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DBT BET JRF 2011 (Original Question Paper with Answer Key) DEPARTMENT OF BIOTECHNOLOGY

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Biotechnology Eligibility Test (BET) for DBT-JRF Award (2011-12) Government of India, Ministry of Science & Technology, Department of Biotechnology, New Delhi (Coordinated by University of Pune)

April 17, 2011 Total Marks – 300 Duration 10.00 a.m. - 12.30 p.m.

N.B. 1) All questions in Section A are compulsory. 2) Answer any 50 questions from Section B. 3) In case more than 50 are attempted, first 50 will be considered. 4) Each question carries 3 marks; for every wrong answer, one mark will be deducted. 5) Write your seat no. strictly inside the space provided on the Answer sheet. 6) Answers marked inside the question paper will not be evaluated. 7) Please return the question paper along with the Answer sheet.

Instructions for filling the Answer sheet: 1) There is only one correct answer for each question and once a mark has been made the same cannot be altered. 2) All entries in the circle must be made by BLACK ink Ball Point Pen only. Do not try to alter the entry. 3) Oval should be darkened completely so that the numeral inside the oval is not visible. 4) Do not make any stray marks for rough work on the sheet. 5) Do not use marker, white fluid or any other device to hide the shading already done. 6) More than one entry of an answer will be considered wrong, and negative marking will be done as above. 7) Mark your answer as shown in the example.

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Section A (B) Nitrifying (C) Acidophils 1. Morphogenetic competence in callus tissue is D obtained by (D) Acidothiobacillus (A) Vitrification (B) Somaclonal variation 7. Library screening based on the biological activity (C) Habituation of a gene in plants is referred as D (A) Expression cloning (D) Dedifferentiation (B) Functional cloning 2. Which of the following is not relevant to recombinant (C) Positional cloning DNA safety guidelines in India ? (D) Hybridization based screening B (A) IBSC (B) RCGM 8. The fluid used as solvent in super critical fluid (C) GEAC extraction is a (D) NBPGR D (A) gas (B) mixture of gas and liquid 3. Which of the following statements correctly (C) highly compressed gas indicates the relative position of two genes in (D) highly compressed liquid C higher plants? (A) The closer two genes are to each other on a 9. Gaucher’s disease is caused due to deficiency of chromosome, the higher the frequency of (A) glucocerebrosidase recombination between them. (B) streptokinase (B) The more distant two genes are to each other (C) uricase on a chromosome, the higher the frequency (D) serratiopeptidase A of recombination between them (C) If two genes are located on different 10. During the penicillin extraction process, pH is chromosomes then there will be high adjusted to acidic value to frequency of recombination between them. (A) enhance the extraction of penicillin (D) If two genes are located on different (B) increase stability of penicillin chromosomes then there will be low (C) decrease the partition coefficient frequency of recombination between them. (D) reduce the viscosity of the broth A B 4. Which of the following is the best method for 11. Marine bacteria change their morphology in localization of a protein during transition from response to the nutrients in their surrounding vegetative to flowering stage? environment and the phenomenon is referred as (A) Place a reporter gene next to the promoter of (A) Oligotrophism the gene encoding the protein, and identify (B) Pleomorphism the cellular location of the reporter gene (C) Heterotrophism (B) Use an antibody against the specific protein (D) Syntrophism B (C) Separate the cellular compartments by centrifugation followed by screening with 12. Marine sediments derived from erosion of rocks antibodies are (D) Tag the protein with fluorescent amino acids (A) Biogenous sediments and identify the cellular location by (B) Lithogenous sediments fluorescent microscopy. (C) Limnologic sediments B (D) Magnetic sediments B 5. An agreement about regulating both tariff rates and quantitative restrictions on global imports and 13. Inanimate habitats colonized by organisms are exports is called (A) GATT (A) Seston (B) TRIP (B) Pelagic (C) WIPO (C) Neuston D (D) PBR A (D) Epibiotic

6. Gold extraction from mine wastes is carried out by which of the following microbes? www.easybiologyclass.com(A) Pseudomonas 2 Please visit... www.easybiologyclass.com EBC Print less... Save paper... Save trees...

14. Probionts in aquaculture are regularly used to (A) Stick (A) increase the size and weight of (B) Ball and stick fish. (C) Ribbon (B) improve the fecundity of fish. (D) CPK/space filling C (C) improve the water quality of the pond. 22. The angle between the two long helical arms of (D) for vaccinating the fish against tRNA is about general bacterial infection. (A) 180° C (B) 0° 15. A (C) 45° D (A) derives energy from reduced compounds of (D) 90° mineral origin. (B) can be bacterial or eukaryotic cell. 23. The cytokine that down regulates T-cell mediated (C) is always an . immune responses is (D) requires light for producing A (A) IL-8. (B) TGF-beta. 16. Higher version of BLOSUM can be used to detect (C) TNF-alpha. B (A) Closely related sequences (D) GM-CSF. (B) Distantly related sequences (C) Unrelated sequences 24. The antibody present in the breast milk is (D) Partially related sequences A (A) IgA. (B) IgD. 17. TBLASTX matches a DNA query sequence, (C) IgM. translated into all six reading frames, against a (D) IgE. A DNA database with (A) No gaps allowed 25. Toxin conjugated antibody molecules are known (B) Gaps allowed as (C) Gaps depending on the input sequence (A) toxoid. (D) Gaps depending on the database (B) immunotoxin. A (C) reaginic antibody. B 18. Changing which of the following BLAST (D) lymphotoxin. parameters would tend to yield fewer search results? 26. Which of the following receptors is not a (A) Turning off the low complexity filter signalling receptor? (B) Changing the expected value from 1 to 10 (A) Cytokine receptor (C) Raising the threshold value (B) Chemokine receptor (D) Changing the scoring matrix from PAM30 (C) T-cell receptor D to PAM70 (D) Mannose receptor C 19. The Ramachandran map of a protein representation 27. A patient of Grave’s disease produces antibody allows you to identify against (A) The most stable structure (A) thyroid stimulating hormone. (B) The tertiary allowed structure (B) basement membrane of thyroid (C) The sterically disallowed conformations gland. (D) the secondary structure elements C (C) acetylcholine receptor. (D) Insulin receptor. A 20. Which information among the following provides the maximum information to do structure based 28. Survival of mice exhibiting autoimmune lupus- drug design? like symptom may be prolonged by treatment (A) 3D-structure of a set of active compounds with monoclonal antibody specific for (B) 3D-structure of the target (A) CD16. (C) Crystal structure of target-ligand complex (B) CD69. (D) Primary structure of the target C (C) CD4. C (D) CD8. 21. To display a ligand molecule, one cannot use the www.easybiologyclass.comrendering style of 3 Please visit... www.easybiologyclass.com EBC Print less... Save paper... Save trees...

