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UNIBADAN Post UTME Past Questions and Answers
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AGRICULTURAL
SCIENCE
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE
1. …………………….. is an example of plant propagated by leaf. (A) Zoophyte (B) Allelopathy (C) D Bryophyte (D) Angiosperm 2. A tree species introduced from another country is called------(A) International species; B (B) Exotic species; (C) Exogenous species (D) Crossbreed species 3. Agriculture can be broadly classified into...... and...... (A) Livestock, Soil (B) Animal, Soil C (C) Animal, Crop (D) Poultry, Fruit 4. An insect vector is important because (A) it helps to habour and transmit pathogens which A cause diseases (B) it helps pathogens to develop only at the egg stage (C) it helps to carry pathogens to the environment for control (D) it is efficient in killing pathogens 5. Birds are important pests of (A) tree crops (B) legumes (C) Cereals (D) vegetables crops C
6. Broad spectrum pesticides are dangerous because (A) they kill all pests and other non- A target organisms indiscriminately; (B) they allow non-target organisms to survive; (C) they allow target organisms to survive; (D) they kill target organisms only. 7. Contact insecticides are used to control (A) pod borers of legumes (B) stem borers of C cereal (C) leaf beetles of legumes (D) eel worm of legumes 8. Entomology is the (A) study of Insects (B) study of viruses (C) study of Nematodes (D) A study of Bacteria
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9. Nematology is the (A) study of Insects (B) study of Viruses (C) study of Nematodes (D) C study of Bacteria 10. Olericulture involves the cultivation of ……………… (A) Tropical fruits (B) Ornamental plants C (c) Vegetables (d) Orchards 11. One of these is a natural agricultural resource (A) water; (B) petroleum; (C) calcium (D) A potatoes 12. Pesticides that are translocated to plant parts such that pests that feed on them are A poisoned are called A. Systemic pesticides (B) Attractants (C) Fumigants (D) Repellents. 13. Pests of crops that feed by piercing and sucking plants include the following except (A) stem A borer (B) aphids (C) cassava mealy bugs (D) cotton stainers 14. Plants that are capable of carrying out photosynthesis contain (A) No Chlorophyll (B) C Only Xanthophyll (C) Chlorophyll (D) No plant pigment 15. Problems of agriculture in Nigeria include: (A) higher education and land; (B) poor rural B infrastructure and low soil fertility (C) human capital and extension services; (D) mineral resources and poor storage facilities. 16. Reduction of ten seedlings of pawpaw to two per stand is referred to as (A) pruning (B) B thinning (C) weeding (D) spacing 17. The equilibrium price rice is the price at which --- (A) its demand exceeds supply (B) its C supply exceeds demand (C) its supply equals demand (D) its demand encourages supply.
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE
18. The following are examples of formulated pesticide product except (A) dusts e.g. Actellic B dust (B) active ingredient (C) Emulsifiable Concentrate e.g. Gammalin 20 (D) Soluble Concentrate e.g. Novacron 40 . 19. The following are micronutrients, except: (A) Sulphur; (B) Iron (C) Copper (D) A Molybdenum 20. The force which results from attraction between the two unlike materials is called...... A Adhesion (B) Cohesion (C) Friction (D) Couple. 21. The forest is made up of - (A) Stone, rock, gravel and trees (B) Animals, trees, shrubs and B herbs (C) Teak, Elephant, paper and fire (D) Wood, coal, gas and leaves 22. The general name for a plant that is considered to be a pest is (A) tree (B) shrub (C) Weed C (D) Herb 23. The list below consists of fiber sources, which one is not correct? (A) Coir, wood, bast, A asbestos (B) Wool, asbestos, sisal, pineapple (C) Glass, Plantain, Okra, Hemp (D) Banana, flax, sisal, kenaf 24. The most effective method of controlling or preventing viral diseases in plant is by (A) A Planting resistant varieties (B) Spraying crops regularly (C) Treating seeds with chemicals (D) Burning affected crops 25. The process by which green plant manufacture their food is called...... (A) Osmosis (B) B Photosynthesis (C) Transpiration (D) Respiration 26. The process by which soil gets wetted up is known as...... (A)Wetting (B) Erosion (C) C Capillarity (D) swelling 27. The removal of excess water from a plant through the stomata is...... (A) Transpiration (B) A Pollination (C) Absorption (D) Photosynthesis 28. The reproductive cells of crops are called (A) gametes (B) genes (C) anthers (D) zygote A 29. Trees can be classified into two classes namely (A) Wood and woodlot (B) Mediterranean C wood and temperate wood (C) Hardwoods and softwoods (D) Badwoods and Deciduous wood 30. Virology is the (A) study of Insects (B) study of viruses (C) study of Nematodes (D) study of B Bacteria 31. What is mycology? (A) study of Insects (B) study of Viruses (C) study of Nematodes (D) D study of Fungi 32. When species of plant or animal disappears completely from a place where it previously C existed, it is said to be: (A) Endangered; (B) Threatened; (C) Extinct; (D) Rare; (e) Out dated 33. Which of the following crops can be propagated by stem cutting? (A) Onion (B) Yam (C) D Lettuce (D) Cassava 34. Which of the following crops exhibits hypogeal germination? (A) Millet (B) Cowpea (C) A Groundnut (D) Soybean 35. Which of the following crops is a raw material for the production of chocolate? (A) Kolanut D (B) Coffee (C) Banana (D) Cocoa
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE
36. Which of the following crops produces latex? (A) Mango (B) Citrus (C) Palm tree (D) D Rubber 37. Which of the following fruits is a capsule? (A) mango (B) coconut (C) apple (D) okra D 38. Which of the following is a storage pest of maize? (A) Weevil (B) Beetle (C) Grasshopper A (D) Aphid 39. Which of the following is for body building? (A) Protein, (B) Fat, (C) Minerals, (D) A Water 40. Which of the following is not a factor influencing the availability of agricultural land? (A) D Topography (B) Soil types (C) Population pressure (D) Transportation 41. Which of the following is not a method of controlling pests? (A) Quarantine (B) Crop D rotation (C) Fumigation (D) Mulching. 42. Which of the following is not a monocotyledon plant? (A) Orange (B) Banana (C) Rice (D) A Bamboo 43. Which of these is not involved in forest land enforcement? (A) Forest guards (B) Forest C rangers (C) Police officers (D) Forest officers (E) Immigration officers 44. Why should a seed-producing farmer spray an insecticide on his crops only when the bees C are not around? (A) the bees would sting him and he therefore avoids them (B)the farmer does not want to waste his chemicals (C) bees are important for pollination of his crops (D) bees are harmless insects. 45. Wildlife Management includes one of the following: (A) Habitat Conservation; (B) Habitat A Consumption (C) Habitat Liberation 46. Yam stored in a barn should be inspected at least once a week to (A) remove rotting D tubers (B) remove sprout from the yam (C) prevent termite attack (D) remove sprout and rotten tuber 47...... is to manipulate soil to obtain a desired soil tilth for seed placement, its B germination and emergence. (A) Ploughing (B) Tillage (C) Harrowing (D) Harvesting. 48. An example of sprayers used in crop protection is (A) Nasdac (B) Nafdac (C) Knapsack (D) C Capsack. 49. An example of a stem tuber is...... (A) Cassava (B) Yam (C) Groundnut (D) Maringa B 50. An example of fungal disease of stored grains is: (A) rosette (B) mould (C) soft rot (D) B damping off. 51. Horticulture is a branch of Agriculture that involves: (A) Rearing of animals; (B) Cultivation D of food crops; (C) Study of farm machines and tools; (D) Cultivation of fruit, vegetables and ornamental plants. 52. If a crop requires 1.5kg phosphorus per hectare, how many kg of manure will be required C per hectare if 1kg of manure contains 0.5kg of phosphorus? (A) 2.52 (B) 2.95 (C) 3.0 (D) 4.15. 53. Maize grow best on (A) sandy soil (B) sand-clay soil (C) loamy soil (D) clayey-loam soil C 54. Root knot of tomato is caused by a (A) fungus (B) bacterium (C) protozoon (D) nematode D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE
55. Soil textural class can be determined using: (A) Meter rule (B) Vernier caliper (C) Textural C Triangle (D) Rain gauge 56. The average seed rate for maize is 25kg per hectare. Allowing for seed wastage of 5 B percent, how many kilograms of seeds would be required in planting 2 hectares of farm land? (A) 40.75 (B) 47.50 (C) 50.05 (D) 52.75. 57. The correct definition of a soil profile is (A) Horizontal section of the earth crust showing all C the layers of soil. (B) Diagonal representation of the soil from top to bottom (C) Vertical section of the soil from the soil surface to the top of the parent materials showing the horizons (D) Perpendicular cross section of the soil showing all the layers from the top of the subsoil. . 58. The mosaic symptom commonly associated with viral diseases of crops can be best C observed on (A) roots (B) stem (C) leaves (D) fruits 59. The most important part of a crop plant to a horticulturist are the(A) Roots (B)Leaves (C) B Buds (D) Branches 60. The pest designated as a national pest by Nigerian Agricultural Advisory Council is (A) A variegated grasshopper (B) thrips (C) weevil (D) cricket 61. The process by which plant nutrients are washed down beyond the root zone in the soil is B known as (A) Bleaching (B) Leaching (C) Infiltration (D) Erosion . 62. The process of additional source of water in nursery practices for seedlings is called (A) B Fertilization (B) Irrigation (c) Ploughing (d) Espacement 63. The use of Chemical pesticides is being discouraged because they (A) Degrade the D environment (B) Pollute the environment and kill non target organisms in the environment (C) They contaminate water bodies (D) All of the above 64. Vertical description of soil column is called...... (A) Soil tilth (B) Soil profile (C) Soil B moisture (D) Soil compaction . 65. What are the 3 basic types of rock? (A) Metamorphic, granite and Igneous (B) Sedimentary, C Igneous and slate (C)Igneous, metamorphic and Sedimentary (D) Igneous, metamorphic and slate 66. What is soil texture? (A) The proportion of sand, silt and gravel in the soil. (B) The D percentages of all the components of the soil (C) The average composition of the soil particles (D) The proportion of sand, silt and clay in the soil. 67. What is the process by which soil particles are washed away? (A) Leaching (B) Erosion B (C) Ponding (D) Wetting 68. Which of the following diseases of crops causes stunting in maize? (A) blast (B) rosette (C) D blight (D) streak 69. Which of the following is not an effect on man of the various preventive and control D measures of diseases and pest of crops? (A) air pollution (B) water poisoning (C) poor health (D) poor utilization 70. A strain is a chicken breeding stock bearing a given value and produced by a breeder D through at least generations of closed breeding. (A) two (B) three (C) four (D) five .
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE
71. A term used to designate groups of breeds which have been developed in a particular area C is (A) Breed (B) Variety (C) Class (D) Strain 72. All except are bred for their meat quality (A) Australorp (B) New Hampshire D (C) Rhode Island Red (D) Minorca 73. All of these are poultry except (A) Chicken (B) Duck (c) Pet (d) Turkey C 74. Chindulla is a breed of (A) Goat (B) Gorilla (C) Rabbit (D) Grasscutter (E) Pig C 75. Fowl pox is commonly transmitted by …………………. (A)Testes fly (B) Bees (C) Mosquitoes C (D) Rats . 76. In which of the following farm animals is the need for protein supplement in the diet not D critical? (A) Rabbit, (B) Poultry, (C) Pigs, (D) Cattle 77. One of the animals that has been successfully domesticated in Nigeria is (A) Cockroach; (B) C Earthworm; (C) Grasscutter 78. One of the branches of the poultry industry is (A) Backward farming (B) Poultry housing (C) D Disease control (D) Integrated companies 79. Salmonella and Mycoplasma can only be controlled through (A) Vaccination (B) Proper B sanitation (C) Bio-security (D) Destruction of contaminated breeders. 80. The contains enzymes that helps to dissolve the membrane of the yolk before D fertilization takes place (A) Ovary (B) Sperm (C) Seminal fluid (D) Acrosome 81. The female sheep is known as (A) ewe, (B) lamb, (C) sow, (D) mare A 82. The largest part of the oviduct where egg white is formed is the (A) Isthmus (B) Infudibulum D (C) Uterus (D) Magnum 83. The male reproductive hormone is called (A) Testosterone; (B) Testis; (C) Thiamine; (D) A Globulin; (E) Progesterone 84. The process of eliminating undesirable birds from the flock is known as (A)Dubbing (B) C Removing (C) Culling (D) Degrading 85. The volume of the seminal fluid in chicken is about ………………… (A) 10mls (B) 5.0mls (c) C 0.5mls (d) 0.10mls. 86. What is poultry science? (A) Study of chickens (B) Study of science (c) Study of goats (d) A Study of cattle. 87. What is the gestation period of a cow? (A) 5 months (B) 18½ months (C) 9 months (D) 24 C months (E) 15 weeks 88. Which branch of poultry industry is concerned with the production of various kinds of feed? C (A) Hatchery industry (B) Poultry processing and marketing (C) Milling Industry (D) Poultry equipment 89. Which of the following fish preservation method is common in the Northern part of A Nigeria? (A) Sun-drying; (B) Gas drying; (C) Oven drying 90. Which of the following is monogastric animal? (A) Cattle (B) Goat (C) Rabbit (D) Sheep C 91. A farmer purchased a sprayer for N15,000 in 2004, at the end of fifth year, he sold it for B N5,000. What is the salvage value? (A) N10,000 (B) N5,000 (C) N15,000 (D) N 3,000.
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE
92. Agricultural extension got its name from (A) spreading of information (B) taking information B to farmers on field (C) having farm extension (D) none of these. 93. Equilibrium price is (A) the point at which quantity of a commodity equals quantity B supplied (B) the price at which quantity demanded of a commodity equals quantity supplied (C) the point at which market price of a commodity equals quantity supplied (D) . the price at which quantity demanded of a commodity equals market price 94. Farm-gate price is usually obtained through (A) The producer (B) Middlemen (C) A Commodity Boards (D) Cooperatives 95. One of the factors that influence supply is: (A) Income; (B) prices of other products; (C) D social capital; (D) level of technology 96. People-oriented extension programmes which generate ideas and activities from the D grassroots is called (A) grassroots approach (B) top down approach (C) community approach (D) bottom up approach. 97. The law of demand states that: (A) demand is directly related to price of a commodity (B) B higher the price of a commodity leads to lower quantity demanded (C) the price of a commodity is directly proportional to the amount supplied (D) None of the above. 98. The loss in value of an asset due to wear and tear in the course of its use is known as C (A) Appreciation (B) Evaluation (C) Depreciation (D) Salvage value. 99. Which of the following is not a problem of agricultural marketing in Nigeria? (A) Lack of C transport facilities (B) Scattered sources of supply (C) High quantity of farm produce (D) Lack of good packaging and processing facilities 100. Which of the following is not a subject area in Agricultural Economics? (A) Agribusiness C management (B) Farm management and accounting (C) Agronomy (D) Agricultural development and policy
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS BIOLOGY
1. ______is an end product of digestion of fat. (A) Glucose (B) Fatty acid (C) Amino acid (D) B Fructose (E) Galactose# 2. Asexual reproduction in Hydra sp. is commonly by ____ (A) Binary fission b. Fragmentation c. C Budding d. Separation (E) Regeneration 3. Benedict’s solution is used to test for ___ (A) Carbohydrate (B) Lipid (C) Protein (D) Vitamins (E) C Minerals 4. Pepsin is an enzyme that digests ___ (A). Starch (B). Sugar (C). Lipid (D). Fat (E). Protein E 5. The breakdown of large organic molecules into smaller simpler soluble molecules is called –– (A) B Excretion (B) Digestion (C) Absorption (D) Reproduction (E) Ingestion# 6. The enzyme that curdles milk is______(A). Pepsin (B). Ptyalin (C). Renin (D). Amylase C (E). Trypsin 7. Which is the enzyme that begins digestion of starch in the mouth? (A) Ptyalin (B) Maltase (C) A Amylase (D) Sucrase (E) Lactase 8. A group of interacting populations in a particular habitat can be described as ___(A) biome (B) C biosphere (C) community (D) population ecosystem (E) environment. 9. A habitat can be defined as ___(A) a group of animals and plants living within a common B boundary. (B) a place in which plants and animals live. (C) a community living together in the same place. (D) different areas, with a common animal and plant population. (E) None of the above. 10. A symbiotic relationship in which one organism is completely dependent on another organism is A called ____ (A) Parasitism (B) Commensalisms (C) Mutualism (D) Saprophytism (E) Competition
11. An association between two organisms where both members benefit is known as ___ (A) D symbiosis. (B) commensalism. (C) ammensalism. (D) mutualism. (E) saprophytism. 12. An instrument used in measuring the speed of wind is (A) a barometer (B) a wind gauge (C) a D wind vane (D) an anemometer (E) a hydrometer. 13. At times hyenas feed on remains of animals killed by other animals. At other times, hyenas C themselves kill animals for food. Therefore hyenas may best be described as –– (A) scavengers and herbivores (B) scavengers and parasites (C) scavengers and predators (D) herbivores and predators e. herbivores and parasites 14. Autecology is defined as the study of interrelationship of (A) many species of organisms and their B environment (B) same species of organisms and their environment. (C) organisms in the atmosphere. (D) organisms under the earth’s surface. (E)None of the above. #
15. Autotrophs are also described as –– (A) Consumers (B) Decomposers (C) Carnivores (D) D Producers (E) Herbivores 16. If three 30cm lengths of glass tubing are tightly packed with clay, sand and loamy soils E respectively and then stood in a beaker of water for one week the level of water will be (A) Lowest in the tube with clay (B) The same in all the tubes (C) Lowest in the tube with loamy soil (D) Highest in the tube with sandy soil (E) Lowest in the tube with sandy soil 17. In a community bacteria and fungi are referred to as –– (A) producers (B) consumers (C) E scavengers (D) tertiary consumers (E) decomposers
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS BIOLOGY
18. Puddles, Ponds, Rivers, Seas and Oceans are grouped together as –– (A) Ecosystem (B) Biosphere C (C) Aquatic habitat (D) Terrestrial habitat (E) Marine environment# 19. The feeding pattern in an ecosystem is called………….. (A) Pyramid of energy (B) Food web (C) B Food chain (D) Pyramid of member (E) Ecology 20. The orderly changes that occur slowly and naturally in plant and animal communities in a given B area over a period of time until a stable community is established is called –– (A) Transformational change (B) ecological succession. (C) survival of the fittest. (D) weather change (E) environmental change. 21. The sign + is used to indicate an association where an organism gains, while 0 is used where an B organism is unaffected. An association indicated as +0 is known as –– (A) predation (B) commensalism (C) parasitism (D) competition (E) ammensalism# 22. The sum total of all the roles an organism plays in a habitat is referred to as (A) ecology. (B) E ecosystem. (C) habit. (D) habitat. (E) niche 23. Which of the following factors does not control population growth? (A) Food shortage (B) D Emigration (C) Predation (D) Abundance of food (E) Natural disaster 24. Which of the following statements best describe an ecosystem? (A) A place where living B organisms can live successfully. (B) The interactions between living organism in a habitat and the non-living part of the environment. (C) A biological association between a plant and an animal. (D) A system of grouping organisms in a habitat. (E) None of the above. 25. Which of these represents a correct food chain in nature? (A) Crustacea → diatom →fish → man B (B) Diatom → crustacea → fish → man (C) Fish → crustacea → man → diatom (D) Diatom → fish → crustacea → man (E) None of the above. 26. ______is involved in the mechanism of expelling water from the protozoans during the A process of______(A) Contractile vacuole, Osmoregulation (B) Contractile vacuole, Phagocytosis (C) Food vacuole, Ultrafilteration (D) Food vacuole, Pinocytosis (E) Cell membrane, Pinocytosis@ 27. ______is used for photosynthesis in Euglena sp. (A) Reservoir (B) Nucleus (C) C Chloroplast (D) Paramylon granule (E) Pellicle# 28. A heart with four chambers is found in______(A) Fishes (B) Insects (C) Snails (D) Rats D (E) Worms 29. Animal cell does not have a ______(A) Membrane (B) Nucleolus (C) Food Vacuole (D) Cell D wall (E) Golgi body# 30. Beriberi is caused by deficiency of vitamin______(A) A (B) D (C) K (D) E (E) B E
31. Compound eyes are found in which of the animals below (A) Rat (B) Cow (C) Snail (D) Ant (E) Jelly D fish 32. Dental formula of man consist of (A) i 2/2, c2/2, pm2/2, m3/3 (B) i1/1, c2/2, pm2/2, m3/3 (C) E i2/2, c1/1, pm3/2, m2/2 (D) i2/2, c1/1, pm2/2, m2/2 (E) i2/2, c1/1, pm2/2, m3/3 33. During digestion of food, passage of chyme through the duodenum enables it to become a C watery liquid called______(A) Digested food (B) Chymatic product (C) Chyle (D) Soluble food (E) Dissolved food
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS BIOLOGY
34. Emulsification of fat and oils is caused by______(A) Lipase (B) Ptyalin (C) Trypsin (D) E Maltase (E) Bile 35. Every mammal has (A) One Kidney (B) Two pairs of Kidneys (C) One pair of Kidneys (D) Four C Kidneys (E) None of the above 36. Faeces is removed from the body in a process called (A) Digestion (B) Egestion (C) Elimination B (D) Excretion (E) Evacuation 37. Glomerulus is found in the______(A) Ovary (B) Testes (C) Brain (D) Kidney e). D Stomach# 38. In the respiratory system of man, diffusion of gases takes place in (A) Trachea (B) Bronchi (C) C Alveoli (D) Bronchioles (E) None of the above 39. Incisors are used for (A) Tearing food (B) Cutting food (C) Grinding food (D) Shearing food (E) B Crushing food 40. Nematocysts are produced by special cells found in (A) Nematodes (B) Annelids (C) D Platyhelminthes (D) Cnidarians (Coelenterates) (E) Arthropods# 41. One of the following is not a function of the skin (A) Excretion (B) Protection (C) Homeostasis D (D) Reproduction (E) Absorption of vitamin D 42. Open circulatory system is found in ______(A) Lizard (B) Toad (C) Fish (D) Insect (E) D Chicken 43. Ovary is to the female reproductive system as______is to the male reproductive system (A) C Penis (B) Urethra (C) Testis (D) Cowper’s gland (E) Prostate gland 44. Possession of pinna is a characteristic feature of (A) Mammals (B) Reptiles (C) Fishes (D) A Amphibians (E) All of the above 45. Tadpoles respire with (A) Lungs (B) Nostril (C) Gills (D) Spiracles (E) Siphon C
46. The excretory organ in the earthworm is………….. (A) Malphigian tubule (B) Stoma (C) C Nephriduim (D) Flame cells (E) Gills 47. The nerves that connect the eyes to the brain are called –– (A) Cranial nerves (B) Optical nerves E (C) Sensory nerves (D) Olfactory nerves (E) Optic nerves. 48. The nerves that connect the eyes to the brain are called –– (A) Cranial nerves (B) Optical nerves E (C) Sensory nerves (D) Olfactory nerves (E) Optic nerves. 49. The parasympathetic nervous system is involved in (A) Dilation of pupil of the eye (B) Control B the activities of smooth muscles (C) Dilatation of the skin (D) Controls thinking in mammals (E) Increased metabolism# 50. The part of the alimentary system of a bird where grinding of food occurs is (A) Crop (B) E Stomach (C) Cloaca (D) Rectum (E) Gizzard 51. The part of the ear that contains receptors that convert the fluid motion into action potential is D called –– (A) Auditory nerve (B) Ossicles (C) Semicircular canals (D) Cochlea (E) Oval window
52. The thoracic region of the vertebral column is made up of ______vertebrae. (A)5(B)7(C)4 D (D) 12 (E) 10 53. Which of the animal below is poikilothemic? (A) Toad (B) Chicken (C) Bat (D) Lion (E) Dove A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS BIOLOGY
54. Which of the structures below is found in reptiles and birds (A) Scales (B) Legs (C) Beaks (D) A Claws (E) All of the above 55. Which of these animals is photosynthetic? (A) Paramecium sp. (B) Amoeba sp. (C) Euglena sp. C (D) Hydra sp. (E) None of the above 56. Which of these organs regulate the amount of sugar in the blood? (A) Liver (B) Kidney (C) Spleen E (D) Lung (E) Pancreas# 57. The basis for growth and asexual reproduction is (A) meiosis (B) cytokinesis (C) mitosis (D) C Cytogenesis (E) Cell elongation. 58. The process which ensures that the chromosome number for each species of organism remain C constant from generation to generation is called (A) fission (B) fusion (C) meiosis (D) mitosis (E) oogenesis 59. Which of the following is a major factor in variation among organisms? (A) Inbreeding (B) D Backcrossing (C) Test crossing (D) Sexual reproduction (E) Gene dominance 60. ______is an example of an invertebrate (A) Millipede (B) Fish (C) Toad (D) Snake (E) Skin# A
61. ______is the odd one in the list below (A) Mosquito (B) Bee (C) Moth (D) Tick (E) D Beetle 62. ______are flatworms (A) Platyhelminthes (B) Annelida (C) Nematoda (D) Diplopoda (E) A Chilopoda# 63. ______is an example of a unicellular organism (A) Amoeba sp. (B) Hydra sp. (C) Ascaris A sp. (D) Taenia sp. (E) Obelia sp. 64. ______level is the highest level of organization in animals. (A) System (B) Tissue (C) A Organ (D) Cellular (E) Protoplasmic 65. Crocodiles are ______(A) Fishes (B) Amphibians (C) Mammals (D) Birds (E) None of the E above# 66. The mutation theory of organic evolution was propounded by (A) Gregor Mendel (B) Hugo de D Vrics (C) Jean Lamarck (D) Charles Darwin (E) Robert Hookes. 67. The theory of natural selection was developed by (A) Lamarck and Darwin (B) Darwin and B Wallace (C) Wallace and Mendel (D) Mendel and Lamarck (E) Hooke and Darwin. 68. Which is the odd animal in the list below? (A) Lizards (B) Snakes (C) Turtles (D) Tortoise (E) Toad E
69. Which of the following sources is not an evidence of evolution? (A) Fossil records B. Comparative D anatomy C. Comparative embryology (D) Human behavior (E) None of the above
70. ______is an endoparasite (A) Earthworm (B) Tapeworm (C) Mosquito (D) Housefly (E) B Tsetse fly 71. The causative agent of bird flu is a (A) Virus (B) Bacteria (C) Fungus (D) Protozoan (E) Ricketsia A
72. In lower plants like mosses, the structure which performs the functions of roots of higher plants D is called (A) root hairs (B) rootlets (C) hyphae (D) rhizoids (E) thalli.
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS BIOLOGY
73. One common feature of fungi, algae, mosses and ferns is that they are (A) photosynthetic (B) D show alternation of generation (C) can survive harsh weather conditions (D) have no seeds (E) conjugate 74. The following are major groups of the plant kingdom EXCEPT (A) Bryophyta (B) Chlorophyta (C) B Pteridophyta (D) Spermatophyta (E) Thallophyta 75. ______is a form of sexual reproduction (A) Grafting (B) Budding (C) Fission (D) D Conjugation (E) Regeneration 76. Sexual reproduction in Spirogyra is called (A) Fertilization (B) Symbiosis (C) Conjugation (D) C Reproduction (E) Mutualism 77. The carrier of the hereditary characters in plants is the (A) Cell (B) nucleus (C) chromosome (D) E chloroplast (E) gene 78. All are necessary for photosynthesis except______(A) Water (B) Chlorophyll (C) E Sunlight (D) Carbon dioxide (E) Oxygen 79. Growing yam tendrils climb for support. This growth response is (A) haptotropism (B) geotropism A (C) phototropism (D) hydrotropism (E) chemotropism. 80. Which is the correct order in an evolutionary sequence for the following plant groups? (A) C Bacteria → ferns → algae → mosses → seed plants. (B) Bacteria → ferns → mosses → algae → seed plants. (C) Bacteria → algae → mosses → ferns → seed plants. (D) Bacteria → mosses → algae → ferns → seed plants. (E) Seed plants → ferns → mosses → algae → bacteria.
81. ------is not part of the whorls of a flower.(A)calyx (B) corolla (C) androecium (D) D Antheridium (E)Gynoecium# 82. A dry fruit which can break into several parts each containing one seed is a (A) caryopsis (B) E aggregate fruit (C) legume (D) follicle (E) schizocarp 83. A dry indehiscent, winged fruit formed from one carpel is known as a (A) Schizocarp (B) C Caryopsis (C) Samara (D) nut (E) Follicle 84. A true fruit is formed from (A) fertilized ovary and other floral parts (B) a fertilized ovary (C) a B fertilized ovary and calyx (D) a fertilized and fleshy receptacle (E) an unfertilized ovary and other floral parts 85. Irish potato is a (A) bulb (B) tap root (C) rhizome (D) root tuber (E) stem tuber D 86. One major difference between an Angiosperm and a Gymnosperm is that seeds in Gymnosperms A are borne in (A) Cones (B) fruits (C) flowers (D) ovary (E) ovule 87. Reserved food material in the seed is stored in the (A) epicarp (B) endocarp (C) endosperm (D) C mesocarp (E) all parts 88. What type of fruit is a mango fruit? (A) Berry (B) Hesperidium (C) Drupe (D) Nut (E) Mango fruit C
89. Which of the following species exhibit an aerial root? (A) Ficus (B) Centrosema (C) Antigonon A (D) Lantana (E) Dahlia 90. Which of these plants has an emerginate apex? (A) Bauhinia (B) Pistia (C) Ixora (D) Musa (E) A Terminalia 91. Which plant stores food in its roots? (A) Cassava (B) cocoyam (C) Irish potato (D) onion (E) A yam.
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS BIOLOGY
92. An example of Vascular tissues is ------(A) Trichome (B) Xylem (C) Stomata (D) Epidermis B (E) Parenchyma 93. The living part of phloem tissue is (A) sieve plate (B) companion cell (C) sieve element (D) B cytoplasm# 94. Which of the following tissues are made up of dead cells (A) meristems (B) xylem vessels (C) B cambium (D) mesophyll (E) palisade 95. A plant vacuole contains (A) dissolved chemicals, sugars, salts, pigments and crystals (B) waste A products of metabolism, DNA, RNA and crystals (C) pigments, crystals, DNA and waste products of metabolism (D) RNA, DNA, sugars and salts 96. Excessive loss of water in plants is known as (A) Osmosis (B) Osmoregulation (C) Transpiration (D) C Excretion 97. Starch granules in plants is equivalent to ______granules in animals (A) Food (B) E Chromatin (C) Lysosome (D) Mitochondria (E) Glycogen 98. Which of the following is a plant excretory product? (A) Oil (B) Cytokinin (C) Resin (D) C amino acids (E) gibberellins. 99. A plant which grows on another without causing harm to the host plant is called –– (A) a C parasite (B) a saprophyte (C) an epiphyte (D) a predator (E) a prey. # 100. Plants which can survive in places where water supply is limited are (A) bryophytes (B) C mesophytes (C) xerophytes (D) hydrophytes (E) pteridophytes.
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS CHEMISTRY
1. 200 cm3 of air was passed over heated copper in a syringe several times to produce copper (II) C oxide. When cooled, the final volume of air recorded was 158 cm3. Estimate the percentage of oxygen in the air. (A) 31% (B) 27% (C) 21% (D) 19%
2. 30cm3 of oxygen at 10 atmosphere pressures is placed in a 20dm3 container. Calculate the new B pressure if temperature is kept constant. (A) 6.7 atm (B) 15.0 atm (C) 60.0 (D) 66.0 3. Bond dissociation energy of 500 KJ mol-1 may be assigned to (A) ionic bonding (B) covalent A bonding (C) hydrogen bonding D) metallic bonding (E) van-der-waals bonding. 4. A mixture of iron and sulphur can be separated by dissolving the mixture in __ (A) steam (B) B dilute hydrochloric acid (C) dilute sodium hydroxide (D) benzene 5. A mixture of sand, ammonium chloride and sodium chloride is best separated by __ (A) A sublimation followed by addition of water and filtration (B) sublimation followed by addition of water and evaporation (C) addition of water followed by filtration and sublimation (D) addition of water followed by crystallization and sublimation 6. A pure solid usually melts __ (A) over a wide range of temperature (B) over a narrow range of B temperature (C) at a lower temperature than the impure one (D) at the same temperature as the impure one 7. A small quantity of solid ammonium chloride was heated gently in a test tube; the solid B gradually disappeared to produce a mixture of two gases. Later a white cloudy deposit was observed on the cooler part of the test tube. The ammonium chloride is said to have undergone __ (A) distillation (B) sublimation (C) precipitation (D) evaporation
8. CH4 has this geometry: (A) trigonal (B) planar (C) tetrahedral (D) octahedral (E) linear. C 9. Chlorine, consisting of two isotopes of mass numbers 35 and 37, has an atomic mass of 35.5. B The relative abundance of the isotope of mass number 37 is ___ ( A)20 (B) 25 (C) 50 (D) 75 10. Elements P, Q, R, S, have 6, 11, 15 and 17 electrons respectively, therefore (A) P will form an D electrovalent bond with R (B) Q will form a covalent bond with S (C)R will form an electrovalent bond with S (D) Q will form an electrovalent bond with S 11. In the oil drop experiment, Millikan determined the (A) charge to mass ratio of the electron (B) C mass of the electron (C) charge of the electron (D) mass of the proton 12. One of these atomic shells is the most stable (A) M (B) N (C) K (D) L (E) 0 C 13. Sieving is a technique used to separate mixtures containing 20% oxygen by volume. Which of A the reactants was in excess? (A) Carbon (II) oxide (B) Oxygen (C) Carbon (IV) oxide (D) Nitrogen
14. The abnormally high boiling point of water is primarily due to (A) ionic bonding (B) covalent E bonding (C) dative bonding (D) coordinate covalent bonding (E) hydrogen bonding.
15. The energy required to remove an electron from the isolated gaseous atom is known as (A) C electron affinity (B) bond energy (C) lonisation energy (D) electronegativity (E) electrovalency.
16. The group that oxygen belongs to is collectively called (A) allotropes (B) halogens (C) C chalcogens (D) alkenes (E) ozonides.
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS CHEMISTRY
17. The ideal gas equation is ___ ( A) P=nRT (B) PR =nVT (C) PV =gRT (D) V=kT (E) PV = K V A 18. The number of atoms in one mole of a substance is equal to (A) the atomic number (B) the B Avogadro’s number (C) number of neutrons (D) number of electrons (E) gas constant 19. The number of electrons in the outermost shell of the atom represents its (A) period (B) C number of shells (C) group (D) atomic number (E) electronegativity. 20. The number of protons or electrons of an atom represents its (A) electronegativity (B) period E (C) number of shells (D) group (E) atomic number 21. The partial pressure of oxygen in a sample of air is 500 mmHg. If the total Pr pressure 780 A mmHg, what is the mole fraction of the oxygen? (A) 0.64 [B (B) 5.73 (C) 1.56 (D) 0.70 (E) 0.54
22. The periodic classification of the elements is an arrangement of the elements in order of their D (A) atomic weights (B) isotopic weights (C) molecular weights (D) atomic numbers 23. The process of changing one element into another is called (A) radioisotope (B) radioactivity (C) D dating (D) transmutation (E) nuclear reaction.
24. The shapes of CO2,H2O and CH4 respectively are (A) bent, linear and tetrahedral (B) bent, D tetrahedral and linear (C) tetrahedral, linear and bent (D) linear, bent and tetrahedral
25. This compound exhibits ionic bonding (A) H20 (B) H2 (C) KC1 (D) NH3 (E) HF. C 26. This type of bonding involves overlapping of orbitals during which electrons are shared (A) B hydrogen bonding (B) covalent bonding (C) ionic bonding (D) metallic bonding (E) van-der- waals bonding. 27. Which one of the following changes is physical? (A) Adding iron filings to aerated water (B) D Adding sodium metal to water (C) Cooling a solution of iron(II) sulphate to obtain the hydrated salt (D) Cooling water to obtain ice 28. A side effect of soft water is that (A) it gives offensive taste (B) excess calcium is precipitated D (C) it encourages the growth of bacteria (D) it attacks lead contained in pipes 29. Ammonia is very soluble in water because it is a /an molecule (A) non-polar (B) polar (C) B reactive (D) basic (E) acidic 30. Citrus fruits such as lemon and grape taste sour because they contain (A) ascorbic acid and A citric acid (B) citric acid and ascetic acid (C) citric acid and dilute HCl (D) citric acid and salicyclic acid (E) Sulphuric acid 31. Soap lather is an example of a colloid in which a (A) liquid is dispersed in gas (B) solid is C dispersed in liquid (C) gas is dispersed in liquid (D) liquid is dispersed in liquid
32. The air around a petroleum refinery is most likely to contain.(A) CO2, SO3 and N2O (B) CO2, CO C and N2O (C) SO2, CO and NO2 (D) PH3,H2O and CO2 33. The difference between colloids and suspensions is brought out clearly by the fact that while D colloids (A) do not scatter light, suspensions do (B) can be separated by filtration, suspensions cannot be so separated (C) can be separated by a membrane, suspensions cannot (D) do not settle out on standing, suspensions do 34. The following substances are non-electrolytes except (A) chloroform (B) sugar cane (C) acetic E acid (D) NaCl (E) C and D.
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS CHEMISTRY
35. The hydrolysis of NH4Cl salt will give (A) acidic solution (B) neutral solution (C) basic solution A (D) hot solution (E) all of the above
36. The pollutants that are likely to be present in an industrial environment are (A) H2S, SO2 and A oxides of nitrogen (B)NH3, HCl and CO (C) CO2, NH3, and H2S (D) dust, NO and Cl2 37. What is the basicity of tetraoxosulphate (VI) acid? (A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 0 A 38. Which of the following gases is the most dangerous pollutant? (A) Hydrogen sulphide (B) D Carbon (IV) oxide (C) Sulphur (IV) oxide (D) Carbon (II) oxide 39. Which of the following ions is a pollutant in drinking water even in trace amount? (A) Ca2+ (B) B Hg2+ (C) Mg2+ (D) Fe2+
40. Which of the following is an example of a double salt (A) NH4Cl (B) alum (C) NaCO3 (D) AlCl3 B (E) NaCl
41. 0.16g of methane when burnt increases the temperature of 100g of water by 400(C), what is E -10 -1 the heat of combustion of methane if the heat capacity of water is 4.2 Jg C ? (CH4=16). (A) 1,160kJmol-1 (B) 1,180kJmol-1 (C) 1,560kJmol-1 (D) 1,600kJmol-1 (E) 1,680kJmol-1
42. A charged car battery has ___ energy that can be converted into another energy called ___ A energy (A) Chemical, electrical (B) mechanical, chemical (C) heat, mechanical (D) light, electrical (E) light, heat 43. Copper oxide is heated with charcoal to produce carbon monoxide and copper. The reaction is A an example of (A) both oxidation and reduction (B) neither oxidation and reduction (C) oxidation only (D) reduction only (E) neutralization 44. For each oxygen atom in hydrogen peroxide which acts as an oxidant, there is an oxygen atom B which acts as a /an (A) Oxidant (B) reductant (C) oxidizing agent (D) catalyst (E) inhibitor
45. Given the change of phase: CO2(g) changes to CO2(s), the entropy of the system (A) decreases A (B) increases (C) remains the same 46. In which of the following is the entropy change positive? (A) Reaction between an acid and a C base. (B) Addition of concentrated acid to water. (C) Dissolution of sodium metal in water. (D) Thermal dissociation of ammonium chloride. 47. One of these elements is the best reducing agent. (A) Pb (B) Rb (C) Al (D) In (E) N B 48. The name of the gas driven off at the negative electrode during the electrolysis of brine is ___ B ( A) hydrogen (B) chlorine (C) oxygen (D) sodium (E) hydrogen chloride 2- 49. The oxidation state of P in H2P207 is ___ (A) -3 (B) +3 (C) +1 (D) +5 (E) -2 D
50. The oxidation state of S in Ca(HS03)2 is __ (A) +2 (B) -2 (C) +4 (D) -4 (E) +6. C - - - 51. The oxidizing agent in the reaction, 3Br2 + 6OH = BrO3 + 5Br + 3H2O is __ (A) Br2 (B) OH- (C) A - BrO3- (D) e (E) H2O.
