 24. Mention any 4 powers of Election Commission.
25. Define: a. Question hour b. Zero hour c. Preventive Detention d. Impeachment 26. Who is the Governor of Kerala? How is he appointed? 27. State any 4 inequalities existing in our country. 28. List down any 5 assumptions that people make about a nation. 29. Mention any 5 elements to make India a secular state. 30. What are the different methods to amend our constitution? 31. Which of the following statements do you agree with? Give reasons: a. Legislature must be free to join any party they wish to. b. Anti-defection law has contributed to the domination of the party leaders over the legislators. c. Defection is always for selfish purposes thus a legislator who wants to join another party must be disqualified from being a minister for the next 2 years. 32. What are the different provisions in the constitution in order to maintain the independence of judiciary? 33. Suppose you are entrusted to evolve a local government plan of a state, what powers would you endow to the village panchayats to function as units of self- government? Mention any five powers & the justifications in 2 lines for each of them for giving those powers. 34. Read the cartoon given below & answer the questions that follow:
a. Can you identify what these different groups stand for? b. Who do you think prevailed in this balancing act?
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1. The democratic elections require that all adult citizens (+18 years)of India must be eligible to vote in the elections. 2. Delimitation Commission 3. C 4. 5 5. Judicial Activism 6. Due to sizable indigenous tribal population with a distinct history & culture. 7. 26th Nov 1949 8. Supremacy 9. Right to Life 10. Citizenship refers to the collective political identity of individuals of the state who enjoy certain rights. 11. For the security of one’s life & property. 12. Equal respect for all religion. 13. Improvement, progress, well being & aspiration for a better life to articulate a vision for the society as a whole & methods to achieve it. 14. Negative freedom 15. Rousseau 16. Right to expression 17. True 18. To co-ordinate the working of Gram Panchayats 19. 73rd: rural local govts, 74th:urban local self-government. 20. Union 21. Is a policy of racial discrimination between blacks & whites. Nelson Mandela. 22. 2 SETS OF POLITIES, establishes unity in diversity. 23. Limitations on power of govt, specification of decision making powers. 24. Full control over elections ,dealing with transfers of the officers, power to take actions. 25. Definitions are as below: a. A period of time to put up with the questions by members of Parliament to the ministers. b. It starts at 12 noon immediately after the QH. c. If the government feels that a person is a threat to law & order or to peace & security of the nation, it can detain or arrest that person. d. An act of official accusing for a serious crime or offence. 26. Arif Mohammad Khan. He is appointed by the President of India on the basis of qualifications mentioned in our constitution. 27. Disparity of income,existing slums,inequality among educational institutions,gender inequalities. 28. Common history,shared political ideals,common political identity,shared beliefs,particular territory. 29. Consider religion & beliefs as a personal matter of individual, Civil administration is free from domination of religious parties & organizations, Political system should not be theocratic, No discrimination should be made in job opportunities and recognition of status, Fraternity should be recognized. 30. Simple majority, Special majority, Special majority +Legislatures of half the state. 31. I agree most to the 2nd statement because: a. Party leaders have issued the parties rules as if a member remains absent in the house on a particular day or votes against the instruction of a party, his membership of the party shall be terminated. b. If a Legislature is free to join any party, he wants, then it will be against the will of voters who have elected them. 32. Parliament cannot interfere with the appointment of judges, the judges enjoy a fixed tenure ,they hold office till their age of retirement ,and the constitution prescribes very difficult procedure in order to remove these judges, the actions & decision of judges are immune from personal critisicms,the salaries & allowances to judges are not subjected to the approval of Legislature and the constitution bars Legislature from discussing the conduct of judges except in cases related to impeachment proceedings. 33. Development works at village level eg: construction of roads, irrigation etc Agricultural practices using modern methods Social welfare related activities The Gram Panchayats should be given power to open schools in villages Gram panchayats should be given power to promote health and healthy living of citizens. 34. The answers to each questions are as below: 1. The cartoon refers to different religions cultures castes and regions having different preferences thatis liberal & radical nationalists. 2. Despite many diversities existing in our country citizens respect our national anthem,song,flag,culture,linguistics,thus they balance the diversities of our country.Here Nehru is trying to balance different ideologies & visions too.