29. The 5th human malarial parasite is (A) A, AB, B (A) Plasmodium yoellii. (B) A, AB (B) Plasmodium fragile. (C) AB, O (C) Plasmodium cynomolgi. (D) A, O, B D A (D) Plasmodium knowlesi. 36. Cytotoxic T cells generally recognise antigen in 30. Osteognesis imperfecta is caused by a defect in the association with (A) removal of propeptide from collagen (A) class II MHC determinants α chain during protein synthesis. (B) class I MHC determinants (B) collagen cross-link formation. (C) class III MHC determinants B (C) glycosylation of hydroxlysine residues (D) HLA-DR determinants in collagen. (D) hydroxylation of proline to 37. Which one of the following amino acids interrupts hydroxyproline. A α helices, and also disrupts β sheets? (A) Phe 31.The most common mode of transmission for (B) Cys diphtheria, pneumonia and tuberculosis is through (C) His (A) direct contact. (D) Pro D (B) aerosols. (C) contaminated water. 38. Which of the following statements concerning the (D) insect vectors. B Edman degradation method is incorrect? (A) Phenyl isothiocyanate is coupled to the 32. Which of the following bacteria causes Rheumatic amino-terminal residue fever? (B) Under mildly acidic conditions, the modified (A) Staphylococcus aureus peptide is cleaved into a cyclic derivative of (B) Staphylococcus pyogenes the terminal amino acids and a shortened (C) Campylobacter jejuni peptide (minus the first amino acid) (D) Shigella flexneri B (C) Once the PTH amino acid is separated from the original peptide, a new cycle of sequential 33. The purpose of adding phytohemagglutinin to degradation can begin peripheral blood cultures for chromosomal analysis (D) Phenyl isothiocyanate is coupled to the D is to facilitate carboxy-terminal residue (A) chromosome condensation (B) to synchronize large number of cells at 39. The non-oxidative branch of the pentose phosphate metaphase pathway does NOT include which of the (C) swelling of cells to permit chromosome following reactions? visualization (A) Ribulose 5-P Æ ribose 5-P (D) stimulation of lymphocyte cell division D (B) Xylulose5-P + ribose 5-P Æsedoheptulose 7- P Æglyceraldehydes 3-P 34. In human, pointed eyebrows are dominant to (C) Ribulose 5-P + glyceraldehydes 3-PÆ smooth sedoheptulose 7-P eyebrows and ‘‘widow’s peak” frontal hairline is (D) Sedoheptulose 7-P + glyceraldehyde 3-P Æ dominant to continuous hairline. What phenotypic 6-P + erythrose 4-P ratio would you expect in the offspring from a C marriage between an individual heterozygous for 40. Silk fibroin displays both the genes and an individual homozygous (A) alpha helix recessive for both the genes ? (B) loop structure (A) 9 : 3: 3: 1 (C) Antiparallel- β pleated sheets (B) 9: 7 (D) parallel β sheet (C) 1: 1 B C (D) 1: 1: 1: 1 41. Carnitine is required for (A) Renal function 35.If a man of blood group AB marries a woman of (B) fatty acid synthesis blood group A whose father was of blood group O, (C) fatty acid oxidation to what different blood groups can this man and (D) sterol synthesis C www.easybiologyclass.comwoman expect their children to belong? 4 Please visit... www.easybiologyclass.com EBC Print less... Save paper... Save trees...

42. How many milliliters of 0.05 N HCl are required to 50. During DNA replication in E.coli, RNA primers neutralize eight grams of NaOH? are synthesized by (A) 5000 (A) dna B (B) 4000 (B) dna G (C) 4500 (C) dna C B (D) 5050 B (D) dna A

-8 43. What is the pH of 10 M solution of HCl? Section B (A) 8.99 (B) 6.99 (C) 7.99 51. Hydrogen bonds in α-helices are (D) 7.00 (A) more numerous than van der waals B interactions 44. Z DNA helix (B) not present at phenylalanine residues (A) is the primary form in any living organism (C) analogous to the steps in a spiral staircase (B) is favoured by an alternating GC sequence (D) roughly parallel to the helix axis D (C) tends to be formed at 3’ end of genes (D) formation is inhibited by methylation of bases 52. Which one of the following is the correct statement B for an active sodium-potassium ATPase? 45. In H-DNA bases of the third strand pairs with (A) it pumps out 3 Na-ions and pumps in 2 K- (A) Pyrimidines of the double helix ions (B) Purines of the double helix (B) it pumps out 3 Na-ions and pumps in 3 K- (C) Both Purines and Pyrimidines of the duplex ions (D) Remains unpaired (C) it pumps out 3 Ca-ions and pumps in 2 K- B ions 46. Deletion of which of the following genes will result (D) it pumps out 3 Na-ions and pumps in 2 Ca- A in permanent lysogenic stage of bacteriophage λ? ions (A) N (B) CII 53. Under which circumstances T cell develops (C) CI anergy? (D) Cro (A) When the number of TCR on the T cell D surface is low 47. Which of the following is a segmented single (B) When the CD4/ CD8 molecules present on T stranded RNA virus with ambisense genome? cell surfaces do not recognize self MHC (A) Rotavirus II/MHC I molecules (B) Influenza virus (C) When the MHCII molecules present on (C) Colorado tick fever virus antigen presenting cells bind to the peptides (D) Arena virus with less avidity D (D) When co-stimulatory molecules present on 48. Which of the following antibiotics inhibits bacterial the antigen presenting cells fail to interact D protein synthesis by interfering with peptidyl with T cells transferase activity? (A) Streptomycin 54. Which one of the statements is most appropriate (B) Erythromycin for the ability of an antigen for the induction of TH1 or TH2 response ? (C) Puromycin (A) The nature of naïve T cell it encounters (D) Cycloheximide B (B) The nature of epitopes present in it (C) The cytokine milieu at the time of activation 49. Disulphide bonds in proteins could be formed by of T cells cysteines using (D) The nature of antigen presenting cell which (A) Iodoacetamide presents the peptides derived from the (B) oxidized glutathione antigen. C (C) reduced glutathione (D) β-mercaptoethanol 55. Allotypic determinants are V (A) constant region determinants that distinguish www.easybiologyclass.comeach Ig class and subclass within a species. 5 Please visit... www.easybiologyclass.com EBC Print less... Save paper... Save trees...

(B) generated by the conformation of antigen- (D) blocking electron flow between cytochrome specific VH and VL sequences. b and c 1 D (C) Not immunogenic in individuals who do not have that allotype. 62. Which of the following conditions would tend to (D) amino acid differences encoded by different promote cell cycle progression? alleles for the same H or L chain locus. (A) A cell with a mutant E2F that cannot bind to D DNA 56. Junctional diversity affects primarily the amino (B) A cell with a mutant p16 protein that cannot acid sequence in bind to cdk4 (A) all CDR equally. (C) A cell with a mutant cdk4 that cannot bind to (B) CDR1. cyclin D (C) CDR2. (D) Expression of a mutant pRB that cannot be D (D) CDR3. phosphorylated by cyclin D/cdk4 B

57. Which of the following techniques is used to locate 63. What are the concentrations of HOAc and OAc- disulfide bonds in a protein? in 0.2 M “acetate buffer”, pH 5.00? The Ka for (A) The protein is first reduced and HOAc is 1.70 x 10-5 carboxymethylated (A) OAc- = 0.126 M, HOAc = 0.074 M (B) The protein is cleaved by acid hydrolysis (B) OAc- = 0.150 M, HOAc = 0.084 M - (C) The peptides are separated by SDS- (C) OAc = 0.200 M, HOAc = 0.184 M A polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis (D) OAc- = 0.250 M, HOAc = 0.284 M (D) The peptides are separated by two-dimensional electrophoresis with an intervening performic 64. Calculate the instantaneous buffering capacity in acid treatment D both directions of 0.05 M Tricine buffer , pH 7.5. Tricine is an N-tris- (hydroxymethyl)-methyl 58. Diphtheria toxin glycine. pKa = 8.15 (Ka = 7.08 x 10-9) (A) is cleaved on the surface of susceptible (A) 0.017 M eukaryotic cells into two fragments, one of (B) 0.217 M which enters the cytosol (C) 0.257 M (B) binds to peptidyl transferase and inhibits (D) 0.175 M A protein synthesis (C) reacts with ATP to phosphorylate eIF2 and 65. Hydrolysis of ATP over ADP and AMP generates prevent the insertion of the Met-tRNAi into the highest energy because P site (A) ATP on hydrolysis generates (D) reacts with NAD+ to add ADP-ribose to eEF2 thermodynamically stable structure and prevents movement of the peptidyl-tRNA (B) ATP is highly unstable from A to P site in the ribosome D (C) Hydrolysis of ATP is pH dependent (D) Hydrolysis of ADP and AMP do not 59. The rate limiting reaction in cholesterol generate thermodynamically stable structure A biosynthesis is catalyzed by (A) HMG-CoA reductase 66. The equilibrium constant ((Keq) for the reaction (B) HMG-CoA synthase S↔ P is 5. Suppose we have a mixture of [S] = 2 (C) acetoacetate synthase x 10-4 M and [P] = 3 x 10-4 M. In which direction (D) squalene synthase A will the reaction proceed on addition of appropriate enzyme? 60. The potent allosteric activator of animal (A) Proceeds in a forward direction Phosphofructo kinase is (B) Proceeds in a reverse direction (A) Fructose (C) Proceeds in both the directions (B) Fructose 2,6 Phosphate (D) Proceeds sometimes in forward and A (C) Fructose 1,6 Phosphate sometimes in reverse direction (D) Pyruvate B 67. In the ds-break recombination model, which of the 61. Antimycins block the respiratory chain by following steps is the first one that happens after (A) inhibiting cytochrome oxygenase formation of the Holliday junction? (B) blocking NADH hydrogenase (A) DNA cleavage catalyzed by RuvC (C) blocking ADP-ATP transport (B) Coating ssDNA with RecA www.easybiologyclass.comC 6 Please visit... www.easybiologyclass.com EBC Print less... Save paper... Save trees...