52. When heat is absorbed during a chemical reaction, the reaction is said to be ___ D (A) thermodynamic (B) exothermal (C) isothermal (D) endothermic (E) thermostatic
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS CHEMISTRY
53. Given the reaction at equilibrium: 2CO(g) + O2(g) ↔ 2CO2(g) When the reaction is subjected to C stress, a change will occur in the concentration of (A) reactants, only (B) products, only (C) both reactants and products (D) neither reactants nor products
54. Given the reaction at equilibrium: N2(g) + O2(g) ↔ 2NO(g) as the concentration of N2(g) A increases, the concentration of O2(g) will (A) decrease (B) increase (C) remains the same (D) vanishes (E) pours away
55. If a reaction is exothermic and there is a great disorder, it means that (A) The reaction is in a B state of equilibrium (B) There will be a large increase in free energy (C) There will be a large decrease in free energy (D) The reaction is static. 56. In the chemical reaction of A + B = C +D, more of D is formed (A) if the concentration of A is E reduced (B) if the concentration of B is reduced (C) if the concentration of C is reduced (D) if the concentration of C is increased (E) if it is continuously removed from the reaction mixture 57. In what way is equilibrium constant for the forward reaction related to that of the reverse C reaction? (A) The addition of the two is expected to be one. (B) The product of two is expected to be one. (C) The two equilibrium constants are identical. (D) The product of the two is always greater than one. 58. In which reaction will the point of equilibrium shift to the left when the pressure on the system B is increased? (A) C(s) + O2(g) ↔ CO2(g) (B) CaCO3(s) ↔ CaO(s) + CO2(g) (C) 2Mg(s) + O2(g) ↔ 2MgO(s) (D) 2H2(g) + O2(g) ↔2H2O(g)
59. The furring of kettles is caused by the presence in water of __ (A) calcium trioxocarbonate (IV) D (B) calcium tetraoxosulphate (VI) (C) calcium hydroxide (D) calcium hydrogentrioxocarbonate (IV) 60. Which is a property of a reaction that has reached equilibrium? (A) The amount of products is D greater than the amount of reactants. (B) The amount of products is equal to the amount of reactants. (C) The rate of the forward reaction is greater than the rate of the reverse reaction. (D) The rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction.
61. Which of the following combination of conditions many increase the rate of a chemical C reaction. (A) Decrease in temperature, increase in concentration of the reactant (B) Increase in temperature, addition of a catalyst, decrease in the surface area of the reactant (C) Increase in temperature, increase in concentration, addition of a catalyst and increase in the surface area of the reactant (D) Decrease in temperature, concentration and surface area of the reactants (E) Addition of catalyst and in the absence of light.
62. “Quicklime” has the formula __ (A) Ca(OH)2 (B) CaO (C) CaCO3 (D) CaSO4.2H2O (E) CaCl2 B
63. A Transition metal is different from a non-transition metal because (A) it has an octet D configuration (B) it is very stable (C) it is coloured (D) it has incomplete outer shell d-electrons (E) it has no electron in the d-orbital. 64. Chlorine is produced commercially by (A) electrolysis of dilute HCl (B) electrolysis of brine (C) B neutralization of HCl (D) heating potassium trioxochlorate (V) (E) action of dilute mineral acids on bleaching powder.
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS CHEMISTRY
65. Chlorine, bromine and iodine resemble one another since they __ (A)dissolve in alkalis (B) react A violently with H2 without heating (C)displace each other from solutions of their salts (D) are gases (E) are liquids. 66. Liquid oxygen may be produced by condensation of air using this coolant (A) liquid phosphorus D (B) liquid gas (C) liquid paraffin (D) liquid nitrogen (E) butane. 67. One of these is another form of oxygen (A) hydroxide (B) ozone (C) peroxide (D) sulphoxide (E) water. B 68. One of these metals is not an alkali metal (A) K (B) Cs (C) Sr (D) Rb (E) Fr C
69. One of these reactions represents the laboratory preparation of hydrogen. (A) C(s) + H2O(l)→ E CO(g) + H2(g) (B) 2 Na(s) + 2H20(1) → 2 NaOH(aq) + H2(g) (C) Cu(s) + H2O(l) → CuO(s) + H2(g) (D) 2Al(s) + 3H2O(l) → Al2O3(s) + 3H2(g) (E) Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)
70. The formation of ozone by reaction of O2 with atomic oxygen in UV light occurs in (A) upper A atmosphere (B) inner atmosphere (C) stratosphere (D) hemisphere (E) none of these. 71. The halogen which is chiefly produced commercially from sea water is ___ ( A) Fluorine (B) B chlorine (C) Bromine (D) iodine (E) Astatine. 72. The most stable allotropic form of sulphur at normal conditions is ___ ( A) monoclinic sulphur B (B) rhombic sulphur (C) amorphous sulphur (D) plastic sulphur (E) ordinary sulphur 73. The products obtained when the following chemical reaction is completed and balanced B are…HNO3 + Ca(OH)2 → ______(A) CaNO3 + H2O (B) Ca(NO3)2 + 2 H2O (C) CaO + 2 NO2 + 3H2O (D) Ca + 2 NO3 + 2 H2O
74. What is the role of iron and Aluminium oxide in ammonia production? (A) dehydrating agent B (B) catalytic agent (C) oxidizing agent (D) bonding agent (E) preservative agent
75. When carbon IV oxide is bubbled through lime water, the solution becomes milky due B formation of (A) Ca(HCO3)2 (B) CaCO3 (C) Ca(N03)2 (D)CaCl2 (E) CaSO4 76. Which of the following gases dissolves in water vapour to produce acid rain during rainfall? (A) D Oxygen (B) Carbon (II) oxide (C) Nitrogen (D) Sulphur (IV) oxide 77. Which of the following is not allotrope of carbon? (A) diamond (B) graphite (C) buck E minsterfullerene (D) all of the above (E) none of the above 78. Which oxide is amphiprotic (amphoteric)? (A) MgO (B) NaO (C) CaO (D) ZnO (E) BeO D
79. Why will it always be more difficult to extract potassium ions from sea water than to extract B magnesium ions? This is because (A) most potassium compounds are less soluble in water (B) most potassium compounds are quite soluble in water (C) presence of other alkali metal ions has great influence on it (D) magnesium ion is an alkaline earth metal ion. (E) None of the above. 80. ______can be used to test for reducing sugars: (A) Iodine solution (B) bromine water (C) C Fehling’s solution (D) de-ionized water
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS CHEMISTRY
81. 2CH3COOH + Zn → ? The product of this reaction is: (A) (CH3COO)2Zn + Zn (B) CH3COO CH3 + C Zn (C) (CH3COO)2Zn + H2 (D) CH3COOH + CH4
82. A ketone reacts with hydroxylamine to give (A) a hydrazone (B) an alkanonitrile (C) a nitroso D compound (D) an oxime 83. Alkanoic acids are weak acids and ionises in solution to give: (A) R+ + COOH (B) RCOO- + H+ (C) B RCOO+ + H- (D) RCO+ + OH-
o 84. An excess of ethanol heated with concentrated H2SO4 at a temperature of 180 C is dehydrated B to give mostly: (A) ethane (B) ethene (C) ethanol (D) ethoxyethane 85. Butene can be distinguished from benzene by reaction with: (A) Hydrochloric acid (B) Bromine B water (C) Potassium sulphate (D) Sodium hydroxide 86. Detergent is more efficient than soap in cleansing clothes and dishes because of the following D
reasons except that: (A) the corresponding Ca and Mg compound formed is soluble in H2O (B) detergents are not affected by hardness of water (C) it cleans better than soap (D) it is less expensive
87. In the manufacture of soap industrially, brine is used to.______.the acid salt. (A) oxidise D (B) reduce (C) bleach (D) precipitate 88. Methane gas can be made from carbon (II) oxide gas according to the equation A 25 2CO(g) + 2H2(g) → CH4(g) + CO2(g). Calculate the mass of CO required to produce 8.75 x 10 molecules of CH4? {At masses: C=12.011, H= 1.008, O = 15.999, Avogadro’s no: 6.022 x 1023molecules /mole.} (A) 8140g (B) 4070g (C) 1600g (D) 32.00g (E) 20.35g
89. Potassium ethanoate is formed when: (A) Methanoic acid reacts with KOH (B) Ethanoic acid B
reacts with KOH (C) Methanol reacts with KCO3 (D) Ethanol reacts with CH3COOH 90. Saponification is defined as: (A) Acidic hydrolysis of fat or oil (B) Alkali hydrolysis of fat or oil B (C) Condensation of two monomer units (D) Mixture of glacial ethanoic acid and excess of simple alkanol 91. Soaps and detergents have the same basic characteristics except that the carboxyl group of the B fatty acid in detergent is replaced by: (A) alcohol (B) sulphate or a sulphonate group (C) ester (D) acids 92. The relatively high boiling point of alkanols is due to: (A) aliphatic character (B) ionic bonding C (C) hydrogen bonding (D) covalent bonding 93. Two important sources of detergent are : (A) fat/oils and hydrocarbons (B) coal and cement (C) A pulp and wood (D) water and gas 94. What is the process associated with conversion of vegetable oil to soap? (A) Esterification (B) B Saponification (C) hydrolysis (D) Acidification 95. When ethanal vapour is passed over manganese (II) ethanoate (manganese acetate) catalyst in D the presence of air, the product is: (A) ethanoate (B) ethanol (C) methanol (D) ethanoic acid
96. When KOH is used instead of NaOH in the production of soap, it has the following advantages B except it gives: (A) softer soap (B) harder soap (C) soap with lower melting point (D) more soluble soap
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS CHEMISTRY
97. When palm wine is left exposed to air for a few days, it goes sour. The bacteria in the air A oxidises.______in palm wine to ______(A) ethanol, ethanoic acid (B) ethanoic acid, ethanol (C) ester, ethanoic acid (D) ether, ethanol 98. Which of the following is not true about benzoic acid? (A) It is aromatic in nature (B) It can be C manufactured from methylbenzene (C) It has molecular formula C6H6COOH (D) It sublimes readily
99. Which of the following reactions is correct? (A) C6H5COOH + CaO → C6H5Ca + HCO3 (B) B C6H5COOH + CaO → C6H6 + CaCO3 (C) C6H5COOH + PCl5 → C6H5Cl + H2PO4 (D) C6H5COOH + C2H5OH → C6H6 + C3H8COOH 100. Which of these is not a property of ethanedioic acid? (A) It is a stronger acid than ethanoic acid C but weaker than inorganic acids (B) It is a reducing agent (C) It is an oxidising agent (D) It is soluble in cold water
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
1. "Behold, the people of Israel are too many, come let us deal shrewdly with them, lest they D multiply..." In the statement, the first step by the new king of Egypt was to (A) cast all Hebrew male children into the Nile (B) impose heavy tax on them (C) kill all Hebrew male children (D) set taskmasters over them to afflict them with burdens
2. "I will go out as at other times, and shake myself free."' When Samson made the statement C above, he was not aware that (A) the Philistines were upon him (B) he was bound with bronze fetters (C) the LORD had left him (D). his eyes had been gouged out.
3. "Let the waters under the heavens be gathered together into one place, and let the dry land D appear. In the statement above the dry land and the water refer to (A) earth and oceans (B) firmament and seas (C) firmament and oceans (D) earth and seas
4. "Seek out for me a woman who is a medium that I may go to her and inquire of her." Saul A made the statement above when he was confronted by the(A) Philistines (B) Ammonites (C) Amalekites (D) Moabites 5. "Why did you bring trouble on us? The LORD brings trouble on you today” What happened to C Achan after the statement above by Joshua? (A) He was buried alive (B) He was put in chain (C) He was stoned to death (D) He was flogged publicly. 6. An unwise decision of Solomon was the issue of the (A) building of the palace (B) building of D the temple (C) felling of timber (D) forced labour. 7. David was anointed king over Judah at (A) Zuph. (B) Bethlehem (C) Hebron (D) Gibeon. C
8. For worshipping the molten calf, God described the Israelites as (A) a stubborn nation (B) an C unholy nation (C) a stiff-necked people (D) an unrighteous people 9. God blessed the seventh day and made it holy because (A) He rested on that day from all His A work (B) Adam gave names to all living creatures on that day (C) it was a Sabbath day (D) human beings were recreated on that day. 10. God called Abraham when he was how many years old? (A) 75 years old (B) 90 years old (C) A 100 years old (D) 120 years old 11. In order for the people of Israel to be ready to meet the LORD by the third day at Mount Sinai, C they were (A) not to drink alcohol (B) to wear white garments (C) to wash their garments everyday (D) not to go near a woman 12. Joseph was put in prison in Egypt by Potiphar because (A) he slept with Potiphar’s wife (B) he C was very lazy (C) Potiphar’s wife lied against Joseph (D) he stole Pharaoh’s cup
13. Samuel's lack of parental responsibility led to (A) The demand for a king in Israel (B) His A untimely death at Ramah (C) The defeat of the Israelites in battle (D) The anointing of David as king. 14. Solomon attempted to kill Jeroboam because Jeroboam (A) Was more popular than him (B) D Was not faithful as the officer in charge of labour (C) Did not report what was prophesied concerning him (D) Was a threat to the throne.
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
15. The first person that revealed to Eli the evil that would come to his home was(A) Joel (B) a B man of God (C) a prophet from Shiloh (D) Samuel. 16. The rainbow as the sign of God's covenant with Noah implies(A) Providence (B) Reconciliation C (C) mercy (D) Redemption 17. What did Gideon call the altar which he built to the LORD? (A) The LORD is merciful (B) The B LORD is peace (C) Jehovah Jireh (D) The LORD is great 18. What punishment did God give Solomon for his unwise— Policies? (A) Jeroboam was empowered by God to conquer him (B) He caused Rezon to demolish the high place which he built (C) He raised up Hadad, the Edo mite as an adversary against him (D) The kingdom was torn from him and given to his servant D 19. What was Samson's major achievement as Israel's leader?— (A) He suppressed the Philistines (B) He captured the city of Jericho (C) He saved the Israelites from the Amorites (D) He secured permanent independence for Israel A 20. When God called Moses to deliver the Israelites, he resisted because he could not speak and D he was told to (A) perform some signs with his rod (B) wait for a sign from God (C) go with Joshua who would speak for him (D) go with Aaron who would speak for him
21. When Moses struck the rock twice for water instead of speaking— to it ,God said to him that he (A) would no longer see Him face to face (B) would not bring the Israelites to the promise land (C)would not see His holiness (D)would roam in the wilderness for thirty years B 22. When the Israelites left Egypt, God did not let them use the shorter route through the land of the Philistines because— (A) the Philistines were waiting in ambush for them (B) they might go back if they faced war (C) He wanted to confuse the Egyptian king (D) He wanted them to suffer and appreciate Him B 23. Why did God accept David who killed Uriah and took his wife but rejected Saul who spared King Agag?— (A) David was from the favoured tribe of Judah while Saul was from Benjamin (B) David was a man after God's heart while Saul was His enemy (C) David was a singer of praises while Saul was not (D) David humbled himself when he realized his sin but Saul was stubborn D 24. "...And in the last days it shall be, God declares, that I will pour out my Spirit upon all B flesh..." Peter quoted the statement above from the prophecy of (A) Ezekiel B) Joel (C) Jeremiah (D) Isaiah. 25. "Am I God, to kill and to make alive, that this man sends words to me to cure a man of his B leprosy..." Prophet Elisha responded to the king's reaction in the statement above by (A) directing the nation of Israel to pray and fast (B) requesting the leper to come to his house (C) directing the leper to go to River Jordan (D) asking the leper to offer a sacrifice 26. "Behold, I am the LORD, the God of all flesh; is anything too hard for me..." The statement C above suggests that God is (A) merciful (B) awesome (C) most powerful (D) not changeable.
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
27. "Behold. 1 am the LORD, the God of all flesh; is anything too hard for me" The statement B above suggests that God is (A) merciful (B) most powerful (C) awesome (D) not changeable.
28. "Do you understand what you are reading?" Philip asked the Ethiopian eunuch the question D above when he found him reading the book of (A) Hosea (B) Ezekiel (C) Jeremiah (D) Isaiah. 29. "My spirit shall not abide in man forever, for he is flesh". When God made the statement, He D concluded that man's days shall be (A) one hundred years (B) one hundred and fifty years (C) eighty years (D) one hundred and twenty years. 30. "Test your servants for ten days; let us be given vegetables to eat and water to drink..." In the C statement above, Daniel was talking to (A) King Darius (B) the chief of the eunuchs (C) the steward of the chief eunuch (D) King Artaxerxes. 31. According to Amos, what did the Israelites do after God smote them with blight and mildew? A (A) They still did not return to him (B) They repented of their sins (C) They fasted and prayed for healing (D) They cried unto the LORD. 32. According to Prophet Jeremiah, one of the promises of God was that He would give the D Israelites (A) new priests (B) new commandments (C) kings after His own heart (D) shepherds after His own heart. 33. According to Proverbs, a son that is attentive to a father's instruction will (A) be rich (B) have C eternal life (C) gain insight (D) be forgiven his sins 34. Consequent upon the murder of Naboth by Ahab and Jezebel, God declared that (A) He would require the blood of Naboth from Ahab’s hand (B) Ahab's descendants would never ascend the throne in Israel (C) dogs would lick Ahab's blood where they had licked Naboth (D) the sword would not depart from the house of Ahab C 35. Ezekiel said that when the people of Israel turned away from all their sins, they would (A) A Surely live and not die (B) Be free from attack (C) Lead mankind to God (D) Return from captivity. 36. God had pity on the people of Nineveh because (A) they listened to Jonah's message (B) the C king punished all the violent people in the land (C) they turned from their evil way. (D) they made sacrifices of sin offering to God. 37. Immediately after the contest on Mount Carmel, Elijah prayed and God answered him with B (A) thunder (B) rainfall (C) a whirlwind (D) a heavy storm 38. In addition to the declaration of freedom to the exiles in Babylon, King Cyrus ordered for (A) A free will offering for the house of God in Jerusalem (B) the release of Jewish, slaves in the empire (C) security check on the Jews before departure (D) support from craftsmen in Babylon 39. Joab and his soldiers entered the city quietly after defeating their enemy because (A) Absalom and his soldiers were defeated (B) of the shameful death of Absalom (C) the king grieving for his son (D) the king Was annoyed with them C
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40. Obadiah showed his great reverence for the LORD by (A) Handing over five hundred Baal D prophets for slaughter (B) Falling on his face before Elijah (C) Hiding Elijah in a cave for two years (D) Feeding the prophets of the LORD with bread and water. 41. Prophet Amos told Israel to hate evil, love good and establish justice in the gate so that God C would (A) heal their diseases (B) give them good leaders (C) be gracious to them (D) multiply their descendants 42. Prophet Hosea named his second child Not Pitied because God would no more pity the (A) kings of Judah (B) kings of Israel (C) house of Judah (D) house of Israel D 43. Prophet Hosea named his second child Not Pitied because God would no more pity the (A) D kings of Judah (B) kings of Israel (C) house of Judah (D) house of Israel
44. Prophet Isaiah received his vision and call when— (A) King Uzziah was deposed (B) King Uzziah died (C) King Uzziah began to reign (D) Israel was in Babylonian captivity B 45. Saul learnt from Samuel's spirit that the LORD would (A) give the Philistines into his hands A (B) afflict him with sickness (C) bless Isaac's future wife (D) pardon his iniquity
46. The destruction of Jerusalem by Nebuchadnezzar was a consequence of (A) Hezekiah's death (B) Josiah's reforms (C) Israel's stubbornness to God (D) Zedekiah's rebellion against Babylon C 47. The effect that the faith of Shadrach, Meshach and Abednego had on King Nebuchadnezzar D and his subjects was that they (A) Refrained from persecuting the Jews in exile (B) Were converted (C) Forsook their gods (D) Believed that there was no other god able to deliver.
48. The Kingdom of Israel was divided because the (A) kingdom was too large to be administered D (B) leadership wanted to create more nations (C) followership wanted more nations (D) last two kings made unwise policies. 49. The pronouncement of God on Josiah for being penitent was that (A) God would support him C to repair the Temple (B) Josiah would conquer all his enemies (C) God would gather him to his grave in peace (D) Josiah would have a peaceful reign. 50. The scroll given to Ezekiel to eat at his call contained (A) Both praises and condemnation (B) B Words of lamentation and mourning (C) Prescription for Temple worship (D) The expected type of sacrifice. 51. What did Asa do that was right in the eyes of the Lord?(A) He removed all the idols of his A father. (B) He killed all the priests of Baal; (C) His reign was peaceful. (D) He killed all the Baal worshippers. 52. What did the Jews do when Nehemiah told them about his mission in Jerusalem? (A) They D praised God for sending him to rebuild. Jerusalem (B) They informed Sanballat and Tobiah about his plans (C) They were hostile to him and he became discouraged (D) They encouraged one another to rise up and build the walls. .
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
53. "...but should write to them to abstain from the pollutions of idols and from unchastity and C from what is strangled and from blood..."' The statement above was made at the Council of Jerusalem by (A) Philip (B) Simon (C) James (D) Peter 54. "...His office let another take..." The statement above refers to (A) Ananias (B) Judas Iscariot B (C) Barnabas (D) John Mark. 55. "...Truly, I say to you, not even In Israel have I found such faith..." The statement above by D Jesus was made when He healed the (A) leper (B) blind man (C) demoniac (D). centurion's servant. 56. "Depart from me, for I am a sinful man, O Lord." This statement was uttered by Peter at C the (A) last supper (B) garden of Gethsemane (C) call of the disciples (D) transfiguration
57. "If I tell you, you will not believe; and if I ask you, you will not answer..."' Jesus' statement B above was in response to a request by (A) King Herod (B) the chief priests and scribes (C) Pontius Pilate (D) the Pharisees and Sadducees. 58. "If you are the Son of God, throw yourself down from here; for it is written, 'He will give his A angels charge of you…" According to Luke, the statement above was made by Satan during Jesus'(A) third temptation (B) crucifixion (C) Transfiguration (D) second temptation.
59. "Teacher, do you not care if we perish?" Where was Jesus Christ when this question was D asked? (A) On the sea, walking. (B) In the wilderness. (C) On the Mount of Olive (D) In the ship, asleep 60. "Truly, I say to you, today you will be with me in paradise...'" Jesus made the statement D above to one of the criminals because he (A) respected Him (B) praised Him (C) rebuked his partner (D) was repentant 61. "Unbind him, and let him go." The statement was made by Jesus when (A) He raised to life A the dead Lazarus (B) He healed the son of the widow at Nain (C) He healed the centurion's servant (D) a boy bound by Satan was brought to Him. 62. "Unless you are circumcised according to the custom of Moses, you cannot be saved" The D statement above by some men from Judea necessitated the convening of the (A) church in Jerusalem (B) council of elders (C) church in Judea (D) council in Jerusalem.
63. "You son of the devil, you enemy of all righteousness, full of all deceit and villainy" This A statement of Paul was addressed to (A) Elymas, the magician (B) Paulus, the proconsul (C) Simon, the Magician (D) Demetrius, the silversmith
64. ‘ As long as I am in the world, I am the light of the world.’ Jesus made the statement above A on the occasion of (A) healing the man born blind (B) raising Lazarus from the dead (C) restoring sight to blind Bartimaeus (D) walking on the sea before day break. 65. According to Luke, the Last Supper took place (A) on Mount Olive (B) In Jerusalem (C) in B Jordan (D) in Bethlehem. 66. According to Luke, when Moses and Elijah appeared during the transfiguration, they spoke of A Jesus’ (A) departure (C) resurrection (B) second coming (D) trials
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
67. According to Matthew, the stone on the tomb of Jesus was removed by (A) an angel (C) Mary A Magdalene (B) a Roman soldier (D) Peter and John. 68. According to Romans, salvation is for those who (A) call upon the name of the Lord (B) are B true worshippers of God (C) work in the Lord's vineyard (D) Are persecuted for righteousness
69. According to the Gospel of John, Jesus is the true vine while the vinedresser is (A) the Holy B Spirit (B) His father (C) the gardener (D) His mother 70. 'And, they arrested them and put them in custody until the morrow, for it was already D evening.' In the statement above, the imprisoned persons were (A) Paul and John Mark (B) Peter and Barnabas (C) Peter and Paul (D) Paul and Barnabas. 71. Angel Gabriel told Zachariah that he would become dumb until John was born because he (A) D looked down on the Angel (B) was advanced in age (C) disagreed with Elizabeth, his wife (D) did not believe God's words. 72. Following the death of Stephen, the only group of believers not scattered by the great B persecution was the (A) deacons (B) apostles (C) prophets (D) disciples. 73. Following the resurrection of Jesus, the Chief Priest and elders took counsel and bribed the A guards to (A) say that the disciples stole the body of Jesus (B) keep the information away from His disciples (C) keep the matter among themselves (D) report the matter immediately to the rulers. 74. In His Sermon on the Mount, Jesus said that the poor in spirit are blessed for they would (A) C be satisfied (B) be comforted on the last day (C) inherit the kingdom of heaven (D) inherit the earth 75. In Luke, at the Last Supper, Jesus revealed His (A) resurrection (B) imminent sufferings (C) C love for His disciples (D) ascension 76. In the country of the Gerasenes, Jesus healed the (A) man possessed of demons (B) paralytic A at the pool (C) leper (D) blind man 77. In the mission of the seventy, Jesus told them that they were being sent out as sheep among D wolves, implying that they would (A) be sent to live among wolves (B) be as meek as sheep (C) be properly equipped for the mission (D) encounter difficulties. 78. In the story of the Transfiguration, Moses and Elijah represented the (A) glory of God (B) old C Testament saints (C) Law and the prophets (D) end of the age. 79. Jesus raised to life the son of the widow of Nain because He (A) wanted the whole of Judea to C know about him (B) wanted to show that He was a great prophet (C) had compassion on the mother (D) loved the young man that died. 80. Jesus' reply to the devil's first temptation of Him was _ (A) "...Him only shall you serve" (B) "...Man shall not live by bread alone..." (C) '"You shall not tempt the Lord your God"' (D) "...You shall worship the Lord your God..." B 81. Jesus told the parable of the lost sheep in order to illustrate that (A) every believer ought to D rejoice with those who rejoice. (B) no person can hide from God (C) God's love is unlimited (D) there is joy in heaven over a sinner who repents
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82. Jesus was at the wedding in Cana of Galilee because (A) He wanted to demonstrate His power B (B) He was invited to the ceremony (C) the groom was His relation (D) the groom ran out of wine 83. Jesus was tempted by the devil so as to (A) fulfill all righteousness (B) show His power over C forces of nature (C) show that no one is above temptation (D) test the devil's power
84. The Hebrew word Rabboni means (A) disciple (B) priest (C) master (D) Teacher. D
85. The impact of Jesus' miracle of turning water into wine was that the (A) servants were C astonished (B) master of ceremony believed (C) disciples believed more in Him (D) people glorified God. 86. Where were the disciples of Jesus when He had a conversation with the Samaritan B woman?(A) They had gone to the city to preach the gospel (B) They had gone to the city to buy food (C) They had gone to the mountain to pray (D) They had gone to wait for Him. 87. According to Ephesians, children who obey their parents in the Lord will (A) be happy (B) go C to heaven (C) have long life (D) be great 88. According to Peter, God shows no partiality, but in every nation anyone who fears Him is (A) B diligent before Him (B) acceptable to Him (C) holy before Him (D) righteous before Him. 89. According to Romans, the new life is comparable to Jesus' (A) resurrection (B) ministry (C) A ascension (D) crucifixion. 90. According to Thessalonians, the day of the Lord will not come unless the (A) living die first C (B) scoffers come first (C) dead rise first (D) rebellion comes first. 91. Busy bodies and those living in idleness in the church at Thessalonica were admonished to (A) pray for those in authority for peace (B) do their work in quietness and earn a living (C) appeal to those in authority to create jobs (D) endure persecution from their masters B 92. In his teaching on partiality, James declares that mercy triumphs over (A) judgment (B) A righteousness (C) grace (D) faith. 93. In Paul's arrangement of the spiritual gifts in Corinthians, the last is (A) the utterance of B wisdom (B) interpretation of tongues (C) gifts of healing (D) various kinds of tongues 94. In Romans, Paul condemned sin taking over mortal bodies in the new life as instruments of B (A) greediness (B) wickedness (C) sadness (D) foolishness 95. In Timothy Paul urges Christians to pray for kings and those in authority for the achievement D of (A) a successful Christian life (B) godly and acceptable life (C) peace and exaltation in life (D) quiet and peaceable life 96. Paul in Romans enjoins all Christians to cast off works of darkness end put on the (A) armour A of light (B) armour of faith (C) works of grace (D) works of light. 97. Peter admonishes that Christians should endure suffering because anyone who has suffered A in the flesh (A) shall live the rest of his life in peace (B) shall clothe himself with humility (C) has ceased from sin (D) has overcome death.
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES
98. Peter enjoins Christians to wait in expectation of the new heavens and the new earth in which D (A) evil will be destroyed (B) there will be no more corruption (C) there will be perfection (D) righteousness dwell. 99. What does Paul advise Roman Christians to do to those who persecute them? (A) Give them C drink when thirsty (B) Forgive them (C) Bless them (D) Feed them when hungry. 100. Which of the following are opposed to each other according to Galatians? (A) Believers and D unbelievers (B) Freedmen and salves (C) Jews and Gentiles (D) Flesh and Spirit.