************* REVISION PAPERS FOR ANNUAL EXAMINATION 2019-20 Std :XI PSYCHOLOGY Marks: 70 Time: 3 Hrs General instructions: Questions in part a carry 1 mark each. Questions in part b carry 2 marks each Questions in part c carry 3 marks each Questions in part d carry 4 marks each Questions in part e carry 6 marks each
PART A 1. ………..model suggests that scientific advancement can take place if you have a theory to explain the phenomenon. 2. Who proposed the concept of identity crises? 3. The process of organizing the visual field into meaningful patterns is known as……………… 4. ………….is used to reduce the sequence effect in an experimental method. 5. In ………….conditioning, the US precedes the onset of CS. 6. Who proposed the stage model of memory? 7. …………….concept is formed using relevant features. 8. Name the pioneer of creativity research. 9. ……………is also known as ‘holding bin’. 10. ……………….is a part of adolescent’s egocentrism that involves their sense of uniqueness. 11. When an observation is made in a lab setting, it is known as……………….observation. 12. …………….are branch-like specialized structures emanating from the soma of a neuron. 13. ……………….is the mental representation of the spatial locations and directions. 14. Mental activities and neural activities are mutually overlapping processes but they are identical too.(T/F) 15. Who is associated with skill learning? 16. ………….thinking is goal oriented. 17. Who proposed that language and thought have different orgins. PART B 18. Differentiate between counselor and clinical psychologist. 19. Explain the internal factors affecting selective attention. Or Differentiate between field independent and field dependent cognitive styles. 20. Define a psychological test. 21. Discuss the structural features of the STM.
PART C 22. Define acculturation. Discuss any three strategies. Or Discuss any two endocrine glands. 23. Distinguish between the three types of conflicts. 24. Discuss the contributions of the school of psychoanalysis.
PART D 25. How does ANS help us deal with emergency situations? 26. Explain the cognitive changes during adolescence. 27. Define depth perception. Discuss any three monocular cues used to perceive depth. Or Discuss the factors affecting form perception. 28. Discuss the levels of processing theory to understand human memory. 29. Explain the different stages of creative thinking. 30. Discuss the cognitive bases of emotion. PART E 31. Describe the various steps involved in conducting a scientific enquiry. Or Explain the method of survey. 32. Define learning. Explain the determinants of CC. Or What is OC? Explain in detail.
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ANSWER KEY 1mark 1. Hypothical deductive reasoning 2. Eric Erickson 3. Form perception 4. counterbalancing 5. Backward 6. Atkinson and shriffin 7. Conjunctive 8. J.P Guilford 9. STM 10. Personal fable 11. Controlled 12. Dendrites 13. Cognitive map 14. False 15. Fits 16. Problem solving 17. Vygotsky 2 marks 18. Counselor- can be someone who is willing to give help in asetting where help is permitted to be taken and given. Clinical psychologist is who is capable to treat a person with abnormal behavior. He works in clinics and hospitals. 19. Selective attention- factors can be external and internal- internal factors are attiutdes, interests and preparatory set- discuss Or When we perceive the external world as a whole and not in parts- field dependent cognitive style and vice versa. Give examples. 20. Standardized and objective measuring instrument that is used to understand an individual’s standing in relation to others on some behavioural aspect is a psychological test. Example- RPM 21. Structural features of STM: holding bin can store information for 30 seconds and max stimuli in 5-9 items. 3 marks 22. Cultural transmission that takes place when we interact with others culture is known as acculturation. Strategies are integration, marginalization, separation- discuss 23. Approach-approach, avoidance-avoidance and approach avoidance are the three types of conflicts- discuss with examples 24. Sigmund Freud introduced psychoanalysis- methods used- free association, dream analysis and analysis of error. Structure of personality- discuss 4 marks 25. ANS- - sympathetic and parasympathetic- controls during the emergency situations- discuss in detail 26. Cognitive changes- abstract, logical and deductive reasoning, egocentrism, moral development- discuss 27. Depth perception – third dimension in space which is perceived using the cues from our surroundings. Monocular cues- linear perspective, interposition, and relative size- discuss with examples. 28. Levels of processing- proposed by Craik and Lockhart structural phonetic and semantic –levels- discuss in detail 29. Creative thinking- preparation, incubation, illumination, verification- discuss in detail. 30. Theory to understand the emotion- cognitive bases- in detail. 6 marks 31. Steps in enquiry: problem, hypothesis, methods of data collection, analysis of data, drawing conclusions – discuss in detail Or Survey- define- methods used in survey- interview, questionnaire and telephone survey- discuss with merits and demerits 32. Learning is a permanent change in behavior as a result of experience. Determinants of CC- explain the method of CC- time relation between 2 stimuli, types of UCS, intensity of CS. Or Operant conditioning- defines and explains the method- with experiment of Skinner. Determinants of OC- reinforcement and its features- discuss in detail