(C) C Branch migration catalyzed by RuvAB 74. Polyproline II structure found in some proteins (D) D Dissociation of RecD from RecBCD at a chi site and having helical orientation is known to have (A) 3 residues per turn 68. For attachment of sister chromatids to the spindle, (B) 3.3 residues per turn which of the following is required? (C) 3.6 residues per turn (A) Inhibition of M-Cdk (D) 4 residues per turn A (B) Association of lamina to nuclear membrane (C) Breakdown of nuclear envelope 75. Concentration of a protein solution determined (D) Rapid synthesis of cyclin B C using its extinction coefficient resulted in a value of 1 mg/ml. Given that its molecular weight is 100 69. At 12 hours of post seeding suspension cell culture, kDa, its concentration in molar units will be the cell density was determined to be 3.6 (A) 10 µM X108cells/ml. For viral infections, an aliquot of 4 (B) 100 µM ml culture was withdrawn at that time and (C) 1 mM centrifuged. What is the cell concentration if pellet (D) d) 10 mM A is re-suspended in 9 ml medium? 8 (A) 16X10 cells/ml 76. If the pKa of the ε-amino group of lysine is 10.5, (B) 2X108 cells/ml the side chain at pH 7 is likely to be (C) 1.6X108 cell/ml (A) neutral (D) 4X108 cell/ml C (B) half dissociated (C) negatively charged 70. Information for which of the following functions is (D) positively charged D not encoded in the genome of virus? (A) Replication of the genome 77. The dihedral angle ψ for a peptide used in the (B) Modulation of host defense Ramachandran plot is given a value based on (C) Envelope membrane biosynthesis rotation around (D) Assembly and packaging of the genome (A) N-Cα bond C (B) Cα-C’ bond 71. Order , urea, H2O, CO2 and steroid (C) C’-N bond B hormones according to their ability to diffuse (D) Cα-Cβ bond through the lipid bilayer, beginning with the one that crosses the bilayer most readily 78. Urea and guanidine hydrochloride are potent (A) CO2, steroid hormone, H2O, urea, glucose protein denaturants. They work by (B) CO2, H2O, urea, glucose, steroid hormone (A) binding to the hydrophobic groups in proteins (C) H2O, CO2, glucose, urea, steroid hormone (B) breaking of disulphide bonds (D) steroid hormone, CO2, H2O, urea, glucose (C) enhancing the hydrogen bonded network of A water 72. The therapeutic index of sulphonamides is high (D) binding to the peptide bonds of proteins D because (A) Bacteria manufacture their own folate and 79. Water has a high dielectric constant value of 80. humans do not synthesize folate Because of its presence in biological systems (B) Humans synthesize folic acid at a very high rate compared with low dielectric solvents like (C) Dihydrofolate reductase is not active in hydrocarbons, it should bacteria (A) strengthen electrostatic interaction but (D) Pteridine synthetase is more efficient in weaken hydrophobic interactions humans A (B) weaken electrostatic interaction but strengthen hydrophobic interactions 73. One of the major causes of Plasmodium falciparum (C) strengthen both electrostatic as well as resistance to chloroquine is amplification of the hydrophobic interactions gene for (D) weaken both electrostatic as well as B (A) MsbA transporter hydrophobic interactions (B) LacY permease (C) AqpZ porin 80. RNAi methodology uses double-stranded pieces of (D) ABC transporter D RNA to trigger a breakdown or blocking of www.easybiologyclass.commRNA. This is often used 7 Please visit... www.easybiologyclass.com EBC Print less... Save paper... Save trees...

(A) to increase the rate of production of an enzyme brothers and sisters. Neither parent nor any of the of pharmacological significance four biological grandparents of the affected child (B) to decrease the production from a harmful had the disease. The most likely genetic gain-of-function of mutated gene explanation is that the disease is inherited as (C) to mutate an unwanted allele in a homozygous (A) autosomal dominant individual (B) autosomal recessive (D) to form a knockout organism that will not pass (C) X-linked recessive the deleted sequence to its progeny B (D) X-linked dominant B

81. In a lac operon, a mutation is created so that lactose 86. The genotypes of a husband and wife are IAIA X cannot bind. Now, if lactose is provided, what IAIO. Among the blood types of their children,how would happen? many different genotypes and phenotypes are (A) the β-galactosidase will be over-expressed possible ? (B) lac I repressor will remain inactivated. (A) 2 genotypes , 3 phenotypes (C) expression of lac operon will remain (B) 3 genotypes, 4 phenotypes unaffected (C) 4 genotypes, 4 phenotypes (D) lac I repressor would remain bound to operon (D) 4 genotypes, 3 phenotypes preventing expression D D 82. In 1997, Dolly the sheep was cloned. Which of the 87. In animal kingdom, the group amniota includes following processes was used? (A) birds and reptiles (A) use of mitochondrial DNA from adult female (B) birds and mammals cells of another ewe (C) reptiles and mammals (B) replication and dedifferentiation of adult stem (D) reptiles, birds and mammals cells from sheep bone marrow C (C) separation of an early stage sheep blastula into 88. In evolutionary biology, ‘biological species’ separate cells, one of which was incubated in a concept is based on surrogate ewe (A) geographical isolation and karyotypic (D) fusion of an adult cell’s nucleus with an difference enucleated sheep egg, followed by incubation (B) morphological differentiation only in a surrogate ewe. D (C) ecological differentiation coupled with 83. Alkaptonuria resulting from the homozygous morphological differentiation expression of a recessive autosomal gene, occurs in (D) primarily reproductive isolation about 1 in 1 million persons. Assuming Hardy- D Weinberg equilibrium for this trait, what is the 89. Conjugated bilirubin is approximate proportion of heterozygous “carriers” (A) transported in blood bound to serum in the population? albumin (A) 1 in 1000 (B) reduced in a deficiency of a UDP- glucoronosyl transferase (B) 1 in 500 (C) less soluble in aqueous solution than in (C) 1 in 20,000 conjugated form (D) 1 in 2000 B (D) reduced in serum in biliary tract obstruction B 84. A woman who is heterozygous for both 90. The typical length of an integral membrane phenylketonuria mutation and for X-linked protein domain (glycophorin fold) is hemophilia mutation has a child with a (A) 20-25 amino acids phenotypically normal man who is also (B) 10-15 amino acids heterozygous for a phenylketonuria mutation. What (C) 30-40 amino acids A is the probability that the child will be affected by (D) 5-10 amino acids both ? (A) 1 /8 91. Fluid mosaic nature of a biological membrane can (B) 1 /4 be proved by C (C) 1/16 (A) Patch clamp technology (D) 3/8 (B) FRAP technique (C) Electron spin resonance technique B 85. In a family a female child is diagnosed with a (D) Cell-cell fusion technique www.easybiologyclass.comknown genetic disorder. She has four unaffected 8 Please visit... www.easybiologyclass.com EBC Print less... Save paper... Save trees...