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1. …………….is the term that describes the cost of one product in terms of forgone D production/acquisition of others. (A) Marginal cost (B) Production/acquisition cost (C) Optimum cost (D) Opportunity cost (E) Implicit cost 2. An activity does not have a cost when (A) the activity does not require the giving up of A any other activity or thing (B) the government pays for it (C) it is carried out by a non- governmental organisation (D) it is not priced (E) it is easy to undertake. 3. Choices arise on account of …… (A) numerous wants (B) enough money to undertake D effective demand (C) scale of preference (D) human wants being numerous but the time, money and influence to satisfy them are limited. (E) needs 4. Economics is best defined as (A) the study of allocation of resources to satisfy human D wants (B) the study of human behaviour in the process of buying and selling (C) study of how nations grow and improve their welfare (D) the study of how to allocate scarce resources to satisfy human wants (E) all of the above. 5. Economics may be described as (A) the study of demand and supply of things in our C environment (B) the study of production and distribution (C) the study of human behaviour in the allocation of scarce resources (D) the study of the employment of labour, capital, land and capital (E) the study of money and banking. 6. From an economics point of view, an activity does not have cost when (A) someone else C pays for it (B) the returns are greater than costs (C) the choice involves given up nothing (D) government pays for it (E) it is paid for from gift 7. Opportunity cost is a term which describes (A) initial cost of setting up a business C venture (B) a study of the ways man devices to satisfy his unlimited wants from limited resources (C) cost of one product in terms of forgone production of others (D) the mandatory equivalent of the utility of a commodity (E) cost related to an optimum level of production 8. Scarcity in economics means (A) a period of scarce things (B) when things are costly to E acquire (C) monopolisation of available resources by a few (D) nationalisation of natural resources such as petroleum in Venezuela (E) none of the above. 9. Which of these is the real cost of satisfying any want in the sense of the alternative that B has to be forgone (A) variable cost (B) opportunity cost (C) total cost (D) prime cost (E) marginal cost 10. Economic analyses and conclusions can be divided into (A) consumption and production B (B) positive and normative (C) microeconomics and macroeconomics (D) demand and supply (E) none of the above 11. Which of the following is NOT a measure of central tendency? (A) mean (B) median (C) E Mode (D) average (E) standard deviation 12. Which of the following is NOT a measure of dispersion (A) standard deviation (B) E mean deviation (C) variance (D) range (E) mean 13. A normal good with close substitutes is likely to have its price elasticity of demand (A) C between zero and one (B) equal to unity (C) greater than unity (D) less than unity (E) none of the above 14. Demand for a factor of production is (A) A composite demand (B) ajoint demand (C) C a derived demand (D) an elasticity of demand (E) cross elasticity of demand
15. Given Demand function: Qd = 5P + 10; Supply function: Qs = 7P – 5. If the price is at N5, the D excess demand is (A) 35 (B) 30 (C) 10 (D) 5 (E) 65
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16. If an increase in the price of a commodity leads to an increase in total revenue, then it C follows that the demand for the commodity is (A) normal (B) elastic (C) inelastic (D) abnormal (E) unitary 17. If the price of a commodity rises, the quantity demanded of the commodity remains the D same, then the demand for the commodity is (A) static (B) infinitely elastic (C) externally determined (D) perfectly inelastic (E) perfectly elastic 18. The impact of a change in the price of commodity A on the quantity demanded of B commodity B is best explained using the concept of (A) price-elasticity of demand (B) cross-price elasticity of demand (C) income elasticity of demand (D) elasticity of substitution (E) A-price elasticity of demand for B 19. The change that is due to a movement from one supply curve to another along the same A price is called (A) change in supply (B) change in quantity supplied (C) elasticity change (D) control price effect (E) change in equilibrium quantity 20. When the supply of a commodity is fixed, its price elasticity of supply is said to be (A) B perfectly elastic (B) perfectly inelastic (C) undefined (D) elastic (E) inelastic
21. Given Demand function: Qd = 5P + 10; Supply function: Qs = 7P – 5. The equilibrium D quantity is (A) 50 (B) 55 (C) 75.5 (D) 47.5 (E) 55.5
22. In market economies, resources are allocated through the (A) government authorities B (B) price system (C) banking system (D) central planning bureau (E) revenue allocation formula 23. In the operation of market forces, the market is in equilibrium at the point where (A) D demand and supply curve intersects in more than one point (B) the excess in the market can be conveniently stored (C) excess demand is positive (D) demand and supply curves intersect (E) excess demand is negative 24. The basic feature of a market economy is (A) the reduction in the power of sellers (B) B the enthronement of consumer sovereignty (C) the dismantling of barriers to trade (D) the perfectly elastic price for every transaction (E) the intersection of demand and supply curves 25. The following are the conditions that must be fulfilled for price determination EXCEPT A (A) market merger (B) market segmentation (C) demand elasticities (D) product differentiation (E) none of the above 26. The main function of price mechanism is to (A) limit consumer demand (B) enable C producers make profits (C)allocate scarce resources among competing ends (D) ensure consumer sovereignty (E) achieve excess capacity 27. When government intervenes in price-setting, the regulated price is usually (A) higher D than the last price (B) lower than the last price (C) higher than the equilibrium price (D) lower than the equilibrium price (E) higher than the ceiling price 28. A firm achieves least cost in production by substituting factors until (A) their factor B prices are equal (B) their marginal products are equal to the factor prices (C) their marginal products are each equal to zero (D) the ratios of their marginal product equals the ratio of their prices (E) none of the above 29. A production possibility curve shows (A) how much of resources a society uses to D produce a particular commodity (B) the rate of inflation (C) the rate of unemployment in an economy (D) the various combinations of the commodities that can be produced (E) all of the above
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30. A rightward shift in the production possibility frontier may be due to (A) use of inferior C inputs (B) inefficiency (C) improvement in production techniques and practices (D) changes in the product mix (E) changes in consumer taste
31. Direct payment incurred for producing a commodity is called (A) implicit cost (B) real E cost (C) opportunity cost (D) due cost (E) explicit cost 32. Diseconomies of scale can be caused by the following EXCEPT (A) managerial inefficiency C (B) increased resource-cost (C) large market (D) inefficient business environment (E) technology 33. Diseconomies of scale operates when (A) doubling inputs brings about more than C proportionate increase in output (B) doubling inputs leads to a doubling of output (C) doubling input brings about less than proportionate increase in output (D) decrease in profit (E) increase in revenue 34. Economic efficiency means (A) obtaining maximum output from available resources D (B) equitable distribution of nation’s resources (C) carrying out production without any waste (D) producing the maximum output from available resources at the lowest possible cost (E) efficient utilisation of the nation’s resources. 35. External economies are (A) the advantages accruing to firm as a result of its expansion B (B) the advantages accruing to one firm as a result of the existence of other firms in the same locality (C) benefits derived by a firm as a result of its own external economies policy (D) economies reaped only by firms that are externally focused (E) bound to increase the cost of production 36. If a firm doubles its output and its costs increase by 60%, the firm is experiencing (A) B increasing costs (B) economies of scale (C) decreasing returns (D) decreasing costs (E) none of the above 37. In economics, production is complete when (A) Goods are produced in the factories (B) E Goods are sold to the wholesaler (C) Goods and services are produced by the government (D) Prices are fixed for goods and services (E) Goods and services finally reach the consumer 38. In the study of economics, land, labour, capital and entrepreneur are referred to as C factors of production. These factors produce commodities only if they are — (A) profitable to the production process (B) purchased for the purpose of production (C) combined in the production process (D) produced adequately for the production process (E) brought into factory 39. Production that takes place within the production possibility curve is said to be (A) A inefficient (B) possible (C) with increased output (D) x-efficient (E) pareto-compliant 40. The act of combining factor inputs in order to obtain specific output is known as (A) E factor procurement (B) manufacturing (C) investment (D) industrialisation (E) production 41. The additional output obtained by using one more unit of a factor is called (A) marginal E income (B) additional product (C) marginal revenue (D) average product (E) marginal physical product
42. The amount of labour a producer hires relative to other factor input depends on the (A) B price of labour or its wage (B) price of labour, machinery and other inputs (C) price of machinery (D) price of other inputs (E) type of machinery
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43. The concept of economic efficiency primarily refers to (A) obtaining the maximum A output from available resources at the lowest possible cost (B) conservation of our petroleum resources (C) equity in the distribution of the nation’s wealth (D) producing without waste (E) none of the above 44. The law of diminishing returns often operates in the — (A) long run (B) short run (C) B medium term (D) small scale production (E) none of the above 45. The main economic objective behind the production of goods and services in an economy A is to (A) maximise profits (B) satisfy human wants (C) become self-reliant (D) create job opportunities (E) make people wealthy 46. The residual of production which accrues to the ownership of land after all other expenses C have been met is called (A) wages (B) profit (C) rent (D) interest (E) discount
47. Average fixed cost is (A) average total cost less the sum of average variable cost (B) C half the sum of all costs (C) total fixed cost divided by the level of output (D) total fixed cost plus marginal cost (E) total variable cost divided by output 48. Average fixed cost is a rectangular hyperbola (A) since unit cost increases as output C increases (B) unit cost increases as output decreases (C) unit cost decreases as output increases (D) unit cost remains the same as output increases (E) none of the above 49. Long run cost is U-shaped because of the operation of (A) economies of scale on the A left hand side and diseconomies of scale on the right hand side (B) diseconomies of scale on the left and right hand sides (C) economies of scale on the left and right hand sides (D) constant return to scale (E) diseconomies of scale of the left hand side and economies of scale of the right hand side 50. Marginal cost is the cost (A) the lowest cost of producing goods (B) the cost of D production of the most efficient firm in an industry (C) the cost of production of the most inefficient firm in an industry (D) the cost of production of the last unit of goods produced by a firm (E) the cost of production at which minimum profit is obtained by the firm 51. Which of the following is NOT part of the fixed cost of a firm (A) interest on loans (B) E rent on buildings (C) depreciation reserves (D) management expenditure (E) wages
52. Which of the following is used to describe a payment representing a surplus in excess of C transfer earnings? (A) interest rates (B) opportunity costs (C) economic rent (D) indirect costs (E) wages
53. A perfectly competitive firm produces the most profitable output where its (A) marginal D revenue equals average cost (B) price equals average cost (C) price equals marginal cost (D) marginal cost equals marginal revenue (E) average revenue equals average cost 54. Advertising is the main technique used for effecting in a monopolistic competition (A) B market segmentation (B) product differentiation (C) price (D) profit (E) supply 55. Output of a monopolist is usually determined at a point where (A) P=MC (B) MR=MC B (C) AR=AC (D) marginal cost is rising (E) marginal revenue is rising
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56. Product homogeneity is one of the characteristics of (A) perfect competition (B) A monopoly (C) monopolistic competition (D) oligopoly (E) competition
57. Which of the following is compatible with a firm in a purely competitive market? (A) B demand is inelastic (B) demand is infinitely elastic (C) marginal cost is falling (D) price is greater than marginal cost (E) price is less than marginal cost 58. The difference between gross national product and net national product is equal to (A) D Gross investment (B) Net investment (C) Net foreign income (D) Capital depreciation (E) Net and gross 59. The difference between the Gross Domestic Product and the Gross National Product is the D (A) Allowance for total depreciation (B) Total interest payments (C) Total tax and interest payments (D) Net income from abroad (E) none of the above 60. The multiplier is defined as (A) The ratio of the change in income to the change in A investment (B) The change in investment divided by the change in income (C) 1/(MPC) (D) 1/(1-MPS) (E) Process of multiplying initial increase in income 61. A decrease in aggregate spending in an economy will ultimately lead to (A) Boom (B) B Deflation (C) Inflation (D) Recession (E) stagnation 62. Money serves well as a store of value in an environment devoid of (A) unemployment D (B) bank robbery (C) development-oriented central/reserve bank (D) inflationary pressure (E) substitutes like ATMs, cheques and bank draft. 63. The ability of deposit money banks to create money is mainly affected by (A) A reserve ratio (B) liquidity ratio (C) capital base (D) monetary policy rate (E) all of the above 64. A document that shows the details of government revenue and expenditure in a year is A called (A) budget (B) development plan (C) rolling plan (D) perspective plan (E) financial plan 65. The basic fiscal relation that exists among the three tiers of government in Nigeria is (A) C national budget appropriation (B) State-Local Government joint account (C) revenue allocation from the federation account (D) federal road projects (E) federal character principle 66. The biggest source of government revenue in Nigeria is (A) Mining rents and royalties E (B) Company income tax (C) Import duties (D) Export duties (E) Petroleum profits tax
67. A major obstacle to economic development is (A) A rise in industrial output (B) Low B farm productivity (C) Free trade (D) Ineffective trade unions (E) corruption
68. A sustained increase in the per capita income of a country over a period of time is called A (A) Economic growth (B) Economic development (C) Structural change (D) Stagflation (E) Sustainable income growth 69. In recent years, Nigerian economy has been registering a spectacular growth in……. C Sector in the last ten years. (A) agriculture (B) education (C) telecommunication (D) transport (E) distribution
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70. Nigeria, being a developing African country in the sub-Sahara, has put together a C development blue-print called Vision 20:2020 which can ensure that the country becomes (A) one of the 20 developed countries by the year 2020 (B) an African economic ‘Tiger’ by the year 2020 (C) one of the 20 largest economies in the world by the year 2020 (D) one of the 20 largest economies in sub-Saharan Africa by the year 2020 (E) one of the 20 largest economies in the developing world by the year 2020
71. The major objective of economic growth is to (A) Redistribute income and other benefit D of growth (B) Equalize opportunity for education and employment (C) Increase aggregate expenditure on goods and services (D) Increase the real per capita income (E) Increase access to education 72. The most common index used for measuring development is (A) The level of literacy (B) B Per capita income (C) Nutritional levels (D) Population growth rate (E) International development index 73. Which is NOT a direct effort to increase agricultural production in Nigeria? (A) Operation B Feed the Nation (B) Nigerian Youth Service Corps (C) Increased loans to farmers and cooperatives (D) Research in Agriculture and extension services (E) Mechanization of agriculture 74. Which of the following sectors of the economy is estimated to be the largest employer of B labour in the country? (A) Construction (B) Agriculture (C) Distribution (D) Mining and petroleum (E) Transport and communications 75. Industries contribute to national economic development because they (A) Utilize local B raw material (B) Employ an increasing number of labour (C) Provide recreational facilities (D) Use modern machines which replace human labour (E) All of the above
76. Infant industries are (A) Baby food and baby clothing factories (B) Those which are D introducing new products (C) Cases of arrested development (D) Industries temporarily protected by tariffs barriers until mature enough to compete on world markets (E) Industries that are allowed to remain permanent cases of adolescence 77. The export-promotion strategy is aimed at producing (A) Consumer goods originally C imported (B) Machinery for industries (C) More goods for exports (D) More goods for domestic consumption (E) Increasing export of goods needed in developed countries 78. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of localization of industries? (A) Reaping of E external economies (B) Development of a pool of skilled labour for the industry (C) Development of subsidiary industries (D) Development of organized markets (E) Growth of conurbations 79. The crucial factors which determines the location of petroleum refineries in Nigeria are B availability of raw materials and (A) Capital (B) Political consideration (C) Nearness to source of power (D) Labour (E) Availability of seaports 80. The petroleum industry in Nigeria is (A) The sole source of the nation’s revenue (B) The C oldest industry in the country (C) The mainstay of the economy (D) A factor in the decline in the nation’s foreign reserves (E) In the hand of NNPC 81. In a limited liability company, the greatest risk is borne by (A) Shareholders debentures C (B) Company executives (C) Ordinary shareholders (D) Preference shareholders (E) Board of directors
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82. In a public company, shares are (A) Sold to one person only (B) Distributed freely (C) C Advertised to members of the public for subscription (D) Disposed off by the Chief Executive (E) none of the above 83. The advantage of the sole proprietorship is as follows: (A) It is always successful (B) C Continuity is no problem (C) Control and supervision is under one man (D) Funds are easy to obtain (E) Inter-generational equity is assured 84. The maximum number of shareholders for a limited liability company is (A) Twenty (B) D Seven (C) Five (D) Infinite (E) Limited to the number of individuals that are interested
85. Population density refers to (A) Densely populated urban centres (B) The total area D divided by the total population (C) Densely populated rural areas (D) The total population divided by the total area (E) All of the above 86. To calculate the annual natural growth rate of a country’s population, one has to know D the country’s annual birth rate and (A) The size of that country (B) The rate of immigration into that country (C) The population census of that country (D) The annual death rate (E) The gross domestic product (GDP) of the country 87. Which of the following is not true of the theory of optimum population? A. It is possible B for a densely populated country to be under-populated if it has insufficient labour to make the most effective use of its other factors B. The quantity of labour, which combines with other factors, gives the minimum output, is known as optimum population C. The quantity of labour, which combined with the other factors, gives the maximum output, is known as optimum population D. The test of over-population is whether it exceeds the optimum E. It is possible for a thinly populated country to be over- populated if it has a poor supply of other factors
88. Which of the following is the standard concept of measuring and analyzing population E growth? (A) The rate of natural increase (B) The net migration rate (C) The rate of population increase (D) The fertility rate (E) All of the above
89. Which of these would NOT increase the population of a country? (A) Increase in death A rate (B) Decrease in birth rate (C) Emigration (D) Migration (E) Better medical facilities 90. An improvement in the Nigeria’s terms of trade should (A) Lead to a fall in cost of her A imports in terms of what she must sacrifice to obtain them (B) Make made-in-Nigeria goods cheaper to buy (C) Increase Nigeria’s domestic output of commodities (D) Lead to an increase in her exchange rates (E) Lead to an increase in Nigeria’s exports of petroleum 91. By ‘trade by barter’, we mean (A) Trade done by people in the villages (B) Exchange of D goods for money (C) International trade (D) Exchange of goods for goods (E) The trade of the Middle Ages 92. Gains from trade depends on (A) Comparative advantage (B) Absolute advantage (C) A Distributive cost advantage (D) Absolute cost advantage (E) None of the above
93. International and inter-regional trade differ primarily because (A) Comparative B advantage is relevant to the former but not to the latter (B) Products flow easily within regions of a country (C) There are different resource supplies among countries of the world (D) Of regulations from GATT (E) None of the above
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94. Surplus in the balance of payments lead to (A) Inflation or increasing prices generally (B) B Increase in foreign reserves (C) Decrease in foreign reserves (D) Government budget surplus (E) None of the above 95. The expression ‘Terms of Trade’ is used to describe (A) The quality of exports (B) The D direction of foreign trade (C) Terms of purchase on deferred payment basis (D) The rate at which exports exchange for imports (E) Import licensing 96. The quantity of a currency that exchanges for a unit of another currency is called its (A) C exchange value (B) barter value (C) exchange rate (D) market price (E) unit price 97. Under a system of freely floating exchange rates, an increase in the international value of B a country’s currency will cause (A) its exports to rise (B) its imports to rise (C) gold to flow into that country (D) its currency to be in surplus (E) devaluation 98. When a currency loses its value due to a government action to fix the quantity of the A currency that exchanges for another currency, there is (A) devaluation (B) depreciation (C) inflation (D) fiscal deficit (E) none of the above 99. Which of the following items in the Balance of Payments Account is an invisible D transaction? (A) Imports of cars (B) Export of cocoa (C) Export of crude petroleum (D) Tourism (E) Import of building materials 100. A major trading problems facing ECOWAS is (A) The absence of common currency (B) A Political instability (C) High poverty level (D) Non-implementation of decisions (E) Trade-related political crisis in Ivory coast
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS USE OF ENGLISH
Read the passages below and answer the questions that follow:
PASSAGE A Every discernible observer could foresee the crisis which engulfed the Edo House last week. Only a few days before, reports were rife about the AC reaching out to some PDP legislators to cross-carpet. The intention being to gain a majority and then assume the Speakership with the least constraint. Zakawanu Garuba, the then Speaker, retorted with a fiat, threatening to declare vacant the seat of any defector. This in spite of the constitutional support for such action, as evidenced, for example, by the crisis that has torn the PDP apart in Edo State. The party has two factional chairmen in the state, even though one is more vociferous. The desperate attempt by Garuba to cling to the Speaker’s chair is condemnable. He was not being recalled from the legislature; and so, he still has his seat as a floor member. As speaker, he was only first among equals. The Speakership is not his birthright. With the defection of one PDP lawmaker to the AC, the legislature reconvened hours after the bloodbath and elected a protem Speaker, while impeaching and suspending Garuba and a few others. They are to be probed
(Adapted from The Guardian, Thursday, March 4, 2011, p.14)
1. Why did AC woo PDP members? B A. they are few in number B. they want speakership without stress C. PDP members are faithful D. The House is tough
2. The legislators impeached A A. Garuba B. PDP lawmakers C. Garuba and some PDP lawmakers D. Garuba and some lawmwkers
3. According to the passage, the constitution supports D A. The speaker B. Defecting C. Edo State D. Factional chairmen
4. The lawmakers reconvened B A. After the defection of a PDP member B. After the bloodbath C. After suspending the Speaker D. After electing a protem Speaker
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS USE OF ENGLISH
5. At the end, what happened to Garuba B A. He was vindicated B. He was indicted C. He was honoured D. He was humiliated
6. To cross-carpet, as used in the passage, means to C A. change party B. renew membership of a party C. change one’s carpet D. buy new carpet
7. The crisis in the Edo State House of Assembly could be predicted by A A. The lawmakers B. Edo State indigenes C. The protem Speaker D. All conscious observers
PASSAGE B
Nigeria has a troubled power sector which is however undergoing reforms that, hopefully, should usher in era of private sector dominance in terms of ownership and management of generation and distribution. In this transitory phase, it is crucial to lay a foundation for local sourcing of vital inputs and make it the norm for the industry. That is the only way to prevent a replication of the trend in the oil and gas sub-sector, where capital flight is as much as $ 16 billion per annum, as revealed by the Petroleum Technology Development Fund. The PHCN could legitimately insist on quality and standards in its procurement of equipment and materials, but what is playing out is an institutional orientation, evinced in several pursuits of the PHCN that are contemptuous of Nigeria’s aspiration for local content development. In 1998, the defunct National Electric Power Authority defied a directive by the then Minister of Power and steel, Alhaji Bashir Dalhatu, to source its costable components from Nigerian foundries, some of which are of high standards. Actuated by a realization of idle capacity in the foundries and the need to conserve foreign exchange, the Minister applied appropriate pressure on the management of NEPA but found his efforts frustrated. The acute shortage or inefficiency in the metering programme originated from the fact that the only local manufacturer then, the Federal Government-owned electricity Meter Company in Zaria, Kaduna State, established in 1976, but sold to Dantata Investments Limited in December 2002, is not performing. (Adapted from The Punch, Wednesday, May 25, 2011. Pg. 18)
8. Why is there shortage of meter? C A. Non-performance of PHCN B. Non-performance of NEPA C. Non-performance of the Federal Government-owned electricity
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS USE OF ENGLISH
Meter Company D. Non-performance of Dantata Investment Ltd.
9. According to the passage, the solution to the problem in the power sector lies in A A. Sourcing for materials locally B. Getting costable components C. Obeying the minister D. Getting $ 16 billion per annum
10. From the passage it is clear that B A. There is money in the country B. There is shortage of electricity meter C. NEPA is better than PHCN D. NEPA was formed in 1998
11. Which of these is not true of the power sector C A. There is only one local manufacturer of electricity meter B. The power sector is undergoing reforms C. The problem of the power sector cannot be solved D. there was procurement of equipment and materials
12. Which of these is undergoing reforms? D A. NEPA B. PHCN C. Nigeria D. The power sector
13. A suitable title for this passage is D A. Nigeria and her problems B. NEPA versus PHCN C. Electricity meter D. Problems in the power sector Choose the option that best completes the gap: 14. University students ……………..behave well. (A) can (B) should (C) may (D) B must 15. Gloria ………….. have finished the project two days ago. (A) must (B) may (C) A can (D) supposed to 16. You are Goodluck, .....? (A) are you? (B) aren’t you? (C) are’nt you? (D) don’t B you? 17. He ……………. not come now (A) needs (B) needed (C) need (D) will need C 18. Janet .....to know that we are all here. (A) suppose (B) supposes (C) is C supposed (D) should suppose 19. Let it be ..... that there was no king in Ayegun. (A)know (B) knew (C) known C (D) knows 20. We shall see you soon, .....? (A) shall we? (B) shan’t we? (C) shouldn’t we (D) B should we
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS USE OF ENGLISH
21. Neither of the presidential candidates ...... suitable. (A) are (B) is (C) is been B (D) are been suitable. 22. Ten miles ____ a great distance. (A) is (B) are (C) is been A 23. If I were the president, I ..... ask for the money (A) will (B) should (C) would C (D) can 24. I will see you after I ..... spoken with your supervisor. (A) might have (B) have B (C) will have (D) would have 25. “You .....- now see the director”, the secretary told the visitors (A) can (B) B may (C) should (D) would 26. She isn’t Gloria ..... ? (A) is she? (B) isn’t she? (C) aren’t she? (D) doesn’t she? A 27. We have a bus, .....? (A) didn’t we? (B) haven’t we? (C) doesn’t we? (D) hasn’t B we? 28. I knew David .... let us down. (A) may (B) will (C) might (D) can C 29. You ……….. me last week. (A) ought to see (B) ought to had seen (C) ought to C have seen (D) had to have seen 30. Twenty dollars ___ enough for my lunch. (A) are (B) is (c ) are just B 31. The pests ____ our farm every year. (A) invade (B) invades (c ) has invades A 32. If I were the Governor, I ..... ask for the project (A) will (B) should (C) would C (D) can 33. When ……... the Cleric ..... today? (A) does/arrives (B) does/arrived (C) C does/arrive (D) do arrive 34. We shall see you soon, .....? (A) shall we? (B) shan’t we? (C) shouldn’t we (D) B should we 35. You missed the match, .....? (A) don’t you? (B) didn’t you? (C) hadn’t you? (D) B doesn’t you? 36. Walk the dog right now, .....? (A) walkn’t you? (B) will you? (C)shall you? B (D)would you? 37. I am a student, ...... ? (A) I’m I? (B) aren’t I? (C) isn’t I? (D) wouldn’t I? B Pick out the odd/wrong expression in each of the following : 38. (A) I heard his supposed apology (B) I heard his unconvincing apology (C) I D heard his suppose apology (D) I heard he was supposed apology 39. (A) I suppose you know the way (B) I am supposed you know the way (C) I B suppose he knows the way (D) They suppose he knows the way 40. (A) I travel next week (B) I will travel next week (C) I suppose to travel next week (D) I should travel next week C 41. (A) Having discovered the error, he apologized (B) Having discovered the error, the apology was tendered (C) Having known the error, he apologised (D) Having found out the error, he tendered an apology B 42. (A) The job has been done (B) The job has been being done (C) They have D done the job (D) They can have done the job 43. (A) She must finish the project in two days (B) She must finish the project two B days ago (C) She must have finished the project two days ago (D) She ought to have finished the project two days ago 44. (A) If I went in there, I would beat the security officer (B) If I go in there, I B would beat the security officer (C) If I go in there, I will beat the security officer (D) If I go in there, I can beat the security officer
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS USE OF ENGLISH
Choose the option that most appropriately expresses the idea in the underlined expression. 45. My friend’s parent’s are magnanimous (A) rich and popular (B) sociable and C lovable (C) kind and generous (D) wicked and stingy 46. My friend has an overbearing attitude toward me (A) patient (B) impatient C (C) opinionated and domineering (D) considerate and respectful 47. There are a number of makeshift buildings in town (A) modern buildings (B) C old fashion buildings (C) temporary buildings (D) permanent buildings 48. Post UME is a hurdle to cross. (A) a necessary and simple exam to pass (B) an D unnecessary and difficult exam to pass (C) an unnecessary but simple exam to pass (D) a necessary and challenging exam to pass 49. His contribution to the project is invaluable (A) extremely useful (B) of no A value (C) of little value (D) can not be valued 50. That was a dawn-to-earth approach (A) poor (B) ordinary (C) practical (D) B immodest 51. Concerning my admission, I have to cross my fingers (A) wait and hope for the A best (B) wait in frustration (C) wait confidently (D) take some risk 52. My father is indifferent to my choice of University (A) supports (B) opposes D (C) not decided (D) not concerned 53. We need an ad hoc arrangement towards the project (A) intelligent (B) D advanced (C) permanent (D) temporary 54. The student’s reply to the lecturer betrayed his rudeness (A) covered (B) C showed (C) reduced (D) increased 55. His conduct in the last elections was above board (A) arrogant (B) honest (C) C above average (D) excellent 56. That was a dispassionate decision (A) bias (B) personal (C) unaffected (D) C ineffective 57. On the matter of worship, some sit on the fence (A) go to the extreme (B) are D decisive (C) are fanatics (D) are undecided Choose the option that is nearest in meaning to the word underlined: 58. In this matter, we must be prepared to tolerate human frailty. (A) B inquisitiveness (B) weakness (C) profligacy (D) innovation. 59. I detest his lackadaisical attitude. (A) carefree (B) lazy (C) supercilious (D) A disloyal. 60. Nobody will endure such profligate spending habits. (A) generous (B) C arrogant (C) wasteful (D) mindless. 61. Is he oblivious of the political situation in his community? (A) unconscious (B) A conscious (C) afraid (D) intolerant. 62. Many people look into the future with trepidation . (A) certainty (B) C uncertainty (C) fear (D) faith. 63. Can you marry such a lanky man? (A) tall and thin (B) sturdy (C) fat and short A (D) tall and short. 64. The election system we adopted was his brainchild. (A) undoing factor (B) B invention (C) power (D) fabrication Choose the option opposite in meaning to the word underlined. 65. Peter always approaches issues optimistically. (A) realistically (B) B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS USE OF ENGLISH
pessimistically (C) carelessly (D) unrealistically. 66. Why should Dixon be evasive in answering the question? (A) indirect (B) B direct (C) guessing (D) sure. 67. John and Ahmed’s ideas were speculative (A) stipulative (B) superlative (C) C factual (D) attractive. 68. Henry was admitted to the hospital with profuse bleeding. (A) much (B) little B (C) internal (D) continuous 69. Many people regard him as prolific. (A) diplomatic (B) productive (C) C unproductive (D) unacademic. 70. Our success is paramount in his mind. (A) unimportant (B) important (C) A certain (D) uncertain. 71. In all, I consider the behaviour unpalatable. (A) unacceptable (B) offensive (C) C acceptable (D) inoffensive. 72. Her action will certainly exacerbate the situation. (A) ameliorate (B) worsen A (C) aggravate (D) clarify. 73. Is he really behaving oddly ? (A) abnormally (B) normally (C) evenly (D) D properly. 74. He always approaches issues optimistically. (A) realistically (B) pessimistically B (C) carelessly (D) unrealistically. 75. Her health deteriorated rapidly. (A) worsened (B) improved (C) stagnated (D) B declined. Which of the following sentences is correct? 76. (A) One should mind his business. (B) One should mind one’s business (C) One B should mind her business. 77. (A) This case is between you and I. (B) This case is between you and me. (C) B This case is between the two both of us. 78. (A) With them around, we have a great problem on our hands. (B) With them A around, we have a great problem on our hand. (C) With them around, we have a great problem on hand. 79. (A) The dog wagged it’s tail. (B) The dog wagged its tail. (C) The dog wagged B its’ tail. 80. (A) A ten year old boy is missing. (B) A ten-year-old boy is missing. (C) A ten B year-old boy is missing. 81. Choose the option that sounds the same with: two (A) tool (B) too (C) tow (D) B to 82. Choose the option that sounds the same with bear : (A) bare (B) beer (C) B bared (D) beard 83. Choose the option that sounds the same with the given word. Key (A) kiss B (B) quay (C) keyed (D) kissed Choose the word that is correctly spelled. 84. (A) acomodation (B) accommodation (C) accomodation (D) acommodation B 85. (A) embarrassment (B) embarassment (C) embarrasment (D) embarasment A 86. (A) horrific (B) horific (C) horiffic (D) horriffic A 87. As soon as Joy arrived, she started looking for food. The underlined D expression is an ------. (A) adverbial phrase of reason (B) adverbial clause of reason (C) adverbial phrase of time (D) adverbial clause of time
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS USE OF ENGLISH
88. My friend, a brilliant lecturer, won many prizes. The underlined expression is C a(n) ...... (A) adjectival clause (B) relative clause (C) appositive phrase (D) subject of ‘won’ 89. I passed very well because I studied hard. The underlined expression is a (A) D relative clause introducer (B) linking verb (C) adverb of reason (D) subordinating conjunction 90. Bello and I love each other. (A) preposition (B) reciprocal pronoun (C) noun B phrase (D) adjectival phrase 91. I prefer writing to acting. The underlined expressions is a(n) ------. (A) verb C (B) participle (C) gerund (D) object 92. Having finished my assignment, I started watching television. The underlined C expression is a(n) ------. (A) infinitive clause (B) gerund (C) participial phrase (D) noun clause 93. If you leave early, you’ll meet Sola at home. The underlined expression is a --- C ------. (A) nominal clause (B) verbal clause (C) conditional clause (D) adjectival clause 94. Wounded by a lion, the hunter trudged home. The underlined expression is a C ------.(A) nominal clause (B) verbal clause (C) participial clause (D) adjectival clause 95. I’m proud of you. The underlined expression functions as(A) prepositional B complement (B) adjectival complement (C) subject complement (D) verbal complement 96. A noun phrase lacks one of the following: (A) noun (B) verb (C) adjective (D) B adverb 97. Eve gave Adam an apple. An apple in the sentence functions as------.(A) B subject of the verb ‘gave’ (B) direct object of the verb (C) indirect object of the verb (D) object complement 98. I wonder if you know where he lives. This sentence is a(n) ...... (A) thoughtful A statement (B) polite command (C) indirect question (D) subtle exclamation. 99. An example of gradable adjectives is … (A) each (B) beautiful (C) dead (D) B live 100. A clause differs from a phrase because a clause contains ………. (A) a larger C number of words (B) a fewer number of words (C) a finite verb (D) a non- finite verb
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FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING
1. Afinancialanalystneedsaccountsinformationto(a)maintaintheproductionsectionofthe C business(b)knowwhytransactionscauseincreasesand decreasesinasset(c) adviceonhow to manage the business (d) know how to record transactions in T account. 2. Creditors use accounting information for the purpose of (A) planning sales to a company (B) D controlling acompany's affairs (C)investing inacompany(D) assessing acompany's liquidity.
3. In preparing accounting records, the owners of a business and the business are treated as (A) C the same person (B) having business relationship (C) separate legal entities (D) partners.
4. Oneofthemajorfeaturesofbookkeepingisthatit (a)providespermanentrecordsforall A financial transactions (b) is futuristic innature (c) accepts responsibility for allwrong posting (d) does not give room for double entry procedure 5. Theaccountingprinciplewhichstatesthatforeverydebit entry,thereisacorresponding D credit entryisrecognizedas concept. (A) realization (B) entity (C) going concern (D) duality 6. The art of collecting, recording, presenting and interpreting accounting data is . (A) cost C accounting (B) management accounting (C) financial accounting (D) data processing
7. The assumption that a business has perpetual existence is recognized by . (A) entity C concept (B) periodicity concept (C) going concern concept (D) realization concept 8. Themost importantreasonfor studying accounting isthat(A) theinformation providedby A accounting isuseful inmaking decisions (B)accounting plays an importantrole inasociety (C) the study of accounting leads to a challenging career (D) accounting provides gross profit Information.
Get more latest educational news and resources @ www.readnigerianetwork.com Downloaded from www.readnigerianetwork.com 9. Which of the following accounting conventions suggests that accountants should use a method A of valuation that understates rather than overstates results? (a) Conservatism (b) Historical (c) Monetary (d) Cost 10. Which of the following concepts is expected to hold when a proprietor makes a drawing of A goods or cash from the business? (A) Business entity (B) Realization (C) Going concern (D) Dual-aspect 11. A payment of cash of N20 to John was entered on the receipt side of the cash book in error A and credited to John's account. Which of the following journal entries can be used to correct the error? (A) John: N40 Dr, Cash: 40 Cr. (B) Cash: N40 . (C) John: N20 Dr, Cash: N20 Cr. (D) Cash: 20 Dr, John: N20 Cr.
12. A Sales Day Book is used for recording . (A) credit sales (B) sales returns (C) hire purchase A (D) cash sales 13. A trial balance is usually prepared by an accountant from account balances in the ledger for B the purpose of (A) classifying in the ledger. (B)Testing arithmetical accuracies of the ledger account balance (C) identifying the balance sheet items (D) providing a basis for establishing the accountant's competence.
14. Bola, UTC's regular customer, owed NI 000 on account of a radio bought. If he sent in a cheque A for N500, UTC would send him a (A) credit note (B) debit note (C) journal voucher (D) way bill.
15. Books of original entry are used for (A) recording business transactions (B) the adjustment of A accounts (C) reminding the book keeper to-post transactions in the ledger (D) informing the bookkeeper about the state of affairs.
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16. If salary account is debited instead of stationery account, the error committed is that of (a) A commission (b) omission (c) principle (d) compensation 17. Ledger account is mainly classified into (a) nominal, real and personal accounts (b) fixed and A current accounts (c) management, financial and public sector accounting (d) bankand cash accounts 18. One major advantage of a ledger is that it (A) is a book of original entry (B) is only accessible to D shareholders during distribution (C) removes the need for preparing a balance sheet after each transaction (D) can be used by any type of business. 19. Return inwards is also known as . (A) purchases returns (B) sales returns (C) goods on sale B or return. (D) goods in transit 20. The account which refers to the tangible assets of a company that is of permanent nature is B the (a) personal account (b) real account (c) nominal account (d) cash account 21. The document that is used to acknowledge the acceptance of the return of goods by the seller A from the buyer is known as (A) credit note (B) debit note (C) invoice (D) voucher. 22. The effect of payment of a liability is that it (A) increases both assets and liabilities (B) D increases assets and decreases liabilities (C) decreases assets and increases liabilities (D) decreases both assets and liabilities. 23. The term posting in accounting refers to (A) recording entries in the journal (B) transferring the D balances in the ledger to the trial balance (C) tracing amounts from the journal to the ledger to find errors (D) transferring entries to the ledger from the journal. 24. Which of the following is not a real account? (A) Buildings account (B) Motor vehicle account C (C) Patents account (D) Furniture account 25. Which of the following is not a revenue account? (A) Sales (B) Purchases (C) Discount received B (D) Interest received 26. Which of the following is the basic accounting equation? (A) Assets= Capital + Liabilities (B) A Capital= Assets + Liabilities (C) Liabilities= Assets + Capital (D) Assets= Liabilities – Equity 27. A system where a separate cash book is maintained for small payments is . (A) single entry B (B) imprest (C) float (D) reimbursement 28. An analytical cash book is used to . (A) indicate sources of cash received (B) Categorise B petty cash payment (C) separate cash and bank balance (D) analyse amounts due from debtors 29. The sum of money given to a petty cashier out of which small payments are made is called . D (A) bonus (B) loan (C) advance (D) float 30. A rent of 250,000 was paid by John to his landlord by cheque. The double entry in John’s books A is . (A) debit Rent account, credit Bank account (B) debit Rent account, credit John’s account (C) debit Bank account, credit Rent account (D) debit John’s account, credit Rent account 31. Items in the bank statement of a business but not in the cash book before preparation of bank C reconciliation statement do not include? (A) Bank charges (B) Standing order (C) presented cheque (D) interest on overdraft 32. The correct sequence in data processing is . (A) input →process→ output (B) input→ A output →process (C) process→ input→ output (D) process→ output→ input 33. When a sum of money appears on the credit side of the cash book, but not on the debit side of D the bank statement, the sum is regarded as .(A) uncredited cheques (B) dishonoured cheques (C) direct remitance to the bank. (D) unpresented cheques. 34. Which of the following is not a data processing method? (A) Manual (B) Mechanical (C) D Electronic (D) Formatting
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35. Fatima withdraws goods from the business for personal use. The accounting treatment is to B debit (a) stock account and credit profit and loss account (b) drawings account and credit stock account (c) Profit and loss account and credit drawings account (d) Stock account and credit drawings account 36. Given N - Net Profit 25,000, Cost of sales 25,000, Sales 85,000, Determine the total expenses B (A) N45,000 (B) N35,000 (C) N25,000 (D) N15,000 37. The objective of a trading account is to establish the (a)cost of goods sold (b) gross profit (c) B manufacturing profit (d) net profit 38. The process of allocating the cost of an intangible asset over its useful life is known as (A) D depreciation (B) extraction (C) depletion (D) amortization. 39. The profit of a sole trader increases his . (A) stock (B) asset (C) liability (D) capital D 40. The recording of wages due but not yet paid is an example of, an adjustment for (A) B apportionment of revenue between two periods (B) recognizing accrued expenses (C) recognizing unaccounted revenue (D) recognizing prepaid expenses. 41. The trial balance showed wages, N2,500 and a note stated that N500 wages were due but A unpaid. When preparing final accounts and balance sheet, it is required to debit profit and loss account with (A) N3,000 and show wages accrued N500 in the balance sheet (B) N2,000 and show ages accrued N500 in the balanced sheet. (C) N3,000 and show wages prepaid N500 in the balance sheet. (D) N2,000 and show wages paid in advance N500 in the balance sheet.
42. Which of the following is the effect of an increase in the provision for discount allowed? (A) C Increase in net profit (B) Decrease in gross profit (C) Decrease in net profit (D) Increase in gross profit 43. Why are adjustments in the profit loss account necessary? (A) To cover some expenses of the B following year. (B) To ascertain the actual expenses during the year. (C) To show the provisions made during the year. (D) To show the total expenses paid and income received during the year.
44. A seller of vegetables and fruits should be encouraged to value his stock at the end of a period C using the (a) weighted average method (b) simple average method (c) FIFO method (d) LIFO method 45. Stock valuation is useful because it informs the sales department on the (a) prices of the B competing goods (b) prices that will affect profitability (c) number of goods to produce (d) number of goods to sell 46. Which of the following stock valuation methods is suitable under inflationary conditions? (A) A FIFO (B) LIFO (C) Simple average (D) Weighted average. 47. In the absence of a sales day book or sales account, credit sales can be computed from (A) B creditor control account (B) debtors' control account (C) opening figures of the balance sheet (D) closing figures of the balance sheet. 48. Sales ledger control account contains the total amount in respect of (A) Creditors (B) Debtors B (C) Investors (D) Shareholders. 49. The difference in the sales ledger control account is transferred to the (a) profit and loss B account (b) sales account (c) balance sheet (d) trading account
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50. The following represents extracts from the trading account of a retail outlet for a given month: B Opening stock 2,400 Closing stock 6,400 Other expenses 2,000 Sales 11,000 Profit 900 What is the purchase figure for the month? (A) N13,000 (B) N12, 100 (C) N12,000 (D) N11 ,200
51. The objective of the purchases ledger control account is to establish the (a) credit purchases A (b) net profit (c) total purchase (d) gross profit 52. The principal use of control accounts is to (A) localise errors within the ledgers (B) prevent A fraud (C) Increase Sales (D) record assets and liabilities. 53. The purchases ledger control account of a company had an opening balance of N45 600 and B closing balance of N72600 credit. The company made payments of N437 000 to credit suppliers during the period; and had discount received of N18 600 on this account. What were the credit purchases for the period? (A) N509 600 (B) N482 600 (C) N428 600 (D) N418 400
54. The total of the creditors at the beginning of the year was N4600 and at the end of the year D N5250. During the year, N26500 was paid to suppliers and N130 was received in discounts from these suppliers. The purchases for the year Would be (A) N26630 (B) N27 038 (C) N27 150 (D) N27 280 55. Tunde purchased goods from Femi by cash worth N1,000 with 10% cash discount Tunde’s A purchases ledger control account it to be (a) debit by N100 (b) credited by N100 (c) credited by N1,000 (d) debited by N1,000 56. Which of the following conditions best represents the net effect of discount allowed on credit A sales on the accounts of a business? (A) Decrease in the closing balance of sales ledger control account (B) Increase in net profit. (C) Increase in the value of sales. (D) Decrease in the value of purchases in the trading account. 57. Given: N - Capital at the beginning 20,000, Drawings 3,000, Capital at end 30,000, New B capital introduced 8,000. What is the profit for the period? (A) N4,000 (B)N5,000 (C) N6,000 (D) 8,000 58. Sundry debtors in the balance sheet of Onoja Bakery and Sons totaled N800,000. A provision B of 2%was made for discount and 5% provision for bad and doubtful debts. Find the amount for sundry debtors after provision. (a) N 760,000 (b)N N744,800 (c) N 744,000 (d)N 784,000
59. The starting point for the production of accounts from incomplete records is to (A) D ascertain the total sales. (B) compute the opening stock of goods sold. (C) verify the total purchases (D) prepare an opening statement of affairs. 60. A factory cost excluding prime cost is . (A) overhead (B) material cost (C) fixed cost (D) A administration cost 61. Given: N - Prime cost 220,000, Factory cost 32,000, Work in progress at beginning 25,000, C Work In progress at close 19,000, Administrative expenses 21,000 , Determine the production cost (A) N296,000 (B) N277,000 (C) N258,000 (D)N246,000 62. Given: N - Direct material 10,000, Direct labour 5,000, Direct expenses 2,000, Factory B overhead 4,000. What is the prime cost? (A)N21,000 (B) N17,000 (C) N15,000 (D) N6,000
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63. The difference between a trading account and a manufacturing account is that while C manufacturing account (A) has no particular period, the trading account has (B) does not consider cost of goods involved, the trading account does (C) is concerned with the cost of production, the trading account is not. (D) is not concerned with stock of raw materials, the trading account is. 64. The factory cost of goods produced is made up of (A) prime cost and factory overhead (B) A prime cost and office overhead (C) raw materials consumed and fixed cost (D) raw materials and administrative overhead. 65. The following information is provided for Amusa Company Ltd a manufacturer: N- Prime cost D 999,000, Manufacturing overhead 132,000, Closing work in progress 75,000, Value of finished goods- Transferred to the Trading Account 1116000, If included in the manufacturing overhead were rents of 5,000 paid in advance, what is the opening work in progress for the period? (A) N85,000 (B) N80,000 (C) N70,000 (D) N65,000
66. The manufacturing account is prepared to determine the cost of . (A) trading (B) B production (C) factory overhead (D) raw materials used 67. Subscription in arrears are (A) credited to the income and expenditure account and shown as a C liability in the balance sheet (B) debited to the income and expenditure account and shown as an asset in the balance sheet (C) credited to the income and expenditure account and shown as an asset in the balance sheet (D) debited to the income and expenditure account and shown as a liability in the balance sheet.
68. Where a non-profit organization prepares the accounts using accruals basis of reporting, the C statement showing how well the organization is doing is the (A) appropriation account (B) balance sheet (C) income and expenditure account. (D) receipt and payment account.
69. Departmental accounts are maintained to ascertain the (A) profits of the entire organization B (B) contribution of each department (C) expenses of each department (D) sales of each department. 70. The gross profit disclosed in the branch stock adjustment account represents (a) Head office D profit (b) unrealized profit (c) estimated profit (d) branch profit 71. A partnership on admitting a new member, revalued the business' land and building from N30 C 000 to N70 000. The difference of N40 000 should be (A) credited to land and building account (B) debited to asset revaluation account (C) credited to asset revaluation account (D) credited to profit and loss appropriate account.
72. Adamu, Babaji and Chukwu are in a partnership and they share profit and losses on ratio 3:2:1. D Their respective capitals are N20,000, N15,000, N5,000 on which they are entitled to interest at 5% per annum. The profit for the year before charging interest on capital amounts to N5,500. Calculate the profit for Adamu (A) N583 (B) N1,000 (C) N1,167 (D) N1,750
73. In a partnership business, the net profit serves as opening figure for . (A) trading account D (B) profit and loss account (C) current account (D) appropriation account 74. In the absence of a partnership agreement, profits and losses are shared . (A) in the ratio of B capital (B) equally (C) in the ratio of drawings (D) according to services rendered
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75. Interest on a partner's drawings is debited to the (A) partner's current account and credited to A the profit and loss appropriate account (B) profit and loss appropriation account and credited to the partner's current account (C) profit and loss account and credited to the partner's account (D) partner's current account and credited to the profit and loss account.