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REVISION PAPERS FOR ANNUAL EXAMINATION 2019-20 Std :XI SOCIOLOGY Marks: 80 Time: 3 Hrs General Instructions Section A has 20 questions and carries 1 mark each Section B has 9 questions and carries 2 mark each Section C has 6 questions and carries 4 marks each Section D has questions and carries 6 marks each
SECTION A 1.The ……………………… operationalized from 1999- 2000 is a major scheme by the government’s Ministry of Rural Development and Housing and Urban Development Corporation (HUDCO) to construct houses free of cost for the poor and the homeless. 2. A naturalistic explanation for behaviour rests on the assumption that ……………………………………………………………… 3. Social solidarity and conscience were key terms for ………………….. a. Karl Max b. Max weber c. Emile Durkheim d. M.N. Srinivas 4. A social group is an aggregate or combination which lacks structure or organisation and whose members may be unaware or less aware of the existence of groupings. State whether the statement is true or false. 5. ………………. Refers to the social position with defined rights and duties 6. ……………………. Restricts the individual to one spouse at a time 7. The term ………………….. refers to transactions outside the sphere of regular employment, sometimes involving the exchange of cash for services provided, but also often involving the direct exchange of goods and services. 8. The author of ‘Culture, A Critical Review of Concepts and Definition’ is ……………………………… a. Leslie White b. Clifford Geertz c. Malinowski d. Clyde Kluckhohn
9. What is a law? 10. Participant observation is often called ………………………… 11. A geneology helps an anthropologists to ………………………………….. 12. ………………………. Is the principle of acting to benefit others without any selfishness or self- interest. 13. What is individualism? 14. Dominant caste was a term attributed by ……………….to refer to landowning intermediate castes, that rae numerically large and therefore enjoy political dominance in a given region. 15. What do you mean by mass transit? 16. What is a green house? 17. ………………………. are natural underground formations in the geology of as region where water gets stored 18. What is alienation? 19. ……………………….. is the branch of anthropology that studies human racial types by measuring the human body,particularly the volume of the cranium, the circumference of the head, and the length of the nose. 20. …………………………….. is the study of human behaviour in contexts of face-to-face interaction
SECTION B 21. Express two differences between ‘ascribed’ and ‘achieved’ status. 2 22. Why is enlightenment important for development of sociology? 2 23. What is ethnocentrism? 2 24. State two ways of achieving order in a society. 2 25.Mention any two characteristic of caste system given by G.S. Ghurye. 2 26. What are the underlying assumptions of capitalism? 2 27. What are citizenship rights? 2 28. Differentiate between a village and a city. 2 29. What do you mean by informal social control? 2
SECTION C 30. Explain how multiple status lead to role conflict. 4 31. Why is environmental problem a social problem? 4 32. Define Bureaucracy. Explain its features. 4 OR According to Karl Marx, ‘capitalism is a way to socialism’.Explain 4 33. What is socialisation? Explain any four agencies of socialisation. 4 34. Mention the intellectual ideas that went into the making of sociology. 4 35. Explain how transformation of work took place from pre-industrial to industrial society. 4 SECTION D 36. Explain any four causes of social change. 6 OR Explain how social change and order differs from rural to urban society 37. What were Louis Dumont’s view of villages in India?Explain Srinivas’ views against Louis Dumont? 6 38.Read the passage and answer the questions that follow: 6 Is your child ready for a smartphone? Huffington Post India, July 19, 2015, 12.00 am IST Wondering if it’s time to give your child a smartphone. We don’t blame you. It only makes sense that you’d want that kind of 24/7connectivity with your child. But, smartphone use is linked with diminished attention span, sore wrists and disrupted sleep in children. The key to avoiding these problems is mindful use, which requires a level of responsibility and self-control that comes with age. John Breyault, who worked on a study about kids and cell phone use, says, “ ask questions like why does your kid need a cell phone? And ‘ is your teen matured enough to use the phone responsibly and avoid viewing or sending inappropriate content? before buying one". Doctor”Michael Rich, who has studied the impact of media on children extensively says, ‘there is much concerns about overtly harmful activities like cyber bullying. The greatest risk to their long term development and well- being is distraction from real people and experiences. How about benefits? he notes. “If children are guided towards thoughtful, focused and effective use and do not get distracted from more productive experiences, these can be integrated into their lives with minimal risk “. If you have plans to give your kids cell phone, make sure you lay down rules first, if you don’t want them using apps or even texting, make that clear. Parents should first review and agree with their child on what the phone is to be used for, what it is not to be used for and the consequences of unauthorised use. a).Why is peer pressure considered as social pressure? b) How do use of smartphones among teens become a boon or a bane?