92. A bottle contains 1 mCi of L-Phenylalanine 14C (C) Phospholipase C (uniformly labelled) in 2.0 ml of solution. Specific (D) N-glycosidase B activity of the labelled amino acid is given as 150 mCi/m mole. The concentration of L- 99. Which of the following statements concerning Phenylalanine in the solution can be calculated as biological membrane is correct? (A) 2.335 x 10-3 M (A) Lipid rafts are fixed in position in membrane (B) 3.335 x 10-3 M (B) Lipid composition of two layers of the (C) 3.535 x 10-3 M membrane equilibrate -3 (D) 2.535 x 10 M B (C) The membrane is most fluid at the surfaces (D) Lipid transporters catalyze unidirectional 93. Complete fusion of two cells takes place only when movement of specific lipids from one layer D (A) Two outer bilayers of the plasma membrane to other are fused 100. Signal recognition particle consists of (B) Two inner bilayers of the plasma membrane (A) A single large RNA are fused (B) Multiprotein complex (C) Both outer and inner bilayers of the plasma (C) A complex of single RNA and multiple membrane are fused proteins (D) Both outer and inner bilayers of the plasma (D) A complex of multiple RNA and multiple membrane are fused and aqueous connection is proteins C established D 101. Which of the following amino acids of a 94. Which one of the following is the ideal molecular membrane protein are most likely to be buried in marker of a mature lysosome? the interior of protein structure? (A) Glucose -6-phosphate receptor (A) Aspartic acid and phenylalanine (B) Endoprotease (B) Isoleucine and glutamic acid C (C) Mannose-6-Phosphate receptor (C) Aspartic acid and glutamic acid (D) Endoglycosidase C (D) Methionine and Tyrosine

95. Which of the following has the highest affinity of 102. A grafting of a dorsal lip of the blastopore from ligand-receptor interaction? an early xenopus gastrula onto the ventral side (A) Insulin-insulin receptor of an early embryo will result in (B) Lectin-sugar receptor (A) The formation of two separate and (C) Biotin-avidin independent embryos (D) Cytokine-cytokine receptor (B) The formation of two complete embryos C joined along the ventral axis 96. Lateral diffusion rate of an individual membrane (C) The formation of two sets of anterior protein in a biological membrane generally structures joined along the ventral axis: a two depends on headed embryo C (A) The extent of glycosylation (D) The formation of two sets of posterior (B) The extent of phosphorylation structures joined along the ventral axis: a two (C) The number of integral membrane domains headed embryo (D) The extent of its association with cholesterol C 103. In which of the following processes eukaryotic 97. Maturation of endosome in a living cell is strictly mitochondria is known to be least involved? dependent on (A) ATP production (A) Appearance of specific glycolipids on its (B) Apoptosis membrane (C) Tricarboxylic acid cycle D (B) Appearance of specific phospholipids on its (D) Fatty acid biosynthesis membrane (C) Acidification of its aqueous compartment 104. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (D) Kinetics of ligand receptor interaction on cell (A) PCR is more sensitive than branched DNA surface assays C (B) Branched DNA is more sensitive than 98. Asymmetry of biological membranes is regulated by Ligase chain reaction (A) Phospholipase A www.easybiologyclass.com(B) Flippase 9 Please visit... www.easybiologyclass.com EBC Print less... Save paper... Save trees...

(C) Linear amplification occurs in branched 111. Addition of activated charcoal to plant tissue DNA culture medium is done in order to (D) PCR is extremely liable to contamination (A) Reduce phenolic leachates B (B) Increase osmolarity of medium A 105. Chemokine receptor used by HIV for attachment (C) Supplement vitamins during infection of T cells (D) Resist pH changes (A) CXCR 4 (B) CXCR 3 112. Which of the following chemicals prevents (C) CCR5 precocious germination, promotes embryo (D) CXCR 1 maturation and increases dessication tolerance of A somatic embryos? 106. The colloidal pressure of vertebrate blood is (A) Abscisic acid mainly due to (B) Silver nitrate (A) Neutrophil (C) 2,4-Dichloro phenoxy acetic acid (B) Albumin (D) A (C) Fibrinogen (D) Globulin B 113. Wild type Agrobacterium tumefaciens does not contain one of the following classes of genes in 107. In a conjugation experiment, the order in which the T-DNA region. These are the markers from Hfr donor appeared in F- (A) Auxin biosynthesis genes recipient was : mal (10 min) thi (22 min)met (B) Opine synthesis genes (C) Opine catabolism genes (17 min) trp (57 min)thr (33 min).What will be C the order of markers on the chromosome? (D) Cytokinin biosynthesis genes (A) mal-thi-met-trp-thr (B) trp-thr-thi-met-mal 114. One way of overcoming homologous gene silencing by a transgene is (C) mal-met-thi-thr-trp (D) thr-trp-mal-met-thi C (A) Using CaMV35S promoter to drive transgene expression 108. Which method is used to generate clonally (B) Inserting transgene into plastid genome amplified DNA fragments to be used as instead of nuclear genome templates in Pyrosequencing? (C) Removing the antibiotic resistance- (A) Ligation PCR conferring genes from transformed plants (B) Shot gun cloning (D) Placing an intron between the promoter and coding sequence of the transgene (C) BAC cloning D B (D) Emulsion PCR 115. Which of the following genes is a non-antibiotic, non-herbicidal marker that is used for positive 109. Twin membrane proteins vSNARE and tSNARE selection in plant genetic transformation? act as anchors when two vesicles fuse into one (A) Neomycin phosphotransferase II during molecular transport in the cell. These (B) Dihydrofolate reductase snare proteins are found in membranes of all (C) Glyphosate oxidoreductase D except (D) Mannose 6-phosphate isomerase (A) Mitochondria (B) Golgi complex 116. Which of the following is formed without (C) Early endosome fertilization in diplosporic apomicts? (D) Endoplasmic reticulum A (A) Embryo (B) Seed 110. In a ligation reaction, what amount of insert DNA C (C) Endosperm of 750 bp is required to clone into 5000 bp vector (D) Embryo sac with a concentration of 80 ng/ µl at a molar ratio of vector to insert 1:3? 117. NCED (9-cis epoxycarotenoid dioxygenase) is (A) 12 ng involved in (B) 36 ng (A) ABA biosynthesis (C) 40 ng (B) GA biosynthesis (D) 24 ng (C) Auxin biosynthesis (D) Ethylene biosynthesis www.easybiologyclass.comB A 10 Please visit... www.easybiologyclass.com EBC Print less... Save paper... Save trees...