76. Partners’ share of profit is credited to (a) a partner’s current account (b) a partner’s capital A account (c) the profit and loss account (d) the profit and loss appropriation account
77. Which of the following is a strong feature of partnership? (A) The life of the partnership is B generally assumed to be indefinite. (B) The owners are liable personally for all debts of the business. The transfer of ownership interest is frequent and easy to accomplish (D) The partnership is complex to form because of many legal and reporting requirements.
78. A bond, acknowledging a loan to a company under the company’s seal, bearing a fixed rate of D interest is known as? (A) certificate (B) agreement (C) bank loan (D) debenture 79. Alabede (Nig.) Limited issued 50,000 ordinary shares if 1 each at a market value of N2.50 each. C The share premium is (A) N125,000 (B) N100,000 (C) N75,000 (D) N50,000. 80. All but one of the following are examples of capital reserves. (A) Share premium (B) D Revaluation surplus (C) Pre-incorporation profit (D) debenture premium 81. Holders of ordinary shares do not have the right to . (A) participate in additional issue of D shares (B) vote at annual general meetings (C) elect the board of directors (D) receive dividend at a predetermined rate 82. In company accounts, profit after tax is shared in the account. (A) appropriation (B) A revaluation (C) current (D) profit realization 83. The amount set aside out of profits earned by a company which is not meant for liability or D contingency are . (A) dividends (B) provisions (C) retained profits (D) reserves 84. Which of the following attracts a fixed rate of dividend? (A) Ordinary shares (B) Founders’ C shares (C) Preference shares (D) Deferred shares 85. Which Of the following ratios gives an idea of the liquidity of a firm? (A) Turnover ratio (B) B Quick ratio (C) Debt ratio (D) Dividend yield. 86. A pension granted to any past president or vice-president shall be charged to the (a) B consolidated revenue fund (b) special pension fund (c) contingency fund (d) development fund 87. Public sector accounting is practiced in .A. public limited companies (B) government B organizations (C) profit making organizations (D) public trading companies 88. The basis of accounting which eliminates debtors and creditors is . (A) cash basis (B) A accrual basis (C) fund basis (D) commitment basis 89. Which of the following is a source of revenue to a local government authority? (A) Poll tax (B) A Excise duty (C) PAYE tax (D) Value added tax 90. Adama's bank account showed an overdraft of N600 on 31st March. On going through the D account, it was discovered that the 1 080 paid into the account on 29th march had not been credited. What should be the balance in Adama’ s cash accounts. (A) N1,680 Dr. (B) N1,080 Cr. (C)N600 Dr. (D) N480 Cr.
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GEOGRAPHY
UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS GEOGRAPHY
1. A map drawn to a scale of 1:180 000 is reduced three times. What is the scale of the new map? D (A) 1:60 000 (B) 1:90 000 (C) 1: 360 000 (D) 1:540 000 2. A map with a scale of 1:60,000 was reduced by ½, the scale of the new map will be? B (A)1:90,000(B)1:120,000 (C) 1:30,000 (D) 1:60,000 (E) 1: 40,000 3. Closed (circular) contours with increasing height inwards indicate a (A) Valley(B)Conical hill (C) B Spur (D) Waterfall 4. If the distance between two points on a map with a scale 1:50 000 is 35mm, what is the C distance between them on the ground? (A). 1.50km (B). 1.55km (C) 1.75km (D). 1.85km 5. Lines joining places of equal sunshine hours on a map are called (A) isobars (B) isotherms (C) C isohels (D) isohyets 6. The topographical map is a (A) map showing physical and socio-cultural features of a rather A small area. b Maps generally published in the books and atlases(C)Large sized wall map of large territories showing political and economic detail (D) Large scale map using a variety of colours and shades to show economic activities 7. The main purpose of any ground survey is to (A) measure and record lines and angles of places D (B) derive accurate baseline data for urban planning (C) have a detailed knowledge of the geology of a place (D) make an accurate map of a part of the earth’s surface.
8. The main use of Abney level in survey is to determine the (A)Angle of inclination(B)Relative A
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location (C) Area coverage (D) Spot height 9. Two points on a river are 10.4 km apart and one stands 400 meters above the other. What is C the gradient along the river between the points ?(A) 1 in 20 b 1 in 24 (C) 1 in 32 (D) 1 in 36 10. Which of the following scales should show the greatest amount of detail on a map? (A) 1: D 2500 000 (B)1: 63 360(C)1:32 (D)1:2 11. A major feature of the tropical continental climates is the (A) relatively low annual range of C temperature (B) regular and reliable rainfall (C) excess of evaporation over rainfall (D) excess of rainfall over evaporation 0 12. A ship radioed message on the high sea at 5.45 pm was heard at Abidjan (5 W) at 11.15 am on D 0 0 0 0 the same day. Find the position of the ship. (A) 90 E(B) 92 30E (C) 95 E(D) 87 30E 13. A soil sample consisting of 49% sand, 28% silt and 23% clay is classified as (A) sand (B) loam (C) A sandy clay (D) clay 14. A solution to wind erosion in semi-arid areas is the establishment of (A) Crop strips (B) C Terrace bounds (C) Shelter belts (D) Diversion channels 15. A traveler crossing the International Date Line from America to Asia at 12 midnight on Sunday B would have to change his watch to 12 midnight on (A) Sunday (B) Monday (C) Tuesday (D) Saturday 16. After condensation, the rate of cooling of a rising air mass decreases because it becomes (A) C stable (B) lighter (C) denser (D) warm 17. All the following are causes of mechanical weathering except—(A) Temperature changes (B) B Rain action (C) Alternate wetting and drying (D) Frost action (E) Action of plants and animals
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS GEOGRAPHY
18. An example of a set of chemically formed sedimentary rocks is (A) sandstone and grit (B) B dolomite and gypsum (C) peat and coal (D) flint and shale 19. An avalanche is a (A) mass of glacial debris transported to the sea (B)mass of snow and rocks B moving downslope under gravity (C)broad crack in the upper part of a glacier (D)steep rock in the coastal area made by wave erosion 20. At which of the following latitudes would you expect more than 24 hours of continuous D 0 0 0 sunshine or darkness at a particular time of the year? (A) 40 N and S (B) 50 N and S (C) 60 N 0 and S (D) 70 N and S 21. Basaltic plateau are usually formed by a lava that is (A) basic and fluid (B) acidic and fluid (C) D acidic and viscous (D) basic and viscous 22. Geomorphology is the study of (A) Surface features of the earth (B) Interior of the earth (C) A The earth as biosphere (D) Earth as a planet 23. In the hydrological cycle, the transfer of water from the earth surface to the atmosphere is C (A) precipitation (B) infiltration (C) evaporation (D) condensation 24. In the interior of the earth (A) The temperature falls with increasing depth (B) The pressure C falls with increasing depth (C) The temperature rises with increasing depth (D) Pressure remains constant with varying depth 25. Koppen’s classification of climate is based on (A) Temperature and pressure (B) Pressure only C (C) Precipitation and temperature (D) Rainfall only (E) Temperature only
26. Lakes formed as a result of landslides, screes or avalanches are known as (A) Man-made lakes B (B) Barrier lakes (C) Caldera lakes (D) Rock-hollow lakes 27. Mountains formed as a result of compressional forces in the earth’s crust are (A) Block B mountain (B) Fold mountain (C) Volcanic mountain (D) Residual mountain (E) Rocky mountain
0 0 0 28. Plant growth normally ceases, when the temperature falls below (A) 0 C (B) 6 C (C) 10 C (D) A 0 15 C 29. Rainfall caused by the movement of air over a mountain is called (A) Orographic rainfall A (B)Cyclonic rainfall (C)Frontal rainfall (D)Thunder shower 30. Rotation of the earth is (A) The movement of the earth in the atmosphere (B) The movement B of the earth on its axis (C) The movement of the earth round the sun (D) The movement of the moon round the earth 31. Seasons are recognized within the tropics primarily on the basis of (A) air masses (B) C temperature (C) rainfall (D) evaporation (E) wind velocity 32. Soil formation includes 1. Weathering, 2. organic activity, 3. Erosion, 4. leaching .(A) 1 and 2 D (B) 1 and 3 (C) 1,2 and 4 (D) all the four 33. Temperature is usually depicted by the line graph because it is a property that (A) fluctuates B over space (B) varies continuously over time (C) measures sensible heat(D) is measured in terms of quantity 34. The circulations of the oceans and the atmosphere, primarily help to redistribute and equalize A global (A) Heat (B) Flora (C) Oxygen (D) Fauna
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35. The cold current that flows northwards through the coast of West Africa is known as (A) A Canaries current (B) Cayenne current (C) Benguela current (D) South equatorial current 36. The fundamental role played by the decomposers in the functioning of the ecosystem is the B (A) disposal of plant and animal waste products (B) release of energy and nutrients locked up in organic litter (C) precipitation of organic and mineral elements from the soil (D) cycling of water and chemical elements 37. The Gulf stream is a (A) cold current in southern Atlantic (B) warm current in north Pacific (C) C warm current in north Atlantic (D) cold current in southern Pacific 38. The intensity of the sun’s heat is not much in polar regions because (A) the earth is flat at the C poles (B) the atmosphere is thick at the poles (C) the angle of insolation is low (D) the angle of insolation is high 39. The major constituents of a typical soil are (A) gravel, sand ,silt and clay(B) mineral matter, B organic matter, air and water(C) stone, mineral matter, pore spaces and micro- organism (D) calcium, magnesium, potassium and sodium 40. The most important environmental resource that sustains natural processes in an ecosystem is B (A) light (B) water (C) air (D) energy 41. The north pole experience continuous dark at the time of (A)Summer solstice (B) Winter B solstice (C) Vernal equinox (D) Autumnal equinox 42. The pedogenic regime of podzolization is typical in areas of (A) coniferous forests (B) high A temperature and humidity (C) dry climate (D) tropical monsoon regions
43. The period when the earth is furthest from the sun is (A) Aphelion (B) Summer (C) Perihelion A (D) Spring 44. The polar radius of the earth measures (A) 6400km (B) 6357km (C) 6227km (D) 6340km B
45. The portion of the earth that contains life is the (A) atmosphere (B) hydrosphere (C) D lithosphere (D) biosphere 46. The processes by which materials are physically transferred from one soil layer to another is A called (A) leaching (B) physical weathering (C) illuviation (D) eluviation 47. The processes of weathering include all but one of the following (A) Alternate heating and D cooling of rocks (B) Peeling off of exposed layers of rounded crystalline rocks (C) Rock rotting because of chemical changes (D) Movement of rock particles downslope because of pull of gravity 48. The stars are not scattered regularly in space but occur in clusters described as (A) Elliptical B bank (B) Galaxies (C) Solar system (D) Star Condensation (E) The milky way 49. The sun is vertical over the Tropic of Cancer on (A) March 21 (B) June 22 (C) Sept. 23 (D) Dec. B 22 50. The term ‘catena’ describes the (A) effect of topography on soil series (B) sequence of A modified soils along a slope profile (C) changes in soil fertility along a slope profile (D) colour differences in soils along a slope profile 0 0 51. The time difference between new Orleans on longitude 90 W and Cairo on longitude 30 E is B (A) 4 hours (B) 8 hours (C) 12 hours (D) 16 hours
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS GEOGRAPHY
52. The vegetation belt associated with valuable hardwood is the (A) Sahel savannah (B) Tropical B rainforest (C) Coniferous forest (D) Mediterranean forest (E) Swampy forest
53. The wind system that brings the harmattan to West Africa is called (A) The north-east trade (B) A The north-west trade (C) The south-west trade (D) The south-east trade 54. What do the Canaries and Guinea currents have in common? (A) they are warm currents (B) C they are cold currents (C) they wash the western coast (D) they flow away from the equator
55. What is an estuary? (A) stream valley continuing into sea making no delta (B) a part of the A stream valley separating delta from sea (C) sand clogged mouth of a river (D) mouth of an aggrading stream 56. What is the length of the equatorial diameter of the earth? (A) 12,737 km (B) 12, 797km (C) D 12, 717km (D) 12, 757km 57. What is the most accurate description of the shape of the earth? (A) A circle (B) A sphere (C) A C geoid (D) An oblate sphere 58. What is the most important element of climate? (A) rainfall (B) temperature (C) pressure (D) B humidity 59. What is the point of origin of an earthquake called? (A) Quakecentre (B) Epicentre (C) C Seismic focus (D) Tectonic point 60. What is the scale of measurement of earthquake based on the amount of energy released C during earthquake? (A) Rossi-Forril scale (B) Mercalli scale (C) Richter scale (D) Beufort scale 61. When condensation occurs in a rising air mass. Latent heat is (A) absorbed by carbon dioxide B (B) lost to the atmosphere (C) stored in the water molecules (D) released as sensible heat
62. Which of the following climates is characterized by an alternate hot season, wet season and D dry season? (A) Equatorial (B) Mediterranean (C) Tropical desert (D) Tropical Monsoon (E) Temperate 63. Which of the following best explains why wind action is more predominant in arid regions than A in humid regions? (A) Loose surface materials and the absence of vegetation cover (B) Excessively high temperatures during the day and night (C) Insufficient and unreliable rainfall (D) Lack of surface drainage and the presence of strong winds (E) Gently rolling terrain and fast-flowing rivers 64. Which of the following environmental hazards is predominant in the southern Coastlands of C Nigeria? (A) Drought (B) Deforestation (C) Pollution (D) Flooding (E) Cyclones
65. Which of the following features is associated with glacial erosion? (A) Esker (B) Moraine D (C) Erratic (D) Cirque 66. Which of the following is a passive soil former?(A) Temperature (B) moisture (C) time (D) C organisms 67. Which of the following is associated with a rejuvenated river? (A) waterfall (B) meander (C) B sand deposits (D) wide U-shaped valley
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68. Which of the following is not a form of precipitation? (A) Snow (B) Sleet (C) Fog (D) Haze D
69. Which of the following rocks is composed of the skeletons of microscopic sea plants and C animals? (A) sandstone (B) slate (C) Chalk (D) Clay 70. Which planet has the largest number known of satellites? (A) Jupiter (B) Saturn (C) Uranus (D) A Neptune 71. In Nigeria, geographical location poses the greatest hindrance to economic development in B the (A) Eastern scarplands (B) Eastern highlands (C) Western highlands (D) Niger-Benue Trough 72. Nigeria’s Federal capital territory shares boundaries with four states , namely (A) Benue, C Kwara,Niger and Kaduna (B) Kano, Kaduna, Niger and kwara (C) Nasarawa, Kogi, Niger and Kaduna (D) Gongola, Bauchi, kwara and Niger 73. The highest highland area in Nigeria is found in the (a) Eastern part(B)North Central (C) North C Eastern (D) South Western 74. The sequence of savanna vegetation zones in Nigeria towards the northern part is (A) Derived, B Sahel, Guinea and Sudan (B) Derived, Guinea , Sudan and Sahel (C) Derived, Sudan, Guinea and sahel (D) Derived, Guinea, Sahel and Sudan 75. Which of the following best describes the relief of West Africa? (A) Swamps and lowlands (B) D hills and mountains (C) scarp slopes and dip slopes (D) plains and plateau 76. Which of the following best explains the increasing importation of food to West African B countries? (A) Bad soils which cannot produce enough food (B) Progressive neglect of food production (C) Unfavourable climates for enough food production (D) too large populations which cannot be satisfied locally 77. Three land-locked countries in West Africa are (A) Republic of Benin, Mauritania and Niger C (B) Togo, Ghana, and Chad (C) Mali, Burkina Faso, Niger (D) Mali, Chad, Senegal 78. A country well known for the production of copper in Africa is (A) Egypt (B) Ghana (C) Republic D of Benin (D) Zambia 79. Tropical Africa is slow in industrial development because of (A) Adequate skilled labour (B) B Inadequate capital (C) Inadequate essential social services (D) Unavailability of raw materials 80. A city may be differentiated from a rural settlement by considering its (A) population size and C age structure (B) skilled and unskilled manpower (C) population and functions (D) road network and industrial estates 81. A good example of tertiary industry is (A) Transportation (B) Manufacturing (C) Mining (D) A Fishing 82. A hinterland is (A) the central part of a country (B) an area which is far from the coast (C) a B landlocked country (D) an area surrounding a city 83. A rural settlement is a settlement classified by (A) Site (B) Attitude (C) Pattern (D) Function D 84. A type of industry that is carried on usually at or near the residence and based on largely D native skills and simple technology is referred to as a (A) local industry (B) light industry (C) consumer industry (D) cottage industry 85. Air transportation has a low patronage because it (A) Is fast (B) Is irregular (C) Is useful in war D time only (D) Is costly
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86. An agricultural practice where water has to be artificially provided during the rainy season is C known as (A) full irrigation (B) supplementary irrigation (C) sprinkler irrigation (D) flood irrigation 87. In a chain of communities in a succession each community is a (A) link (B) step (C) sere (D) C climax 88. One relative advantage of water transport over road transport is its(A) Capacity for passenger C traffic only(B) Ability to link all parts of any country (C) Suitability for bulky and heavy cargo (D) Great speed over long distances. 89. OPEC countries trade in international trade is majorly on (A) Agricultural resources (B) B Petroleum resources (C) Platinum (D) Electronics 90. The area served by a given city is called its (A) Sphere of influence (B) Hinterland (C) Territory A (D) Satellite 91. The driving of cattle from valleys to the pastures on the mountains especially in summer is C known as (A) Trans-location of cattle (B) Trans-movement of cattle (C) Transhumance(D) Summer movement of cattle 92. The G7: the world’s top seven trading nations are (A) USA, South Africa, Japan, UK Italy, C Canada, France (B) UK, Nigeria, USA Japan, Columbia, Spain, Argentina (C) USA, Germany, Japan, France UK, Italy, Canada (D) USA, Zimbabwe, Germany, France, Russia, South Korea 93. The greatest world’s rice producer is (A) China (B) Indonesia (C) India (D) Japan A 94. The level of utilization of resources in a country does not depend only on the population size A but also on the (A) Standard of living (B) Population density (C) Life expectancy (D) Population mobility 95. The world’s principal fishing regions are located on continental shelves where (A) there are no C noticeable ocean currents (B) there are cold ocean currents (C) there are warm ocean currents (D) cold and warm currents meet 96. Which of the following are the advanced market economies of the world (A) EU, the USA and A Japan(B)The USA, Nigeria and France(C)Japan, South Africa and Bangladesh (D) Libya, Scotland and Russia 97. Which of the following groups of industries can be classified as light? (A) textiles, clothing, A footwear, and printing (B) Iron and steel, cement and sugar (C) Non-metallic products and chemicals (D) Tobacco, chemicals, and automobiles 98. Which of the following is a major environmental problem in heavily industrialized regions? (A) D Accelerated erosion (B) Water pollution (C) Frost damage (D) Acid rain
99. Which of the following is the most critical factor of industrial location in modern world (A) Raw B materials (B) Market (C) Transportation (D) Capital 100. Which of the following represent an urban- rural migration (A) a students from the village C school gains admission to the university in the town. (B) Moving to the urban centre for medical services (C) Traveling from Lagos to the village on retirement (D) A civil servants gets transferred from one town to another
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1. A key characteristic of the civil service is (A) Merit system. (B) Patriotism. (C) Quota system. A (D) Transparency. 2. A major cause of inefficiency in public corporations is (A) inadequate patronage by members C of the public (B) absence of an enabling Act or law (C) political interference (D) competition from private firms 3. A major distinction between public corporations and private companies is that (A) Public C corporations provide important services (B) Public corporations are large organizations (C) Public corporations are financed and controlled by government (D) Public corporations are not involved in production of tangible goods 4. A primary agency of political socialization is: (A) the government B the family C the mass B media D the School 5. A process that seeks to transfer ownership and control of public corporations to private C individuals or organizations is called (A) Indigenization (B) Commercialization (C) Privatization (D) Acquisition 6. Adult male suffrage means that (A) All men who pay tax can vote. (B) All adult males can vote. (C) All men can vote. (D) All adults can vote. B 7. All of the following are obligations of citizens, except (A) Obedience to laws. (B) Voting. (C) C Giving alms to beggars. (D) Payment of taxes. 8. An electoral district is (A) A local government area. (B) A ward. (C) A polling booth. (D) A D constituency. 9. Fascism was practiced in Italy under: (A) Benito Masollini (B) Benito Mubarak (C) Benito C Mussolini (D) Benito Mandela 10. Governmental powers are ______in the US presidential system (A) absolutely separated (B)fused (C) absolutely fused (D) separated D 11. In a democracy, franchise is limited by (A) Age. (B) Sex. (C) Wealth. (D) Education. A 12. In the civil service, anonymity means that civil servants must (A) Not receive the credit or A blame for any good. (B) Serve any government impartially. (C) Avoid nepotism and favouritism. (D) Be politically neutral. 13. In which of the following set of countries is a dominant two-party system operated. (A) B Nigeria and Ghana. (B) The United States and the United Kingdom. (C) France and Germany. (D) India and China. 14. One of the advantages of direct election is that: (A) it is too expensive and difficult to conduct C (B) illiterates vote intelligently for their leaders (C) it makes representatives accountable to the electors (D) it offers an opportunity to the electorate to demand for money
15. One of the following is not a feature of a modern state (A) Territorial landmass (B) Population A of People (C) Defined Territory (D) Sovereignty 16. One of the following is not a source of constitution? (A) Customs and conventions (B) civil B service regulations (C) historical documents (D) judicial precedents. 17. One of the objectives of a multiparty system is to (A) Eliminate corruption. (B) Prevent C rigging. (C) Provide alternatives. (D) Avoid ethnicity. 18. Political sovereignty lies with: (A) Head of State (B) Head of Government (C) the Parliament D (D) the electorate
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19. Public corporations are established principally to (A) compete with private firms (B) Raise C revenue for the government (C) provide essential services for the public (D) Promote public accountability 20. Public opinion helps a government to (A) Monitor its socio-cultural policy. (B) Monitor the D economic situation in the country. (C) Punish opposition to its policies. (D) Develop the country in line with the people’s aspirations. 21. Roles that are expected to be performed by an individual in a country are (A) Elections. (B) B Duties. (C) Rights. (D) Services. 22. Separation of powers denotes ______(A) Separation of governmental powers B but not separation of persons (B) Separation of governmental powers and Separation of persons (C) Separation of persons only (D) Separation of powers of government only
23. The assent of the President is required to convert a/an ____ to law (A) Bill (B) Edict (C) Proclamation (D) Decree A 24. The branch of Government that sets agenda for other organs is known as: (A) the bureaucracy B (B) the legislature (C) the executive (D) the mass media 25. The capitalist economy is dictated by: (A) Government economic blueprint (B) Consumers’ D requirements (C) Diminishing returns (D) the forces of demand and supply
26. The central Legislative body in Britain is referred to as ------(A) National C Assembly (B) Knesset (C) Parliament (D) Congress 27. The chairman of the committee that reviewed the 1988 civil service commission was. (A) C Chief P.C Asiodu. (B) Chief Edwin Clerk. (C) Chief Allison Ayida. (D) Chief Simeon Adebo.
28. The highest grade in the civil service is known as (A) Executive cadre. (B) Administrative cadre. B (C) Technical cadre. (D) Clerical cadre. 29. The law of libel limits a citizen’s right to freedom of (A) Association. (B) Expression. (C) B Worship. (D) Movement. 30. The major advantage of the secret ballot is that (A) It ensures the anonymity of each voter. A (B) It is faster than other systems. (C) Nobody can be prevented from voting. (D) It extends the franchise to all adults. 31. The permanent executive includes: (A) Civil servants and not public servants (B) Civil servants C and politicians (C) all career officers that serve any government in power (D) elected and appointed politicians 32. The pressure group that resorts to unconventional methods to achieve its objectives is called D (A) Institutional group (B) Interest group (C) Promotional group (D) Anomic group
33. The three fundamental rights of citizens are (A) Life, liberty and property. (B) Salvation, A property, freedom of thought. (C) Employment, property and social security. (D) Free education, employment and property. 34. When a constitution is not difficult to amend, it is said to be: (A) Rigid (B) Systematic (C) C Flexible (D) Federal 35. Which of the following best describes a sovereign state? (A) a member of the African Union D (B) Freedom from economic control (C) Geographical contiguity (D) Military, political and economic independence
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36. Which of these is an element of state power? (A) Geographical location, population & A economic resources (B) Geographical location, elite interests & economic resources (C) Geographical location, ethnicity & economic resources (D) Geographical location, political crisis & economic resources 37. Which of these is not a method of election? (A) Simple majority. (B) Proportional D representation. (C) Primary election. (D) Co-option. 38. ______plays rule adjudication role in Nigeria (A) The Civil Service (B) The Legislature D (C) The Executive (D) The Judiciary 39. A two-party system of government is one in which (A) only one party performs multiparty D functions (B) the elite dominate political parties (C) only few parties are allowed to operate by law (D) There are two major parties and other minor parties 40. An important agency for social control in the Igbo traditional society was the (A) Age-grade. A (B) Ozo-title holders. (C) Council of Chiefs. (D) Assembly of lineage heads. 41. Educated elites in Nigeria did not like the system of indirect rule because it (A) Did not make C provisions for them. (B) Was exploitative and cumbersome. (C) Made traditional rulers too powerful. (D) Was undemocratic and oppressive. 42. Federalism in Nigeria is best seen as a way of promoting (a)Rapid economic development (B) B unity in diversity (C) even national development (D) democracy 43. In Nigeria, the civil service was first regionalized by the (A) Independence constitution. (B) Richard constitution. (C) Clifford constitution. (D) Lyttleton constitution. B 44. In the Hausa pre-colonial political system, sovereignty was located in the (A) Alkali (B) Emir B (C) Waziri (D) Galadima 45. In the pre-Colonial Hausa/Fulani system, the appointment of an Emir in the caliphate was A approved by (A) Sultan of Sokoto and the Emir of Gwandu. (B) Galadima and the Waziri. (C) Sardauna of Sokoto and the Alkali. (D) Sheu of Bornu and the Galadima. 46. Nationalist activities in British West Africa increased after the second World War because (A) Of the expulsion of Kwane Nkrumah from Britain. (B) Of the return of the educated elite from abroad. (C) Prices of commodities fell below expectation. (D) Africans were nominated to the executive council. B 47. Nigeria started to operate a real federal structure with the introduction of the (A) 1922 Clifford D constitution. (B) 1946 Richard constitution. (C) 1953 London conference. (D) 1954 Lytelton constitution. 48. Nigeria’s First Constitution (A) Lytelton constitution. (B) Clifford constitution. (C) B Macpherson Constitution. (D) Independence constitution. 49. One of the fundamental changes recommended by Adedotun Philips commission is (A) C Frequent movement of staff (B) Standardization (C) Professionalization (D) Stagnation
50. One of the fundamental reversals made by the commission that reviewed the 1988 reform of A the civil service was. (A) Change of Director General to Permanent Secretaries. (B) Change from Permanent Secretary to Director General. (C) Change from Director General to Permanent Administrators. (D) Permanent Professionals. 51. The ………..Local government reforms recognized local government as the third tier of B government (A) 1963 (B) 1976 (C) 1988 (D) 1989 52. The breakdown of the Macpherson constitution was partly caused by the crisis within the (A) A NCNC (B) AG (C) NPC (D) NNDP
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53. The First Executive president of Nigeria was (A) Dr. Nnamdi Azikiwe. (B) Sir Abubakar Tafawa D Balewa (C) General Yakubu Gowon (D) Alhaji Sheu Shagari 54. The first military coup in Nigeria took place on — (A) July 15, 1966 (B) July 27, 1967 (C) January 15, 1966 (D) January 13, 1966 C 55. The first three political parties to be registered in the Fourth Republic were (A) ACN, ANPP and PDP (B) AD, APP and PDP (C) PPA, PDP, CAN (D) APGA, CAN and PDPB B 56. The imposition of unitary form of administration by General Ironsi in 1966 led to (A) More D military institutions (B) Return to civilian rule (C) Independence from British rule (D) civil unrest in the North 57. The institution that preserves civil liberty in Nigeria is the (A) Law Court. (B) Civil Service A Commission. (C) Police Affairs Commission. (D) Public Complaints Commission.
58. The main opposition party during the First Republic was the (A) Northern Peoples Congress B (B) Action Group (C) Northern Element Progressive Union (D) United Middle Belt Congress
59. The state created in Nigeria before 1966 was (A) East central state (B) Lagos state (C) Mid- C Western state (D) North central state 60. The1964 federal election was contested by two major alliances of political parties among B these: (A) All Progressive Grand Alliance and the Northern Peoples Alliance (B) Nigerian National Alliance and United Progressive Grand Alliance (C) National Democratic Coalition and Nigerian Peoples Alliance (D) National Democratic Alliance and Northern Elements Progressive Union 61. Under the 1999 constitution of the Federal Republic of Nigeria there are a total of………. Local government councils (A) 334 (B) 620 (C) 724 (D) 774 D 62. Which of the following ethnic groups had the best egalitarian traditional political system? (A) C Hausa/ Fulani. (B) Yoruba. (C) Igbo. (D) Edo. 63. which of the following is not a major problem of local government in Nigeria (A) Insufficient D funding and limited internally generated revenue (B) Interference and control by higher levels of government (C) Lack of competent and qualified staff (D) lack of sufficient number of local government 64. Which of the following is not a reason for the adoption of a Federal System of government? — (A) Cultural diversities (B) Security consideration (C) Economic consideration (D) Limited resources. D 65. Which of the following is not an example of a public corporation in Nigeria (A) Nigerian C Railway Corporation (B) Federal Radio Corporation of Nigeria (C) Federal Mortgage Bank of Nigeria (D) National Deposit Insurance Corporation 66. Which of the following statements is true about the 1963 and 1979 Constitutions (A) Both A had provisions for the office of the president. (B) Both had provision for the office of the constitutional president. (C) Both provided for the offices of prime minister and president. (D) Both had provision for the office of an executive president. 67. Which of these former Nigerian Heads of State was instrumental to the establishment of B ECOWAS? (A) Sanni Abacha (B) Yakubu Gowon (C) Olusegun Obasanjo (D) Tafawa Balewa
68. In 1975, Nigeria had a strained relationship with one of the following countries over the crisis C in Angola. (A) Britain (B) Israel (C) USA (D) Mexico
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69. Nigeria’s non – aligned posture was criticized on ground of the (A) Non – Proliferation Treaty D (B) ECOWAS Treaty (C) Nuclear Test Ban Treaty (D) Anglo – Nigeria Defence Pact
70. The circumstance that led to the establishment of ECOWAS Monitoring Group (ECOMOG ) was B (A) the bloody civil war in Nigeria (B) the bloody civil war in Liberia (C) the bloody civil war in Sudan (D) the bloody civil war in all West African countries 71. The head of Nigeria’s foreign mission in a Commonwealth nation is best known and addressed C as (A) Ambassador (B) Envoy (C) High commissioner (D) Representative 72. What determines Nigeria’s relations with other countries? (A) Its national interest (B) Its A level of democratization (C) Its citizens political sagacity (D) Its political culture
73. Which of the following best defines foreign policy? (A) The ways in which some actors on the domestic scene translate available power into policies designed to bring positive outcomes (B) The actions of a state towards the celestial environment (C) A set of objectives with regards to the world beyond the borders of a given state and a set of strategies and tactics designed to achieve these objectives (D) The protection of the territorial integrity of a state
C 74. Which of the following military regimes was credited with a dynamic foreign policy? (A) B Gowon administration (B) Murtala Mohammed administration (C) Sani Abacha regime (D) Abubakar regime 75. Which of these is an example of Nigeria’s external cultural relations? (A) Exchange of students A with friendly nations (B) Trade relationships with other countries (C) Financial and economic assistance to needy countries (D) Establishment of diplomatic missions in other countries
76. Which of these is correct about Nigeria’s foreign policy between 1960 and 1966 (A) It was A pro-British (B) It was pro-American (C) It was pro-Soviet (D) It was pro-French 77. Which of these is NOT part of a country’s core or vital interests (A) Economic viability (B) D Political independence (C) Territorial integrity (D) Political brouhaha 78. Which of these is NOT the essence of foreign policy? (A) Promotion and defence of a nation’s C vital interest (B) Protection and promotion of a nation’s strategic interest (C) Protection and promotion of the interest of the political leaders of a country (D) Promotion and defence of the economic interest of a nation 79. Which of these Nigerians has ever played a leading role in the operation of OPEC? (A) Alhaji A Rilwanu Lukman (B) Prof Joe Garba (C) Prof Joy Ogwu (D) Gen. Ike Nwachukwu 80. Which year was the Anglo-Nigerian defence pact abrogated? (A) 1962 (B) 1963 (C) 1960 (D) A 1961 81. A major weakness of the Commonwealth is (A) lack of commitment by member states (B) lack of quorum at annual summits (C) poverty among member states (D) lack of democratic leadership A 82. An essential principle that guides the works of the United Nations (A) The regulation of C international trade (B) The protection of the United States of America against terrorism (C) Respect for sovereign equality of member states (D) The transfer of technology to developing countries 83. In which of these International Organisations is African membership NOT possible? (A) B ECOWAS (B) EU (C) OPEC (D) Commonwealth
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84. Membership of the Commonwealth of Nations means (A) recognition of the Queen as the Head of the commonwealth and the republican states (B) recognition of the Queen as the Head of the commonwealth and not of the Republican States (C) recognition of the Queen as the Head of the independent states and the republican states (D) recognition of the Queen as the Head of all independent states B 85. One major achievement of OPEC is that (A) member nations are now formidable forces to be A reckoned with in international politics (B) world economic depression brought about fall in oil price (C) there is a declining loyalty of its members (D) there are challenges posed by non – OPEC members 86. One of the following groups of states are all members of the ECOWAS (A) Nigerian Ghana and Zaire (B) Guinea, Togo and Cameroun (C) Guinea Bissau, Burkina Faso and Cape Verde (D) Liberia Benin and Ethiopia C 87. The AU was formed by members of OAU (A) On 8th July 2002 at Durban, South Africa (B) On A 8th July 2003 at Abuja, Nigeria (C) On 8th July 2003 at Tripoli (D) On 8th June 2002 at Accra, Ghana 88. The first nation to become a republic within the Commonwealth of Nations is (A) Nigeria (B) Cyprus (C) Ghana (D) India D 89. The first summit of the African Union (AU) took place (A) On February 2, 2004 at Addis Ababa, B Ethiopia (B) On February 3, 2003 at Addis Ababa, Ethiopia (C) On February 3, 2003 at Abuja, Nigeria (D) On February 2, 2004 at Lagos, Nigeria 90. The Non-aligned Movement was established at------in ------. (A) Bombay, 1955 (B) B Bandung, 1955 (C) Lagos, 1972 (D) Addis Ababa, 1955 91. The OAU adopted NEPAD during its summit held in (A) Abuja (B) Lusaka (C) Tunis (D) Cairo D 92. The organ charged with the responsibility of approving the annual budget of UNO is (A) The C Security Council (B) The International Court of Justice (C) the General Assembly (D) The Trusteeship Council 93. To which of these blocs did Nigeria belong before the establishment of the OAU? (A) B Casablanca group (B) Monrovia group (C) Pan African group (D) African and Malagasy group
94. What is the full meaning of ECOWAS? (A) Economic Community for Western African States (B) Economic Community of Western African States (C) Economic Community of West African States (D) Economic Community for West African States C 95. Where and when was the African Union inaugurated? (A) Durban, 2000 (B) Addis Ababa, A 1963 (C) Lagos, 1972 (D) Tripoli, 2001 96. Which of the following is a functionally specialized global international organization (A) C Organization of African Unity (B) United Nations (C) Food and Agriculture Organization (D) African Union 97. Which of the following is a specialized agency of the AU? (A) The Assembly Conference (B) The C Executive Council (C) African Court of Justice (D) The Commission 98. Which of the following is an apt definition of the Commonwealth of Nations? (A) voluntary A association of the independent countries of the former British Colonies (B) association of free nations enjoying equal rights under the British (C) a free association of sovereign independent African States (D) a voluntary association of countries that were formerly in the French colonial empire
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99. Which of the following is NOT a principal organ of the UNO? (A) UNICEF (B) Security Council A (C) Secretariat (D) General Assembly 100. Which of the following metamorphosed into the United Nations? (A) International Labour B Organization (B) League of Nations (C) UNESCO (D) OAU
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS HISTORY
1. is the name of the political head of Zaria (A) Obi (B) Emir (C) Oba (D) Alaafin B 2. was the state which was thrown into anarchy and turmoil as a result of the opening of A the Muni, the sacred heritage by the king under the prompting of Muslim Missionaries. (A) Kanem (B) Salem (C) Njimi (D) Chad 3. Before getting to Nigeria, River Niger passed across (A) Mali (B) Kanem (C) Chad (D) A Morocco 4. Oba is the name of the political head of (A) Benin (B) Kano (C) Bornu (D) Sokoto A 5. The Amazon (female warriors ) Participated actively in defending which of these kingdoms (A) C Oyo empire (B) Benin empire (C) Dahomey Kingdom (D)Ghana 6. The Form of economy of pre-colonial Nigerian peoples was (A) capitalist (B) socialist D (C) communist (D) subsistence 7. The Fulani Jihadists were halted in 1840 at the battle of (A) Tondibi (B) Ngala (C) Adowa D (D) Oshogbo 8. The god of thunder and lightning in the Yoruba Pantheon is called (A) Oduduwa (B) C Oramiyan (C) Sango (D) Afonja 9. The Igbo in the pre-colonial era had (A) dictatorial government (B) government of C chiefs (C) no central government (D) warrant chiefs 10. The language of the Fulani is (A) Hausa (B) Kush (C) Mereo (D) Fulfude D 11. The leader of the Jihad that took place in northern Nigeria between 1804 and 1805 was A (A) Uthman dan Fodio (B) Elkenemi (C) Ahmadu Bello (D) Tafawa Balewa 12. The longest Dynasty in West Africa was (A) Saifawa of Kanem-Born (B) Umayid of Arab A (C) Oranmiyan of Oyo (D) Bayajidda of Daura 13. The name of the traditional head of Nupe is called (A) Etsu (B) Emir (C) El Kanem (D) A Obong 14. The old Oyo empire had as its capital (A) Katunga (B) Ijabe (C) Igboho (D) Sepeteri A 15. The original home of the Fulani was (A) Niger (B) Senegambia (C) Egypt (D) Chad B 16. The original home of the Kanuri people in Borno is said to be in (A) Kenem (B) Buganda A (C) Kenya (D) Zulu 17. The political head of Yoruba towns is known as (A) Oba (B) Alaafin (C) Obi (D) Emir A 18. The provinces and towns under Oyo were headed by local chiefs known as the (A) Oyo Mesi (B) B Baale (C) Oba (D) Baba kekere 19. was the capital of the Western Region in the colonial period. (A) Ife (B) Ibadan (C) Oyo B (D) Abeokuta 20. It was through the activities of that the Niger area became a British sphere of influence D (A) Lord Lugard (B) The United Africa Company (C)Herbert Macaulay (D) The Royal Niger company. 21. Nigeria as we know it today is a product of amalgamation of northern and southern D protectorates in the year (A) 1906 (B) 1910 (C) 1912 (D) 1914 22. Nigeria became a Republic in (A) 1960 (B) 1963 (C) 1965 (D) 1962 B 23. Palm Produce was heavily concentrated in (A) Northern Nigeria (B) North Eastern Nigeria D (C) North western Nigeria (D) Southern Nigeria.