ANSWER KEY SECTION A
1. The Indira Awas yojana 2. One can really identify natural reasons for behaviour. 3. Emile Durkheim 4. False 5. Status 6. Monogamy 7. Informal economy 8. Clyde Kluckhohn 9. A law is a formal sanction defined by government as a rule or principle that its citizens must follow. 10. Field work 11. To meet with people and become familiar with the way the community lives. 12. Altruism 13. Doctrines or ways of thinking that focus on the autonomous individual, rather than on the group. 14. M.N. Srinivas 15. Modes of fast city transport for large number of people. 16. A covered structure for protecting plants from extremes ofclimate, usually from excessive cold, a green house maintains a warmer temperature inside compared to the outside temperature. 17. Aquifiers 18. A process in capitalist society by which human beings are separated and distanced from nature, other human beings, theirwork and its product and their own nature and self. 19. Anthropometry 20. Microsociology SECTION B 21. 1) Ascribed status depends on birth and it is granted without any struggle. Following are the bases of ascribed status: Caste, Kinship,Birth, Race, Age (2) Achieved Status The posts or levels/places achieved by the person on the basis of personal merits or qualifications is called achieved status. Bases of achieved status: Education,Training, Wealth, Occupation, Political authority
22This period helped to develop attitudes of mind that we refer to today as secular, scientific and humanitarian.. People started thinking scientifically and rationally. 23.Is the application of one’s own cultural values in evaluating the behaviour and beliefs of people from other cultures. Ethnocentrism is the opposite of cosmopolitanism, which values other cultures for their difference 24. Power, authority, contestation, law. (any two) 25. it is based on segmental division,hierarchical division, involves restriction on social interaction, differential rights and duties for different castes. 26. (a) expansion of trade (b) division of labour (c) specialisation (d) rising productivity
27. Citizenship rights includes: (i) Civil rights-freedom of speech and religion etc. (ii) Political rights - right to participate in election etc. (iii) Social rights - health benefit, social and welfare rights 28. Villages - significant proportion of its population is involved in agricultural activities, low density of population as compared to cities and towns. City - Majority of people engaged in non-agricultural pursuits. Population density i.e. (the number of persons per unit over, such as square km) is higher than villages. 29. It includes control by religion, custom, tradition, mores, convention etc. SECTION C 30. Status refers to the social position with defined rights and duties assigned to theat position. Role conflict is imcompatibility among roles corresponding to one or more status. when a person has different roles to play conflict is bound. Example 31. Environmental problem is considered as social problem: a)the social inequality that exists in society determines how the environmental crisis affects different groups.development of science and technology has affected the int3r relationships of animals, plants and environment. The plants and environment have been killed by human beings for their comfortable living. Destruction of forest, industrial pollution, water pollution and noise pollution have degraded the balance of the eco system. Economic development seems to destroy the environment. 32. it is a concept in sociology where administrative execution and enforcement of legal rules are socially organised. Functioning of officials, hierarchical ordering of positions, documentation, office management and conduct in office. OR Explain class struggle 33. As the process whereby the helpless infant gradually becomes self-aware, knowledgeable person skilled in the way of the culture into which he or she is born. Agencies: family, peer group, school, religion, media (any four ) 34. Auguste Comte: developed a rational approach to studynthe society based on experimentation and observation. Karl Marx: To him society was based on understanding of forces of production and relation of production. Herbert Spencer: He developed theory parallel to evolutionary theory. Survival of the fittest. Max Weber: focused on developing interpretative sociology of social action of power and dominance. 35..Pre industial society: division of labour was simple. People worked in field and cared for their livestocks.division of work was on the basis of age and gender. Industrial society. Division of labour is complex. Farming has also become industrialised. Work carried out largely by machines, division of work on the basis of skills. SECTION D 36. Advantages and disadvantages 37. Environment, technology, politics,education, economics, culture ( any four) OR Social change and social order in rural areas a) Social order in rural areas is more rigid b) Villages are small in size c) Personalised relationships d) Power of dominant sections e) People are illiterate and thus unaware of their rights f) Changes are slow Social change in urban areas a) City life and modernity go hand in hand b) Change is very prominent c) People are educated d) People unite and struggle for their rights 23. The concept of competition, co-operation and conflict Features: As modern society is based on capitalism, competition is at its peak which gives rise to conflict. Co-operation is just for showcase. 38. Louis Dumont view of villages _ He thought that social institution like caste were more important than villages, which was after all only a collection of people living in a particular place. _ He described Indian villages are unchanging, self-sufficient and ‘little republics’. (iii) Srinivas’s views against Louis Dumont _ Believed that village was a relevant social entity. History shows that villages have served as a unifying identity. _ He criticised Dumont’s view of villages as unchanging, selfsufficient little republics. He showed that the village had, in fact, experienced considerable change. _ Villages were never self-sufficient and had been involved in various kinds of economic, social and political relationships at regional level. 25. Students response