118. The single-stranded nick in DNA during T-DNA (A) Abscisic acid transfer is initiated by (B) Cytokinin (A) Vir C (C) Ethylene (D) Gibberellin (B) Vir B A (C) Vir D 125. Phytoalexins are chemical compounds that are (D) Vir E C produced by plants. The following statements refer to these compounds: ® 119. Target protein for Glyphosate (Roundup ) is 1. These compounds are stress related factors (A) acetolactate synthase produced in plants due to physical (B) Glutamine synthase chemical or microbial stress (C) 5-Enolpyruvyl shikimate 3-phosphate 2. A large number of secondary metabolites synthase belong to this class. (D) Glutamate dehydrogenase 3. Some genes are derepressed because of C these factors. 120. Application of molecular biological technique for Of the statements given above commercial production of recombinant products in (A) Only 1 is true plants is referred as (B) Only 1 and 2 are true (A) Transgenic technology (C) Only 1 and 3 are true (B) Biotech crops technology (D) All are true A (C) Molecular Farming (D) Recombinant DNA technology C 126. Barley RIP gene was demonstrated to provide protection in tobacco plant against 121. Which of the following is not a function of (A) Rhizoctonia solani molecular chaperon in protein folding? (B) Alternaria blight (A) Molecular chaperones assist in protein (C) Phytophthora infestans folding into their correct (D) Tobacco Mosaic Virus A structure

(B) Molecular chaperones specify the tertiary 127. CO2 acceptor in C3 plants is structure of a protein (A) Phosphoglyceric acid (C) Molecular chaperones can stabilize partially (B) Ribulose monophosphate folded proteins and (C) Ribulose 1,5- bisphosphate C prevent them aggregating with other (D) Phosphoenol pyruvate proteins (D) Molecular chaperones can shield an protect 128. Why haploids are preferred for plant breeding exposed hydrophobic experiments? B regions of proteins (A) Dominant characters are expressed (B) Recessive characters are expressed 122. Transgenic for terminator seed is due to a lethal (C) Induction of mutation is easy gene along with two other genes. Which of the (D) Incomplete dominance is expressed following is the product of the lethal gene? B (A) Recombinase 129. C4 rice has been developed by transforming rice (B) Ribosomal inhibiting protein with (C) Repressor protein (A) PEPC and PPDK (D) Protein for late embryogenesis B (B) PEPC and RUBISCO (C) PEPC and MDH 123. The haploid chromosome number of rice is 12. (D) PEPC and Carbonic anhydrase A Which tissue will have 36 chromosomes? (A) Coleoptile 130. Active form of Gibberellin in plants is (B) Scutellum (A) GA1 (C) Endosperm (B) GA3 (D) Nucellus C (C) GA15 (D) GA9 A 124. Which one of the following phytohormones is produced under water-deficit and plays an 131. Which of the following is the seed specific www.easybiologyclass.comimportant role in tolerance against drought? promoter used in plant genetic engineering? 11 Please visit... www.easybiologyclass.com EBC Print less... Save paper... Save trees...

(A) CaMV35S promoter 139. Sodium alginate is used in (B) Ubiquitin promoter (A) Protoplast culture (C) ABRE promoter (B) Artificial seed formation (D) Glutelin promoter D (C) Cryopreservation B (D) Media as gelling agent 132. Which of the following requires back crossing? (A) Generation of RILs 140. Heating coils inside a fermentor serve additional (B) Generation of DH population roles as (C) Generation of NILs (A) Shaft of the agitator (D) Generation of F2s C (B) Blades of the agitator (C) Baffle of the fermentor C 133. AAO gene family in plants is involved in (D) Heating surface of the fermentor (A) ABA biosynthesis (B) GA biosynthesis 141. A stirrer has a power number (Np) 10. If the (C) Auxin biosynthesis stirrer speed (N) is 1 s-1 , its diameter D= 1 m and (D) Ethylene biosynthesis A the density of the medium is 1000 kg/m3, the ungassed power input (P) in watts is 134. Oilseed mustard overexpressing 18:1 delta 12 (A) 100 desaturase will show increased levels of the (B) 1000 following fatty acid in the seed oil (C) 10,000 C (A) Oleic acid (D) 10 (B) Linoleic acid (C) Stearic acid 142. Producing biodiesel from algae is a process (D) Erucic acid B which is (A) carbon negative 135. A signal sequence KDEL is removed from a ER (B) carbon positive resident protein. Assuming that there is no change (C) carbon and nitrogen positive D in tertiary structure of such plant protein and no (D) carbon neutral other signal sequences present in protein, the changed protein will now have following fate 143. A pitched-blade turbine draws …………a (A) It will remain in ER and be degraded straight blade turbine of same the diameter. (B) It will be targeted to Golgi apparatus (A) more power than (C) It will be secreted outside the cell (B) less power than (D) It will be targeted to lysosome for (C) same power as B degradation (D) very high power as C 136. Which of the following objectives cannot be 144. In SI system, the unit of thermal conductivity is achieved by using cybrids? (A) W/ m2. K (A) Transfer of cytoplasmic male sterility (B) W/ m. K (B) Recombination of cytoplasmic genes with (C) W/K nuclear gene of another species. (D) W/ m2 B (C) Introgression of Chromosome segment (D) Development of true hybrid line D 145. For efficient heat transfer in a jacketed reactor, the reactor configuration should have 137. Amylase inhibitor gene is transferred to plants for (A) low surface-to-volume ratio providing resistance against (B) high surface-to-volume ratio (A) Fungi (C) intermediate surface-to-volume ratio (B) Viruses (D) low height to diameter ratio B (C) Insects C (D) Bacteria 146. Filtration involving incompressible cake, the specific cake resistance 138. PHB biosynthetic pathway for bioplastic (A) increases with time production involves manipulation of phaA, phaB (B) decreases with time and phaC genes of (C) remains constant C (A) Escherichia coli (D) depends on the filter design (B) Aspergillus nidulans 147. Which of the following characteristics refers to (C) Alcaligenes eutrophus an ideal plug flow reactor? (D) Bacillus megaterium www.easybiologyclass.comC 12 Please visit... www.easybiologyclass.com EBC Print less... Save paper... Save trees...

(A) Less back mixing of the reactants and (A) The applied centrifugal force for the two products centrifuges are same (B) Complete back mixing of the reactants and (B) The relative centrifugal force for the two products centrifuges are same (C) Uniform temperature, pressure and (C) The relative centrifugal force for the two composition across any section normal to centrifuges are not same the fluid motion (D) The applied centrifugal force for the two (D) Uniform temperature, pressure and centrifuges are not same B composition across any section parallel to the fluid motion 154. Which of the following strategies is not adopted C to minimize secretion of acetate in a recombinant 148. If Vs = Volume of solvent, Vr= Volume of protein producing E. coli ? raffinate and α = Distribution factor, then (A) Converting acetyl CoA to acetoin Separation factor S in liquid-liquid extraction is (B) Altering the rate of glucose transport inside given by the cell (A) S= Vs/ Vr (C) Blocking the acetate synthesis pathway (B) S= α (Vs/ Vr) (D) Increasing the flux in pentose phosphate (C) S= V /V pathway D r s B (D) S= 1/ α (Vs/Vr) 155. In general, the critical dilution rate (Dc) in a 149. Most important factor that affects the cell chemostat is disruption in a Dyno-mill is (A) higher than μm (A) osmotic pressure difference (B) less than μm (B) temperature of disruption (C) equal to μm B (C) dimension of beads (D) not related to μm (D) flow of cells through the chamber C 156. In microbial cultivation, the expression for 150. The decrease in apparent viscosity of a liquid with product synthesis rp = αµX + βX denotes increasing shear rate, is known as (A) Growth associated (A) dilatant (B) Non growth associated (B) pseudoplastic (C) Impaired growth associated (C) casson body (D) Mixed growth associated B D (D) bingham plastic 157. In autocatalytic reactions, 151. In heat transfer through a heat exchanger in co- (A) one of the reactants acts as a catalyst current or counter-current flow, which of the (B) one of the products acts as a catalyst assumptions is not correct ? (C) catalysts have very high selectivity (A) The overall heat transfer coefficient (U ) is (D) both reactants and products act as catalyst constant B (B) Temperature difference between hot and cold 158. Rate of absorption of a sparingly soluble gas in a fluid should not be high liquid can be increased by (A) increasing the gas side mass transfer (C) Heat losses from the system is negligible B (D) The system is at steady state coefficient (B) decreasing the gas side mass transfer 152. Growth yield coefficient of microbes is defined as coefficient (A) amount of substrate consumed/amount of cell (C) increasing the liquid side mass transfer mass formed coefficient (D) decreasing the liquid side mass transfer (B) specific growth rate/specific rate of substrate C utilization coefficient (C) specific growth rate/specific rate of product 159. Concentration of limiting substrate can be formation maintained at a very low level in (D) specific rate of substrate utilization/ specific (A) fed batch culture rate product formation. B (B) batch culture 153. If the separation factor of two different centrifuges (C) both batch and fed batch culture for a particular solid suspension is same, which of (D) plug flow culture A www.easybiologyclass.comthe following will be true? 13 Please visit... www.easybiologyclass.com EBC Print less... Save paper... Save trees...