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS HISTORY
24. The first nationalist political party in post-world war II Nigeria was (A) NEPU (B) NPC (C) NCNC B (D) AG. 25. The First railway in Nigeria was constructed in (A) 1916 (B) 1898 (C) 1914 (D) 1960 B 26. The headquarters of Department of Agriculture in colonial Nigeria was (A) Kaduna (B) C Sokoto (C) Ibadan (D) Lagos 27. The missionary responsible for the abolition of killing of twins in Calabar was (A) Mary Slessor A (B) Magaret Thatcha (C) Lindsa Lisau (D) Judith By field 28. The Nigerian Youth Movement was founded in (A) 1920 (B) 1922 (C) 1936 (D) 1937 C 29. The system of administration used by the British in Nigeria was rule. (A) direct (B) B indirect (C) divide and (D) warrant E. The three well known nationalist leaders in Nigeria between 1948 and 1966 were— (A) Dr. NnamdiAziwe, Chief ObafemiAwolowo and AlhajiAhmadu Bello (B) Lord Lugard, Sir Arthur Richards and Sir John Macpherson (C) Herbert Macaulay, Earnest Ikoli and OkonkwoNkem (D) Alhaji Isa Kaita, Dr. K.O. Mbadiwe and chief S.L Akintola ANS; A A 31. The trading company which conquered most of the northern Nigeria was (A) UAA (B) B Royal Niger Company (C) PZ (D) John Holt 32. The University College, Ibadan was established in (A) 1960 (B) 1958 (C) 1948 (D) 1900 C 33. Who was the first woman to drive a car in Nigeria? (A) Dora Akunyuli (B) Farida Waziri (C) Laila D Dongoyaro (D) Funmilayo Ransome kuti 34. was not part of the policy of General Gowon’s administration immediately after the A Nigerian Civil War. (A) redistrcution (B) rehabilitation (C) reconciliation (D) reconstruction
35. National Institute of Social and Economic Research is located in (A) Abuja (B) Ibadan (C) B Lagos (D) Enugu 36. Nigeria became a federation of 19 states in (A) 1875 (B) 1976 (C) 1967 (D) 1978 B 37. Nigeria was divided into 12 states in (A) 1960 (B) 1963 (C) 1967 (D) 1970 C 38. Oodua people’s Congress is a cultural organization in (A) Southwestern Nigeria (B) A Southeastern Nigeria (C) North Central Nigeria (D) North eastern Nigeria 39. The Attorney General of the Federation that was assassinated in Nigeria during Obasanjo’s A Administration was (A) Bola Ige (B) Babawale Idowu (C) Patrick Ndoka (D) Dele Olawale . 40. The capital of Taraba state is (A) Dutse (B) Jalingo (C) Yola (D) Damaturu C 41. The first Governor-General of Independent Nigeria was (A) Okoti Eboh (B) Nnamdi B Azikwe (C) Tafawa Balewa (D) Obafemi Awolowo 42. The former Capital of Nigeria was (A) Calabar (B) Lagos (C) Abuja (D) Ibadan B 43. The head of the electoral body that conducted the June 12, 1993 Election was (A) Humphrey A Nwosu (B) Ovie whiskey (C) Eme Awa (D) Dagogo Jack 44. The Lingua franca of the peoples of Nigeria is (A) English (B) Yoruba (D) Hausa (D) French A
45. The Niger Delta Environmentalist that was killed with eight others in Nigeria is (A) Leedum B mitee (B)Ken Saro wiwa (C) Isaac Boro (D) Nana olomu 46. The question of the Nigerian civil war was raised for the first time at the meeting of the OAU in B September 1967 in (A) Kampala (B) Kinshasa (C) Nairobi (D) Lagos
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS HISTORY
47. The winner of annulled electoion of 1993 was (A) Alhaji Bashiru Tofa (B) Chief M.K.O. B Abiola (C) Dr. Alex Ekwueme (D) Fashola 48. War against indiscipline was a brainchild of (A) Ibrahim Babangida (C) Sani Abacha (C) C Gen. Muhammadu Buhari (D) Aninu Kano 49. Who was the military Head of State that transferred power to Civilian regime in 1999 (A) C Ibrahim Babangida (B) Sanni Abacha (C) Abubakar Abdul Salam (D) Yakubu Gowon 50. Who was the military Head of State that was killed in the second bloody coup of 1966 in Nigeria D (A) Gen. Sanni Abacha (B) Gen. shehu Yaradua (C) Gen. Murthala Muhammed (D) Major Gen. Aguiyi Ironsi 51. Acculturation in colonial administration was associated with the (A) French policy of A Assimilation (B) British policy of direct rule (C) French policy of Association (D) British indirect rule system 52. Banjul is the capital of (A) Niger Republic (B) Britain (C) France (D) Gambia D 53. ECOMOG is a peace monitoring organ of the (A) ECOWAS (B) UNO (C) AU (D) EU A 54. Ghana and Mali were known for production before European incursion. (A) basket (B) B gold (C) tin (D) salt 55. Gold Coast was the former name of which of these countries (A) Nigeria (B) Namibia (C) D Mozambique (D) Ghana 56. Idris Aloma was a revered king of (A) Kebbi (B) Katsina (C) Kanem-Borno (D) Zauzau C 57. Maghrib is a name used to describes countries in North Africa except (A) Algeria (B) D Morocco (C) Tunisia (D) Egypt 58. Mansa Musa is the name of the king of (A) Tekular (B) Gobir (C) Mali (D) Kanem C 59. Nationalist movements started late in French West Africa because (A) Africans were allowed to C enlist in the army (B) Africans felt they were free (C) France suppressed political associations and parties (D) France did not allow Africans to travel abroad. 60. Policy of assimilation was used in West Africa by the (A) French (B) British (C) Dutch (D) A Italians 61. The Berlin Conference of 1884 was convened at the instance of (A) Winston Churchill (B) Otto B von Bismarck (C) Woodrow Wilson (D) Mussolini 62. The first Country to regain Independence in West Africa is (A) Cameroon (B) Senegal (C) Ghana C (D) Gambia 63. The first European explorers to navigate the shores of the Atlantic ocean into the West African C coasts were the (A) Swedish (B) Dutch (C) Portuguese (D) Spanish 64. The French policy of Assimilation in West Africa was a form of (A) Indirect rule (B) direct B rule (C) democracy (D) monarchy 65. The Italians were defeated by the Ethiopians at the battle of Adowa under the leadership of C (A) Emperor Theodore (B) Emperor Yoahnes (C) Emperor Menelik (D) Emperor Jesuit
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66. The Mande speaking people could be found in (B)a Gambia (B) Sierra Leone (C) Mali (D) Nigeria B
67. The militant group formed by Abdullahi Ibn Yacin was known as the (A) Almorarids A (B) Sijilmesa (C) Tartars (D) Mameluks
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS HISTORY
68. The pioneered institution of Higher Education in West Africa is (A) Fourah Bay college (B) A Baptist Academy (C)Birch Freeman (D) Hope Waddel Institute. 69. The Suez canal in Egypt was constructed in (A) 1840 (B) 1875 (C) 1869 (D) 1890 C 70. The treaty of Ucciali was signed between and (A) Italy and Libya (B) Italy and B Ethiopia (C) Italy and Morocco (D) Italy and Tunisia. 71. The use of forced labour was one of the features of (A) British Colonial policy (B) French B colonial policy (C) American colonial policy (D) Japanese colonial policy 72. Which of the following countries was not involved in the peace –keeping effort in Liberia? (A) B Sierra Leone (B) Togo (C) Nigeria (D) Cameroon 73. Who was the king of the Mali empire that displayed wealth in Gold in the Middle East while on C pilgrimage to Mecca (A) Muhmmed Askia (B) Sonni Ali (C) Mansa Musa (D) Sundiata
74. In the mid nineteen century, the king of Buganda that accommodated the first Arab and B Swanhili traders was (A) Kaberaga (B) Kabaka (C) Katriko (D) Lat Dior 75. In the Nineteenth Century Gold and Diamonds were discovered in commercial quantities in C which of these territories in Africa (A) Nairobi (B) Lagos (C) Kimeberley (D) Cairo
76. Namibia is a country in (A) Europe (B) Asia (C) North America (D) Africa D 77. Shaka was a brave warrior in (A) Zulu land (B) Ndebele (C) Mexico (D) Tripoli. A 78. The majority of the slaves were taken from all but except one of these African countries (A) Gold D Coast (B) Dahomey (C) Nigeria (D) Zambia 79. The progress in the Economy of Zanzibar in the first decade of the nineteenth century is A synonymous with (A) Sayyid Said (B) Mamoud Iraq (C) Kabir Muktar (D) Muhammed Ali 80. Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO) is one of the specilised agencies of the (A) B AU (B) UNO (C) ECOWAS (D) EEC 81. How many Continents are in the world (A) 10 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 9 B 82. Indirect rule as a British Colonial policy was first introduced in (A) India (B) Uganda (C) Ghana A (D) Nigeria 83. One of these could be used as a tool to understand the African past. (A) Microscope (B) Satellite D (C) Internet (D) Archaeology 84. Sahara desert was maintained during the trans-Saharan trade by the (A) Berbers (B) B Tuaregs (C) Fulanis (D) Marauders 85. The explorer who discovered the new world was (A) Christopher Columbus (B) Henry the A Navigator (C) Queen Isabela (D) John Cabot 86. The headquarters of the International Court of Justice is at (A) New York (B) Geneva (C) C The Hague (D) Moscow 87. The most –spoken language in Africa is (A) Igbo (B) Hausa (C) Yoruba (D) Ki-Swahili D 88. The place in the desert where travelers stop by to refresh themselves is called (A) Oasis A (B) Eldorado (C) Paradise (D) Aso Rock 89. The principle of non-alignment means that a country (A) is neutral in international trade (B) C does not belong to any world organization (C) does not belong to any of the power blocs (D) has no diplomatic missions abroad
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS HISTORY
90. The resolutions and programmes of the AU are executed by the (A) secretariat (B) B council of ministers (C) secretary general (D) commission of mediation 91. The second most-spoken language in Africa is (A) Hausa (B) Yoruba (C) Igbo (D) Ki-Swahili A 92. The Second World War ended in (A) 1944 (B) 1945 (C) 1950 (D) 1960 B 93. The United Nations Organisation has its headquarters in (A) British (B) USSR (C) USA (D) C China 94. Which of the following bodies is the most representative organ of the United Nations C Organization (A) The Security Council (B) The Trusteeship council (C) The General Assembly (D) The International Court of Justice 95. Which of the following countries did not join the League of Nations (A) France (B) Britain (C) D Spain (D) USA 96. Which of the following countries have the right to veto the decision of the Security Council (A) C Australia (B) Switzerland (C) China (D) Canada 97. Which of the following countries is a permanent member of the security council of the UNO? (A) C India (B) Canada (C) China (D) Italy 98. Which of the following was not a colony of Britain in Africa? (A)Nigeria (B) Gambia (C) Sierra- D Leone (D) Senegal. 99. Which of the following was once Nigeria’s Permanent Representative at the United Nations? (A) D Professor Bolaji Akinyemi (B) Major General Ike Nwachukwu (C) Professor Jubril Aminu (D) Major General Joseph Garba 100. Within the United Nations, the veto power is exercised by (A)UNESCO (B) WHO (C) D General Assembly (D) Security Council
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS HOME ECONOMICS
1. Adequate meal contains (A) All the food nutrients (B) Some of the food nutrients (C) Few A food nutrients (D) Essential food nutrients 2. All these factors affect food habit except (A) Religious belief (B) Cultural belief (C) Economic D factors (D) Carbohydrate factor 3. Another name for vitamin A (A) Retinol (B) Riboflavin (C) Ascorbic acid (D) Cobalamin A
4. Another name for vitamin C is (A) Thiamine (B) Riboflavin (C) Ascorbic acid (D) Niacin C 5. Food contains chemical substances called (A) Nutrition (B) Carbohydrate (C) Nutrients C (D)Water 6. Food poisoning occur when (A) Food is covered (B) Food is warm (C) Food is frozen (D) D Food is infected 7. Fried foods are— (A) Easy to digest (B) Not hard to digest (C) Not easy to digest (D) None of C the above 8. Kwashiorkor is mainly due to Lack of (A) Carbohydrate (B) Fat and oil (C) Protein (D) Minerals C
9. Rechauffe dishes are (A) Freshly prepared foods (B) Cold foods (C) Vegetable foods (D) Left D over foods 10. Scurvy is caused by the deficiency of (A) Protein (B) Vitamin D (C) Vitamin A (D) Vitamin C D
11. The dietary guide is to (A) Promote health (B) Promote disease (C) Promote sports (D) A Promote too much eating 12. The fat soluble vitamins are (A) A, B, E and K (B) A, D, E and K (C) A, C, E and K (D) A, D, C and K B
13. The methods of cooking includes all except (A) Baking (B) Toasting (C )Boiling (D) None of the D above 14. Too much sugar in the body could lead to (A) Urinating (B) Heart disease (C) Liver disease (D) D Diabetes 15. Vitamin D is for the (A) Formation of nerves (B) Formation of tissue (C) Formation C of bones (D) Formation and digestion 16. Vitamin K performs the function of (A) Blood cell (B) Blood flow (C) Blood use (D) Blood clot D
17. Water soluble vitamins are (A) A, C and Bcomplex (B) A, Eand B complex (C) C and B C complex (D) A and B complex 18. What is an appetizer? C (A) Meal eaten after the main meal (B) Meal eaten as the second course meal (C) Meal eaten as the first course meal (D) Meal eaten as the last course meal 19. What is steaming? (A) Cooking with water vapor (B) Cooking with water boiling (C) Cooking A with dry heat (D) All of the above 20. What is under nutrition? (A) Consumption of less nutritious foods (B) Consumption of A adequate nutrients (C) Consumption of balance nutrients (D) Consumption of available foods
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS HOME ECONOMICS
21. Which is not a communicable disease? (A) Measles (B) Marasmus (C) Chicken pox (D) B Tuberculosis 22. Which is not a type of food storage? (A) Moist storage (B) Dry storage (C) Refrigerator storage A (D) Freezer storage 23. Which is the best method of cooking food to retain nutrient? (A) Roasting (B) Boiling (C) C Steaming (D) Frying 24. Which of these is not correct (A) Carbohydrate is to provide fat to the body (B) Protein is to A build the body (C) Vitamin is to maintenance of metabolism in the body (D) Water is vital for life 25. Which of these is responsible for proper bone formation? (A) Protein (B) Carbohydrate (C) C Calcium (D) Cobalamin 26. A group of people related by blood and living together is regarded as a (A) Community (B) D Society (C) Home (D) Family 27. Disposal of household refuse should be done (A) Once a week (B) Every day (C) Twice a week B (D) Once a week 28. Family can be identified as (A) Larger society (B) Community society (C) Nucleus of society C (D) Entire society 29. Home Management involves: (A) Addressing a home and making it a place of comfort and C happiness (B) Structuring a home and making it a place of comfort and happiness (C) Managing a home and making it a place of comfort and happiness. (D) Dedicating a home and making it a place of comfort and happiness 30. Identify the steps in Home management (A) Planning, organizing, implementing, A Evaluation (B) Organizing, planning, implementing, Evaluation (C) Implementing Planning, organizing, , Evaluation (D) Planning, implementing, organizing, Evaluation 31. In choosing a curtain for the home we must consider all except: (A) Colour of the wall (B) D Colour of the ceiling (C) Colour of the furniture (D) Colour of all colours 32. In cleaning of the sitting room we must do all except: (A) Open the windows (B) Close the B windows (C) Dust the furniture (D) Sweep the floor 33. Meal planning involves (A) Number to be served (B) Quantity of food to cook (C) Health D status of family members (D) All of the above 34. Money management depend on all except one: (A) How money is dedicated (B) How money A is utilized (C) How money is organized (D) How money is spent 35. Saving means (A) Money set aside for use in future (B) Money spent yesterday (C) Money A spent last month (D) Money spent outside the budget 36. Steps in making family budget does not include: (A) List all the commodities and services D needed (B) Estimate cost (C) Estimate the total expected income (D) Estimated money spent
37. Which is not a type of family system in Nigeria? (A) Nuclear family (B) Polygamous family (C) C Polyandry family (D) Extended family 38. Which is not a type of marriage in Nigeria (A) Christian marriage (B) Islamic marriage (C) C Hindu marriage (D) Traditional marriage
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS HOME ECONOMICS
39. Whish of these is not a benefit of energy management? (A) Energy is conserved (B) Eliminates C fatigue (C) Energy is fully used up (D) Reduces amount of time on a task 40. Choose a type of seam from these options (A) Run and stand (B) Run and fell (C) Close seam C (D) English seam 41. Choose the most correct option (A) Clothing is the material used in sewing (B) Clothing is the B fabric used in sewing (C) Clothing is the not material used in sewing (D) Clothing is the not the fabric used in sewing 42. Dying a fabric will require most importantly (A) Colour (B) Table (C) Wax (D)Dye D
43. Natural fibres include only one of the options (A) Cotton (B) Linen (C) Wool (D) All of the D above 44. Stitches are divided into all except (A) Basic stitches (B) Embroidery (C) Permanent stitches (D) C None of the above 45. Tie-dye involves (A) Wax tying (B) Dye tying (C) Fabric tying (D) Stick tying C 46. Which is not a factor to consider in clothing selection? (A) Sex (B) Age (C) Occupation (D) Hair D
47. Which of these is a basic stitch? (A) Back stitch (B) Temporary stitch (C) French knot (D) Shell A hem 48. Which of these is a factor to consider in clothing selection? (A) Figure type (B) Figure cloth (C) A Figure shoe (D) Figure choice 49. Which of these is not used in tie-dye? (A) Water (B) Caustic soda (C) Soap (D) Hydrosulphide C
50. Wool is obtained from (A) Plant (B) Synthetic (C) Silk (D) Animal D 51. Determine the option that is not a career opportunity in Home Economics (A) Dietician (B) D Researcher (C) Teacher (D) Jester 52. In family budgeting and expenditure Home Economics is related to ------discipline (A) C Physics (B) Chemistry (C) Economics (D) Sociology 53. In interrelationship with family members Home Economics is related to ------discipline (A) A Sociology (B) Psychology (C) Biology (D) Economics 54. In law of heat as applied to toaster, iron, Home Economics is related to ------discipline (A) B Mathematics (B) Physics (C) Psychology (D) Biology 55. Someone who studied Family and child development can work as: (A) Childhood Caterer in D schools (B) Interior decorator in schools (C) Childhood Food vendor (D) Early Childhood educator 56. Someone who studied Food and Nutrition can work as a: (A) Caterer (B) Doctor (C) Nurse (D) A Vendor 57. The scope of Home Economics include: (A) Food and Nutrition, Home Economics, Clothing B and textile (B) Food and Nutrition, Home management, Clothing and textile (C) Food and Nutrition, Home management, Fabric cutting (D) Food and Nutrition, Home Design, Clothing and textile
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS HOME ECONOMICS
58. What are the basic philosophy of Home Economics (A) How to improve only goods and D services used by individuals, families and communities (B) How to determine only the needs of the individual, family, institution and community (C) How to become responsible member of families and communities (D) How to determine the need and improve individual, family, institution and community 59. What is the basic philosophy of Home Economics (A) How to improve only goods and services D used by individuals, families and communities (B) How to determine only the needs of the individual, family, institution and community (C) How to become responsible member of families and communities (D) How to determine the need and improve individual, family, institution and community 60. A pregnant woman is carrying ------in her womb (A) Baby (B) Child (C) Foetus (D) C Pregnancy
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
1. "Conceits more rich in matter than in words/Brags of his substance, not of ornament" (Act D II.SC.IV). The structure of this dramatic speech is an example of ...... (A) paradoxical structure (B) parallel structure (C) circular thought pattern (D) antithesis. 2. A drama form that teaches godliness, righteousness and goodwill to all men among rulers and A ordinary citizens is called----- (A) sentimental comedy (B) heroic tragi-comedy (C) heroic farce (D) satire 3. A dramatic composition in which many or all the words are sung is called---- (A) Oratorio (B) B Opera (C) Comedy (D) Concert 4. A humorous play based on an unrealistic situation is considered in drama as--- (A) comedy C (B) tragedy (C) farce (D) burlesque 5. A play is a tragedy when------(A) the author presents life as a hopeless adventure (B) D the main character dies before the play ends (C) there is much bloodshed in the play (D) a weakness in the main character leads to his downfall. 6. A play that ends on a sad note is a ------(A)tragicomedy (B) comedy (C) tragedy (D) C farce 7. A play that stirs readers to pity, fear and laughter is called (A) tragicomedy (B) farce (C) A absurd (D) melodrama 8. A play that tells a single story, has one setting and takes place within a specified period is said C to------(A) be heavily moralistic (B) be clearly cohesive (C) possess the three unities (D) have tragic elements 9. A play which emphasizes laughter and amusement at the expense of credibility is called---- D (A) cartoon (B) elegy (C) comedy (D) farce 10. A play with a single character is called ...... (A) solo-drama (B) monodrama D (C) play let (D) All of the above. 11. A tragic figure is a character who is (a) worthy of emulation (b) ennobled though suffering (c) C unbending and irredeemable (d) completely transformed. 12. A type of drama that celebrates or satirizes the follies of characters is called---- (A) comedy A (B) tragedy (C) farce (D) tragicomedy 13. A type of drama that highlights suspense and romantic sentiment, with characters who are B usually either clearly good or bad is called ----(A) farce (B) melodrama (C) comedy (D) burlesque 14. According to Aristotle, the key to tragedy is the concept of (A) cartharsis (B) chorus (C) A representation(D) plot 15. Aristotle’s word for a tragic hero’s shortcoming is (a) hubris (b) harmatia (c) denouement B (d) dilemma 16. As a comic dramatic piece, a farce makes use of improbable situations and characters that are A (A) exaggerated (B) extravagant (C) understanding (D) poor 17. Both comedy and tragedy have ------(A) climax (B) tragic hero (C) stanza (D) happy A ending 18. Farce can be described as a dramatic piece marked by------(A) movement from serious to the light-hearted mood (B) comic and exaggerated actions (C) actions devoid of meaning (D) gloomy actions with momentary reliefs B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
19. In -----, the major character is selfish, devilish, wicked and exploitative. (A) Comedy (B) D Tragicomedy (C) Farce (D) Melodrama 20. In a play, tragic responses are brought to a head through three elements (A) reversal, A recognition and suffering (B) weakness, suffering and resolution (C) flaw, fear and recognition (D) reversal, suffering and conclusion. 21. In de Graft’s Sons and Daughters James Ofosu is treated with ...... (A) ridicule (B) B dramatic irony (C) sarcasm (D) melodramatic spectacle 22. In drama, a flashback occurs when ...... (A) a character’s inner mind is D revealed (B) the playwright supplies a missing link in a character’s past (C) a character drops an idea that hints at the future (D) a character drops an idea that hints at the concealed past.
23. In drama, light, furniture, custom and make-up are part of ...... (A) stage décor (B) A stage architectonics (C) stage proxemics (D) kineaesthetics. 24. In most of Shakespeare’s drama, when a character speaks in aside, the act is referred to as C ...... (A) stream of consciousness (B) sleep-walking (C) soliloquy (D) monologue.
25. In Romeo and Juliet, Romeo died ...... (A) of self-poison (B) being murdered by A Friar Laurence (C) the capulet (D) unknown assassins. 26. In Sons and Daughters, Fosuwa symbolizes (A) tradition and the old order (B) modernity (C) A youthful exuberance (D) patriarchy 27. In Sons and Daughters, the character of James Ofosu symbolizes (A) poverty (B) old values (C) B new values (D) wealth. 28. In tragedy, everything must be artistically balanced; this means that (A) the setting must be in one place (B) nothing superfluous is included and nothing essential omitted (C) character and action are in equal ratio (D) there should be equal ratio of male and female characters B 29. ------is a drama form which depicts royal wickedness of English kings and queens. (A) A Heroic drama (B) Heroic tragicomedy (C) Heroic farce (D) Satire 30. ------is a drama form which ends happily after a number of initial tragic occurrences are A resolved (A) Tragicomedy (B) Melodrama (C) Heroic Drama (D) Farce 31. ------is the drama form which ends up on a note of happiness after some initial minor D problems. (A) Tragedy (B) Farce (C) Heroic drama D. Comedy 32. Joe de Graft was a prominent playwright from (A) Ghana (B) Nigeria (C) Cameroon (D) Sierra A Leone 33. Melodrama is the genre of drama which is characterized by emphasis on theatricality over (A) characterization (B) plot (C) setting (D) point of view A 34. One basic feature of melodrama is ...... (A) humour (B) high-spirit (C) C triumph of vice over virtue (D) overcome of evil by good 35. One of the peculiar features of drama in general is ------(A) humour (B) satire (C) D sarcasm (D) action 36. Romeo and Juliet portrays the (A) chaos and passion of being in love (B) moral situation of the A society (C) happiness of falling in love (D) evitability of fate
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
37. The first part of a Greek tragedy is called a prologue and is also a play’s (A) envoy (B) B exposition (C) rising action (D) climax 38. The most basic feature of drama is ………………………….. (A) monologue (B) suspense (C) action C (D) plot 39. The play Romeo and Juliet begins with (A) serious argument (B) sincere love (C) street C fight (D) secret marriage 40. The play Romeo and Juliet is an example of (A) realistic comedy (B) romantic comedy (C) B satiric comedy (D) ironic comedy 41. The term farce is now used to cover a form of drama which employs (A) mistaken identity A (B) slapstick (C) reversal of roles (D) romantic plot 42. The tragic hero’s flaw is called ...... (A) hubris (B) harmatia (C) caesura (D) peripeteia. B 43. The word “cast” in a play refers to (A) Three of the actors (B) A few of the actors (C) All the C actors (D) An exclusive social class in the play 44. Theatre of the absurd portrays people whose sufferings seem (A) unfortunate (B) B ridiculous (C) indefinite (D) sympathetic st 45. Tragecomedies developed in which century? (A) 18th (B) 19th (C) 20th (D) 21 C C 46. When a play includes witty and graceful situation, it can be classified as (A) comedy of B manners (B) high comedy (C) low comedy (D) comedy of the absurd 47. When the plot of a play begins in the middle, and only unfolds the past through flashback, it is B called ...... (A) complex-plot (B) media res (C) prefiguration (D) None of the foregoing 48. Which of the following is true of Opera? (A) They are plays with elaborate music (B) They are D plays with elaborate songs (C) They are plays with dance (D) A and B. 49. Which of the following statements best describes comedy? (A) A play in which nobody dies D (B) A play which makes us laugh (C) A play in which the hero is a clown (D) A play which ends happily 50. A story in which the characters are animals but behave like human beings is a (A) fable (B) A fairy tale (C) folktale (D) parable 51. Considering the way Nnu Ego’s life ends in The Joys of Motherhood, the title of the novel can A be said to be (A) ironic (B) ambiguous (C) sarcastic (D) euphemistic 52. In ‘The Old Man and the Medal’, when in answer to the question if she had slept well Kelara answered “I counted the matting in the roof”, she meant that (A) she slept very well (B) she was awake when she should have been sleeping (C) she was thinking of mending the roof (D) there was a hole in the roof B 53. In a novel, the antagonist is usually called a (A) narrator (B) hero (C) villain (D) clown C 54. In Nineteen Eighty-four, the most important character in the story is____ (A) Winston Smith A (B) Julia (C) O’Brien (D) Big Brother 55. In Nineteen Eighty-Four, the poet is (A) O’Brien (B) Ampleforth (C) Syme (D) Martin B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
56. In The Joys of Motherhood, Nnaife enlisted in the army because (A) he was running away B from his wives and children (B) his white employers had gone home to Europe leaving him jobless (C) he wanted to prove that he was a man (D) he was looking for adventure
57. In The Joys of Motherhood,Nnu Ego at one point, tried to commit suicide because (A) B someone used witchcraft on her (B) her only child had just died (C) she could not bear the shame of being barren (D) she did not like Nnaife’s appearance 58. In The Old Man and the Medal, when in answer to the question if she had slept well Kelara B answered “I counted the matting in the roof”, she meant that (A) she slept very well (B) she was awake when she should have been sleeping (C) she was thinking of mending the roof (D) there was a hole in the roof 59. Nineteen Eighty-four can be described as a _____ (A) political satire (B) comedy (C) A tragedy (D) chronicle 60. The expression “to break the leg of an antelope”, which is found in The Old Man and the Medal D means______(A) hunting (B) travelling (C) marriage (D) fighting 61. The Joys of Motherhood suggests that (A) sometimes men are irresponsible as fathers and A husbands (B) children always grow up to help their parents (C) husbands always appreciate hardworking wives (D) women care for their children but neglect their husbands
62. The major thematic preoccupation of Joys of Motherhood is (A) politics (B) economic C emancipation (C) motherhood (D) colonialism 63. “The piercing chill I feel, My dead wife’s comb in our bedroom Under my heel”(trans. By Harold Henderson) What is the form of the above poem? (A) haiku (B) triplet (C) tercet (D) quatrain A 64. A sonnet is a poem of_____ lines (A) 15 (B) 14 (C) 16 (D) 12 B 65. A stanza of three lines linked by rhyme is called a______(A) couplet (B) ballad (C) tercet C (D) quatrain 66. From David Rubadiri’s “An African Thunderstorm” “Clouds come hurrying with the wind” A contains an example of (A) alliteration (B) assonance (C) enjambment (D) rhyme 67. In poetry, double rhyme can be used to bring out (A) irony (B) unity (C) theme (D) A conclusion 68. The stanzas which make up a ballad usually consists of_____lines (A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 4 (D) 9 C 69. The tone in ‘Heritage of Liberation’ is_____ (A) lamentative (B) invocatory (C) explanatory B (D) melancholic 70. The typical rhyme scheme of an English sonnet is (A) ababcdcdefefgg (B) ababcdcdeeff A gg (C) abcd abcd efef gg (D) abcc abcd efff gg 71. The words “prove” and “above” are examples of the rhyme called (A) exact (B) half (C) eye C (D) slant 72. When words in poetry rise and fall in a measured way, it is referred to as______(A) rhyme B (B) rhythm (C) repetition (D) euphemism 73. Which of the following is NOT a form of poetic expression? (A) Octet (B) Lyric (C) Sonnet (D) A Elegy
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
74. ______is the deliberate use of exaggeration for the sole purpose of humour in poetry (A) B Simile (B) Hyperbole (C) Onomatopoeia (D) Oxymoron 75. A character who remains unchanged in a story is described as (A) round (B) flat (C) stock B (D) dynamic 76. A figure of speech which refers to the repetition of the initial consonant sounds of poetry with A a rhythmic effect is called______(A) alliteration (B) assonance (C) apostrophe (D) euphemism 77. A literary work that appropriates matter and/or manner from a previous work is C ...... (A) archetype (B) imitation (C) adaptation (D) sub-text. 78. A tragic plot consists of (A) many people in various disastrous events (B) important incidents D (C) noble and ordinary characters (D) a self-contained and concentrated single action.
79. An expression or word which stands for a whole is called______(A) metonymy (B) allegory C (C) synecdoche (D) repetition 80. Assonance refers to the ______(A) repetition of alphabets in a line of poetry (B) repetition B of vowels in a line (C) agreement of vowel sounds in a line (D) agreement of consonant sounds in a line 81. Characters whose role contribute to the movement of plot are called ...... (A) C Minor characters (B) free characters (C) central characters (D) round characters.
82. Identical vowel sounds create one of the following: (A) euphony (B) cacophony (C) D alliteration (D) assonance 83. Identify the odd one out of the following ……………….. (A) Aside (B) Costume (C) Narrative C (D) Stage 84. Identify the odd one out of the following : (A) Décor (B) costume (C) Make-up (D) Mime. D 85. In a novel, the location of the story is referred to as the (A) stage (B) exposition (C) subject D (D) setting 86. Point out the odd item: (A) Macbeth (B) Twelfth Night (C) The Concubine (D) Romeo and C Juliet 87. Pregnant clouds Ride stately on its back The clouds are described as “pregnant” because (A) C no one knows what is in them (B) they look like a fat woman (C) they bring rainfall (D) they move clumsily 88. The antagonist in a tragedy is ------(A) any character in the tragedy (B) the wife of the protagonist (C) the character who provides comic relief (D) the character set in opposition to the main character D 89. The device whereby the narrator recalls something that happened in the past is (A) B foreshadowing (B) flashback (C) epiphany (D) prologue 90. The first person narrative point of view is characterized by the frequent use of (A) present D tense (B) singular nouns (C) past tense (D) the pronouns “I” and “we” 91. The most mimetic term in critical vocabulary is ...... (A) plot (B) imitation (C) C character (D) action.