160. In microbial fermentation, factor which does not (C) Both true and observed reaction rates affect cellular oxygen demand is (D) True reaction rate in the beginning and then (A) type of observed reaction rate B (B) culture growth phase (C) nature of carbon source 167. Use of eutomer is always desirable for drug synthesis as it (D) fermenter design D (A) is more soluble in body fluids 161. Aqueous two phase extraction system has a (B) is less expensive compared to distomer combination of (C) has direct access to cell receptors C (A) two water soluble polymers or a polymer (D) slowly recognizes the drug target and in water below critical concentration 168. Biogenerics or follow-on protein drugs are (B) two water soluble polymers or a polymer defined as any and in water above critical concentration (A) natural protein or nucleic acid drugs (C) two water insoluble polymers or a polymer (B) genetically engineered protein or nucleic and salt in water above critical concentration acid drugs (D) two water soluble polymers or a polymer (C) protein or nucleic acid or carbohydrate drugs (D) active pharmaceutical ingredients (API) B and salt in two immiscible liquid B 162. Which one of the following systems should be 169. Which statement is correct in the adopted to resolve a mixture of antibiotic and an biotransformation of prochiral ketones to the impurity with partition coefficient 6 and 2, desired enantiomeric alcohol? respectively, (A) The enantiomeric excess should be maximum (A) cocurrent extraction system with polar (B) The conversion should be maximum solvent (C) Both the conversion and the enantiomeric (B) counter current extraction system with polar excess should be maximum solvent (D) The conversion should be maximum with C (C) cocurrent extraction system with nonpolar lowest enantiomeric excess solvent 170. Which order of reaction it follows when one (D) counter current extraction system with measures the activity of an enzyme using a nonpolar solvent D standard protocol? 163. Which type of filtration equipment, especially (A) Zero order reaction with precoat is classically used for the removal (B) First order reaction of mycelial cell? (C) Second order reaction A (A) Micro filtration (D) Mixed order reaction (B) Centrifugal filtration 171. One cannot estimate the volumetric oxygen (C) Ultra filtration transfer coefficient (KLa) by dynamic gassing (D) Rotary vacuum filtration D method if the organism is 164. BOD of distillery waste water (mg/l) is (A) micro aerophilic approximately (B) obligate aerobe (A) 15,000-20,000 (C) chemolithotrophic D (B) 350 (D) highly aerobic (C) 550 A 172. Sterilization of oil using steam is a process (D) 4000-7000 involving 165. The dissolved oxygen concentration during the (A) wet heat (B) moist heat measurement of KLa by sodium sulphite method is C (A) zero (C) dry heat (B) maximum (D) both dry heat and wet heat (C) 10 mg/ml A 173. The byssus threads produced by the mussel, (D) minimum Mytilus edulis, is composed of 166. In reactions with immobilized enzymes/whole (A) A complex biopolymer made of cells, one generally measures polysaccharides resembling chitinaceous (A) True reaction rate and gelatin like material with extensive www.easybiologyclass.com(B) Observed reaction rate substitution. 14 Please visit... www.easybiologyclass.com EBC Print less... Save paper... Save trees...

(B) A bundle of water resistant threads made of (C) Unlike DsRed, GFP forms oligomers in vivo cellulose containing substituted ester, ether leading to drop in fluorescence signal. and alkoxyl groups. (D) Both proteins have beta-can structure that (C) A mixture of different types of adhesive confer stability to protein C proteins with a high proportion of DOPA (3,4-dihydroxyphenyl-L-alanine). 178. Electro-mineral accretion is a process of (D) A bundle of threads made of fucoidin that is (A) applying a low voltage current to a metallic water resistant C structure in ocean leading to crystallization of limestone on which coral planulae can attach 174. , a vestimentiferan, present only and grow. near the systems obtain their (B) in vitro method of isolating trace minerals primary nutrition from seawater by applying suitable potential (A) from the decomposing detritus on which difference across the electrodes. the tubeworm grows (C) Dissolution of minerals from sea bed rocks (B) from the organic molecules synthesized by by applying high electrical current (instead the chemosynthetic bacteria that oxidize of blast in deep sea that damages marine life) hydrogen sulfide, using dissolved oxygen promoting easier drilling activity for oil from water. extraction. (C) from the planktons that are ingested with the (D) Depositing a layer of mineral on ocean floor help of plume. for promoting spawning of some marine (D) by trapping marine snow that descend from fishes. B photic zone using plume. B 175. The role of oceanic Dimethyl sulfide (DMS) 179. The neurotoxin that is produced by marine emitted by phytoplankton in influencing earth’s dianoflagellates and is responsible for paralytic climate may be attributed to the fact that shell fish poisoning in humans by acting on (A) DMS produces sulfate aerosols that act as voltage-gated sodium channels of nerve cell is cloud condensation nuclei which in turn reflect (A) Shigatoxin incoming solar radiation. (B) Saxitoxin (B) excessive DMS traps heat contributing partly (C) Amatoxin to global warming. (D) Gliotoxin B (C) DMS reacts with atmospheric CO2 to form 180. The SAR11 clade is organosulfur compounds such as DMSO and (A) A lineage of bacteria belonging to alpha- sulpholane which has the characteristic smell proteobacteria that is extremely common in of decaying organic matter (carbon sink). ocean around the world. (D) The acidification of sea water due to (B) A clade consisting of 11 sulfate production of sulfuric acid as a by-product due assimilating rhodobacter species observed to oxidation of DMS in seawater acts as in deep sea environment. carbon sink. A (C) A marine Roseobacter clade comprising

176. The most abundant photopicoplankton that has the several genera of marine bacteria capability to grow in oligotrophic niches of oceans (D) Name of a south Asian research vessel for A under low-light or high light conditions is conducting studies in Indian ocean. (A) Synechococcus sp. 181. Which of the following factors is not responsible (B) Prochlorococcus sp. for coral bleaching? B (C) Nodularia sp. (A) 1-2°C rise in ocean temperature for 5-6 (D) Oscillatoria sp. weeks. 177. One of the following statements is false with (B) 3-5 °C decline in ocean temperature for 5- regard to the DsRed and GFP. 10 days. (A) GFP was isolated from Aquorea jelly fish (C) Increase level of CO2 in seawater. (D) Overgrazing by manta ray and snapper whereas DsRed was isolated from Dicosoma D coral. fish. (B) DsRed has higher extinction coefficient and greater resistance to pH extremes in 182. The true source of tetradotoxin production comparison to GFP. reported in puffer fish, porcupine fish and polyclad flat worm is attributed to www.easybiologyclass.com(A) Small cone snails attached to puffer fish. 15 Please visit... www.easybiologyclass.com EBC Print less... Save paper... Save trees...

(B) Presence of Microbulbifer elongatus in (C) Enzyme stabilizers digestive tract. (D) Skin moisturisers. B (C) Presence of Vibrio alginolyticus. (D) Stachybotrys chartarum a known pathogen 189. A psychrophilic organism which confers pink infecting above organisms. color to snow and is referred as snow algae C (A) Ulva latuca 183. Cameleons are (B) Polaromonas sp. (A) Coral reef associated fish that change (C) Chlamydomonas nivalis C colour depending on the color of corals. (D) Achromobacter sp. (B) Chimeric protein consisting of calmodulin and mutant GFP. 190. The model marine organism that is widely used (C) Fluorescent proteins isolated from in assay system for the detection of antifouling Demospongiae that depict different color substance is fluorescence depending on the presence of (A) Mytilus edulis metal ions. (B) Crassostrea sp. (D) Deep sea spotted Rat fish which puffs up (C) Peneaus monodon. A mimicking a puffer fish to ward off (D) Sardinella longiceps. predators. 191. A novel group of isolated from the B 184. Scombrotoxic fish poisoning is due to hydrothermal vent and responsible for setting (A) histamine and histamine-like products the upper temperature threshold for known life generated in fin-fishes due to contamination to 113°C is by members of Enterobacteriaceae family. (A) thermophilus (B) toxins produced by Noctiluca that resides (B) . commonly in fishes. (C) B (C) toxin generated by Shigella flexneri (D) americana (D) toxin generated by Clostridium botulinum 192. Which one of the following property is not A associated with Halomonas salaria, a 185. Beta-glucan, a structural element in fungal cell ? walls has been used in fish aquaculture (A) Require a pressure of 1000 atm. (A) as an immunostimulant (B) Grows at temperature of 3oC. (B) to stimulate natural bacterial flora for (C) They require complete darkness for growth. bioremediation of waste matter. (D) They have an efficient DNA repair D (C) for inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis mechanism that function at high pressure. and thus preventing their growth. (D) as a bioflocculant for precipitaton of waste 193. Thraustochytrids (A) have been shown to contribute to red tide in aquaculture ponds. A formation 186. “Crabyon” an anti-smell, non-allergic soft fibre (B) have been recently isolated from deep sea used in sports- wear is a blend of hydrothermal vents and are a (A) Crab shells and rayon. potential marine bacterial source of (B) Modified chitosans. bioactive compounds (C) Crustacean shells and calcium. (C) are a class of marine (D) Chitin and Cellulose D osmoheterotrophic protists (D) comprise of a newly identified group of C 187. Giant bacteria are normally associated with filamentous algae known to uniquely sulphur compounds however the only species so far produce polyunsaturated fatty acids. reported to store calcite in their cells is (A) Thiomargarita sp. 194. The technique of estimation of chlorophyll in (B) Epulopiscium sp. water bodies through remote sensing satellites (C) Achromatium sp. uses electromagnetic radiations in the (D) Thioploca sp. C approximate wavelength range (A) 1 to 100 cm 188. Halocins isolated from halophilic archae can be (B) 10-5 to 10-4 cm exploited as (C) 10-9 to 10-12 cm (A) Sunscreen agent (D) 1 to 10 nm B www.easybiologyclass.com(B) Protein antibiotics 16 Please visit... www.easybiologyclass.com EBC Print less... Save paper... Save trees...

195. The high concentration of myoglobin in marine (A) increased expression of MHC mammals allows them to (B) increased expression of Th2 cytokines (A) respire at a lower rate (C) increased expression of co-stimulatory (B) remain underwater for longer periods of time molecules (C) reduce the effects of osmotic pressure due to (D) decreased expression of CTLA-4 B extra oxygen load in their body (D) with stand large changes in CO2 201. Ciprofloxacin specifically cleaves concentration in muscle. B (A) nuclear DNA (B) apicoplast DNA 196. Which of the following mixture of organisms (C) both nuclear and apicoplast DNA B could be cultured to demonstrate integrated multi- (D) mitochondrial DNA trophic aquaculture for treatment of effluent rich in nitrogen and phosphorous? 202. The aggregating peptides/proteins in the diseased (A) Phytoplankton-Porphyra yezoensis-Phythium conditions contain extensive porphyrae (A) Alpha-helical segments (B) Phytoplankton-shell fish (oyster and clams)- (B) beta-sheet conformation B Marine fishes. (C) random structures (D) beta-helices (C) Gracilaria corticata-star fish-clams. B (D) Phytoplanktons-starfish-catfish. 203. First successful vaccine against cancer has been prepared for 197. Which of the following statements is false with (A) Oral cancer regards to zooanthids. (B) Cervical cancer (A) they feed by photosynthesis as well as by (C) Breast cancer capturing planktons and particular matter from (D) Colon Cancer B ocean. (B) Some of them produce palytoxin which is the 204. Recently gene therapy for mutated gene has been most toxic organic compound in world. experimentally proven in mouse utilizing (C) Some zooanthids often grow on other (A) Winged P elements invertebrates. (B) Cre-Lox system (D) All zooanthids harbor phytoplankton (C) Non-homologous recombination B coccolithophore for photosynthesis. (D) Ac-Ds element D 198. Carbon sequestration in ocean relates to 205. Leukemia inhibiting factor has been utilized in (A) technique of iron fertilization to encourage animal cell culture for phytoplankton growth which would remove (A) Stimulating growth of cells carbon from atmosphere over a period of time. (B) Differentiation B (B) mechanism by which the carbon from bacteria (C) Mophogenesis and phytoplankton is recycled by lytic marine (D) Arrest cells at mitosis bacteriophage. 206. Which is least likely to occur for removal of (C) formation of marine snow that is transported cancer cells? from photic zone to deep sea by ocean (A) T-cell based cytotoxicity upwelling. (B) Complement fixation (D) study of the intricate food web chain in the C (C) Autophagy marine ocean. . A (D) Phagocytosis 199. Which of the following statements is true 207. The virus inserted in genome can be recognized by regarding Shigella dysentery? (A) FISH (A) Shigella infection is an invasive disease (B) Northern blot (B) Shigella bacterial invasion lead to (C) Microarray dissemination of bacteria to different organs A (D) Southern blot (C) Large number of bacteria is required to 208. Unsynchronized signals in EEG are generated cause the disease during (D) Infection with Shigella bacilli will always (A) Deep Sleep cause symptomatic infection A (B) Active and non-quite 200. Which of the following conditions promotes (C) Slow wave but quite sleep www.easybiologyclass.comtumour growth? (D) REM sleep B 17 Please visit... www.easybiologyclass.com EBC Print less... Save paper... Save trees...