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
92. The structure of a story which shows the cause and effect of events is the (A) denouement (B) D climax (C) imagery (D) plot 93. When one scene leads to another in inextricable chain of relationships, it is called ...... (A) B episodic play (B) caused play (C) metaphysical play (D) All of the above. 94. ".. I would / Love you ten years before the Flood / And you should, if you please, refuse / Till the conversion of the Jews" The literary device used in the above extract is (A) allusion (B) innuendo (C) satire (D) archetype A 95. “That pierced the fearful hollow of thine ear” is an example of ...... (A) relative clause (B) figure of speech (C) personification (D) noun clause D 96. “Wilt thou be gone? It is not yet near day; It was the nightingale and not the lark, That pierced C the fearful hollow of thine ear”. The first sentence here is an example of ...... (A) interrogative sentence (B) apostrophe (C) rhetorical statement (D) request 97. From Andrew Marvell’s “To His Coy Mistress” Had we but world enough, and time, / This D coyness, lady, were no crime. / We could sit down and think which way / To walk, and pass our long love’s day. This poem opens in the lines above like a (A) Sonnet (B) praise poem (C) ballad (D) dramatic monologue 98. Identify the odd term (A) Enjambment (B) Rhyme (C) Plot (D) Alliteration C 99. In the village / Screams of delighted children / Toss and turn / In the din of whirling wind, / Women / Babies clinging on their backs / Dart about / In and out / Madly / The Wind whistles by / Whilst trees bend to let it pass. In the above extract, the movement of the women is (A) leisurely (B) hurried (C) orderly (D) slow B 100. Tossing up things on its tail / Like a madman chasing nothing These lines contain an example B of a (A) metaphor (B) simile (C) metonymy (D) paradox
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS MATHEMATICS
1. (1.28 x 104 ) ÷ (6.4 x 102 ) equals D (A) 2 x 10-5 (B) 2 x 10-1 (C) 2 x 100 (D) 2 x 101 (E) 2 x 105 2. A man and wife went to buy an article costing N400. The woman had 10% of the cost and C the man 40% of the remainder. How much did they have altogether? (A) N216 (B) N200 (C) N184 (D) N144 (E) N100 3 3. Add the same number to the numerator and denominator of /18. If the resulting fraction is D ½, then the number added is (A)13 (B)14 (C)15 (D)12 (E)11 4. After getting a rise of 15%, a man’s new monthly salary is N345. How much per month C did he earn before the increase? (A) N330 (B) N396.75 (C) N300 (D) N293.25 (E) N360 5. Assuming loge 4.4 = 1.4816 and loge 7.7 = 2.0142, then the value of loge ¼ is A (A) 0.5326 (B) 3.4958 (C) 0.4816 (D) 0.0142 (E) 1.3594 6. Evaluate 2 + 4 / C ଶ (A) ¼ ିଵ ଶ (B) 5/4 (C) 9/4 (D) 4 (E) 9 7. Evaluate correct൫ to 4 decimal൯ places 827.51 x 0.015. B (A) 8.8415 (B) 12.4127 (C) 124.1265 (D) 12.4120(E) 114.1265 8. Express 130 kilometres per second in metres per hour. B (A) 7.8 x 105 (B) 468 x 106 (C) 7,800,000(D) 4.68 x 106 (E) 780 x 10-6 9. Find the square root of 170-20√30 C (A) 2√10-5√3 (B) 3√5-8√6 (C) 2√5-5√6 (D) 5√5-2√6 (E) 5√10-2√3 10. If (25)x-1 = 64(5⁄2)6, then x has the value B (A)7(B)4 (C)32 (D)64(E)5 11. If a circular paper disc is trimmed in such a way that its circumference is reduced in the D ratio 2:5, in what ratio is the surface area reduced? (A) 8:125 (B) 2:5 (C) 8:25 (D) 4:25 (E) 4:10 12. In base ten, the number 101101 (base 2) equals C (A) 15(B) 4(C) 45 (D)32(E) 90 13. Simplify C ೣ ౮షభ ହ ୶ ଶହ ౮శభ (A) 5 ଵଶହ (B) 5 (C) 5 (D) 5 (E) 5 ( / ) / / / 14. Simplify ଶ୶ିଵ ୶ାଶ ିହ ୶ାଵ ଷ E ( ర /య ) మ ళ ିଵ ൫ ାଵ ൯ మ మ ିଵ (A) / (B) / (C) + 1 (D) a (E) / / / / / 15. Simplify ଶ ଷ ÷ ିଵ ଷ ଶ ଵ ଷ A ܽ ଵ ଶ ଶ ଵ ଷ ܽହ ଶ ଷ ܽ ܽ ݂ ݃ ℎ ݂ ݃ ℎ (A) ( / ) (B) (C) / / (D) (E) మ ଶ ହ ଶ ହ ସ ଽ ଵ 16. ఱ ళ మ మ A Simplify݃ ݂2ℎ 1 x ݂ ݃ ℎ ݂ ݃ ℎ ହ 1 ଵଶ − ଼ ହ 13 11 9 5 (A) /6 (B) /20 (C) /30 (D) /4 (E) /3 17. Solve the system of equations: 2 = 32, 3 = 27 A (A) (3,2) (B) (-3,2) (C)௫ା௬ (3,-2)ଷ௬ (D)ି௫ (-3,-2)(E) (2,2) 18. The annual profits of a transport business were divided between the two partners A and B C in the ratio 3:5. If B receives N3,000 more than A, the total profit was: (A) N5,000 (B) N1,800 (C) N12,000 (D) N24,000 (E) N8,000 19. The diameter of a metal rod is measured as 23.40cm to four significant figures. What is D
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS MATHEMATICS
the maximum error in the measurement? (A) 0.05cm (B) 0.5cm (C) 0.045cm (D) 0.005cm (E) 0.004cm 20. The ratio of the price of a loaf of bread to the price of a packet of sugar in 1975 was r :t, in C 1980 the price of a loaf went up by 25% and that of a packet of sugar by 10%. Their new ratio is now (A) 40r:50t (B) 44r:50t (C) 50r:44t(D) 55r:44t(E) 44r:55t 7 1 3 2 2 21. The sum of 3 /8 and 1 /3 is less than the difference between /8 and 1 /3 by (A) 3 /3 (B) C 1 5¼ (C)6½ (D)0(E)8 /8 22. Two distinct sectors in the same circle subtend 1000 and 300 respectively at the centre of D the circle. Their corresponding arcs are in the ratio (A) 1:100 (B) 3:1 (C) 5:2 (D) 10:3 (E) 13:30 23. What is (49 ) (0.01)? D ݈݃ − ݈݃ଵ (A) 49 100 (B) /2 + 2 (C) 7 + 2 (D) 2 + 2 (E) 2 /2 ଶ 24. What is theܽ⁄ number whoseܽ logarithm to base 10 is .3482? ܽ E (A) 223.6ܽ (B) 0.2228 (C) 2.235 ; (D) 22.37 (E) 0.02229 25. When a dealer sells a bicycle for N81 he makes a profit of 8%. What did he pay for the C bicycle? (A) N73 (B) N74.52 (C) N75 (D) N75.52 (E) N87.48 26. Write the decimal number 39 to base 2. A (A) 100111 (B) 110111 (C) 111001 (D) 100101 (E) 19.5 27. A father is now three times as old as his son. Twelve years ago, he was six times as old as E his son. How old are the son and the father? (A) 20and45 (B) 100and150(C) 45and65 (D) 35and75(E) 20and60 28. A steel ball of radius 1cm is dropped into a cylinder of radius 2cm and height 4cm. If the A cylinder is now filled with water, what is the volume of the water in the cylinder? 44 3 3 38 3 40 3 32 3 (A) /3 cm (B) 12 cm (C) /3 cm (D) /3 cm (E) /33 cm 29. Find a two-digit number such that three times the tens digit is 2 less than twice the units D digit, andߨ twice the numberߨ is 20 greater thanߨ the number obtainedߨ by reversingߨ the digits. (A)24(B) 42 (C) 74 (D) 47 (E) 72 30. Find the roots of the equation 10 13 3 = 0 E (A) x =3/5or–½ (B) x =3/10or-1ଶ (C) x =-3/10or1 (D) x =1/5or-3/2 (E) x −or 3/2 ݔ − ݔ -1/5 = 31. If a function is defined by ( + 1) = 3 + 4, find (0). D (A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 0ଶ (D) 8 (E) 2 If sin x equals cosine x, what݂ ݔ is x in radians?ݔ − ݔ ݂ C .32 (A) π/2 (B) π/3 (C) π/4 (D) π/6 (E) π/12 33. If x2 + 4 = 0, then x = E (A) 4 (B) -4 (C) 2 (D) -2 (E) none of these 17 34. In a geometric progression, the first term is 153 and the sixth term is /27, the sum of the B first four terms is 860 680 608 806 680 (A) /3 (B) /3 (C) /3 (D) /3 (E) /27 35. List all integer values of x satisfying the inequality 1 < 2 5 5 C (A) 2,3,4,5 (B) 2,5 (C) 3,4,5 (D) 2,3,4 (E) 3,4 Make c the subject of the equation ( + ) + −2 = 0ݔ− ≤ D .36 ହ ܽ ܾ ܿ 2 ௗ −
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS MATHEMATICS
(A) = 2 5 / (B) = 5 2 / (C) = 5 2 / (D) = 2 5 / (E) = 2 5/ 37. Multiplyܿ(3 +݀ −5 +−4ܾ)ܽby݀ (2 3ܿ + )− ݀ − ܾ ܽ݀ ܿ − ݀ − A (A)ܾܽ݀ ܽ݀6 + ܿ 15݀ − +−4 ܾܽ+݀ 11ܽ݀ 7 ܿ ݀ − ܾܽ− ܽ݀ B) 6 ଶݔ+ 3 ݕ ݖଶ + 4ଶݔ−+ 11ݕ ݖ) C) 6ݔଶ + 3ݔݕ − ݕ ଶ + 4ݖ ଶ + 13ݔݖ− ݕݖ) D) 6ݔଶ + 5ݔݕ − 1515ݕଶ + 4ݖଶ + 13ݔݖ+− 65ݕݖ) E) 6ݔଶ + ݔݕ −1515ݕଶ+ 4 ݖଶ+ 13 ݔݖ−78ݕݖ) Multiply (ݔଶ + 3ݔݕ+−5) byݕଶ (2 ଶݖ+ 5 +ݔݖ2) ݕݖ B .38 A) 2ݔ + 3ݔݕ − + 10ݕ +ݖଶ15 +ݔݕ13− +ݕݖ10 + 2 + 10) B) 2 ݔଷ + 6ݕ ଶ + 5 +ݔ 15 ଶ+ݕ 31 + 10 ଶ+ 2 + 10) C) 2ݔଷ + 3ݕݔଶ + 5 ݔݕ+ 10 ݕଶ + 13 ݕ+ 5 ݔଶ+ 2 +ݔ 10) D) 2ݔଷ + 6ݕݔଶ + 5ݔݕ+ 15ݕଶ + 13ݕ + 10ݔଶ + 2ݔ+ 10) E) 2ݔଷ + 2ݕݔଶ + 10ݔݕ + 10ݕଶ + 31ݕ + 5ݔ ଶ + 2ݔ + 10) Multiply ݔଷ + ݕ+ݔ1ଶ by ݔݕ +ݕ 1ଶ ݕ ݔଶ ݔ B .39 (A) ݔ+ଶ 3 ݕ+ݔ + 1 ݔଶݕ(B) ݕ + ݕ+ 1 ݔ (C) ݔ + 4 6 + 1 (D) ସݔ+ 1 ݔଶ (E) ݔ − ݔ ସ +ଶ + 1 ସ ଶ ସ 4 6 Theଶ factorsݔ ofݔ6 ݔ5 ସare ଷ ݔ ଶ ݔ ݔ ݔ − ݔ ݔ − D .40 A)ݔ −– ( ݔ+ 3)( + 2) (B)ݔଶ( − ݔ5)−( ݔ 1)ݔ) ( C) – ( + 5)( +ݔ−1) −(D)ݔ ( 5)(1 ) (E) ( + 5)(1) The quantityݔ (xݔ+ y) is a factorݔ ofA.− ݔ− D .41 A) ݔ + ݔ (B) ݔ− − ݔ (C) 2 ݔ 3 +− ݔ + 1) (D) ଶ2 +ଶ 2 + 3 ଷ ଷ+ 3 (E) ଶ ଶ The setݔ ofଷ valuesݕ ଶ of x and y whichݔ − ݕଶ satisfies the equationsݔହ− x2 - y - 1 = 0 A .42 i> andy–ݔ 2x+ݔ ݕ− 2 =ݔݕ 0ݔ− ݕ ݕ ݔ − ݕ/> (A) 1,0 (B) 1,1 (C) 2,2 (D) 0,2 (E) 1,2 43. The solution of the equation 2 = 8 is B (A) x = 0 or 2 (B) x = -2 or 4ଶ (C) x = 2 (D) x = -4 (E) x = 2 or 4 The solution of the quadratic equationݔ − ݔ + + = 0 is given by A .44 ଶ ± ܽ ݔ ܿݔܾ± ± (A) = (B) = (C) = మ మ మ ି ξ ିସ ି ξ ିସ ξ ିସ ݔ ± ଶ ݔ ଶ ± ݔ ଶ (D) = (E) = మ మ √ ାସ √ ିସ 45. The sum of the root of a quadratic equation is and the product of its roots is 4. The B ݔ ଶ ݔ ଶ quadratic equation is ହ (A) 2 + 5 + 8 = 0 (B) 2 +ଶ 8 = 0 (C) 2 + 5 = 0 ଶ ଶ ଶ D) 2ݔ + 8ݔ 5 = 0 (E) 2ݔ +− 5ݔ 8 = 0 ݔ − 8ݔ) 46. Three numbersଶ x, y and z are connected byଶ the relationships = + 1 and = + 1. C −ݔ ݔ− ݔ ݔ If x = 99, find z. ସ ସ ݕ ଽݔ ݖ ଽ ݕ 4 1 (A) 6 /3 (B) 20 (C)21 (D) 176 /9 (E) Noneoftheabove 47. What factor is common to all the expressions: , 2 + 1 and 1? D (A) x (B) x – 1 (C) x + 1 (D) Noଶ commonଶ factor (E) (2ଶ x – 1) A canal has rectangular cross section of width 10cmݔ − andݔ breadthݔ 1m.ݔ− If waterݔ of uniform− A .48 density 1gm cm-3 flows through it at a constant speed of 1000mm per minute, the adjacent sea is
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS MATHEMATICS
(A) 100,000 (B) 1,000,000 (C) 120,000 (D) 30,000 (E) 350,000 49. A cuboid has a diagonal of length 9cm and a square base of side 4cm. What is its height? B (A) 9cm (B) 65cm (C) 4 2cm (D) 7cm (E) 6.5cm 50. A cylinder of height h and radius r is open at one end. Its surface area is E (A) 2πrh (B) πr2h√ (C) 2πrh+2πr2 (D)√ πrh+πr2 (E) 2πrh+πr2 51. A pyramid is constructed on a cuboid. The figure has E (A) 12 faces (B) 13 vertices (C) 14 edges (D) 15 edges (E) 16 edges 52. A quadrant of a circle of radius 6cm is cut away from each corner of a rectangle 25cm long B and 18cm wide. Find the perimeter of the remaining figure. (A) 38cm (B) (38 + 12 ) (C) (86 12 ) (D) (86 6 ) (E) (86 + 12 ) 53. A rectangular picture 6cm byߨ 8cmܿ݉ is enclosed− by aߨ frameܿ݉ ½cm wide.− Calculateߨ ܿ݉ the area of A theߨ frame.ܿ݉ (A) 15sq.cm (B) 20sq.cm (C) 13sq.cm (D) 16sq.cm (E) 17sq.cm 54. A regular hexagon is constructed inside a circle of diameter 12cm. The area of the C hexagon is (A) 36 (B) 36/ (C) 54 3cm2 (D) 54/ 3cm2 (E) 54 3 cm2 55. A regular hexagonଶ is constructedଶ inside a circle of diameter 12cm. The area of the C hexagonߨ isܿ݉ ߨܿ݉ √ √ √ ݔ (A) 36 (B) 36/ (C) 54 3cm2 (D) 54/ 3cm2 (E) 54 3 cm2 2 56. A solid cylindଶer of radius 3cmଶ has a total surface area of 36πcm . Find its height. B A) 2cmߨܿ݉ (B)ߨ 3cmܿ݉ (C) 4cm√ (D) 5cm√ (E) 6cm√ ݔ) 57. A square of cardboard is taped at the perimeter by a piece of ribbon 20cm long. What is B the area of the board? (A) 20sq.cm (B) 25sq.cm (C) 36sq.cm (D) 100sq.cm (E) 16sq.cm 58. A triangle has angles 300, 150 and 1350, the side opposite to the angle 300 is length 6cm. C The side opposite to the angle 1350 is equal to (A) 12cm (B) 6cm (C) 6 2cm (D) 12 2cm (E) 6 3cm 59. An isosceles triangle of sides 13cm, 13cm, 10cm is inscribed in a circle. What is the A radius of the circle? √ √ √ (A) 7 cm (B) 12cm (C) 8cm (D) 7cm (E) 69cm 60. ଵ E Differentiateଶସ with respect to x. √ ଶ (A) 4 2 ଶ2/ ଵ ቀݔ − ௫ቁ (B) 4 ଷ 2 + 2/ ଷ (C) 4 3 + 2/ (D) 4 4 2/ (E) 4 +6 + ݔଷ − − ݔଷ ଷ ଷ ଷ /2 Findଷ ݔ the− area ofݔ the curvedݔ surface− ݔ of aݔ cone whoseݔ − baseݔ− radiusݔ is 6cm andݔ − whose A .61 .(heiݔght is 8cm (Take π = 22/7 (A) 188.57cm2 (B) 1320cm2 (C) 188cm2 (D) 188.08cm2 (E) 100cm2 62. Find the total surface area of a solid cone of radius 2 3cm and slanting side 4 3cm. D (A) 8 3 cm3 (B) 24 cm3 (C) 15 3 cm3 (D) 36 cm3 (E) 30 cm3 63. If the four interior angles of a quadrilateral are (p+10)√ 0,(p-30)0,(2p-45)0 and (p+15)√ 0, then B p is √ ߨ ߨ √ ߨ ߨ ߨ (A) 1250 (B) 820 (C) 1350 (D) 1050 (E) 600 64. If the hypotenuse of a right angled isosceles triangle is 2, what is the length of each of the A other sides? (A) 2 (B) 1/ 2 (C) 2/ 2 (D) 1 (E) 2 1 65. If the value of π is taken to be 22/7, the area of a semicircle of diameter 42m is E √ √ √ √ − 4
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS MATHEMATICS
(A) 5544m2 (B) 1386m2 (C) 132m2 (D) 264m2 (E) 693m2 66. In a circle of radius 10cm, a cord of length 10cm is xcm from its centre where x is B (A) 10 2 (B) 5 3 (C) 10 3 (D) 5 2 (E) 10 67. PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral with PQ as diameter of the circle. If PQS = 150, find D QRS. √ √ √ √ (A) 750 (B) 37½0 (C) 127½0 (D) 1050 (E) None of the above 68. The difference between the length and width of a rectangle is 6cm and the area is C 135cm2. What is the length? (A) 25cm (B) 18cm (C) 15cm (D) 24cm (E) 27cm 69. At what value of x does the function y= -3 – 2x +x2 attain a minimum value? E (A) 4 (B) 2 (C) -1 (D) -4 (E) 1 E 70. Differentiate with respect to x. ଶ (A) 4 2 ଶ 2/ଵ (B) 4 2 + 2/ (C) 4 3 + 2/ (D) 4 ቀݔ − ௫ቁ 4 2/ ଷ (E) 4 ଷ +6 + 2/ ଷ ଷ ଷ ଷ Evaluateݔ (− − 2 ݔ)ଷ ݔ ଷ− ݔ ݔ − ݔ ݔ ݔ − C .71 ݔ − ݔ ݔ − ݔ (A)4 (B)2ଷ ଶ (C) (D) (E) ଶ ݔ − ݔ ݀ݔ∫ 72. Find the derivative of = (2ସ + 3 4). ଵ ଵ D ଷ ଷ ହ (A) (2 + 3 4) (B)ଶ (6 + 3) (2 + 3 4) (C) (2 + 2ݔ + 3ݔ−ଶ4) (E) ଷ (2 + 3 4) ଷ)݊݅ݏ (D) (ଷ6 +ݕ3) (4 3 ݔ C ݏݔ ݔଷ− ܿ ݏcosݔ , findଶ ݔ−y. ଷ − ݔ ܿݏ+If =−ܿ .73 −ݔ ݔ ݏݔ ݔ− ܿ ݏݔௗ−௬ ݔ ܿ (A) /2 sin + (B) sin + (C) + sin + ௗ௫ ݔ ݔ మ (D) ଶ + sin + ଶ (E) /4 + sin௫ + ܿ ݔ − ݔ ܿ ݔ − 2ݔ ܿ ଶ ݔ 74. If the maximumଶ value of y = 1+ hx -3x is 13,ଶ find h. B ܿ A) 13ݔ (B) 12ݔ (C)ܿ 11. (D) 10 (E) 14. ݔ ݔ) 75. If = (2 + 3 )(5 4), find when = C (A) 0unitpersec. (B) 15unitspersec.ௗ௦ ସ (C) 22unitspersec. (D) 26 units per ܿ݁ݏ E)ݐ ݐ 24− units perௗ sec.௧ ݐ ହ) ݏ.sec 76. If = (1 2 ) , find the value of at x = -1 C (A) -6ଷ (B) 57 (C)ௗ௬ -54 (D) 27 (E) -27 ݕ − ݔ ௗ௫ 77. If = 3 cos 4 , equals D ௗ௬ A)ݕ 6sin8x ݔ (B)ௗ௫ -24sin4x (C) 12sin4x (D) -12sin4x (E) 24sin4x) 78. Integrate with respect to x E ଵି௫ (A) +య (B) + (C) + + (D) + మ ௫ ௫ି௫ ସ ଷ ଵ ଵ ଵ ଵ (E) ర + ర య మ మ ௫ ݇ ௫ − ௫ ݇ ௫ ଶ௫ ݇ ଷ௫ − ଶ௫ ݇ ଵ ଵ 79. Integrate మ with respect to x E ௫ − ଶ௫ ݇ ଵି௫ య ௫
(A) + (B) + (C) + + (D) + మ ௫ି௫ ସ ଷ ଵ ଵ ଵ ଵ (E) ర + ర య మ మ ௫ ݇ ௫ − ௫ ݇ ௫ ଶ௫ ݇ ଷ௫ − ଶ௫ ݇ ଵ ଵ 80. The derivativeమ of cosec x is B ௫ − ଶ௫ ݇
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS MATHEMATICS
(A) tanx cosec x (B) –cot x cosec x (C) tan x sec x (D) –cot x sec x (E) cot x cosec x 81. The minimum value of y in the equation = 6 + 8 D (A) 8 (B) 3 (C) 0ଶ (D) -1 (E) 5 The slope of the tangent to the curve =ݕ2 ݔ −2 +ݔ 5 at the point (1, 6) is C .82 (A) 4 (B) 1 (C) 6ଶ (D) 5 (E) 3 Two variables x and y are such that ݕ = 4ݔ −3 andݔ y = 5 when x = 2. Find y in terms of B .83 x. ௗ௬ A) 2 3 + 5 (B) 2 3 ௗ+௫ 3 (C)ݔ− 2 3 (D) 4 (E) 6) 84. 7 pupilsଶ of average age 12 yearsଶ leave a class of 25ଶ pupils of average age 14 years. If 6 A new pupilsݔ − ofݔ average age 11ݔ years− ݔ join the class,ݔ what− isݔ the average age of the pupils now in the class? (A) 13years (B) 12years 7½months (C) 13years 5months (D) 13years 10 months (E) 11 years 85. A bag contains 4 white balls and 6 red balls. Two balls are taken from the bag without E replacement. What is the probability that they are both red? 1 2 2 1 3 (A) /3 (B) /9 (C) /15 (D) /5 (E) /5 86. Bola chooses at random a number between 1 and 300. What is the probability that the B number is divisible by 4? 1 1 4 1 (A) /3 (B) ¼ (C) /5 (D) /300 (E) /300 87. Determine the mean monthly salary of 50 employees of a company from the following B frequency distribution: Monthly salary Frequency N20,000.00 10 N32,500.00 5 N10,000.00 20 N12,000.00 2 N6,000.00 10 N8,000.00 3 (A) N21,500.30 (B) N13,400.10 (C) N14,300.10 (D) N8,000.00 (E) N5,000.30 88. Find the mean deviation of 1, 2, 3 and 4. C (A) 2.5 (B) 2.0 (C) 1.0 (D) 1.5 (E) 1.2 89. If M represents the median and D the mode of the measurements 5, 9, 3, 5, 7, 5, 8, D then (M, D) is (A) (6, 5) (B) (5, 8) (C) (5, 7) (D) (5, 5) (E) (7, 5) 90. In a basket of fruits, there are 6 grapes, 11 bananas and 13 oranges. If one fruit is chosen at A random, what is the probability that the fruit is either a grape or a banana?
17 11 6 5 7 (A) /30 (B) /30 (C) /30 (D) /30 (E) /3 91. In a school, 220 students offer Biology or Mathematics or both, 125 offer Biology and 110 D Mathematics. How many offer Biology but not Mathematics?
(A) 95 (B) 80 (C) 125 (D) 110 (E) 120 92. In a school, there are 35 students in Class 2A and 40 in class 2B. The mean score for class B 2A in an English literature examination is 60.0 and that for 2B in the same paper is 52.5. Find to one place of decimals, the mean for the combined classes.
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS MATHEMATICS
(A) 1.5 (B) 56.0 (C) 56.2 (D) 56.3 (E) 56.5 93. In a soccer competition in one season, a club had scored the following goals: 2, 0, 3, 3, 2, B 1, 4, 0, 0, 5, 1, 0, 2, 2, 1, 3, 1, 4 and 1. The mean, median and mode are respectively (A) 1, 1.8 and 1.5 (B) 1.8, 1.5 and 1 (C) 1.8, 1 and 1.5 (D) 1.5, 1 and 1.8 (E) 1.5, 1.8 and 1 94. In how many ways can 2 students be selected from a group of 5 students in a debating D competition? (A) 25 ways (B) 10 ways (C) 15 ways (D) 20 ways (E) 16 ways 95. The arithmetic mean of the ages of 30 pupils in a class is 15.3 years. One boy leaves the D class and one girl is enrolled, and the new average age of 30 pupils in the class becomes 15.2 years. How much older is the boy than the girl?
(A) 30years (B) 6years (C) 9years (D) 3years (E) 1year 96. The letters of the word “MATRICULATION” are cut and put into a box. One letter is C drawn at random from the box. Find the probability of drawing a vowel. 7 5 6 8 4 (A) /13 (B) /13 (C) /13 (D) /13 (E) /13 97. The mean of the numbers 3, 6, 4, x and 7 is 5. Find the standard deviation. A (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 3 (E) 5 98. The weights of 30 new-born babies are given as follows: 6, 9, 5, 7, 6, 7, 5, 8, 9, 5, 7, 5, D 8,7,8,7,5,6,5,7,6,9,9,7,8,8,7,8,9,8.√ √ Themodeis (A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 8 (D) 7. (E) 10 99. Thirty boys and x girls sat for a test. The mean of the boys’ scores and that of the girls C were respectively 6 and 8. Find x if the total score was 468. (A) 38 (B) 24 (C) 36. (D) 22 (E) 41 100. Two fair dice are rolled. What is the probability that both show up the same number of E 1 7 1 1 points? (A) /36 (B) /36 (C) ½ (D) /3 (E) /6
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS BIOLOGY
1. ______is an end product of digestion of fat. (A) Glucose (B) Fatty acid (C) Amino acid (D) B Fructose (E) Galactose# 2. Asexual reproduction in Hydra sp. is commonly by ____ (A) Binary fission b. Fragmentation c. C Budding d. Separation (E) Regeneration 3. Benedict’s solution is used to test for ___ (A) Carbohydrate (B) Lipid (C) Protein (D) Vitamins (E) C Minerals 4. Pepsin is an enzyme that digests ___ (A). Starch (B). Sugar (C). Lipid (D). Fat (E). Protein E 5. The breakdown of large organic molecules into smaller simpler soluble molecules is called –– (A) B Excretion (B) Digestion (C) Absorption (D) Reproduction (E) Ingestion# 6. The enzyme that curdles milk is______(A). Pepsin (B). Ptyalin (C). Renin (D). Amylase C (E). Trypsin 7. Which is the enzyme that begins digestion of starch in the mouth? (A) Ptyalin (B) Maltase (C) A Amylase (D) Sucrase (E) Lactase 8. A group of interacting populations in a particular habitat can be described as ___(A) biome (B) C biosphere (C) community (D) population ecosystem (E) environment. 9. A habitat can be defined as ___(A) a group of animals and plants living within a common B boundary. (B) a place in which plants and animals live. (C) a community living together in the same place. (D) different areas, with a common animal and plant population. (E) None of the above. 10. A symbiotic relationship in which one organism is completely dependent on another organism is A called ____ (A) Parasitism (B) Commensalisms (C) Mutualism (D) Saprophytism (E) Competition
11. An association between two organisms where both members benefit is known as ___ (A) D symbiosis. (B) commensalism. (C) ammensalism. (D) mutualism. (E) saprophytism. 12. An instrument used in measuring the speed of wind is (A) a barometer (B) a wind gauge (C) a D wind vane (D) an anemometer (E) a hydrometer. 13. At times hyenas feed on remains of animals killed by other animals. At other times, hyenas C themselves kill animals for food. Therefore hyenas may best be described as –– (A) scavengers and herbivores (B) scavengers and parasites (C) scavengers and predators (D) herbivores and predators e. herbivores and parasites 14. Autecology is defined as the study of interrelationship of (A) many species of organisms and their B environment (B) same species of organisms and their environment. (C) organisms in the atmosphere. (D) organisms under the earth’s surface. (E)None of the above. #
15. Autotrophs are also described as –– (A) Consumers (B) Decomposers (C) Carnivores (D) D Producers (E) Herbivores 16. If three 30cm lengths of glass tubing are tightly packed with clay, sand and loamy soils E respectively and then stood in a beaker of water for one week the level of water will be (A) Lowest in the tube with clay (B) The same in all the tubes (C) Lowest in the tube with loamy soil (D) Highest in the tube with sandy soil (E) Lowest in the tube with sandy soil 17. In a community bacteria and fungi are referred to as –– (A) producers (B) consumers (C) E scavengers (D) tertiary consumers (E) decomposers
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS BIOLOGY
18. Puddles, Ponds, Rivers, Seas and Oceans are grouped together as –– (A) Ecosystem (B) Biosphere C (C) Aquatic habitat (D) Terrestrial habitat (E) Marine environment# 19. The feeding pattern in an ecosystem is called………….. (A) Pyramid of energy (B) Food web (C) B Food chain (D) Pyramid of member (E) Ecology 20. The orderly changes that occur slowly and naturally in plant and animal communities in a given B area over a period of time until a stable community is established is called –– (A) Transformational change (B) ecological succession. (C) survival of the fittest. (D) weather change (E) environmental change. 21. The sign + is used to indicate an association where an organism gains, while 0 is used where an B organism is unaffected. An association indicated as +0 is known as –– (A) predation (B) commensalism (C) parasitism (D) competition (E) ammensalism# 22. The sum total of all the roles an organism plays in a habitat is referred to as (A) ecology. (B) E ecosystem. (C) habit. (D) habitat. (E) niche 23. Which of the following factors does not control population growth? (A) Food shortage (B) D Emigration (C) Predation (D) Abundance of food (E) Natural disaster 24. Which of the following statements best describe an ecosystem? (A) A place where living B organisms can live successfully. (B) The interactions between living organism in a habitat and the non-living part of the environment. (C) A biological association between a plant and an animal. (D) A system of grouping organisms in a habitat. (E) None of the above. 25. Which of these represents a correct food chain in nature? (A) Crustacea → diatom →fish → man B (B) Diatom → crustacea → fish → man (C) Fish → crustacea → man → diatom (D) Diatom → fish → crustacea → man (E) None of the above. 26. ______is involved in the mechanism of expelling water from the protozoans during the A process of______(A) Contractile vacuole, Osmoregulation (B) Contractile vacuole, Phagocytosis (C) Food vacuole, Ultrafilteration (D) Food vacuole, Pinocytosis (E) Cell membrane, Pinocytosis@ 27. ______is used for photosynthesis in Euglena sp. (A) Reservoir (B) Nucleus (C) C Chloroplast (D) Paramylon granule (E) Pellicle# 28. A heart with four chambers is found in______(A) Fishes (B) Insects (C) Snails (D) Rats D (E) Worms 29. Animal cell does not have a ______(A) Membrane (B) Nucleolus (C) Food Vacuole (D) Cell D wall (E) Golgi body# 30. Beriberi is caused by deficiency of vitamin______(A) A (B) D (C) K (D) E (E) B E
31. Compound eyes are found in which of the animals below (A) Rat (B) Cow (C) Snail (D) Ant (E) Jelly D fish 32. Dental formula of man consist of (A) i 2/2, c2/2, pm2/2, m3/3 (B) i1/1, c2/2, pm2/2, m3/3 (C) E i2/2, c1/1, pm3/2, m2/2 (D) i2/2, c1/1, pm2/2, m2/2 (E) i2/2, c1/1, pm2/2, m3/3 33. During digestion of food, passage of chyme through the duodenum enables it to become a C watery liquid called______(A) Digested food (B) Chymatic product (C) Chyle (D) Soluble food (E) Dissolved food
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS BIOLOGY
34. Emulsification of fat and oils is caused by______(A) Lipase (B) Ptyalin (C) Trypsin (D) E Maltase (E) Bile 35. Every mammal has (A) One Kidney (B) Two pairs of Kidneys (C) One pair of Kidneys (D) Four C Kidneys (E) None of the above 36. Faeces is removed from the body in a process called (A) Digestion (B) Egestion (C) Elimination B (D) Excretion (E) Evacuation 37. Glomerulus is found in the______(A) Ovary (B) Testes (C) Brain (D) Kidney e). D Stomach# 38. In the respiratory system of man, diffusion of gases takes place in (A) Trachea (B) Bronchi (C) C Alveoli (D) Bronchioles (E) None of the above 39. Incisors are used for (A) Tearing food (B) Cutting food (C) Grinding food (D) Shearing food (E) B Crushing food 40. Nematocysts are produced by special cells found in (A) Nematodes (B) Annelids (C) D Platyhelminthes (D) Cnidarians (Coelenterates) (E) Arthropods# 41. One of the following is not a function of the skin (A) Excretion (B) Protection (C) Homeostasis D (D) Reproduction (E) Absorption of vitamin D 42. Open circulatory system is found in ______(A) Lizard (B) Toad (C) Fish (D) Insect (E) D Chicken 43. Ovary is to the female reproductive system as______is to the male reproductive system (A) C Penis (B) Urethra (C) Testis (D) Cowper’s gland (E) Prostate gland 44. Possession of pinna is a characteristic feature of (A) Mammals (B) Reptiles (C) Fishes (D) A Amphibians (E) All of the above 45. Tadpoles respire with (A) Lungs (B) Nostril (C) Gills (D) Spiracles (E) Siphon C
46. The excretory organ in the earthworm is………….. (A) Malphigian tubule (B) Stoma (C) C Nephriduim (D) Flame cells (E) Gills 47. The nerves that connect the eyes to the brain are called –– (A) Cranial nerves (B) Optical nerves E (C) Sensory nerves (D) Olfactory nerves (E) Optic nerves. 48. The nerves that connect the eyes to the brain are called –– (A) Cranial nerves (B) Optical nerves E (C) Sensory nerves (D) Olfactory nerves (E) Optic nerves. 49. The parasympathetic nervous system is involved in (A) Dilation of pupil of the eye (B) Control B the activities of smooth muscles (C) Dilatation of the skin (D) Controls thinking in mammals (E) Increased metabolism# 50. The part of the alimentary system of a bird where grinding of food occurs is (A) Crop (B) E Stomach (C) Cloaca (D) Rectum (E) Gizzard 51. The part of the ear that contains receptors that convert the fluid motion into action potential is D called –– (A) Auditory nerve (B) Ossicles (C) Semicircular canals (D) Cochlea (E) Oval window
52. The thoracic region of the vertebral column is made up of ______vertebrae. (A)5(B)7(C)4 D (D) 12 (E) 10 53. Which of the animal below is poikilothemic? (A) Toad (B) Chicken (C) Bat (D) Lion (E) Dove A
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS BIOLOGY
54. Which of the structures below is found in reptiles and birds (A) Scales (B) Legs (C) Beaks (D) A Claws (E) All of the above 55. Which of these animals is photosynthetic? (A) Paramecium sp. (B) Amoeba sp. (C) Euglena sp. C (D) Hydra sp. (E) None of the above 56. Which of these organs regulate the amount of sugar in the blood? (A) Liver (B) Kidney (C) Spleen E (D) Lung (E) Pancreas# 57. The basis for growth and asexual reproduction is (A) meiosis (B) cytokinesis (C) mitosis (D) C Cytogenesis (E) Cell elongation. 58. The process which ensures that the chromosome number for each species of organism remain C constant from generation to generation is called (A) fission (B) fusion (C) meiosis (D) mitosis (E) oogenesis 59. Which of the following is a major factor in variation among organisms? (A) Inbreeding (B) D Backcrossing (C) Test crossing (D) Sexual reproduction (E) Gene dominance 60. ______is an example of an invertebrate (A) Millipede (B) Fish (C) Toad (D) Snake (E) Skin# A
61. ______is the odd one in the list below (A) Mosquito (B) Bee (C) Moth (D) Tick (E) D Beetle 62. ______are flatworms (A) Platyhelminthes (B) Annelida (C) Nematoda (D) Diplopoda (E) A Chilopoda# 63. ______is an example of a unicellular organism (A) Amoeba sp. (B) Hydra sp. (C) Ascaris A sp. (D) Taenia sp. (E) Obelia sp. 64. ______level is the highest level of organization in animals. (A) System (B) Tissue (C) A Organ (D) Cellular (E) Protoplasmic 65. Crocodiles are ______(A) Fishes (B) Amphibians (C) Mammals (D) Birds (E) None of the E above# 66. The mutation theory of organic evolution was propounded by (A) Gregor Mendel (B) Hugo de D Vrics (C) Jean Lamarck (D) Charles Darwin (E) Robert Hookes. 67. The theory of natural selection was developed by (A) Lamarck and Darwin (B) Darwin and B Wallace (C) Wallace and Mendel (D) Mendel and Lamarck (E) Hooke and Darwin. 68. Which is the odd animal in the list below? (A) Lizards (B) Snakes (C) Turtles (D) Tortoise (E) Toad E
69. Which of the following sources is not an evidence of evolution? (A) Fossil records B. Comparative D anatomy C. Comparative embryology (D) Human behavior (E) None of the above
70. ______is an endoparasite (A) Earthworm (B) Tapeworm (C) Mosquito (D) Housefly (E) B Tsetse fly 71. The causative agent of bird flu is a (A) Virus (B) Bacteria (C) Fungus (D) Protozoan (E) Ricketsia A
72. In lower plants like mosses, the structure which performs the functions of roots of higher plants D is called (A) root hairs (B) rootlets (C) hyphae (D) rhizoids (E) thalli.
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS BIOLOGY
73. One common feature of fungi, algae, mosses and ferns is that they are (A) photosynthetic (B) D show alternation of generation (C) can survive harsh weather conditions (D) have no seeds (E) conjugate 74. The following are major groups of the plant kingdom EXCEPT (A) Bryophyta (B) Chlorophyta (C) B Pteridophyta (D) Spermatophyta (E) Thallophyta 75. ______is a form of sexual reproduction (A) Grafting (B) Budding (C) Fission (D) D Conjugation (E) Regeneration 76. Sexual reproduction in Spirogyra is called (A) Fertilization (B) Symbiosis (C) Conjugation (D) C Reproduction (E) Mutualism 77. The carrier of the hereditary characters in plants is the (A) Cell (B) nucleus (C) chromosome (D) E chloroplast (E) gene 78. All are necessary for photosynthesis except______(A) Water (B) Chlorophyll (C) E Sunlight (D) Carbon dioxide (E) Oxygen 79. Growing yam tendrils climb for support. This growth response is (A) haptotropism (B) geotropism A (C) phototropism (D) hydrotropism (E) chemotropism. 80. Which is the correct order in an evolutionary sequence for the following plant groups? (A) C Bacteria → ferns → algae → mosses → seed plants. (B) Bacteria → ferns → mosses → algae → seed plants. (C) Bacteria → algae → mosses → ferns → seed plants. (D) Bacteria → mosses → algae → ferns → seed plants. (E) Seed plants → ferns → mosses → algae → bacteria.
81. ------is not part of the whorls of a flower.(A)calyx (B) corolla (C) androecium (D) D Antheridium (E)Gynoecium# 82. A dry fruit which can break into several parts each containing one seed is a (A) caryopsis (B) E aggregate fruit (C) legume (D) follicle (E) schizocarp 83. A dry indehiscent, winged fruit formed from one carpel is known as a (A) Schizocarp (B) C Caryopsis (C) Samara (D) nut (E) Follicle 84. A true fruit is formed from (A) fertilized ovary and other floral parts (B) a fertilized ovary (C) a B fertilized ovary and calyx (D) a fertilized and fleshy receptacle (E) an unfertilized ovary and other floral parts 85. Irish potato is a (A) bulb (B) tap root (C) rhizome (D) root tuber (E) stem tuber D 86. One major difference between an Angiosperm and a Gymnosperm is that seeds in Gymnosperms A are borne in (A) Cones (B) fruits (C) flowers (D) ovary (E) ovule 87. Reserved food material in the seed is stored in the (A) epicarp (B) endocarp (C) endosperm (D) C mesocarp (E) all parts 88. What type of fruit is a mango fruit? (A) Berry (B) Hesperidium (C) Drupe (D) Nut (E) Mango fruit C
89. Which of the following species exhibit an aerial root? (A) Ficus (B) Centrosema (C) Antigonon A (D) Lantana (E) Dahlia 90. Which of these plants has an emerginate apex? (A) Bauhinia (B) Pistia (C) Ixora (D) Musa (E) A Terminalia 91. Which plant stores food in its roots? (A) Cassava (B) cocoyam (C) Irish potato (D) onion (E) A yam.
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS BIOLOGY
92. An example of Vascular tissues is ------(A) Trichome (B) Xylem (C) Stomata (D) Epidermis B (E) Parenchyma 93. The living part of phloem tissue is (A) sieve plate (B) companion cell (C) sieve element (D) B cytoplasm# 94. Which of the following tissues are made up of dead cells (A) meristems (B) xylem vessels (C) B cambium (D) mesophyll (E) palisade 95. A plant vacuole contains (A) dissolved chemicals, sugars, salts, pigments and crystals (B) waste A products of metabolism, DNA, RNA and crystals (C) pigments, crystals, DNA and waste products of metabolism (D) RNA, DNA, sugars and salts 96. Excessive loss of water in plants is known as (A) Osmosis (B) Osmoregulation (C) Transpiration (D) C Excretion 97. Starch granules in plants is equivalent to ______granules in animals (A) Food (B) E Chromatin (C) Lysosome (D) Mitochondria (E) Glycogen 98. Which of the following is a plant excretory product? (A) Oil (B) Cytokinin (C) Resin (D) C amino acids (E) gibberellins. 99. A plant which grows on another without causing harm to the host plant is called –– (A) a C parasite (B) a saprophyte (C) an epiphyte (D) a predator (E) a prey. # 100. Plants which can survive in places where water supply is limited are (A) bryophytes (B) C mesophytes (C) xerophytes (D) hydrophytes (E) pteridophytes.
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS CHEMISTRY
1. 200 cm3 of air was passed over heated copper in a syringe several times to produce copper (II) C oxide. When cooled, the final volume of air recorded was 158 cm3. Estimate the percentage of oxygen in the air. (A) 31% (B) 27% (C) 21% (D) 19%
2. 30cm3 of oxygen at 10 atmosphere pressures is placed in a 20dm3 container. Calculate the new B pressure if temperature is kept constant. (A) 6.7 atm (B) 15.0 atm (C) 60.0 (D) 66.0 3. Bond dissociation energy of 500 KJ mol-1 may be assigned to (A) ionic bonding (B) covalent A bonding (C) hydrogen bonding D) metallic bonding (E) van-der-waals bonding. 4. A mixture of iron and sulphur can be separated by dissolving the mixture in __ (A) steam (B) B dilute hydrochloric acid (C) dilute sodium hydroxide (D) benzene 5. A mixture of sand, ammonium chloride and sodium chloride is best separated by __ (A) A sublimation followed by addition of water and filtration (B) sublimation followed by addition of water and evaporation (C) addition of water followed by filtration and sublimation (D) addition of water followed by crystallization and sublimation 6. A pure solid usually melts __ (A) over a wide range of temperature (B) over a narrow range of B temperature (C) at a lower temperature than the impure one (D) at the same temperature as the impure one 7. A small quantity of solid ammonium chloride was heated gently in a test tube; the solid B gradually disappeared to produce a mixture of two gases. Later a white cloudy deposit was observed on the cooler part of the test tube. The ammonium chloride is said to have undergone __ (A) distillation (B) sublimation (C) precipitation (D) evaporation
8. CH4 has this geometry: (A) trigonal (B) planar (C) tetrahedral (D) octahedral (E) linear. C 9. Chlorine, consisting of two isotopes of mass numbers 35 and 37, has an atomic mass of 35.5. B The relative abundance of the isotope of mass number 37 is ___ ( A)20 (B) 25 (C) 50 (D) 75 10. Elements P, Q, R, S, have 6, 11, 15 and 17 electrons respectively, therefore (A) P will form an D electrovalent bond with R (B) Q will form a covalent bond with S (C)R will form an electrovalent bond with S (D) Q will form an electrovalent bond with S 11. In the oil drop experiment, Millikan determined the (A) charge to mass ratio of the electron (B) C mass of the electron (C) charge of the electron (D) mass of the proton 12. One of these atomic shells is the most stable (A) M (B) N (C) K (D) L (E) 0 C 13. Sieving is a technique used to separate mixtures containing 20% oxygen by volume. Which of A the reactants was in excess? (A) Carbon (II) oxide (B) Oxygen (C) Carbon (IV) oxide (D) Nitrogen
14. The abnormally high boiling point of water is primarily due to (A) ionic bonding (B) covalent E bonding (C) dative bonding (D) coordinate covalent bonding (E) hydrogen bonding.
15. The energy required to remove an electron from the isolated gaseous atom is known as (A) C electron affinity (B) bond energy (C) lonisation energy (D) electronegativity (E) electrovalency.
16. The group that oxygen belongs to is collectively called (A) allotropes (B) halogens (C) C chalcogens (D) alkenes (E) ozonides.
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS CHEMISTRY
17. The ideal gas equation is ___ ( A) P=nRT (B) PR =nVT (C) PV =gRT (D) V=kT (E) PV = K V A 18. The number of atoms in one mole of a substance is equal to (A) the atomic number (B) the B Avogadro’s number (C) number of neutrons (D) number of electrons (E) gas constant 19. The number of electrons in the outermost shell of the atom represents its (A) period (B) C number of shells (C) group (D) atomic number (E) electronegativity. 20. The number of protons or electrons of an atom represents its (A) electronegativity (B) period E (C) number of shells (D) group (E) atomic number 21. The partial pressure of oxygen in a sample of air is 500 mmHg. If the total Pr pressure 780 A mmHg, what is the mole fraction of the oxygen? (A) 0.64 [B (B) 5.73 (C) 1.56 (D) 0.70 (E) 0.54
22. The periodic classification of the elements is an arrangement of the elements in order of their D (A) atomic weights (B) isotopic weights (C) molecular weights (D) atomic numbers 23. The process of changing one element into another is called (A) radioisotope (B) radioactivity (C) D dating (D) transmutation (E) nuclear reaction.
24. The shapes of CO2,H2O and CH4 respectively are (A) bent, linear and tetrahedral (B) bent, D tetrahedral and linear (C) tetrahedral, linear and bent (D) linear, bent and tetrahedral
25. This compound exhibits ionic bonding (A) H20 (B) H2 (C) KC1 (D) NH3 (E) HF. C 26. This type of bonding involves overlapping of orbitals during which electrons are shared (A) B hydrogen bonding (B) covalent bonding (C) ionic bonding (D) metallic bonding (E) van-der- waals bonding. 27. Which one of the following changes is physical? (A) Adding iron filings to aerated water (B) D Adding sodium metal to water (C) Cooling a solution of iron(II) sulphate to obtain the hydrated salt (D) Cooling water to obtain ice 28. A side effect of soft water is that (A) it gives offensive taste (B) excess calcium is precipitated D (C) it encourages the growth of bacteria (D) it attacks lead contained in pipes 29. Ammonia is very soluble in water because it is a /an molecule (A) non-polar (B) polar (C) B reactive (D) basic (E) acidic 30. Citrus fruits such as lemon and grape taste sour because they contain (A) ascorbic acid and A citric acid (B) citric acid and ascetic acid (C) citric acid and dilute HCl (D) citric acid and salicyclic acid (E) Sulphuric acid 31. Soap lather is an example of a colloid in which a (A) liquid is dispersed in gas (B) solid is C dispersed in liquid (C) gas is dispersed in liquid (D) liquid is dispersed in liquid
32. The air around a petroleum refinery is most likely to contain.(A) CO2, SO3 and N2O (B) CO2, CO C and N2O (C) SO2, CO and NO2 (D) PH3,H2O and CO2 33. The difference between colloids and suspensions is brought out clearly by the fact that while D colloids (A) do not scatter light, suspensions do (B) can be separated by filtration, suspensions cannot be so separated (C) can be separated by a membrane, suspensions cannot (D) do not settle out on standing, suspensions do 34. The following substances are non-electrolytes except (A) chloroform (B) sugar cane (C) acetic E acid (D) NaCl (E) C and D.
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS CHEMISTRY
35. The hydrolysis of NH4Cl salt will give (A) acidic solution (B) neutral solution (C) basic solution A (D) hot solution (E) all of the above
36. The pollutants that are likely to be present in an industrial environment are (A) H2S, SO2 and A oxides of nitrogen (B)NH3, HCl and CO (C) CO2, NH3, and H2S (D) dust, NO and Cl2 37. What is the basicity of tetraoxosulphate (VI) acid? (A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 0 A 38. Which of the following gases is the most dangerous pollutant? (A) Hydrogen sulphide (B) D Carbon (IV) oxide (C) Sulphur (IV) oxide (D) Carbon (II) oxide 39. Which of the following ions is a pollutant in drinking water even in trace amount? (A) Ca2+ (B) B Hg2+ (C) Mg2+ (D) Fe2+
40. Which of the following is an example of a double salt (A) NH4Cl (B) alum (C) NaCO3 (D) AlCl3 B (E) NaCl
41. 0.16g of methane when burnt increases the temperature of 100g of water by 400(C), what is E -10 -1 the heat of combustion of methane if the heat capacity of water is 4.2 Jg C ? (CH4=16). (A) 1,160kJmol-1 (B) 1,180kJmol-1 (C) 1,560kJmol-1 (D) 1,600kJmol-1 (E) 1,680kJmol-1
42. A charged car battery has ___ energy that can be converted into another energy called ___ A energy (A) Chemical, electrical (B) mechanical, chemical (C) heat, mechanical (D) light, electrical (E) light, heat 43. Copper oxide is heated with charcoal to produce carbon monoxide and copper. The reaction is A an example of (A) both oxidation and reduction (B) neither oxidation and reduction (C) oxidation only (D) reduction only (E) neutralization 44. For each oxygen atom in hydrogen peroxide which acts as an oxidant, there is an oxygen atom B which acts as a /an (A) Oxidant (B) reductant (C) oxidizing agent (D) catalyst (E) inhibitor
45. Given the change of phase: CO2(g) changes to CO2(s), the entropy of the system (A) decreases A (B) increases (C) remains the same 46. In which of the following is the entropy change positive? (A) Reaction between an acid and a C base. (B) Addition of concentrated acid to water. (C) Dissolution of sodium metal in water. (D) Thermal dissociation of ammonium chloride. 47. One of these elements is the best reducing agent. (A) Pb (B) Rb (C) Al (D) In (E) N B 48. The name of the gas driven off at the negative electrode during the electrolysis of brine is ___ B ( A) hydrogen (B) chlorine (C) oxygen (D) sodium (E) hydrogen chloride 2- 49. The oxidation state of P in H2P207 is ___ (A) -3 (B) +3 (C) +1 (D) +5 (E) -2 D
50. The oxidation state of S in Ca(HS03)2 is __ (A) +2 (B) -2 (C) +4 (D) -4 (E) +6. C - - - 51. The oxidizing agent in the reaction, 3Br2 + 6OH = BrO3 + 5Br + 3H2O is __ (A) Br2 (B) OH- (C) A - BrO3- (D) e (E) H2O.
52. When heat is absorbed during a chemical reaction, the reaction is said to be ___ D (A) thermodynamic (B) exothermal (C) isothermal (D) endothermic (E) thermostatic
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS CHEMISTRY
53. Given the reaction at equilibrium: 2CO(g) + O2(g) ↔ 2CO2(g) When the reaction is subjected to C stress, a change will occur in the concentration of (A) reactants, only (B) products, only (C) both reactants and products (D) neither reactants nor products
54. Given the reaction at equilibrium: N2(g) + O2(g) ↔ 2NO(g) as the concentration of N2(g) A increases, the concentration of O2(g) will (A) decrease (B) increase (C) remains the same (D) vanishes (E) pours away
55. If a reaction is exothermic and there is a great disorder, it means that (A) The reaction is in a B state of equilibrium (B) There will be a large increase in free energy (C) There will be a large decrease in free energy (D) The reaction is static. 56. In the chemical reaction of A + B = C +D, more of D is formed (A) if the concentration of A is E reduced (B) if the concentration of B is reduced (C) if the concentration of C is reduced (D) if the concentration of C is increased (E) if it is continuously removed from the reaction mixture 57. In what way is equilibrium constant for the forward reaction related to that of the reverse C reaction? (A) The addition of the two is expected to be one. (B) The product of two is expected to be one. (C) The two equilibrium constants are identical. (D) The product of the two is always greater than one. 58. In which reaction will the point of equilibrium shift to the left when the pressure on the system B is increased? (A) C(s) + O2(g) ↔ CO2(g) (B) CaCO3(s) ↔ CaO(s) + CO2(g) (C) 2Mg(s) + O2(g) ↔ 2MgO(s) (D) 2H2(g) + O2(g) ↔2H2O(g)
59. The furring of kettles is caused by the presence in water of __ (A) calcium trioxocarbonate (IV) D (B) calcium tetraoxosulphate (VI) (C) calcium hydroxide (D) calcium hydrogentrioxocarbonate (IV) 60. Which is a property of a reaction that has reached equilibrium? (A) The amount of products is D greater than the amount of reactants. (B) The amount of products is equal to the amount of reactants. (C) The rate of the forward reaction is greater than the rate of the reverse reaction. (D) The rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction.
61. Which of the following combination of conditions many increase the rate of a chemical C reaction. (A) Decrease in temperature, increase in concentration of the reactant (B) Increase in temperature, addition of a catalyst, decrease in the surface area of the reactant (C) Increase in temperature, increase in concentration, addition of a catalyst and increase in the surface area of the reactant (D) Decrease in temperature, concentration and surface area of the reactants (E) Addition of catalyst and in the absence of light.
62. “Quicklime” has the formula __ (A) Ca(OH)2 (B) CaO (C) CaCO3 (D) CaSO4.2H2O (E) CaCl2 B
63. A Transition metal is different from a non-transition metal because (A) it has an octet D configuration (B) it is very stable (C) it is coloured (D) it has incomplete outer shell d-electrons (E) it has no electron in the d-orbital. 64. Chlorine is produced commercially by (A) electrolysis of dilute HCl (B) electrolysis of brine (C) B neutralization of HCl (D) heating potassium trioxochlorate (V) (E) action of dilute mineral acids on bleaching powder.
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS CHEMISTRY
65. Chlorine, bromine and iodine resemble one another since they __ (A)dissolve in alkalis (B) react A violently with H2 without heating (C)displace each other from solutions of their salts (D) are gases (E) are liquids. 66. Liquid oxygen may be produced by condensation of air using this coolant (A) liquid phosphorus D (B) liquid gas (C) liquid paraffin (D) liquid nitrogen (E) butane. 67. One of these is another form of oxygen (A) hydroxide (B) ozone (C) peroxide (D) sulphoxide (E) water. B 68. One of these metals is not an alkali metal (A) K (B) Cs (C) Sr (D) Rb (E) Fr C
69. One of these reactions represents the laboratory preparation of hydrogen. (A) C(s) + H2O(l)→ E CO(g) + H2(g) (B) 2 Na(s) + 2H20(1) → 2 NaOH(aq) + H2(g) (C) Cu(s) + H2O(l) → CuO(s) + H2(g) (D) 2Al(s) + 3H2O(l) → Al2O3(s) + 3H2(g) (E) Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)
70. The formation of ozone by reaction of O2 with atomic oxygen in UV light occurs in (A) upper A atmosphere (B) inner atmosphere (C) stratosphere (D) hemisphere (E) none of these. 71. The halogen which is chiefly produced commercially from sea water is ___ ( A) Fluorine (B) B chlorine (C) Bromine (D) iodine (E) Astatine. 72. The most stable allotropic form of sulphur at normal conditions is ___ ( A) monoclinic sulphur B (B) rhombic sulphur (C) amorphous sulphur (D) plastic sulphur (E) ordinary sulphur 73. The products obtained when the following chemical reaction is completed and balanced B are…HNO3 + Ca(OH)2 → ______(A) CaNO3 + H2O (B) Ca(NO3)2 + 2 H2O (C) CaO + 2 NO2 + 3H2O (D) Ca + 2 NO3 + 2 H2O
74. What is the role of iron and Aluminium oxide in ammonia production? (A) dehydrating agent B (B) catalytic agent (C) oxidizing agent (D) bonding agent (E) preservative agent
75. When carbon IV oxide is bubbled through lime water, the solution becomes milky due B formation of (A) Ca(HCO3)2 (B) CaCO3 (C) Ca(N03)2 (D)CaCl2 (E) CaSO4 76. Which of the following gases dissolves in water vapour to produce acid rain during rainfall? (A) D Oxygen (B) Carbon (II) oxide (C) Nitrogen (D) Sulphur (IV) oxide 77. Which of the following is not allotrope of carbon? (A) diamond (B) graphite (C) buck E minsterfullerene (D) all of the above (E) none of the above 78. Which oxide is amphiprotic (amphoteric)? (A) MgO (B) NaO (C) CaO (D) ZnO (E) BeO D
79. Why will it always be more difficult to extract potassium ions from sea water than to extract B magnesium ions? This is because (A) most potassium compounds are less soluble in water (B) most potassium compounds are quite soluble in water (C) presence of other alkali metal ions has great influence on it (D) magnesium ion is an alkaline earth metal ion. (E) None of the above. 80. ______can be used to test for reducing sugars: (A) Iodine solution (B) bromine water (C) C Fehling’s solution (D) de-ionized water
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS CHEMISTRY
81. 2CH3COOH + Zn → ? The product of this reaction is: (A) (CH3COO)2Zn + Zn (B) CH3COO CH3 + C Zn (C) (CH3COO)2Zn + H2 (D) CH3COOH + CH4
82. A ketone reacts with hydroxylamine to give (A) a hydrazone (B) an alkanonitrile (C) a nitroso D compound (D) an oxime 83. Alkanoic acids are weak acids and ionises in solution to give: (A) R+ + COOH (B) RCOO- + H+ (C) B RCOO+ + H- (D) RCO+ + OH-
o 84. An excess of ethanol heated with concentrated H2SO4 at a temperature of 180 C is dehydrated B to give mostly: (A) ethane (B) ethene (C) ethanol (D) ethoxyethane 85. Butene can be distinguished from benzene by reaction with: (A) Hydrochloric acid (B) Bromine B water (C) Potassium sulphate (D) Sodium hydroxide 86. Detergent is more efficient than soap in cleansing clothes and dishes because of the following D
reasons except that: (A) the corresponding Ca and Mg compound formed is soluble in H2O (B) detergents are not affected by hardness of water (C) it cleans better than soap (D) it is less expensive
87. In the manufacture of soap industrially, brine is used to.______.the acid salt. (A) oxidise D (B) reduce (C) bleach (D) precipitate 88. Methane gas can be made from carbon (II) oxide gas according to the equation A 25 2CO(g) + 2H2(g) → CH4(g) + CO2(g). Calculate the mass of CO required to produce 8.75 x 10 molecules of CH4? {At masses: C=12.011, H= 1.008, O = 15.999, Avogadro’s no: 6.022 x 1023molecules /mole.} (A) 8140g (B) 4070g (C) 1600g (D) 32.00g (E) 20.35g
89. Potassium ethanoate is formed when: (A) Methanoic acid reacts with KOH (B) Ethanoic acid B
reacts with KOH (C) Methanol reacts with KCO3 (D) Ethanol reacts with CH3COOH 90. Saponification is defined as: (A) Acidic hydrolysis of fat or oil (B) Alkali hydrolysis of fat or oil B (C) Condensation of two monomer units (D) Mixture of glacial ethanoic acid and excess of simple alkanol 91. Soaps and detergents have the same basic characteristics except that the carboxyl group of the B fatty acid in detergent is replaced by: (A) alcohol (B) sulphate or a sulphonate group (C) ester (D) acids 92. The relatively high boiling point of alkanols is due to: (A) aliphatic character (B) ionic bonding C (C) hydrogen bonding (D) covalent bonding 93. Two important sources of detergent are : (A) fat/oils and hydrocarbons (B) coal and cement (C) A pulp and wood (D) water and gas 94. What is the process associated with conversion of vegetable oil to soap? (A) Esterification (B) B Saponification (C) hydrolysis (D) Acidification 95. When ethanal vapour is passed over manganese (II) ethanoate (manganese acetate) catalyst in D the presence of air, the product is: (A) ethanoate (B) ethanol (C) methanol (D) ethanoic acid
96. When KOH is used instead of NaOH in the production of soap, it has the following advantages B except it gives: (A) softer soap (B) harder soap (C) soap with lower melting point (D) more soluble soap
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS CHEMISTRY
97. When palm wine is left exposed to air for a few days, it goes sour. The bacteria in the air A oxidises.______in palm wine to ______(A) ethanol, ethanoic acid (B) ethanoic acid, ethanol (C) ester, ethanoic acid (D) ether, ethanol 98. Which of the following is not true about benzoic acid? (A) It is aromatic in nature (B) It can be C manufactured from methylbenzene (C) It has molecular formula C6H6COOH (D) It sublimes readily
99. Which of the following reactions is correct? (A) C6H5COOH + CaO → C6H5Ca + HCO3 (B) B C6H5COOH + CaO → C6H6 + CaCO3 (C) C6H5COOH + PCl5 → C6H5Cl + H2PO4 (D) C6H5COOH + C2H5OH → C6H6 + C3H8COOH 100. Which of these is not a property of ethanedioic acid? (A) It is a stronger acid than ethanoic acid C but weaker than inorganic acids (B) It is a reducing agent (C) It is an oxidising agent (D) It is soluble in cold water
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS USE OF ENGLISH
Read the passages below and answer the questions that follow:
PASSAGE A Every discernible observer could foresee the crisis which engulfed the Edo House last week. Only a few days before, reports were rife about the AC reaching out to some PDP legislators to cross-carpet. The intention being to gain a majority and then assume the Speakership with the least constraint. Zakawanu Garuba, the then Speaker, retorted with a fiat, threatening to declare vacant the seat of any defector. This in spite of the constitutional support for such action, as evidenced, for example, by the crisis that has torn the PDP apart in Edo State. The party has two factional chairmen in the state, even though one is more vociferous. The desperate attempt by Garuba to cling to the Speaker’s chair is condemnable. He was not being recalled from the legislature; and so, he still has his seat as a floor member. As speaker, he was only first among equals. The Speakership is not his birthright. With the defection of one PDP lawmaker to the AC, the legislature reconvened hours after the bloodbath and elected a protem Speaker, while impeaching and suspending Garuba and a few others. They are to be probed
(Adapted from The Guardian, Thursday, March 4, 2011, p.14)
1. Why did AC woo PDP members? B A. they are few in number B. they want speakership without stress C. PDP members are faithful D. The House is tough
2. The legislators impeached A A. Garuba B. PDP lawmakers C. Garuba and some PDP lawmakers D. Garuba and some lawmwkers
3. According to the passage, the constitution supports D A. The speaker B. Defecting C. Edo State D. Factional chairmen
4. The lawmakers reconvened B A. After the defection of a PDP member B. After the bloodbath C. After suspending the Speaker D. After electing a protem Speaker
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS USE OF ENGLISH
5. At the end, what happened to Garuba B A. He was vindicated B. He was indicted C. He was honoured D. He was humiliated
6. To cross-carpet, as used in the passage, means to C A. change party B. renew membership of a party C. change one’s carpet D. buy new carpet
7. The crisis in the Edo State House of Assembly could be predicted by A A. The lawmakers B. Edo State indigenes C. The protem Speaker D. All conscious observers
PASSAGE B
Nigeria has a troubled power sector which is however undergoing reforms that, hopefully, should usher in era of private sector dominance in terms of ownership and management of generation and distribution. In this transitory phase, it is crucial to lay a foundation for local sourcing of vital inputs and make it the norm for the industry. That is the only way to prevent a replication of the trend in the oil and gas sub-sector, where capital flight is as much as $ 16 billion per annum, as revealed by the Petroleum Technology Development Fund. The PHCN could legitimately insist on quality and standards in its procurement of equipment and materials, but what is playing out is an institutional orientation, evinced in several pursuits of the PHCN that are contemptuous of Nigeria’s aspiration for local content development. In 1998, the defunct National Electric Power Authority defied a directive by the then Minister of Power and steel, Alhaji Bashir Dalhatu, to source its costable components from Nigerian foundries, some of which are of high standards. Actuated by a realization of idle capacity in the foundries and the need to conserve foreign exchange, the Minister applied appropriate pressure on the management of NEPA but found his efforts frustrated. The acute shortage or inefficiency in the metering programme originated from the fact that the only local manufacturer then, the Federal Government-owned electricity Meter Company in Zaria, Kaduna State, established in 1976, but sold to Dantata Investments Limited in December 2002, is not performing. (Adapted from The Punch, Wednesday, May 25, 2011. Pg. 18)
8. Why is there shortage of meter? C A. Non-performance of PHCN B. Non-performance of NEPA C. Non-performance of the Federal Government-owned electricity
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS USE OF ENGLISH
Meter Company D. Non-performance of Dantata Investment Ltd.
9. According to the passage, the solution to the problem in the power sector lies in A A. Sourcing for materials locally B. Getting costable components C. Obeying the minister D. Getting $ 16 billion per annum
10. From the passage it is clear that B A. There is money in the country B. There is shortage of electricity meter C. NEPA is better than PHCN D. NEPA was formed in 1998
11. Which of these is not true of the power sector C A. There is only one local manufacturer of electricity meter B. The power sector is undergoing reforms C. The problem of the power sector cannot be solved D. there was procurement of equipment and materials
12. Which of these is undergoing reforms? D A. NEPA B. PHCN C. Nigeria D. The power sector
13. A suitable title for this passage is D A. Nigeria and her problems B. NEPA versus PHCN C. Electricity meter D. Problems in the power sector Choose the option that best completes the gap: 14. University students ……………..behave well. (A) can (B) should (C) may (D) B must 15. Gloria ………….. have finished the project two days ago. (A) must (B) may (C) A can (D) supposed to 16. You are Goodluck, .....? (A) are you? (B) aren’t you? (C) are’nt you? (D) don’t B you? 17. He ……………. not come now (A) needs (B) needed (C) need (D) will need C 18. Janet .....to know that we are all here. (A) suppose (B) supposes (C) is C supposed (D) should suppose 19. Let it be ..... that there was no king in Ayegun. (A)know (B) knew (C) known C (D) knows 20. We shall see you soon, .....? (A) shall we? (B) shan’t we? (C) shouldn’t we (D) B should we
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS USE OF ENGLISH
21. Neither of the presidential candidates ...... suitable. (A) are (B) is (C) is been B (D) are been suitable. 22. Ten miles ____ a great distance. (A) is (B) are (C) is been A 23. If I were the president, I ..... ask for the money (A) will (B) should (C) would C (D) can 24. I will see you after I ..... spoken with your supervisor. (A) might have (B) have B (C) will have (D) would have 25. “You .....- now see the director”, the secretary told the visitors (A) can (B) B may (C) should (D) would 26. She isn’t Gloria ..... ? (A) is she? (B) isn’t she? (C) aren’t she? (D) doesn’t she? A 27. We have a bus, .....? (A) didn’t we? (B) haven’t we? (C) doesn’t we? (D) hasn’t B we? 28. I knew David .... let us down. (A) may (B) will (C) might (D) can C 29. You ……….. me last week. (A) ought to see (B) ought to had seen (C) ought to C have seen (D) had to have seen 30. Twenty dollars ___ enough for my lunch. (A) are (B) is (c ) are just B 31. The pests ____ our farm every year. (A) invade (B) invades (c ) has invades A 32. If I were the Governor, I ..... ask for the project (A) will (B) should (C) would C (D) can 33. When ……... the Cleric ..... today? (A) does/arrives (B) does/arrived (C) C does/arrive (D) do arrive 34. We shall see you soon, .....? (A) shall we? (B) shan’t we? (C) shouldn’t we (D) B should we 35. You missed the match, .....? (A) don’t you? (B) didn’t you? (C) hadn’t you? (D) B doesn’t you? 36. Walk the dog right now, .....? (A) walkn’t you? (B) will you? (C)shall you? B (D)would you? 37. I am a student, ...... ? (A) I’m I? (B) aren’t I? (C) isn’t I? (D) wouldn’t I? B Pick out the odd/wrong expression in each of the following : 38. (A) I heard his supposed apology (B) I heard his unconvincing apology (C) I D heard his suppose apology (D) I heard he was supposed apology 39. (A) I suppose you know the way (B) I am supposed you know the way (C) I B suppose he knows the way (D) They suppose he knows the way 40. (A) I travel next week (B) I will travel next week (C) I suppose to travel next week (D) I should travel next week C 41. (A) Having discovered the error, he apologized (B) Having discovered the error, the apology was tendered (C) Having known the error, he apologised (D) Having found out the error, he tendered an apology B 42. (A) The job has been done (B) The job has been being done (C) They have D done the job (D) They can have done the job 43. (A) She must finish the project in two days (B) She must finish the project two B days ago (C) She must have finished the project two days ago (D) She ought to have finished the project two days ago 44. (A) If I went in there, I would beat the security officer (B) If I go in there, I B would beat the security officer (C) If I go in there, I will beat the security officer (D) If I go in there, I can beat the security officer
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS USE OF ENGLISH
Choose the option that most appropriately expresses the idea in the underlined expression. 45. My friend’s parent’s are magnanimous (A) rich and popular (B) sociable and C lovable (C) kind and generous (D) wicked and stingy 46. My friend has an overbearing attitude toward me (A) patient (B) impatient C (C) opinionated and domineering (D) considerate and respectful 47. There are a number of makeshift buildings in town (A) modern buildings (B) C old fashion buildings (C) temporary buildings (D) permanent buildings 48. Post UME is a hurdle to cross. (A) a necessary and simple exam to pass (B) an D unnecessary and difficult exam to pass (C) an unnecessary but simple exam to pass (D) a necessary and challenging exam to pass 49. His contribution to the project is invaluable (A) extremely useful (B) of no A value (C) of little value (D) can not be valued 50. That was a dawn-to-earth approach (A) poor (B) ordinary (C) practical (D) B immodest 51. Concerning my admission, I have to cross my fingers (A) wait and hope for the A best (B) wait in frustration (C) wait confidently (D) take some risk 52. My father is indifferent to my choice of University (A) supports (B) opposes D (C) not decided (D) not concerned 53. We need an ad hoc arrangement towards the project (A) intelligent (B) D advanced (C) permanent (D) temporary 54. The student’s reply to the lecturer betrayed his rudeness (A) covered (B) C showed (C) reduced (D) increased 55. His conduct in the last elections was above board (A) arrogant (B) honest (C) C above average (D) excellent 56. That was a dispassionate decision (A) bias (B) personal (C) unaffected (D) C ineffective 57. On the matter of worship, some sit on the fence (A) go to the extreme (B) are D decisive (C) are fanatics (D) are undecided Choose the option that is nearest in meaning to the word underlined: 58. In this matter, we must be prepared to tolerate human frailty. (A) B inquisitiveness (B) weakness (C) profligacy (D) innovation. 59. I detest his lackadaisical attitude. (A) carefree (B) lazy (C) supercilious (D) A disloyal. 60. Nobody will endure such profligate spending habits. (A) generous (B) C arrogant (C) wasteful (D) mindless. 61. Is he oblivious of the political situation in his community? (A) unconscious (B) A conscious (C) afraid (D) intolerant. 62. Many people look into the future with trepidation . (A) certainty (B) C uncertainty (C) fear (D) faith. 63. Can you marry such a lanky man? (A) tall and thin (B) sturdy (C) fat and short A (D) tall and short. 64. The election system we adopted was his brainchild. (A) undoing factor (B) B invention (C) power (D) fabrication Choose the option opposite in meaning to the word underlined. 65. Peter always approaches issues optimistically. (A) realistically (B) B
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS USE OF ENGLISH
pessimistically (C) carelessly (D) unrealistically. 66. Why should Dixon be evasive in answering the question? (A) indirect (B) B direct (C) guessing (D) sure. 67. John and Ahmed’s ideas were speculative (A) stipulative (B) superlative (C) C factual (D) attractive. 68. Henry was admitted to the hospital with profuse bleeding. (A) much (B) little B (C) internal (D) continuous 69. Many people regard him as prolific. (A) diplomatic (B) productive (C) C unproductive (D) unacademic. 70. Our success is paramount in his mind. (A) unimportant (B) important (C) A certain (D) uncertain. 71. In all, I consider the behaviour unpalatable. (A) unacceptable (B) offensive (C) C acceptable (D) inoffensive. 72. Her action will certainly exacerbate the situation. (A) ameliorate (B) worsen A (C) aggravate (D) clarify. 73. Is he really behaving oddly ? (A) abnormally (B) normally (C) evenly (D) D properly. 74. He always approaches issues optimistically. (A) realistically (B) pessimistically B (C) carelessly (D) unrealistically. 75. Her health deteriorated rapidly. (A) worsened (B) improved (C) stagnated (D) B declined. Which of the following sentences is correct? 76. (A) One should mind his business. (B) One should mind one’s business (C) One B should mind her business. 77. (A) This case is between you and I. (B) This case is between you and me. (C) B This case is between the two both of us. 78. (A) With them around, we have a great problem on our hands. (B) With them A around, we have a great problem on our hand. (C) With them around, we have a great problem on hand. 79. (A) The dog wagged it’s tail. (B) The dog wagged its tail. (C) The dog wagged B its’ tail. 80. (A) A ten year old boy is missing. (B) A ten-year-old boy is missing. (C) A ten B year-old boy is missing. 81. Choose the option that sounds the same with: two (A) tool (B) too (C) tow (D) B to 82. Choose the option that sounds the same with bear : (A) bare (B) beer (C) B bared (D) beard 83. Choose the option that sounds the same with the given word. Key (A) kiss B (B) quay (C) keyed (D) kissed Choose the word that is correctly spelled. 84. (A) acomodation (B) accommodation (C) accomodation (D) acommodation B 85. (A) embarrassment (B) embarassment (C) embarrasment (D) embarasment A 86. (A) horrific (B) horific (C) horiffic (D) horriffic A 87. As soon as Joy arrived, she started looking for food. The underlined D expression is an ------. (A) adverbial phrase of reason (B) adverbial clause of reason (C) adverbial phrase of time (D) adverbial clause of time
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS USE OF ENGLISH
88. My friend, a brilliant lecturer, won many prizes. The underlined expression is C a(n) ...... (A) adjectival clause (B) relative clause (C) appositive phrase (D) subject of ‘won’ 89. I passed very well because I studied hard. The underlined expression is a (A) D relative clause introducer (B) linking verb (C) adverb of reason (D) subordinating conjunction 90. Bello and I love each other. (A) preposition (B) reciprocal pronoun (C) noun B phrase (D) adjectival phrase 91. I prefer writing to acting. The underlined expressions is a(n) ------. (A) verb C (B) participle (C) gerund (D) object 92. Having finished my assignment, I started watching television. The underlined C expression is a(n) ------. (A) infinitive clause (B) gerund (C) participial phrase (D) noun clause 93. If you leave early, you’ll meet Sola at home. The underlined expression is a --- C ------. (A) nominal clause (B) verbal clause (C) conditional clause (D) adjectival clause 94. Wounded by a lion, the hunter trudged home. The underlined expression is a C ------.(A) nominal clause (B) verbal clause (C) participial clause (D) adjectival clause 95. I’m proud of you. The underlined expression functions as(A) prepositional B complement (B) adjectival complement (C) subject complement (D) verbal complement 96. A noun phrase lacks one of the following: (A) noun (B) verb (C) adjective (D) B adverb 97. Eve gave Adam an apple. An apple in the sentence functions as------.(A) B subject of the verb ‘gave’ (B) direct object of the verb (C) indirect object of the verb (D) object complement 98. I wonder if you know where he lives. This sentence is a(n) ...... (A) thoughtful A statement (B) polite command (C) indirect question (D) subtle exclamation. 99. An example of gradable adjectives is … (A) each (B) beautiful (C) dead (D) B live 100. A clause differs from a phrase because a clause contains ………. (A) a larger C number of words (B) a fewer number of words (C) a finite verb (D) a non- finite verb
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PHYSICS
1. A ball is thrown up into the air. At the highest point of its trajectory the ball: (A) Is accelerating B downwards (B) has zero acceleration (C) is accelerating upwards (D) is still moving upwards
2. A ball of mass 200 g moving with a velocity of 8 m/s collides and sticks with another ball of A mass 300 g moving in the same direction with velocity 4 m/s. What is the common velocity of the balls after the collision? (A) 5.6 ms-1 (B) 2.8 ms-1 (C) 11.2 ms-1 (D) 1.4 ms-1
3. A boy holds the end of a rubber cord from which hangs a solid metal ball, if the boy whirls the C ball in a horizontal circle, keeping his hand still. If the rubber cord breaks when the ball is at a point on the circle, in what direction will the ball move? (A) towards the hand of the boy B. away from the hand of the boy C. in the direction of the tangent to the circle at the point of break D. None of the above 4. A force of 20 N applied parallel to the surface of horizontal table is just sufficient to make a C block of mass 4 kg set for motion. Find the acceleration when the force is doubled. (A) 2 ms-2 (B) 4 ms-2 (C) 5 ms-2 (D) 10 ms-2 5. A man walks 1 km due east and then 1 km due north. His displacement is (A) 1 km N15°E (B) 1 C km N30°E (C) √2 km N45°E (D) 2 km N75°E 6. A motor car moves with a velocity of 20 ms-1 on a rough horizontal road and covers a D displacement of 50 m. Find the coefficient of dynamic friction between the type and the ground (g = 10 ms-2) (A) 0.3 (B) 0.6 (C) 0.5 (D) 0.4 7. A physics student standing on the edge of a cliff throws a stone vertically downward with an C initial speed of 10.0 m/s. The instant before the stone hits the ground below, it is traveling at a speed of 30.0 m/s. If the physics student were to throw the rock horizontally outward from the cliff instead, with the same initial speed of 10.0 m/s, what is the magnitude of the velocity of the stone just before it hits the ground? (A) 10.0m/s (B) 20.0m/s (C) 30.0m/s (D) 40.0m/s 8. A quantity is defined as the product of cross-sectional area and change in momentum per unit C length. Which of the following is its SI unit? (A) Nm (B) kgs-1 (C) kgm2s-1 (D) Nkgs-1 9. A rectangular concrete block 40 cm x 30 cm x 60 cm of mass 10 kg rests on a horizontal flat C surface. What is the minimum pressure it can possibly exert on the surface? (A) 816.6 Nm-2 (B) 816. 6 Nm2 (C) 408.3 Nm-2 (D) 608.4 Nm 10. A simple hydrometer consists of uniform cylinder suitably weighted to float upright in most C common liquids. It is graduated to read the relative density of a liquid directly. Which of the following is NOT correct? (A) When placed in a liquid, it displaces exactly its own weight of the liquid (B) Its graduation increases from top to base (C) When placed in a liquid, it displaces exactly its own volume of the liquid (D) The product of the volume and density of liquid displaced is equal to its mass
11. A stone which is dropped into a dry well hits the bottom in 2.2 s. How deep is the well? (Take D g=10m/s) (A) 40.4 m (B) 2.4 m (C) 48.4 m (D) 24.2 m 12. A woman whose mass is 70 kg sits 2.4 m from the fulcrum of a seesaw. At what distance from A the fulcrum should a 60 kg man sit to balance the seesaw? (A) 2.8 m (B) 2.4 m (C) 3.2 m (D) 3.8 m
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PHYSICS
13. An air bubble trapped at a depth in a liquid rises to the surface. Which of the following is true B about its mass and density as it rises? (A) Its mass and density increase (B) Its mass is constant while its density decreases (C) Its mass and density is constant. (D) Its mass is constant while its density increases. 14. Complete the following sentence: The operation of a hydraulic jack is an application of (A) A Pascal's principle. B. Archimedes’ principle. (C) Bernoulli's principle. (D) irrotational flow.
15. Complete the following statement: Today, the standard meter is defined in terms of (A) the D distance from the earth’s equator to the north pole. (B) the wavelength of light emitted from a krypton atom. (C) the wavelength of light emitted from a sodium atom. (D) the speed of light.
16. Convert 30 metre per second to centimeter per minute (A) 20,000 cm/min (B) 180,000 B cm/min (C) 120,000 cm/min (D) 150,000 cm/min 17. During a football match, player A kicks the ball 40 m, 30o E of S to player B who instantly kicks it C 30 m, 60o E of N. What is the magnitude of the resultant displacement of the ball? (A) 30 m (B) 40 m (C) 50 m (D) 60 m
18. How much work is done against gravity in sliding a 500g object through 2 m up a smooth plane D that is inclined at 30o to the horizontal? (g = 9.8 ms-2) (A) 9.8 J (B) 19.8 J (C) 16.2 J (D) 4.9 J
19. If a small body of mass m is moving with angular velocity ω in a circle of radius r, what is its D kinetic energy? (A) mω r (B) m ω 2r/2 (C) m ω r2/2 (D) m ω 2r2/2 20. In free fall, two balls of masses 20 kg and 10 kg were dropped from a height. If the ball with C the smaller mass reached the ground after 4 s, what is the difference between the time the two balls reach the ground? (A) 8 s (B) 2 s (C) 0 s (D) 4 s 21. In what distance can a 1,500 kg automobile be stopped if the brake is applied when the speed C is 20 m/s and the coefficient of sliding friction is 0.7 between the tyres and the ground? (A) 98.10 m (B) 71.67 m (C) 29.15 m (D) 20.10 m 22. The highest point of a simple pendulum bob is 5cm vertically above the lowest point as it A swings to and fro between the two extreme ends. At what velocity does it swing past the lowest point (equilibrium point) where the string is vertical? (take g = 10 m/s2) (A) 1 m/s (B) 2 m/s (C) 5 m/s (D) 10 m/s 23. Three vectors A, B, and C add together to yield zero: A + B + C = 0. The vectors A and C point in B opposite directions and their magnitudes are related by the expression: A = 2C. Which one of the following conclusions is correct? (A) A and B have equal magnitudes and point in opposite directions. (B) B and C have equal magnitudes and point in the same direction. (C) B and C have equal magnitudes and point in opposite directions. (D) A and B point in the same direction, but A has twice the magnitude of B.