209. The vector responsible for JEV is (C) Fibrinous exudation (A) Culex tritaeniorhynchus (D) Lymphocytic exudation D (B) C. pusillus (C) C. pipiens 217. Which of the following is not used as anti- (D) C. jenseni A coagulant? (A) Trisodium citrate 210. Which of the following types of necrosis is found (B) Tripotassium ethylenediamine tetraacetic acid in granulomatous lesions of pulmonary (C) Trisodium chloride tuberculosis (D) Heparin C (A) Coagulative (B) Liquifactive 218. The anemia with increase in size of RBC with (C) Caseous C reduced haemoblobin concentration is termed as (D) Fat (A) Microcytic hypochromic anemia (B) Normocytic hypochromic anemia 211. The accumulation of pus in thoracic cavity is (C) Microcytic normochromic anemia A called as (D) Piglet anemia (A) Hydrothorax (B) Haemothorax 219. The highly pathogenic Avian Influenza in (C) Pyothorax C chickens is caused by (D) Patchythorax (A) Avian Paramyxovirus (B) (B)Avian Morbilivirus 212. In which of the following conditions testes do not (C) Avian Orthomyxovirus descend and are retained in the abdominal cavity? (D) (D)Avian Pestivirus C (A) Cryptorchidism (B) Hypochondrism 220. Hump sore in cattle is caused by (C) Orchitis (A) Parafilaria bovicola A (D) Prostate cancer (B) Dirofilaria immitis (C) Stephanofilaria assamensis C 213. Which of the following cells form multinucleated (D) Stephanurus dentatus giant cells in chronic inflammations? (A) Neutrophils 221. Bunostomum trigonocephalum is the hookworm of (B) Macrophages (A) Cattle (C) Eosinophils (B) Dog (D) Lymphocytes B (C) Cat (D) Sheep and goat 214. Which of the following is not true about D Macrophages? 222. Dick test is used to detect susceptibility for (A) Macrophages have longer lifespan than (A) Tetanus neutrophils. (B) Diphtheria (B) Macrophages at inflammatory sites are (C) Sore throat D responsible for phagocytosis of cellular (D) Scarlet fever debris and help in keeping the tissue clean. (C) Macrophages contain many lysosomes and 223. Which artery is commonly involved in MI? have cytoplasmic extensions called (A) Right coronary artery “pseudopodia”. (B) Anterior interventricular branch of left (D) Macrophages appear at the site of coronary artery inflammation earlier than neutrophils. D (C) Posterior interventricular branch of left 215. Which of the following conditions do not have coronary artery B exudates? (D) Circumventricular artery (A) Pus (B) Catarrhal inflammation 224. Sub acute combined degeneration is a (C) Serous inflammation manifestation of (A) Vitamin B12 deficiency (D) Granulomatous inflammation D (B) Folic acid deficiency 216. Viral infections in the central nervous system are (C) Iron deficiency Anemic A usually associated with (D) Biotin deficiency (A) Suppurative exudation www.easybiologyclass.com(B) Serous exudation 18 Please visit... www.easybiologyclass.com EBC Print less... Save paper... Save trees...

225. An egg cell in a plant has 12 chromosomes. In the 232. What is the difference between RefSeq and seed of the same plant, cells of embryo and GenBank? endosperm will show the following number of (A) RefSeq includes publicly available DNA chromosomes, respectively sequences (A) 12 and 24 (B) GenBank includes nonredundant curated data (B) 24 and 36 (C) GenBank sequences are derived from (C) 36 and 24 RefSeq (D) 24 and 48 B (D) RefSeq sequences are derived from GenBank 226. A human male (XY) carrying an allele for a trait D on the X chromosome is 233. Hemoglobin, myoglobin and globin v protein (A) hemizygous sequences will be stored in PIR-PSD database as a (B) homozygous (A) Sub-family (C) heterozygous (B) Superfamily (D) monozygous (C) Group A (D) GenPept B 227. “Living fossils” are the (A) organisms which have become fossilized in 234. The method of maximum parsimony is also recent geological era. known as (B) organisma that have become fossilized (A) Maximum evolution method recently and all the structural proteins are (B) Minimum evolution method not yet completely denatured. (C) Zero evolution method (C) ancient organisms persisting to modern (D) Moderate evolution method B times without further morphological evolution. 235. The pI calculated from the sequence may differ (D) ancient organisms persisting to modern from the experimentally determined value because times with further morphological evolution. C (A) pI is not accurately determined experimentally 228. In animal kingdom, the group amniota includes (B) pKa of the amino acid side chains depend (A) birds and reptiles on the micro structural environment (B) birds and mammals (C) pI calculation from the sequence does not (C) reptiles and mammals take the N and C termini into account (D) reptiles, birds and mammals C (D) pH is not known theoretically B 229. A female rat homozygous for a recessive X-linked 236. Which of these sets of amino acids are not mutation is mated to a male with wild type capable of forming hydrogen bonds through their phenotype. The phenotypes of the F1 progeny side chains will be (A) Val, Ile, Phe (A) all wild type (B) Trp, Tyr, His (B) 50% mutant irrespective of sex (C) Ser, Thr, Asn (C) all females wild type and all males mutant (D) Arg, Lys, Asp A (D) all males wild type and all females mutant C 237. Hydrogen bonds in anti parallel β-sheets 230. Red green colour blindness is X-linked in human. If a (A) occur in more number than van der Waals male is red green colour blind and both parents have interactions normal colour vision, which of the male’s grandparents (B) are not present at Phe residues is most likely to be red green colour blind ? (C) occur roughly perpendicular to the (A) maternal grandmother polypeptide chain direction (B) maternal grandfather (D) are about five Angstroms in length C (C) paternal grandmother B (D) paternal grandfather 238. The hydrophobic moment is (A) Zero for amphiphilic secondary structures 231. If an individual was producing dicentric (B) Negative for amphiphilic secondary chromosome you would suspect structures (A) a deletion (C) Positive for amphiphilic secondary (B) a duplication structures (C) an inversion D (D) Indeterminate for amphiphilic secondary C (D) a translocation www.easybiologyclass.comstructures 19 Please visit... www.easybiologyclass.com EBC Print less... Save paper... Save trees...

239. Generally ---- puckered sugar residues are found in (A) Decrease the Vm of the enzyme A-DNA structures. (B) Increase the Km of the enzyme for the (A) C3'-Exo substrate (B) C3'-Endo (C) Decrease both the Km and Vm of the (C) O4'-Exo B enzyme (D) C4'-Endo (D) Increase the affinity of the enzyme for B the substrate 240. Arrange the three residues, glycine, phenylalanine and proline, in the decreasing order of backbone 246. Principal components analysis (PCA) flexibility (A) Minimizes entropy to visualize the (A) Gly > Phe > Pro relationships among genes and proteins (B) Pro > Gly > Phe (B) Can be applied to test the hypothesis of (C) Phe > Pro > Gly A gene expression data from microarrays (D) It is not possible to comment (C) Can be performed by agglomerative or divisive strategies 241. The number of different isomers of a pentose sugar (D) Reduces highly dimensional data to show D (saccharide) are the relationships among genes or among (A) 4 samples (B) 8 (C) 16 B 247. The biggest problem in predicting protein coding genes (D) 32 from genome sequencing algorithm is that (A) The software is difficult to use 242. The term k in the following energy expression E = 2 (B) The false negative rate is high; many ½ k (b-bo) represents exons are missed (A) van der Waals radius (C) The false-positive rate is high; many (B) Stretching constant for bond length variation exons are falsely assigned (C) Torsional potential (D) The false-positive rate is low; many (D) Kinetic energy of an atom B exons have unknown function. C 243. Energy minimization can be employed as a 248. Artificial intelligence technique is used to predict technique for secondary structure of globular protein. Which of (A) Studying receptor binding kinetics the following methods uses this technique to (B) Optimizing molecular geometry predict secondary structures of globular proteins? (C) Converting a straight chain of a polypeptide (A) Chou and Fasman to its tertiary structure (B) GOR (D) Decreasing the size of a molecule B (C) PHD 244. The term ‘N50’ in the area of genome assembly (D) Ab-initio C refers to 249. The bacterial genome of size 2MB is being (A) The largest value of n for which 50% of the sequenced with a read size of 650 bases and basepairs in the bin is in supercontigs with coverage of 99%. What is the minimum length n basepairs or longer number of times random reads need to be (B) The smallest value of n for which 50% of generated? the basepairs in the bin is in supercontigs (A) 8 x 2MB with length n*10 basepairs or longer (B) 4 x 2MB (C) 50% of bases in the whole genome (C) 2 x 2MB A (D) 50% of correct bases in the whole genome (D) 16 x 2MB A 250. Large RNA molecules show greater backbone 245. Methotrexate, an analogue of dihydrofolate, is an conformational variation than DNA double inhibitor of dihydrofolate reductase. helices because of Methotrexate would be expected to (A) Presence of unusual modified bases (B) The occurrence of single stranded regions (C) The presence of ribose sugar (D) Presence of triplex regions www.easybiologyclass.comC 20 Please visit... www.easybiologyclass.com Please visit: www.easybiologyclass.com for:

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