24. Which of the following could be measured in the same units as force? (A) Energy/distance (B) A Energy x distance (C) Energy/time (D) Momentum x distance 25. Which of the following does not affect the pressure at a point beneath the surface of a liquid? A (A) Surface area of the liquid. (B) Density of the liquid (C) Depth of the point below the surface (D) Strength of the gravitational field 2
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PHYSICS
26. Which of the following pairs contains one vector and one scalar quantity? (A) Displacement: B acceleration (B) Force : kinetic energy (C) Momentum : velocity (D) Power : speed
27. Which of the following statements is correct (A) uniform speed always implies uniform C velocity (B) uniform speed always implies zero acceleration (C) uniform speed may imply non- zero acceleration (D) constant momentum implies constant acceleration 28. Which of the of the following is a measurement taken with Venier callipers? (A) 2.0 cm (B) B 2.00 cm (C) 2.000 cm (D) 2.0000 cm 29. Which of the units of the following physical quantities are derived? I. Area II. Thrust III. B Pressure IV. Mass. (A) I, II, III and IV (B) I, II and III only (C) I, II and IV only (D) I and II only
30. Which one of the following situations is not possible? C A. A body has zero velocity and non-zero acceleration. B. A body travels with a northward velocity and a northward acceleration. C. A body travels with a constant velocity and a time-varying acceleration. D. A body travels with a constant acceleration and a time-varying velocity. 31. C If C is the thermal capacity of a material of mass m and S is its specific heat capacity, then (A) C=s/m (B)S=Cm(C) C=Sm (D)DS=m/s 32. A black car can be more uncomfortably hot on a warm day than a white car because (A) it is B hot on a warm day (B) a black object is a better absorber of heat (C) black cars have heaters installed in them (D) white cars have air conditioning systems installed in them 33. A little sag is left in overhead telephone wires (A) because taut wires do not conduct sound D easily (B) to allow for the effect of a rise in temperature due to heating effect of current flowing through them. (C) to allow for the effect of a rise in temperature of the surrounding atmosphere. (D) to allow for the effect of a fall in temperature of the surrounding atmosphere. 34. A piece of copper wire of length 100 cm at 30oC is heated to 120oC. If its linear expansivity is B 1.8 ×10-4/ k, its new length is (A) 166.6 cm (B) 101.6 cm (C) 180.6 (D) 1.08 cm 35. A sample of a monatomic ideal gas is originally at 20 °C. What is the final temperature of the B gas if both the pressure and volume are doubled? (A) 5 °C (B) 80 °C (C) 20 °C (D) 899 °C 36. A volatile liquid used for cooling purpose in refrigerator is (A) liquid ammonia (B) cold water A (C) liquid nitrogen (D) liquid helium 37. Complete the following statement: A temperature decrease of 30 C° is equal to a temperature D decrease of (A) 30 F°. (B) 17 F°. (C) 30 K. (D) 86 F°. 38. Complete the following statement: Bimetallic strips used as adjustable switches in electric D appliances consist of metal strips that must have different (A) mass. (B) volume. (C) length. (D) expansion coefficients. 39. Heat can be transferred from one end of a metal rod in contact with heat to the other end A which is in contact with heat through (A) Conduction (B) Convection (C) Radiation (D) Evaporation
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PHYSICS
40. Heat supplied or removed from a system which causes a change of state without a change in C temperature is (A) Specific heat (B) Heat capacity (C) Latent heat (D) Boiling heat 41. How many atmospheres of pressure must a litre of gas, initially at a pressure of 1 atmosphere A and temperature -20oC, be after it has been compressed to ½ litre at 40oC? A. 2.47 atm. (B) 4.5 atm. (C) 8.0 atm. (D) 3.8 atm. (E) 16.8 atm. 42. On a cold day, a good conductor X feels colder to the torch than a poor conductor Y because D (A) Y retains more heat than X (B) the temperature of X is lower than that of Y (C) X conducts heat from the body less rapidly than Y (D) X transfers heat from body more rapidly than Y
43. The boiling point of water does not depend on (A) the impurities in water (B) the external C pressure (C) the quantity of water (D) all of the above 44. The ice and steam points of a local liquid in glass thermometer are 10 a and 90a respectively. D What will the thermometer read when the temperature is 30 0C? (A) 40a (B) 38a (C) 36a (D) 34a 45. The lower and upper fixed points on a thermometer are 40 and 120 respectively. Its reading at D 60oC is (A) 60 (B) 40 (C) 160 (D) 88 46. The pressure exerted by a given mass of gas in a container (A) Decreases if the container is B heated (B) Increases if the molecules of the gas move faster (C) Increases if the volume of the container is doubled (D) Decreases as the kinetic energy of the gas molecules increases
47. The temperature in an electric iron is regulated by (A) thermometer (B) bimettalic strip (C) B steel (D) conductor 48. Water has an anomalous behavior between 0o and 4oC. Which of the following is correct? (A) D Mass of water increases between 0oC and 4oC (B) Density of water decreases between 0oC and 4oC (C) Volume of water increases between 0oC and 4oC (D) Volume of water decreases between 0oC and 4oC 49. What is the Celsius equivalent of 50.0° F? (A) 10° C (B) 20° C (C) 30° C (D) 40° C A 50. When water is heated in a glass vessel, the level first falls and then rises because (A) The D apparent expansion of the water is initially small and later increases. (B) There is anomalous expansion of water. (C)The glass vessel does not expand. (D)Glass vessel expands first before water starts a more rapid expansion. 51. Which of the following quantities of water has undergone the greatest change from its heat B content at melting point? (A) 0.5 kg of water at 3oC (B) 0.2 kg of water at 8oC (C) 0.005 kg of water at 80oC (D) 0.1 kg of water at 12oC
52. Which would cause a more serious burn: 30 g of steam or 30 g of liquid water, both at 100 °C; C and why is this so? (A) Water, because it is denser than steam. (B) Steam, because of its specific heat capacity. (C) Steam, because of its latent heat of vaporization. (D) Water, because its specific heat is greater than that of steam.
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PHYSICS
53. A certain radioactive element has a half life of 20 years. How long will it take the activity to B become ¼ of its original? (A) 20 years (B) 40 years (C) 60 years (D) 80 years
54. A plane progressive wave is represented by 2.0100sin2 xty where all the symbols A have their usual meanings. What is the velocity of the wave? (A) 500 m s-1 (B) 400 m s-1 (C) 200 m s-1 (D) 100 m s-1
55. A point on a stationary wave where there is no movement of the medium is called (A) Node A (B) Antinode (C) Note (D) Amplitude 56. A uniform wave has a speed of 10m/s and a period of 0.5 s. The distance between two nearest D crestsis(A)0.2m(B) 20m(C) 2m(D)5m 57. A vibrating string has a tension of 40 and produces a note of 200 when plucked in the C middle. When the length of string is unaltered and the tension is increased to160 , the ݖܪ ܰ frequency becomes (A) 1600 (B) 800 (C) 400 (D) 200 ܰ 58. An organ pipe closed at one end is 80cm long. Determine the frequency of the fundamental D (ݖ 340m/s? (A) 213Hz (B) 318Hz (C) 425Hz (Dܪin air is ܼܪݖ speed of soundܪݖ that theܪnote assuming 106Hz 59. As transverse wave moves through a medium, the particles of the medium (A) vibrate in a C path parallel to the path of the wave (B) do not move (C) vibrate in a path perpendicular to the path of the wave (D) vibrate at an angle of 60o to the path of the wave
60. The sound heard after the reflection of sound wave from a plane surface is known as (A) Echo A (B) Refraction (C) Vibration (D) Revibration 61. Which of the following properties is not common to all waves? (A) Reflection (B) interference D (C) Diffraction (D) Polarization 62. Which of the following statements is true about electromagnetic waves? (A) They are D longitudinal (B) They can be seen (C) They have the same frequency in vacuum (D) They travel at the same speed in a vacuum 63. Which one of the following statements concerning electromagnetic waves is false? (A) A Electromagnetic waves are longitudinal waves. (B) Electromagnetic waves transfer energy through space. (C) The existence of electromagnetic waves was predicted by Maxwell. (D) Electromagnetic waves can propagate through a material substance. 64. Which one of the following statements concerning waves is false? (A) A wave can have both D transverse and longitudinal components. (B) A wave carries energy from one place to another. (C) A wave does not result in the bulk flow of the material of its medium. (D) A transverse wave is one in which the disturbance is parallel to the direction of travel.
65. A light sensitive area at the back of the eye where images are formed is called (A) Yellow Spot D (B) Iris (C) Ciliary Muscle (D) Retina
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PHYSICS
66. A luminous object is placed at a given distance from a converging lens of focal length 12cm and D a real image is produced. Find the image distance if it is equal to the object distance. (A) 6cm (B) 3cm (C) 12cm (D) 24cm 67. An object is placed 15 cm in front of a concave mirror of radius 40 cm. The image formed is B (A) virtual and 60 cm behind the mirror (B) real and 60 cm in front of the mirror (C) virtual and 40 cm from the mirror (D) at infinity 68. How far from a concave mirror of radius 120 cm must an object be placed such that its erect C image is four times its natural size? (A) 72 cm (B) 64 cm (C) 45 cm (D) 50 cm 69. How many images are formed when an object is placed in front of two plane mirrors that are C inclined at angle 30o to each other? (A) 0 (B) 6 (C) 11 (D) 12 70. Professor Peters walks directly toward a plane mirror at a speed of 0.25 m/s. Determine the B speed of the image relative to him. (A) 0.13m/s (B) 0.50m/s (C) 0.25m/s (D) 0.75m/s 71. The angle of incidence in a denser medium when the angle of refraction in the less dense A medium is 90° is called a (A) Critical angle (B) Reflected angle (C) Incident angle (D) Emergent angle
72. The driving mirror is a (A) plane mirror (B) convex mirror (C) concave mirror (D) thick plane B mirror 73. The following are types of a converging lens except C (A) biconvex (B) plano-convex (C) mini-convex (D) converging meniscus
74. When the Sun, the earth and the moon are in line during their movement, with the earth being A the opaque object and casting its shadow on the moon, we have (A) Lunar eclipse (B) Total eclipse (C) Partial eclipse (D) Annular eclipse 75. Which of the following instruments could be used in finding angle of elevation of the sun? (A) D Periscope (B) Telescope (C) Kaleidoscope (D) Sextant 76. Which of the following optical instruments does not depend on the use of plane mirrors? (A) B Kaleidoscope (B) Simple microscope (C) Sextant (D) Simple periscope 77. Which of the following statements supports the assumption that light travels in straight lines? D (A) light can be diffracted (B) light can be reflected (C) a source of light produces interferences patterns on a suitably placed screen (D) a source of light produces distinct shadows of opaque objects 78. A Which of the following is correct about nuclear fission? It is: (A) the splitting of a heavy nucleus into two or more lighter particles (B) an agent used to slow down neutrons in a controlled atomic chain reaction (C) combing light atomic nuclei to form heavy (D) the spontaneous disintegration occurring in the nucleus of certain atoms 79. A light energy E falls on a metal and the electrons with a maximum kinetic energy of 0.2eV are C ejected. If the work function of the metal is 0.3eV, what is the value of E? (A) 0.10eV (B) 0.06eV (C) 0.50eV (D) 1.50eV
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PHYSICS
80. A nucleus is unstable if (A) it has two or more isotopes (B) its binding energy is not sufficient B to hold nuclear particles together. (C) it is very light with very low density (D) it has no significant mass. 81. A radioactive substance has a half life of 4 years. If its activity today is 200 dps, its activity in 8 A years from today is (A) 50 dps (B) 25 dps (C) 20 dps (D) 10 dps 82. A substance has a half-life of 3min. After 6min, the count rate was observed to be 400.What D was its count rate at zero time? (A) 2400 (B) 200 (C) 1200 (D) 1600 83. An element and its isotopes differ only in the number of (A) electrons (B) neutrons (C) B protons (D) irons 84. Complete the following sentence: When electrons from a heated filament accelerate through C vacuum toward a positive plate, (A) only an electric field will be produced. (B) only a magnetic field will be produced. (C) electromagnetic waves will be produced. (D) longitudinal waves will be produced. 85. Radioactive elements are (A) chemically reactive elements (B) noble elements (C) rare earth D elements (D) elements that spontaneously emit radiation 86. The following radiations are electrically neutral except (A) α-rays (B) ϒ-rays (C) X- rays (D) A neutrons 87. Upon which one of the following parameters does the energy of a photon depend? (A) mass D (B) polarization (C) amplitude (D) frequency 88. Which of the following is NOT true about cathode ray? (A) It moves in a straight line (B) It D causes fluorescence (C) It possesses a negative charge (D) It can produce -particles 89. Who proposed the planetary model of the nucleus? (A) J. J Thomson (B) Albert Einstein (C) C Ernest Rutherford (D) Marie Curie 90. X- rays cannot be used (A) to take photographs of bone structure in the body (B) to detect B finger prints (C) to detect flaws in metal castings (D) to detect alterations to works of art 91. 1 farad is equivalent to: (A) 1 coulomb/volt (B) 1 volt/coulomb (C) 1 joules/coulomb (D) 1 A ampere/sec. (E) volts per unit charge 92. A 0 - 10mA galvanometer with a coil resistance of 30 ohm can be converted to a 0-10A C ammeter by using (A) 0.03ohm series resistor (B) 9.99ohm shunt resistor (C) 0.03ohm shunt resistor (D) 9.99ohm series resistor 93. A battery has an internal resistance of 4 and an emf of 12V. The terminal voltage when a load B of 20 Ω is connected across it is: (A) 4 (B) 10 V (C) 20 V (D) 2V 94. A conducting sphere has a net charge of 4.8 1017 C. What is the approximate number of B excess electrons on the sphere if the fundamental natural charge is -1.6 x 10-19C? (A) 100 (B) 300 (C) 200 (D) 400
95. A magnet cannot be demagnetized by (A) heating (B) hammering (C) chemical treatment (D) C the use of solenoid through which an alternating current is flowing 96. An a.c voltage is connected to an RLC series circuit of resistance 5 Ω, inductance 3 mH and a C capacitance of 0.05 µF. Calculate the resonance frequency. (A) 11.0 kHz (B) 12.0 kHz (C) 13.0 kHz (D) 14.0 kHz
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PHYSICS
97. An electric heater converts 1KJ of electrical energy to heat energy every 2 second with 100% A efficiency. The power produced is (A) 0.5 KW (B) 2 KW (C) 1KW (D) 10W 98. Complete the following statement: The electromotive force is (A) the maximum potential A difference between the terminals of a battery. (B) the force that accelerates electrons through a wire when a battery is connected to it. (C) the force that accelerates protons through a wire when a battery is connected to it. (D) the maximum capacitance between the terminals of a battery. 99. If a charged body is moving in a circle on a horizontal plane, what is the general direction of C the resulting magnetic field? (A) In the plane of the circle. (B) At an angle 45o to the plane of motion. (C) Along the perpendicular axis through the center of the circle. (D) Along the tangent to the circle. 100. If a resistor is halved in magnitude and the potential across it is tripled, then the ratio of the D old current to the new current is (A) 1:3 (B) 3:1 (C) 6:1 (D) 1:6 101. The angle between the earth’s magnetic field and the horizontal is called angle of (A) B declination (B) dip (C) variation (D) inclination 102. The basic difference between the galvanometer and the electric motor is (A) The size of the B magnetic fields (B) The presence of hair springs in the galvanometer (C) The soft iron armature in the galvanometer (D) The couple formed on the parallel sides of the rectangular coil in the 103. The electromotive force is in such a direction as to oppose the motion or charge producing it. B This is a statement of (A) Faraday’s Law (B) Lenz Law (C) Maxwell Law (D) Ampere’s law
104. The potential difference across the ends of a wire is doubled in magnitude. If Ohm’s law is C obeyed, one of the following statements concerning the resistance of the wire is true? (A) The resistance is one half of its original value. (B) The resistance is twice its original value. (C) The resistance is not changed. (D) The resistance increases by a factor of four.
105. The process of adding impurity to a semiconductor to increase its conductivity is called (A) A Doping (B) Annealing (C) Heating (D) Hardening 106. Which if the following combinations consists of intrinsic properties of materials (A) volume C and density (B) density and mass (C) resistance and resistivity (D) density and resistivity.
107. Which of the following can be measured with a potentiometer: (A) Emf of a secondary cell (B) A Resistivity of a wire (C) Potential difference across a conductor (D) Resistance of a wire
108. Which of the following devices is odd in the list ? (A) thermocouple (B) potentiometer (C) d.c. B generator (D) solar cell 109. Which of the following is an essential physical property of the wires used for making fuses? (A) C high thermal conductivity (B) low density (C) low melting point (D) low electrical resistivity
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PHYSICS
110. Which one of the following statements concerning the magnetic force on a charged particle in D a magnetic field is true? (A) It is a maximum if the particle is stationary. (B) It is a maximum if the particle moves parallel to the field. (C) It acts in the direction of motion for a positively charged particle. (D) It depends on the component of the particle's velocity that is perpendicular to the field.
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PHYSICS
1. A ball is thrown up into the air. At the highest point of its trajectory the ball: (A) Is accelerating B downwards (B) has zero acceleration (C) is accelerating upwards (D) is still moving upwards
2. A ball of mass 200 g moving with a velocity of 8 m/s collides and sticks with another ball of A mass 300 g moving in the same direction with velocity 4 m/s. What is the common velocity of the balls after the collision? (A) 5.6 ms-1 (B) 2.8 ms-1 (C) 11.2 ms-1 (D) 1.4 ms-1
3. A boy holds the end of a rubber cord from which hangs a solid metal ball, if the boy whirls the C ball in a horizontal circle, keeping his hand still. If the rubber cord breaks when the ball is at a point on the circle, in what direction will the ball move? (A) towards the hand of the boy B. away from the hand of the boy C. in the direction of the tangent to the circle at the point of break D. None of the above 4. A force of 20 N applied parallel to the surface of horizontal table is just sufficient to make a C block of mass 4 kg set for motion. Find the acceleration when the force is doubled. (A) 2 ms-2 (B) 4 ms-2 (C) 5 ms-2 (D) 10 ms-2 5. A man walks 1 km due east and then 1 km due north. His displacement is (A) 1 km N15°E (B) 1 C km N30°E (C) √2 km N45°E (D) 2 km N75°E 6. A motor car moves with a velocity of 20 ms-1 on a rough horizontal road and covers a D displacement of 50 m. Find the coefficient of dynamic friction between the type and the ground (g = 10 ms-2) (A) 0.3 (B) 0.6 (C) 0.5 (D) 0.4 7. A physics student standing on the edge of a cliff throws a stone vertically downward with an C initial speed of 10.0 m/s. The instant before the stone hits the ground below, it is traveling at a speed of 30.0 m/s. If the physics student were to throw the rock horizontally outward from the cliff instead, with the same initial speed of 10.0 m/s, what is the magnitude of the velocity of the stone just before it hits the ground? (A) 10.0m/s (B) 20.0m/s (C) 30.0m/s (D) 40.0m/s 8. A quantity is defined as the product of cross-sectional area and change in momentum per unit C length. Which of the following is its SI unit? (A) Nm (B) kgs-1 (C) kgm2s-1 (D) Nkgs-1 9. A rectangular concrete block 40 cm x 30 cm x 60 cm of mass 10 kg rests on a horizontal flat C surface. What is the minimum pressure it can possibly exert on the surface? (A) 816.6 Nm-2 (B) 816. 6 Nm2 (C) 408.3 Nm-2 (D) 608.4 Nm 10. A simple hydrometer consists of uniform cylinder suitably weighted to float upright in most C common liquids. It is graduated to read the relative density of a liquid directly. Which of the following is NOT correct? (A) When placed in a liquid, it displaces exactly its own weight of the liquid (B) Its graduation increases from top to base (C) When placed in a liquid, it displaces exactly its own volume of the liquid (D) The product of the volume and density of liquid displaced is equal to its mass
11. A stone which is dropped into a dry well hits the bottom in 2.2 s. How deep is the well? (Take D g=10m/s) (A) 40.4 m (B) 2.4 m (C) 48.4 m (D) 24.2 m 12. A woman whose mass is 70 kg sits 2.4 m from the fulcrum of a seesaw. At what distance from A the fulcrum should a 60 kg man sit to balance the seesaw? (A) 2.8 m (B) 2.4 m (C) 3.2 m (D) 3.8 m
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PHYSICS
13. An air bubble trapped at a depth in a liquid rises to the surface. Which of the following is true B about its mass and density as it rises? (A) Its mass and density increase (B) Its mass is constant while its density decreases (C) Its mass and density is constant. (D) Its mass is constant while its density increases. 14. Complete the following sentence: The operation of a hydraulic jack is an application of (A) A Pascal's principle. B. Archimedes’ principle. (C) Bernoulli's principle. (D) irrotational flow.
15. Complete the following statement: Today, the standard meter is defined in terms of (A) the D distance from the earth’s equator to the north pole. (B) the wavelength of light emitted from a krypton atom. (C) the wavelength of light emitted from a sodium atom. (D) the speed of light.
16. Convert 30 metre per second to centimeter per minute (A) 20,000 cm/min (B) 180,000 B cm/min (C) 120,000 cm/min (D) 150,000 cm/min 17. During a football match, player A kicks the ball 40 m, 30o E of S to player B who instantly kicks it C 30 m, 60o E of N. What is the magnitude of the resultant displacement of the ball? (A) 30 m (B) 40 m (C) 50 m (D) 60 m
18. How much work is done against gravity in sliding a 500g object through 2 m up a smooth plane D that is inclined at 30o to the horizontal? (g = 9.8 ms-2) (A) 9.8 J (B) 19.8 J (C) 16.2 J (D) 4.9 J
19. If a small body of mass m is moving with angular velocity ω in a circle of radius r, what is its D kinetic energy? (A) mω r (B) m ω 2r/2 (C) m ω r2/2 (D) m ω 2r2/2 20. In free fall, two balls of masses 20 kg and 10 kg were dropped from a height. If the ball with C the smaller mass reached the ground after 4 s, what is the difference between the time the two balls reach the ground? (A) 8 s (B) 2 s (C) 0 s (D) 4 s 21. In what distance can a 1,500 kg automobile be stopped if the brake is applied when the speed C is 20 m/s and the coefficient of sliding friction is 0.7 between the tyres and the ground? (A) 98.10 m (B) 71.67 m (C) 29.15 m (D) 20.10 m 22. The highest point of a simple pendulum bob is 5cm vertically above the lowest point as it A swings to and fro between the two extreme ends. At what velocity does it swing past the lowest point (equilibrium point) where the string is vertical? (take g = 10 m/s2) (A) 1 m/s (B) 2 m/s (C) 5 m/s (D) 10 m/s 23. Three vectors A, B, and C add together to yield zero: A + B + C = 0. The vectors A and C point in B opposite directions and their magnitudes are related by the expression: A = 2C. Which one of the following conclusions is correct? (A) A and B have equal magnitudes and point in opposite directions. (B) B and C have equal magnitudes and point in the same direction. (C) B and C have equal magnitudes and point in opposite directions. (D) A and B point in the same direction, but A has twice the magnitude of B.
24. Which of the following could be measured in the same units as force? (A) Energy/distance (B) A Energy x distance (C) Energy/time (D) Momentum x distance 25. Which of the following does not affect the pressure at a point beneath the surface of a liquid? A (A) Surface area of the liquid. (B) Density of the liquid (C) Depth of the point below the surface (D) Strength of the gravitational field 2
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PHYSICS
26. Which of the following pairs contains one vector and one scalar quantity? (A) Displacement: B acceleration (B) Force : kinetic energy (C) Momentum : velocity (D) Power : speed
27. Which of the following statements is correct (A) uniform speed always implies uniform C velocity (B) uniform speed always implies zero acceleration (C) uniform speed may imply non- zero acceleration (D) constant momentum implies constant acceleration 28. Which of the of the following is a measurement taken with Venier callipers? (A) 2.0 cm (B) B 2.00 cm (C) 2.000 cm (D) 2.0000 cm 29. Which of the units of the following physical quantities are derived? I. Area II. Thrust III. B Pressure IV. Mass. (A) I, II, III and IV (B) I, II and III only (C) I, II and IV only (D) I and II only
30. Which one of the following situations is not possible? C A. A body has zero velocity and non-zero acceleration. B. A body travels with a northward velocity and a northward acceleration. C. A body travels with a constant velocity and a time-varying acceleration. D. A body travels with a constant acceleration and a time-varying velocity. 31. C If C is the thermal capacity of a material of mass m and S is its specific heat capacity, then (A) C=s/m (B)S=Cm(C) C=Sm (D)DS=m/s 32. A black car can be more uncomfortably hot on a warm day than a white car because (A) it is B hot on a warm day (B) a black object is a better absorber of heat (C) black cars have heaters installed in them (D) white cars have air conditioning systems installed in them 33. A little sag is left in overhead telephone wires (A) because taut wires do not conduct sound D easily (B) to allow for the effect of a rise in temperature due to heating effect of current flowing through them. (C) to allow for the effect of a rise in temperature of the surrounding atmosphere. (D) to allow for the effect of a fall in temperature of the surrounding atmosphere. 34. A piece of copper wire of length 100 cm at 30oC is heated to 120oC. If its linear expansivity is B 1.8 ×10-4/ k, its new length is (A) 166.6 cm (B) 101.6 cm (C) 180.6 (D) 1.08 cm 35. A sample of a monatomic ideal gas is originally at 20 °C. What is the final temperature of the B gas if both the pressure and volume are doubled? (A) 5 °C (B) 80 °C (C) 20 °C (D) 899 °C 36. A volatile liquid used for cooling purpose in refrigerator is (A) liquid ammonia (B) cold water A (C) liquid nitrogen (D) liquid helium 37. Complete the following statement: A temperature decrease of 30 C° is equal to a temperature D decrease of (A) 30 F°. (B) 17 F°. (C) 30 K. (D) 86 F°. 38. Complete the following statement: Bimetallic strips used as adjustable switches in electric D appliances consist of metal strips that must have different (A) mass. (B) volume. (C) length. (D) expansion coefficients. 39. Heat can be transferred from one end of a metal rod in contact with heat to the other end A which is in contact with heat through (A) Conduction (B) Convection (C) Radiation (D) Evaporation
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PHYSICS
40. Heat supplied or removed from a system which causes a change of state without a change in C temperature is (A) Specific heat (B) Heat capacity (C) Latent heat (D) Boiling heat 41. How many atmospheres of pressure must a litre of gas, initially at a pressure of 1 atmosphere A and temperature -20oC, be after it has been compressed to ½ litre at 40oC? A. 2.47 atm. (B) 4.5 atm. (C) 8.0 atm. (D) 3.8 atm. (E) 16.8 atm. 42. On a cold day, a good conductor X feels colder to the torch than a poor conductor Y because D (A) Y retains more heat than X (B) the temperature of X is lower than that of Y (C) X conducts heat from the body less rapidly than Y (D) X transfers heat from body more rapidly than Y
43. The boiling point of water does not depend on (A) the impurities in water (B) the external C pressure (C) the quantity of water (D) all of the above 44. The ice and steam points of a local liquid in glass thermometer are 10 a and 90a respectively. D What will the thermometer read when the temperature is 30 0C? (A) 40a (B) 38a (C) 36a (D) 34a 45. The lower and upper fixed points on a thermometer are 40 and 120 respectively. Its reading at D 60oC is (A) 60 (B) 40 (C) 160 (D) 88 46. The pressure exerted by a given mass of gas in a container (A) Decreases if the container is B heated (B) Increases if the molecules of the gas move faster (C) Increases if the volume of the container is doubled (D) Decreases as the kinetic energy of the gas molecules increases
47. The temperature in an electric iron is regulated by (A) thermometer (B) bimettalic strip (C) B steel (D) conductor 48. Water has an anomalous behavior between 0o and 4oC. Which of the following is correct? (A) D Mass of water increases between 0oC and 4oC (B) Density of water decreases between 0oC and 4oC (C) Volume of water increases between 0oC and 4oC (D) Volume of water decreases between 0oC and 4oC 49. What is the Celsius equivalent of 50.0° F? (A) 10° C (B) 20° C (C) 30° C (D) 40° C A 50. When water is heated in a glass vessel, the level first falls and then rises because (A) The D apparent expansion of the water is initially small and later increases. (B) There is anomalous expansion of water. (C)The glass vessel does not expand. (D)Glass vessel expands first before water starts a more rapid expansion. 51. Which of the following quantities of water has undergone the greatest change from its heat B content at melting point? (A) 0.5 kg of water at 3oC (B) 0.2 kg of water at 8oC (C) 0.005 kg of water at 80oC (D) 0.1 kg of water at 12oC
52. Which would cause a more serious burn: 30 g of steam or 30 g of liquid water, both at 100 °C; C and why is this so? (A) Water, because it is denser than steam. (B) Steam, because of its specific heat capacity. (C) Steam, because of its latent heat of vaporization. (D) Water, because its specific heat is greater than that of steam.
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PHYSICS
53. A certain radioactive element has a half life of 20 years. How long will it take the activity to B become ¼ of its original? (A) 20 years (B) 40 years (C) 60 years (D) 80 years
54. A plane progressive wave is represented by 2.0100sin2 xty where all the symbols A have their usual meanings. What is the velocity of the wave? (A) 500 m s-1 (B) 400 m s-1 (C) 200 m s-1 (D) 100 m s-1
55. A point on a stationary wave where there is no movement of the medium is called (A) Node A (B) Antinode (C) Note (D) Amplitude 56. A uniform wave has a speed of 10m/s and a period of 0.5 s. The distance between two nearest D crestsis(A)0.2m(B) 20m(C) 2m(D)5m 57. A vibrating string has a tension of 40 and produces a note of 200 when plucked in the C middle. When the length of string is unaltered and the tension is increased to160 , the ݖܪ ܰ frequency becomes (A) 1600 (B) 800 (C) 400 (D) 200 ܰ 58. An organ pipe closed at one end is 80cm long. Determine the frequency of the fundamental D (ݖ 340m/s? (A) 213Hz (B) 318Hz (C) 425Hz (Dܪin air is ܼܪݖ speed of soundܪݖ that theܪnote assuming 106Hz 59. As transverse wave moves through a medium, the particles of the medium (A) vibrate in a C path parallel to the path of the wave (B) do not move (C) vibrate in a path perpendicular to the path of the wave (D) vibrate at an angle of 60o to the path of the wave
60. The sound heard after the reflection of sound wave from a plane surface is known as (A) Echo A (B) Refraction (C) Vibration (D) Revibration 61. Which of the following properties is not common to all waves? (A) Reflection (B) interference D (C) Diffraction (D) Polarization 62. Which of the following statements is true about electromagnetic waves? (A) They are D longitudinal (B) They can be seen (C) They have the same frequency in vacuum (D) They travel at the same speed in a vacuum 63. Which one of the following statements concerning electromagnetic waves is false? (A) A Electromagnetic waves are longitudinal waves. (B) Electromagnetic waves transfer energy through space. (C) The existence of electromagnetic waves was predicted by Maxwell. (D) Electromagnetic waves can propagate through a material substance. 64. Which one of the following statements concerning waves is false? (A) A wave can have both D transverse and longitudinal components. (B) A wave carries energy from one place to another. (C) A wave does not result in the bulk flow of the material of its medium. (D) A transverse wave is one in which the disturbance is parallel to the direction of travel.
65. A light sensitive area at the back of the eye where images are formed is called (A) Yellow Spot D (B) Iris (C) Ciliary Muscle (D) Retina
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PHYSICS
66. A luminous object is placed at a given distance from a converging lens of focal length 12cm and D a real image is produced. Find the image distance if it is equal to the object distance. (A) 6cm (B) 3cm (C) 12cm (D) 24cm 67. An object is placed 15 cm in front of a concave mirror of radius 40 cm. The image formed is B (A) virtual and 60 cm behind the mirror (B) real and 60 cm in front of the mirror (C) virtual and 40 cm from the mirror (D) at infinity 68. How far from a concave mirror of radius 120 cm must an object be placed such that its erect C image is four times its natural size? (A) 72 cm (B) 64 cm (C) 45 cm (D) 50 cm 69. How many images are formed when an object is placed in front of two plane mirrors that are C inclined at angle 30o to each other? (A) 0 (B) 6 (C) 11 (D) 12 70. Professor Peters walks directly toward a plane mirror at a speed of 0.25 m/s. Determine the B speed of the image relative to him. (A) 0.13m/s (B) 0.50m/s (C) 0.25m/s (D) 0.75m/s 71. The angle of incidence in a denser medium when the angle of refraction in the less dense A medium is 90° is called a (A) Critical angle (B) Reflected angle (C) Incident angle (D) Emergent angle
72. The driving mirror is a (A) plane mirror (B) convex mirror (C) concave mirror (D) thick plane B mirror 73. The following are types of a converging lens except C (A) biconvex (B) plano-convex (C) mini-convex (D) converging meniscus
74. When the Sun, the earth and the moon are in line during their movement, with the earth being A the opaque object and casting its shadow on the moon, we have (A) Lunar eclipse (B) Total eclipse (C) Partial eclipse (D) Annular eclipse 75. Which of the following instruments could be used in finding angle of elevation of the sun? (A) D Periscope (B) Telescope (C) Kaleidoscope (D) Sextant 76. Which of the following optical instruments does not depend on the use of plane mirrors? (A) B Kaleidoscope (B) Simple microscope (C) Sextant (D) Simple periscope 77. Which of the following statements supports the assumption that light travels in straight lines? D (A) light can be diffracted (B) light can be reflected (C) a source of light produces interferences patterns on a suitably placed screen (D) a source of light produces distinct shadows of opaque objects 78. A Which of the following is correct about nuclear fission? It is: (A) the splitting of a heavy nucleus into two or more lighter particles (B) an agent used to slow down neutrons in a controlled atomic chain reaction (C) combing light atomic nuclei to form heavy (D) the spontaneous disintegration occurring in the nucleus of certain atoms 79. A light energy E falls on a metal and the electrons with a maximum kinetic energy of 0.2eV are C ejected. If the work function of the metal is 0.3eV, what is the value of E? (A) 0.10eV (B) 0.06eV (C) 0.50eV (D) 1.50eV
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PHYSICS
80. A nucleus is unstable if (A) it has two or more isotopes (B) its binding energy is not sufficient B to hold nuclear particles together. (C) it is very light with very low density (D) it has no significant mass. 81. A radioactive substance has a half life of 4 years. If its activity today is 200 dps, its activity in 8 A years from today is (A) 50 dps (B) 25 dps (C) 20 dps (D) 10 dps 82. A substance has a half-life of 3min. After 6min, the count rate was observed to be 400.What D was its count rate at zero time? (A) 2400 (B) 200 (C) 1200 (D) 1600 83. An element and its isotopes differ only in the number of (A) electrons (B) neutrons (C) B protons (D) irons 84. Complete the following sentence: When electrons from a heated filament accelerate through C vacuum toward a positive plate, (A) only an electric field will be produced. (B) only a magnetic field will be produced. (C) electromagnetic waves will be produced. (D) longitudinal waves will be produced. 85. Radioactive elements are (A) chemically reactive elements (B) noble elements (C) rare earth D elements (D) elements that spontaneously emit radiation 86. The following radiations are electrically neutral except (A) α-rays (B) ϒ-rays (C) X- rays (D) A neutrons 87. Upon which one of the following parameters does the energy of a photon depend? (A) mass D (B) polarization (C) amplitude (D) frequency 88. Which of the following is NOT true about cathode ray? (A) It moves in a straight line (B) It D causes fluorescence (C) It possesses a negative charge (D) It can produce -particles 89. Who proposed the planetary model of the nucleus? (A) J. J Thomson (B) Albert Einstein (C) C Ernest Rutherford (D) Marie Curie 90. X- rays cannot be used (A) to take photographs of bone structure in the body (B) to detect B finger prints (C) to detect flaws in metal castings (D) to detect alterations to works of art 91. 1 farad is equivalent to: (A) 1 coulomb/volt (B) 1 volt/coulomb (C) 1 joules/coulomb (D) 1 A ampere/sec. (E) volts per unit charge 92. A 0 - 10mA galvanometer with a coil resistance of 30 ohm can be converted to a 0-10A C ammeter by using (A) 0.03ohm series resistor (B) 9.99ohm shunt resistor (C) 0.03ohm shunt resistor (D) 9.99ohm series resistor 93. A battery has an internal resistance of 4 and an emf of 12V. The terminal voltage when a load B of 20 Ω is connected across it is: (A) 4 (B) 10 V (C) 20 V (D) 2V 94. A conducting sphere has a net charge of 4.8 1017 C. What is the approximate number of B excess electrons on the sphere if the fundamental natural charge is -1.6 x 10-19C? (A) 100 (B) 300 (C) 200 (D) 400
95. A magnet cannot be demagnetized by (A) heating (B) hammering (C) chemical treatment (D) C the use of solenoid through which an alternating current is flowing 96. An a.c voltage is connected to an RLC series circuit of resistance 5 Ω, inductance 3 mH and a C capacitance of 0.05 µF. Calculate the resonance frequency. (A) 11.0 kHz (B) 12.0 kHz (C) 13.0 kHz (D) 14.0 kHz
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PHYSICS
97. An electric heater converts 1KJ of electrical energy to heat energy every 2 second with 100% A efficiency. The power produced is (A) 0.5 KW (B) 2 KW (C) 1KW (D) 10W 98. Complete the following statement: The electromotive force is (A) the maximum potential A difference between the terminals of a battery. (B) the force that accelerates electrons through a wire when a battery is connected to it. (C) the force that accelerates protons through a wire when a battery is connected to it. (D) the maximum capacitance between the terminals of a battery. 99. If a charged body is moving in a circle on a horizontal plane, what is the general direction of C the resulting magnetic field? (A) In the plane of the circle. (B) At an angle 45o to the plane of motion. (C) Along the perpendicular axis through the center of the circle. (D) Along the tangent to the circle. 100. If a resistor is halved in magnitude and the potential across it is tripled, then the ratio of the D old current to the new current is (A) 1:3 (B) 3:1 (C) 6:1 (D) 1:6 101. The angle between the earth’s magnetic field and the horizontal is called angle of (A) B declination (B) dip (C) variation (D) inclination 102. The basic difference between the galvanometer and the electric motor is (A) The size of the B magnetic fields (B) The presence of hair springs in the galvanometer (C) The soft iron armature in the galvanometer (D) The couple formed on the parallel sides of the rectangular coil in the 103. The electromotive force is in such a direction as to oppose the motion or charge producing it. B This is a statement of (A) Faraday’s Law (B) Lenz Law (C) Maxwell Law (D) Ampere’s law
104. The potential difference across the ends of a wire is doubled in magnitude. If Ohm’s law is C obeyed, one of the following statements concerning the resistance of the wire is true? (A) The resistance is one half of its original value. (B) The resistance is twice its original value. (C) The resistance is not changed. (D) The resistance increases by a factor of four.
105. The process of adding impurity to a semiconductor to increase its conductivity is called (A) A Doping (B) Annealing (C) Heating (D) Hardening 106. Which if the following combinations consists of intrinsic properties of materials (A) volume C and density (B) density and mass (C) resistance and resistivity (D) density and resistivity.
107. Which of the following can be measured with a potentiometer: (A) Emf of a secondary cell (B) A Resistivity of a wire (C) Potential difference across a conductor (D) Resistance of a wire
108. Which of the following devices is odd in the list ? (A) thermocouple (B) potentiometer (C) d.c. B generator (D) solar cell 109. Which of the following is an essential physical property of the wires used for making fuses? (A) C high thermal conductivity (B) low density (C) low melting point (D) low electrical resistivity
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UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN, IBADAN. POST-UTME PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PHYSICS
110. Which one of the following statements concerning the magnetic force on a charged particle in D a magnetic field is true? (A) It is a maximum if the particle is stationary. (B) It is a maximum if the particle moves parallel to the field. (C) It acts in the direction of motion for a positively charged particle. (D) It depends on the component of the particle's velocity that is perpendicular to the field.
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